#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 83 of 1
i know Z(D_5) = {e} its like a fact i can use
then u are done
to show that SLn is a subgroup of GLn is it enough to use determinants
or well
to show its closure maybe
i don't see anything wrong
oh okie nvm then
yes
no problem ^^
i was confused about the single trivial center case
they show even more than is necessary, it suffices to show AB^-1 is in SL2 which is a one line calculation det(AB^-1) = det(A)det(B^-1) = det(A)det(B)^-1 = 1*1 = 1
so like you do not need to show the identity has det 1 (bc take A =B in the above argument)
yea but you need to show that SL2 is non-empty then... :p
ah
even cuter is to use the det homomorphism from GL to R^x
and then SL is a subgroup as it is the kernel
That's just the same thing with fancier words.
its not stronger? you show it is even normal
@plucky flicker is it proper to leave the symbols in the set at the bottom?
or do i just write e, r, etc...
u mean writing phi_e or just simply e?
yea
hm suppose V is a simple kG module (for G a finite group and k any (i.e. not necessarily alg closed or char 0) field. If N is a normal subgroup of G, is it true that V is a semisimple kN-module?
This is fine for the case k=C or smth using Frobenius reciprocity and characters but not entirely sure about the general case
both of them is good
writing simply e,r etc means that you identified the elements of Inn with the given isomorphism
cool ty
for a homomorphism, essentially its like a isomorphism but not bijective?
so like could i have a homomorphism k: Z_4 -> D_4 where k(x) = r^x?
Since k(x+y) = r^(x+y) = r^x r^y = k(x)k(y)
it's better to think of an isomorphism as a special kind of homomorphism
Do you guys know some good resources to use to learn abstract algebra?
I think of homomorphism as just a map that preserves group/other algebraic structures
Artin is the common textbook recommendation
bump dis lol
Can’t you use some MacKay like argument here? I have to read these things once more
Hm the way it's phrased it seems this should have an elementary solution, hm
Like it feels like we should be able to consider the submodules generated by g.V where g represent the different cosets of N in G
but those aren't clearly simple
Oh, lmao, this is just a basic form of Clifford's theorem
Oops

Okay, for the sake of posterity lol, the method is to consider some irreducible subrep $U \le V|{N}$. For each $g \in G$, $g \cdot U$ is a sub $N$-rep of $V|N$, since e.g. $N \cdot (g \cdot U) = g \cdot (N \cdot U) \le g \cdot U$ and indeed these are simple (if $W \le g \cdot U$ then $g^{-1} \cdot W \le U$ I guess). Further, $\sum{g \in G} g \cdot U$ is a sub $G$-rep of $V$, so $\sum{g} g \cdot U = V$ by simplicity of the latter
potato
And then this implies V|_N is semisimple or apparently you can just define this sum to a direct sum
what's up guys. I have a programming math problem I would be happy for advice. Let's say I have a million vectors and I need to create 10 bases from them in case wheb the dim is 10 like the example . How would you do it in an efficient way?
I'm not convinced. Certainly when your group algebra is semisimple I can see why the sum would be direct (this is standard Clifford theory) but you are eliding the crux of the problem here
Why would the sum be direct
I'm still not convinced you can refine it to be a direct sum
Like there's the theorem that if V is a sum of simple A-modules (and like V is artinian and noetherian etc, like in the context I gave we know that A is a f.d k-alg and V is a fg A mod)
Then V is a direct sum of some subset of them
I just looked it up in a textbook
It's how you prove that an A-module M is semisimple if and only if it is a sum of simples
I'm trying to remember how the argument goes
OK it's a Zorn argument
Write V as a sum of submodules V_s for s in a set S
Oh well no zorns needed in this context but in general ye
then take maximal T subset S such that the {V_t : t in T} are independent
Let W be the sum, equivalently a direct sum by hypothesis
Then for each of the V_s, either V_s is contained in W, or it intersects W trivially
In the latter case, we can just form W + V_s
Which is direct
Contradiction
Nice
Yeah it's cool
And the same argument also can be slightly modified to show that every submodule of V is a direct summand
Rep theory is so cool
having a bit of difficulty showing that $\alpha : U(st) \to U(s) \oplus U(t)$ given by $\alpha(x) = (x \bmod s, x \bmod t)$ is an isomorphism
blanket
(s and t are relatively prime)
Hi guys a question how do I do the product of disjoint cycles I have these.
(1345)(234)
uhh so you like treat it like function composition
I have tried to make them but nothing
sigma tau of x is sigma(tau(x))
I do not reach the particular solution
sigma times tau means first perform tau, then perform sigma. you do this for each number {1,2,3,4,5}
THANKS
where are you stuck
something is not yet clicking when trying to show a function is well-defined for showing isomorphism
i want to define; phi: H -> aHa^{-1} by phi(h) = aha^{-1};
to show well-defined i tried:
suppose h,h' in H such that h = h'.
then aha^{-1} = ah'a^{-1}. Thus phi(h) = phi(h'), hence phi is well-defined.
is this correct? what am i not understanding?
unless I am missing something, this map is already clearly well-defined
if we imagine that it wasn't obvious, would my solution work?
