#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 82 of 1
me like the blue color tho 
Det is evolving?
but glaceon or vaporeon is blue
me too 
me no blue anymore 
det still has blue dot 

which direction are you having trouble with
mm the book's haphazardly stated that it uses induction
i think i can get the direction of where if the product is cyclic, then they're all relatively prime
but im not sure where induction really comes into play here
theyre probably inducting on n
mm i see
i wasn't sure if i was inducting on i and j or just n

ah wait
i get it now
i think'
does anyone know a text, where the relation between Lie algebra cohomology and Lie group cohomology IN LOW dimensions is discussed?
it is important for me in low dimension,because there the corresponding cohomology groups can be easily defined via cocycles and hands-on maps,etc, not ext/tor functors and bar resolutions, which are too abstract for me right now
Homeomorphism
lol
yeah but like
Gal(L/K) is a topo group
Sure
Oh okay I misread lol like
and its inverse is also just a permutation
Yes that is true
so its also continuous
lol
just wanting to make sure I understand this notation
when we say R_p or R_l or whatever we mean the p or l adics over that ring?
Can you give more context? I haven't heard of p-adics over an arbitrary ring
It could be localization at a prime ideal
try integrating the channels instead
Why do i have such a hideous color
im not sure what i should do in part b. should i understand it as "group action 3Z -> Z with action given by addition thus (n, 3m) = n+3m so then it only has 1 orbit? or is it "group action Z->3Z (which i think makes more sense since 3z is a subgroup of Z?"? but then i dont know how to find the orbits
It says 3Z acts on Z
But also like the notation "group action 3Z -> Z" is uh smth I would avoid
Stay muted
in that case id have (n, 3m) = n + 3m as the action therefore it would only have 1 orbit right? I could say orbit us 0
wait no orbit 0 would give {0, 3, 6, ...} so i think the orbits would be 0, 1, 2?
orbit is like coset
I have an action G x X -> X and my orbits are the elements in X that would give unique sets of G using a group action? so for example 3Z -> Z6 with group action (3n, m) = (3n+m)mod 6. Z6 being {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} orbits 0 and 3 gives same set, orbits 1, 4 give same thing, and orbits 5, 2 give same set
so then i can say the orbits are 0, 1, 5 in the example above
Orbits are sets, you can say those are orbit representatives though
why everybody muted
The orbits themselves would be {0, 3}, {1, 4}, {2, 5}
ohhh i see. ok then for the exercise I sent the orbits would be {3k}, {3k-1}, {3k-2} ?
Let me have a look
The orbits would be 3Z, 3Z+1 and 3Z+2.
oh lmao it's the "punishment" ok
Yeah should have done addition there not subtraction. and the cosets are 0+H, 1+H, 2+H?
yeah should have addition not subtraction