sure? but well-definedness is only something to care about when there is a choice to be made in the input, which generally occurs in some kind of quotient structure
i guess my question is as follows; in general, i am skeptical of the step where i say that because aha^{-1} = ah'a^{-} => phi(h) = phi(h') because idk if i can say just say that aha^{-1} = phi(h) (and similarly for h') without assuming that it is already well-defined
but it's so simple that i don't see another way to show that it is well defined
if that makes sense
well you are trying to fight a ghost that is not there
so of course you are getting confused
by definition, phi(h) = aha^(-1) and phi(h') = ah'a^(-1)
you are trying to show a statement of the form A implies A
okay so i'm overthinking it
yes
okay thank you
np
with all of that said, would this be a valid proof?
i guess i would have to put the homomorphism part above the bijective part to be able to use the fact that a homomorphism is injective iff its kernel is trivial
yes, I was going to say that just now
other than that it is valid, but it would be better if the "well-defined" section wasn't there at all, it's just gonna confuse the marker if anything
(if there is a marker)
okay fair enough, i suppose my professor wants us to show any mapping we "create on the fly" is well-defined in general, and idk when it is appropriate not to do that
if that makes sense
ok if you were asked to show it is well-defined then sure
weird request but maybe makes sense in the beginning to make sure students understand what it means?
im probably doing it for no reason now that i really think about it
anyways, thank you for your help 🙂
if you are still confused
you only need to show well-definedness when there is a choice to be made in the input, this occurs in beginning abstract algebra almost always in the context of a quotient group/ring/etc
hmm, what do you mean by "choice" ?
or maybe more generally a map where the input has a coset
and the output depends on a representative of the coset
ok the canonical example is
you know the groups Z_n, integers mod n
yes
there each element is an equivalence class of integers
say, [3] = {..., 3 - n, 3, 3+ n, 3 + 2n, ...}
and you define addition on Z_n by [k] + [l] = [k + l]
so you need to check that this is well defined, because [k] = [k + n]
so I need to check [k + l] = [k + n + l]
because I defined my binary operation with respect to a representative of an equivalence class
I could have made another choice, so I need to make sure a different choice does not give me a different answer
mmm okay that makes more sense
in a map like yours, there is literally no choice to be made
so for pi: G -> G/N by pi(x) = xN, we must show something like this is well defined?
so for x = y, xN must be equal to yN
so if a map has an input that is a set and whose output depends on some element of that set, it is important to see if a different element gives a different result
no actually, you don't need to check that
because again, your input is just an element
is not a set where the output depends on an arbitrary element of the input set
so for example, if you had G/N
and you wanna define a map G/N -> G by f(gN) = gh
or something then you'd have to check well-definedness (in this case it clearly isn't, so our function is ill-defined)
okay i think that makes more sense now
so for a group G, and normal subgroups H,N, with N subset of H, the map f: G/N -> G/H by phi(xN) = xH
we would have to show that is well-defined
exactly
because what if instead of x I pick some other element in the coset, but I think you get the idea
right so we need to show that the output is invariant to the choice of representative

thank you again
🙂
thank you
thanks a lot
what exactly do they mean by the quotient of elements in L? how is the quotient necessarily different? the elements are the same, right?
bump :)
I can't prove the middle equality. Why is [E(X): F(X)] = [E:F]?
Here F is any field, and E is algebraic over F
x is a transcendental element over F
x is not in E and not in F so it's just "an extra element", therefore the degree doesn't change because you add it to both fields
Hi, guys, why the shaded part is true?
Yeah… but i did not see how i should use it😥
is that the commutator
I think it's just expanding the commutator
Look at y^nx [x^-1,y^-1] then look at 8.2 n times
Okay i see it is true for n=1
sure but I want to prove it
A generic element in $E(x)$ looks like $\frac{g(x)}{h(x)}$ with $g,h \in E[X]$, but I can't see how to write this in a way so that it can be expressed in a natural basis for $E(x)$ over $F(x)$
AoiKunie
My guess is that the same basis as for $E$ over $F$ should work
AoiKunie
Is the characteristic 0 ?
No
can we assume the degree to be finite
It is given that $[E(x):F(x)]$ is finite indirectly, as $E(x)$ is contained in a larger field $K$ with $[K:F(x)]$ finite
AoiKunie
But the point of the argument is really to show that $[E:F]$ is finite. But I am also curious about the equality
AoiKunie
I remember solving something similar to this. the equality would be true if [F(alpha) : F] and [E : F] are coprime
But x is transcendental so $[F(x):F] = \infty$
AoiKunie
If you take n elements of E that are linearly independent over F, shouldn't they also be independent over F(x) ?
what if we like
if both are finite, use the tower law as often as we can on both, then look at the minimal polynomials and argue that they will always have the same degree because x is transcendental over our base field or something?
I haven't thought the transcendental part here through though lmao
was just an idea
That looks true, because if something is zero in $F(x)$ then it must hold as a polynomial in x.
AoiKunie
hmm or wait a minute. ${...,x^{-2},x^{-1},1,x,x^2,...}$ isn't an $F$-basis of $F(x)$ over $F$
AoiKunie
so I can see that this holds over $F[x]$ but I can't see it clearly over $F(x)$
AoiKunie
if sum fi(x)/gi(x) * ei = 0
you can multiply through by all the gi(x) because they are nonzero polynomials
so without loss of generality you can assume sum fi(x) ei = 0
then by looking at the constant coefficient they must all be 0
so you can divide through by x and repeat
Yeah and if we have one nonzero coefficient somewhere we can't get 0
that shows that [E:F] <= [E(x):F(x)] I think ?
Yeah I think so (but I always mess up these inequalities)
The other direction seems hard in general
I would pick any generating family for E over F and try to show it generates E(x) over F(x)
There is a solution on https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3203527/adjoining-a-transcendental-element-to-an-extension-and-a-base-field , but they use conjugates and I'm not sure if that works out in general
To transform the denominator of a fraction into something in $F(x)$
AoiKunie
But to me it just seems like it lies in the fixed field of $E(x)$ over $F(x)$ and not necessarily in $F(x)$, unless it's a separable extension
AoiKunie
or perhaps even galois
yeah they use the norm from E(x) to F(x)
Hmm, perhaps I'll just be happy with this inequality
Still the general statement seems reasonable
But you need some way to fix your denominators
you only need to know that the denominator divides something in F(x)
Hey, are there any group theorists currently online, I need some notation help for this paper https://londmathsoc.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1112/blms/14.2.119
Mainly in this part, what is meant by beta_i = beta phi_i? My guess is that it is the image of beta but I am not completely sure
Yes that’s correct, sometimes we write f(x) as xf
Thank you!
I write xf all the time
what does it mean for cosets to form a group? like each individual coset is a group? so lets say N is a subgroup of G, then g1N, g2N each have a group property? or is it that G/N has group property?
set of cosets
it needs multiplication to be well defined
ok so the set of cosets will have a group property. yeah this makes sense as the identity cant be in all cosets at the same time
i thought this is the set of cosets
you need to guarantee that gNhN doesn't depend on your choice of h and g
the claim is that this quotient set is a group with the right operation
it will not be a group in general
To form a quotient set, you need an equivalence relation - see if you can figure out what it is in the specific case of a quotient group
u also maybe have misunderstood this point
the identity is in only 1 coset
the cosets form a partition
yes this makes sense, and the union of all cosets would result in the group
and the set of the cosets could sometimes behave like a group
ohh this is useful thanks
well technically you need to pick the right binary operation
ofc
and the usual one we pick for quotient groups will fail to be well defined if your subgroup isnt normal iirc
when we say normal subgroup we just mean that doing left coset or right coset doesnt matter right?
gN=Ng for all g in G
alright thanks!
yh u may need to prove that depending on which defn uve been given
i was given the definition gHg^-1 = H, which i think results in gH=Hg by multipying both sides by g
yes
there a lot of equivalent defns
proofwiki lists most i think
worth checking and maybe quick proving
the best one is that G/N is a group
nah best one is N is the kernel of... 
I mean, that's just factoring a map through the projection tbh
As a side note as to why we desire the subgroup to be normal is to want N as the identity element of G/N, that is (gN)(N)=gN = (N)(gN)=(Ng)(N) where they are treated as cosets. which should give you gN=Ng. Think about it a bit
so normal subgroup is the same as taking the kernel of a function (like such as from f: Z->Z4) then N=ker(f) and in this case N is the identity element of G/N.
As mentioned in this comment, a kernel is always normal
yes ker ↔ Normal subgroup
sorry was a half joke I didn't complete
"N is normal iff its the kernel of some homomorphism phi : G -> H for some group H"
Too broad to be useful usually but
I think ker -> normal is the useful direction
Hi, guys, suppose G is a group and H is a subgroup of G, then suppose {y_1,...,y_n} is a right transversal of H, then we have a right group action, Hy_i\to H_y_i x, for x\in G
But how can i translate this in another definition of group action, there is a group homomorphism G\to Sym(right cosets of H)?
Let $p\in\mathbb{P}$ and $L:=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{p})$, my task is to determine the degree of the extension $L/\mathbb{Q}$ and find all intermediate fields and which of them are normal.
Enoo58
With the minimal polynomial $X^3-p$ which is irreducible the degree should be 3. Hence there are no intermediate fields. Is this correct?
Enoo58
Right, so the point of a transversal is that H y_i x is equal to H y_j for some unique y_j in your transversal, so this maps i to a unique element of {1, ..., n}. Repeating this for all i gives you the bijection from {1,...n} to itself and this is the element of Sym(n) which x maps to
There are a few things to check here, namely that the map we've defined from {1,...,n} to itself is actually a bijection and that the corresponding map G -> Sym(n) is a group homomorphism
Thanks! i think i got it
Yes that’s true
because that's not an axiom of rings
you're trying to prove that
ok but then from a0 + a0 how can u conclude 0?
0=0+0
(Also like, i assume they expect familiarity with groups and in groups we know that if a = a + b then b = 0)
just that -a exists
well yeah that's basically what i said
its a ring axiom that you have additive inverse
ohh ok i see, and thats possible because for rings there exists a -a0 such that a0-a0 = 0
the (R, +)?
yeah
and for 2, -ab is inverse of ab for (R, +) so i can prove it by showing a(-b) is an inverse as well
under addition
idk about 3
yes
can you formalize that?
Hello
sorry to interrupt
I'm looking at the proof of the fact that A_n is non-abelian for n > 3
They only show that A_4 is not abelian, and since A_4 is a subgroup of A_n, n >=4, they conclude that A_n is only abelian for n <= 3
why is it sufficient to show the case for A_4?
so we know if a,b element of R then ab element of R since its closed under multiplication. then we also know for ab there should exist a -ab such that ab + (-ab) = 0.
now we take a(-b) => ab + a(-b) = ab + (-ab) by associativity of multiplication and this gives 0 by the (R,+)
thus -ab = a(-b) right?
because there is a subgroup of A_5 that is isomorphic to A_4, for example, the elements of A_5 that only shift around {1,2,3,4} but leave 5 untouched, same for any n > 4
so if a group contains a non-abelian subgroup, then it cannot be abelian itself?
If you had ab + a(-b) = ab + (-ab) by associativity of multiplication you wouldn't need a proof, you would already know a(-b)=-ab
Do you recall the definition of abelian group?
What you want to show is that the additive inverse of ab is equal to a times the additive inverse of b (and vice versa)
yes, a commutative group where order doesn't matter
how does that help us?
can you be more precise?
x*y = y*x for any x,y in G
so if there's a nonabelian group that means there's an xy such that xy isnt yx
so if there's a nonabelian subgroup....
a(-b) => ab + a(-b) = a(b-b) = a(0) which gives 0, we know this from (1)
distributivity cz of addition ^
right, i see now
thanks a lot
can you assume 2 and do something similar for 3
for 1 i know it was related to "0" being the identity in addition, for 2 i know it was related to "-ab" being inverse in addition, I am not sure what 3 relates to.
but i can try proving it assuming 2 holds
well using 2 i can replace a with -a then i get (-a)(-b) = -(-a)b. I know (-a)b = - ab so by replacing i get (-a)(-b) = -(-ab)
and from this well that is ab right?
(-a)(-b) isn't (-a)b
woops
no its -(-a)b
you know that -(-a)=a though
how would i prove this? do i manually prove its commutative for all elements in F and that they have an inverse?
i guess, yes
Maybe try interpreting it geometrically, Z_2 acts on shapes by flipping which might help
Or check the 4x4 table 
Only need to check 1 elem tbh
So, I've been asked to find the splitting field of x^4 + 2 over Z_3, constructed as a quotient of polynomial rings. I can factor it over Z_3 as (x+1)(x+2)(x^2+1), so Z_3(i) splits this, do I have that Z_3(i) isomorphic to Z_3[x]/(x^2+1)?
or find an isomorphism to another field
what other field?
finite fields are "canonical" lol
ah i was confusing F4 with Z4 and thought they were distinct
that's not a field
"that"
If A is a ring and p a prime ideal. How many maximal ideals does A_p have? I think we are looking for ideals of A_p such that A_p/I is a field. This is a field if we kill all the non-units of A_p so is this question trying to make us find the non-units of A_p?
Well
do you know the correspondence between ideals of A_p and of A
No I did, "well" doesn't count
wait what
you can have it 
lol i said you beat me to it
lol misread
I know the correspondence between prime ideals, but I don't recall that there was anything related to maximals?
maximal->prime
what can you say about elements of A_p \ pA_p
I guess pA_p will eventually contain all the non-units of A_p and this is the only one?
well yeah
so any proper ideal can't contain elements outside pA_p as they are all units
My question is perhaps more related on how do I determine which are the non-units of A_p?
can you show it
if yes, you already have the answer
say in Z_ab what happens to ab?
We have a bijection the prime ideals of A_p and the prime ideals of A that are subsets of p, but p is arbitary in our case so this correspondence doesn't do much I think
your p is not prime here?
I mean yes it's prime, but still A could have many prime ideals?
i think I don't understand pA_p then properly
making it "the" maximal ideal of A_p
pA_p is the ideal generated by elements a/s where a ∈ p and s ∈ A\p
Why should this contain all prime ideals of A?
You meant something else with this?
I meant all ideals of A_p lie in pA_p
try to see why elements outside pA_p are units in A_p
So units in A_p are elements a/b where a is in A and b in p such that there exists c/d in A_p for which a/b * c/d = ac/bd = 1
Do we get something on the denominator as both b and d are in p?
so elements outside pA_p are r/s where r,s ∈ A\p which by definition are units in A_p so you get r/s is unit
can our sequence of products be less than size n, for example say n=5, then will the number say x= (a_1)(a_2) and or (a_1)(a_2)(a_3) be in our set?
or does it strictly have to be a string of products of size n?
in other words is i=n or $i\le n$
jayzsparrow
Perfect thanks 🙂
the ring Z_p with addition and multiplication mod p is an integral domain since Z_p has no zero-divisors. This is because p is relatively prime with every natural number less than it right?
How are you defining Zp
integers mod p
No I mean
The way you say it implies you are thinking of it as like {0,1,...,p-1} with some operation right
Or are you doing it as a quotient ring
the former i think
Well this is because if ab = 0 mod p, then p|ab and what can you conclude
just use euclids lemma
yh
Eh
non unit and p | ab => p | a or p | b
Usually/often primes are defined in school and stuff as basically (positive) irreducibles in Z

i wondered that too when i proved it because it seemed like the definition of a prime
and then Euclid's lemma shows that this coincides with the notion of prime for a ring (up to sign)
lol
So like I was taught in highschool that a positive integer p is prime if the only (positive) integers dividing it are 1 and p
and i think that is the normal definition of primes people would give before uni right
idk we aren't taught what a prime number is here in high school
i was taught a natural number was prime if it’s only divisors are one and itself
we don't do any number theory here
we only do like
euclidean geometry
and right now we're doing derivatives
aren't irreducible elements prime elements
or was that only in ufds
ah wait nvm
in ufds
Yeah you're right
assuming x is non-zero like
x is prime iff (x) is a prime ideal, and x is irreducible iff (x) is maximal among all proper principal ideas
i think
isn't the latter only the case in pids
a ufd is a pid iff every nonzero prime ideal is maximal
in ufds prime iff irreducible
like
Well what I have said implies that
Ye
ok stuck on some noncomm alg ting
Let $V$ be a semisimple $A$-module of the form $V = \bigoplus_{i \in I} V_i$ where the $V_i$ are \underline{pairwise non-isomorphic} simple $A$-modules. is it true that any submodule is of the form $\bigoplus_{j \in J} V_j$ for some $J \subset I$? and any hints on how to prove that
potato
Wait I think I had a proof lol
fancy latex
I don't know that much module theory but these are just my 2 cents on it: ||it can't be something smaller than a Vi because they are simple. if it contains 1 non zero element of a Vi then it contains the entire Vi because the smallest cyclic submodule is the Vi itself||
idk if you want that spoilered
I mean I already had that
But it isn't quite enough because of the existence of elements like (a,b,c) or whatever
hm
but if you look at the columns individually then they must at least contain the submodules generated by each of the nonzero elements in that column
but those are just the entire Vi
Again sure but not sure how that is enough
Like it must rely on the non-isomorphic bit
Because e.g. { (a,a) : a in C } is a sub C-module of C^2
Oh lol okay I've got it
nice
So
oh lol so it's the same as what I already had lol was staring at me in the face ugh
let $W \le V$ be a submodule. It's also semisimple (standard fact). Suppose $S \le W$ is a (non-zero) simple submodule and consider the projections $S \to V_i$ for each $i$. Now there must be some $a$ such that the map $S \to V_a$ is non-zero (since $S \ne 0$) and thus this map is an isomorphism. So there must be exactly one such $a$, since otherwise we'd wind up with an isomorphism $V_a \simeq V_b$ for $a \ne b$, a contradiction. This means that $S = V_a$.
potato
so like, W is a direct sum of some of the V_a
Yeah i mean so like
aaaaactually I didn't know of semisimple and simple modules before this conversation at all 
The easiest way afaik is that a module is semisimple if and only if it is a sum (not necessarily direct one!) of simple modules
then if W is a submodule of V, consider U: = sum of all the simple submodules of W
Then you can show U = W
So actually that is related to the above proof i gave lol
how is it possible that 0 + a1x + 0x^2 is a polynomial if the ai are all distinct?
for example that would imply that a0 = a3
and they're not all distinct
moreover how does this remedy there being more than one formal sum representing the same polynomial
how are they distinct
1+2x = 1+2x+0x^2 = 1+2x+0x^2 + 0x^3
i thought by definition a1, a2, a3, .... an in a ring are distinct
since it's a set
there can't be repeating elements
why should they be distinct
it's like
a_0 = 2
a_1 = 2
a_2 = 3
where our ring is Z
why should we not be able to pick 2 twice
no set
i thought by definition a ring is a set with the operations of multiplication and addition and some axioms
But the polynomial isn't an element of the original ring anyway
Z[x] 
it is, and there's no reason why 2+2x+3x^2 (the example illuminator gave) can't be an element of that set
oh wait i'm actually stupid
i was looking at the ai counting up
and not the x^i
thanks!
(y x)(y x) : y->x->y => (y x)^2 = ()
If $G$ is a finite $p$-group of order $p^k$, does $G$ always have an element of order $p^{k-1}$?
(𒀭)
yes.
it's a very difficult one
wait no, I think I have the existence of a subgroup of order p^k-1 sorry, idk if it's cyclic
take NxNxN...N where N is Z_p
S_6 has a subgroup of order 16 and nothing of order 8
not a p-group
wdym
How do you learn to demonstrate group theory?
No, but it has a subgroup of order p^(k-1)
I have a question about tensors
Spamakin🎷
The proof began as follows
the tensor product is generated as an abelian group by the set of all simple tensors. This means that every tensor is a finite sum of simple tensors
ah ok
$\alpha : U(st) \to U(s) \oplus U(t)$ given by $\alpha(x) = (x \bmod s, x \bmod t)$ where $\gcd(s, t) = 1$
blanket
could someone help me prove that alpha is a surjection?
im having a huge amount of trouble for it
where do normal operators show up in math?
I think I have never seen an actual application of the spectral theorems
guess they are important in Hilbert spacy things
Is it true that $\left( \mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z} \right)/\left( \mathbb{Z}/p^{n-1}\mathbb{Z} \right) \cong \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$?
ImHackingXD
For that even to make sense you need to have in mind a particular way to view Z/p^(n-1)Z as a subgroup o Z/p^nZ.
That embedding is what will be doing the heavy lifting.
for a hint on the embedding, try figuring out how Z/2Z sits most naturally inside of Z/2^2Z, same for Z/3Z inside of Z/3^2Z and try to generalize.
Can I get a rough outline for how to prove the existence of an inverse for G, composed of the set of all ordered pairs (a,b) where a,b are real, b is non-zero, under the operation (a,b)+(A,B) = (a+bA, bB) ?
I was thinking of trying to solve for (a+bA, bB) = (0,1) (the identity), but I need to solve bB = 1 which just suggests B (= b^-1) = b ?
yes, then A = -a/b
and i think you meant B = b^-1 = 1/b
then just check that (a,b) + (-a/b, 1/b) = (0, 1) = (-a/b, 1/b) + (a,b)
Ok, thanks
i had this question on my exam that asked me to prove h^2=h iff h is a subgroup where is a finite set.
the argument i constructed used the fact that h is finite
so that h^2=h implies that every element must have an inverse and hence by subgroup test
h is a subgroup
so i am wondering is there a counterexample for which h^2=2
for an infinite subset h
which is not a subgroup?
sorry what? question doesn't make sense
I think they meant to say a finite (non-empty) subset H is a subgroup iff HH=H
I do not follow the argument though
yeah this
a finite (non-empty) subset H is a subgroup iff HH=H
where should there be an identity in H?
cuz since
h^2=h then
all powers of an element should be in it
g g^2 g^3 //
this must repeat
I think the finite order stipulation helps with that
hence g inverse exists
so gginverse=e
exists
in h
but what if H were infinite?
you need finiteness here... hmm
This would not be true. Think in terms of groups where you do have elements of infinite order.
A simple example would be ||H=Z^+ in (Z,+). Clearly closed under addition, which implies HH=H, but not a subgroup.||
yeah not true for infinitee
Think
it's true if you assume that every element has finite order tho
All infinite groups are isomorphic to Z 😌
yeah true
any example?
like where this fails but the other doesn't
so i wanna construct an infinite set H but with every element having a finite order
I mean you can just take Z/2 x Z/2 x... countably many times and any infinite subgroup will do
Fr
Tarski monster
In the area of modern algebra known as group theory, a Tarski monster group, named for Alfred Tarski, is an infinite group G, such that every proper subgroup H of G, other than the identity subgroup, is a cyclic group of order a fixed prime number p. A Tarski monster group is necessarily simple. It was shown by Alexander Yu. Olshanskii in 1979 t...
Right so I'm reading a textbook on ring theory and there's an exercise which asks to prove the universal ring property for homomorphisms on commutative polynomial rings with unity.
It then asks if the theorem is true for rings without unity but I couldn't find anywhere in the original proof that makes use of unity?
And most sources on the internet talk about rings with unity so I feel like I'm getting something wrong.
what is the precise statement that you have to prove?
Since if we have a ring homomorphism $\phi: R\rightarrow S$, and extended ring homomorphism $\psi: R[X]\rightarrow S$ with $\psi(X) = a\in S$ then necessarily $\psi(\sum c_i X^i)= \sum \phi(c_i)a^i$.
that follows from definition of homomorphism
exactly
It's the last sentence that's throwing me off
Also I'm not sure where commutativity is playing a role
Philka
tbh i wouldn't worry much, unless you're actually working in noncommutative geometry or something it's best to assume your rings have a unit, are commutative and are noetherian.
I guess. But it is a bit frustrating to not know what the author is hinting at
I would imagine a polynomial ring without unit might behave funny, since you can't have a monic polynomial.
That might be true but in this context it just doesn't show up at all
I would need to check how they define R[x] to know if x is in it or not
yeah, probably you can't have phi of x then
but phi(x) is meaningless?
because x isnt in R[x]
but like, you usually wouldn't consider polynomials over a ring without unity. I've used noncommutative rings in lie algebra, but don't think we ever used polynomials, just like adjoint matrices.
really feels like the author is being goofy for no reason imo
Isn't R[x] always defined up to isomorphism as a set of finite sequences with the appropriate maps?
how would x not be in R[x]
Because R[x] is polynomials with coefficients in R
And 1 isn't in R
So 1x isn't either.
❗
You only have rx for r in R
That is probably the crux of it then
Seems to be. But again, I think the author is being a silly goose.
Because if you take 2Z[X] for example you wouldn't have X in it
but if you define psi(x)=a then it neccesarily contains x...
I think you get it now.
okay...ill-defined problem
Looks like it was trying to be clever but ended up confusing.
It comes down to how you define things then.
I guess the underlying assumption is X is in R[X] but you can't assume 1 is
I think if you allow all that it would still work
This isn't something people tend to worry about, I can't think of any useful/interesting examples.
Well it's always better to make a universal property more universier I reckon
Someone knows the guy, I think I've seen him around here.
why?
He handles the same book that I have, and I wanted to ask him something.

I don't understand why the l-adic cyclotomic character is considered a galois representation. it's G_Q surj Z_l^times, and Z_l^times isn't a field. the author of what I'm reading addresses this issue by saying that we can view Z_l^times inside Q_l^times (i.e. GL1(Q_l)). how does this resolve the issue though?
Hi, guys, suppose V is a left vector space over a division ring, then why V* is a right vector space?
is V* the dual space?
Yes

Okay so consider how you can put a multiplication on V*
||well (f•r)(x)=f(r•x)||
You have a map f: V -> R for R the division ring
Lol
I was gonna give hints towards it
But ye
uwu?
Oh, I see! thanks!
Thanks too
hi det
hi illu 
hi det
hewwo 
Are there any good abstract algebra problem books? Googling shows Herstein but I don't think it's a problem book per se
fulton-harris: representation theory has some good exercises 
abstract algebra is a broad description
what are you looking for specifically
basic stuff like group theory, rings, modules, and galois theory
Things usually covered in AA first course
From first practice sheet of a Intro to Abstract algebra class:
Show that {3,9,15,21} with x*y:= xy mod 24 is a group.
Like is doing a multiplication table by hand and observing + showing that multiplication in z/nz is associative enough or is there some catch/something im missing?
It might be good to explicitly note what the inverses of each element are, what the identity is
that's still too broad
like even just "rings and modules" is too broad
do you mean introductory exercises? or comm alg? or xy? or xz?
Here's the syllabus
does it not cover solvable groups lol?
here are some ring theory exercises if you want
this is for a competitive exam so the syllabus is slightly reduced
Z_n here means Z/nZ and not the n adic integers
doing galois theory without knowing solvable groups removes all of the fun imo
like you can't even proof why there's no formula in radicals for the roots of a general quintic or higher then
competitive exams are opposite of fun so it matches the vibe I guess
Thanks!
but yeah you can just pick up any algebra textbook (I recommend artin) and do the exercises in it
Here are a bunch of group theory exercises
yeah check the pins for group theory exercises
I did the first few chapters of Artin but then I felt that the exercises were either easy or much above my level
eg?
For example M.14 which asks us to prove that SL2(Z) is completely generated by only 2 matrices
I was stuck there for quite long, then I took few matrices and tried to write them using only E and E'
After a bit of trial and error I finally figured the algorithm but writing it properly again took quite some time
see, you were still able to figure it out
I mean yeaah but like it takes almost a day, I barely have 2 months for the exam
um what
what?
2 months to learn all of this?
yeaah, I'm almost done with group theory so the situation isn't that bleak

2 months is a lot of time
not if it's your first time dealing with those topics
not when I also have to revise analysis also
Even then
Fair
Most importantly, there's no point in talking about if I have enough time or not
I'll try to do my best as much as I can
what kind of competition is this btw
Thanks tubu
NET, qualifying this allows you to do a PhD
I mean it might be useful to still balance your time on the materials and not like say dump all your time on one topic in algebra lol
Dixon problems in group theory. Richard Borcherds acually recommended it. I haven't worked through it, but I plan on doing so when I do more group theory again
oh I thought you meant like a real math competition lmao
like those in high school
Dixon problems in gt are graduate level though
still abstract algebra
I mean, it is a national level exam so it's fair to call it a competition
Not only I need to qualify it but I have do so with good grades to get good rank to get good uni
anyway
Thanks for the help everyone 
Is this a typo in Fundamentals of Semigroup Theory by John Howie? I believe it should read $K_{a} = { a^{m}, a^{m+1}, \ldots ,a^{m+r-1} }$
TwoStickmen
Yes
Cool cool, just had to make sure I wasn't going crazy lol
can i get a hint for a?
this was a stupid question
it's just the codomain being GL1(Q_l) but the image is just Z_l^times
t/t
lmao i just thought of that
gg
wait but how would you show that it's the unity
you can't do r/t multiplied by t/t and just cancel out the ts right
you can
why are we allowed to do that tho
becasue by definition (r, t) and (rt, tt) are equivalent
potato 

We love a good commutativity
can i have hint for 4.ii please :) ive already shown that φ is an automorphism; my “educated guess” is that the minimal polynomial of ε in Q is x^n-1; if thats right, not sure how to apply eisenteins
Are you familiar with the cyclotomic polynomials?
havent heard the term before
Well, take a look, but for prime p phi_p(x) is eisenstein I believe
x^p-1 is a multiple of phi_p(x) is your hint
But x^p-1 isn’t irreducible
x^n - 1 isn't irreducible
1 is a root
I should be clear, the cyclotomic polynomials aren’t themselves Eisenstein but you should check if f(phi) is
what is an eisenstein polynomial lol
by eisenstein i assume theyre talking about a polynomial which satisfied eisenstein’s criterion?
wdym f(phi)?
if f is your minimal polynomial then you should look at f(x + 1)
yeah apply phi to your minimal polynomial
kk
you still need to make an educated guess on the minimal polynomial though lol
yeah
it's pretty simple
your minimal polynomial divides x^n - 1
obviously
but x^n - 1 isn't irreducible because it has 1 as a root
what happens if you divide 1 out?
something like (x-1)(x^{n-1} something something)?
ah wait
seems like i can keep factoring x-1 out
x^(n-1) + x^(n-2) + … + x + 1?
n is prime, so this is n-th cyclotomic polynomil
polonomial*
yes
Ding ding ding, now check that it’s irreducible and that epsilon is actually a root
And I think check that Q(e) splits it
I suppose epsilon is a root can be checked via induction on [x^(n-1) + x^(n-2) + ... + x + 1]/[x-epsilon]
Well, you already know epsilon is a root
epsilon is a root because it's a root of x^n - 1 and you only divided 1 out
Yes
The question I suppose is how do you know there aren’t other roots not in Q(eps)
@formal ermine do you have something productive to add?
your "questions" make no sense
I’m sorry to hear that you feel that way
If he wants to he can ask for clarification
is there any more efficient way to do reduce a polynomial over some field
or am i just supposed to exhaust all the possibilities?
maybe the rational root theorem?
what’s the traditional way to go about it? just use intuition and guess and check?
bc like with a quadratic it’s rather easy since we know that if it’s reducible, it’s going to be two linear factors, but for anything with a degree bigger than 2 we have more cases to consider right
for 3 it also has a linear term
yes, but it could have three of them, or one and an irreducible quadratic?
yea
so that’s a lot of cases to check. that’s why i’m not sure if this is the typical way you’d go about trying to reduce a polynomial, or if there’s special things to look for
I personally would use a cas lmao
see that’s what i was thinking lol
i could code it in python pretty easily
so i suppose we’re more concerned with if something is reducible, not what it reduces to?
usually, yes
another question, if i have a polynomial f(x) of degree 2 or 3 in some field Z_p, i know that it is reducible iff f(a)=0 for some a in Z_p, but that also implies that (x+a) is a factor in the reduced polynomial right
that’s where i got the intuition for it
Fun things are eevee

Pokemon is darwinian propaganda

i thought it was x+a bc the example i did in Z_5 gave me f(2)=f(3)=0, and i reduced to (x+2)(x+3), but since we can shift the remainders of division modulo 5 i got it backwards. idk if that makes sense or not
lol
does this last step make sense? idk if i’m allowed to do this or not
Yes
Am I correct that GF(p^n) is isomorphic to (Z_p)^n
nu
well additively yea
but if you mean product of rings, then the right thing isn't even a field
Hm
Nor is it isomorphic to Z/p^nZ in general
What do the elements of GF(p^n) look like?
So, the overarching question is this
I know that E cap F always contains 0 and 1
I'm thinking maybe like, min(e,f) plays a role
Well, I have no clue how to count them really
So is GF(p) isomorphic to Z_p?
So what the heck is up with p^n
you can think of F_p^n as the splitting field of x^p^n - x over Z/pZ
there's this one nice proposition that a finite field of order p^n contains a subfield of order p^m for each m | n (and no other subfields)
proof: exercise.
the intersection of E and F follows immediately from that
Proof: gal theory lol
frobenius endomorphism my beloved
I think I'd say I have 0 clue what's really going on here
the intersection of two fields is a subfield of both
Fröb
now apply this
So it's the GCD(e,f)
yes
Ok gotcha that was my first guess but I had my isomorphism wrong
qed
frobenius
i fucking love that name
@frigid lark
I thought it was the latter but am now being gaslit
i just learned it the other day, im so happy i get to unironically say the word frobenius
I know understand why some people are pedantic about Z/pZ vs Zp
potato getting cooked 
Zp has like 3 potential meanings
Wait, so it does help?!
what is the other one
cyclic, p adic, __?
Ig localisation of Z at the prime p lol
But then ud use like
only gave it a quick look once
potato what's your favorite math field
probably potato
Z/57Z
Algebraic topology is what I know the most about
But I am more interested in algebra the more I do
Like rep theory
So I'm not entirely sure what I'll end up doing
Hbu
alg topology has been fun this semester
Nice
probably bc my prof does very handwavey proofs, but the material itself is also very fun
homology confus me rn tho
idk haven't tried out a lot so far
Would it be right to say that E cap F is the largest subfield contained within both?
Chain complexes took me a while to get jntuition for
You know cohomology, so just flip the arrows
I've really been enjoying the exposition about galois reps that I am reading right now so far
what are you reading btw
Sexy
it's a continuous representation of the absolute galois group of Q or a subgroup
OK these are cool
Anyone know about Penrose calculus
lol i thought it was something different
continuous rep*
fuck
how do you spell continuous again
WAIT
I SPELT IT RIGHT THE FIRST TRY
LETS GO
like I think I once read something about Gal reps in the fly and the author was mixing it with modular forms and my brain melted probably
Lol
continuoouououus
yeah it's like
let me get my diagram
Ouwuo
nice
Stetig
me too
but it has spent too much time oon elementary stuff that feels like trivia
STETIG DIFFERENZIERBAR
Lol
so now im behind cuz i got bored 
REPRÄSENTATIONSTHEORIE DER ABSOLUTEN GALOIS GRUPPE VON DEN RATIONALEN ZAHLEN
Stetig differenzierbare Abildungen von meinem Gehirn auf sich selbst
so real
isn't the connection between galois reps and automorphic forms conjectural
Lol
Braucht mehr Genitiv
mmh I think so
like I think that's literally the langlands program or something
but idk about that
@prisma ibex ?

Repräsentationstheorie der absoluten galois gruppe der rationalen Zahlen
lol
repräsentationen der absoluten galois gruppe des körpers der rationalen funktionen der ganzen zahlen
In general yes but known in some cases


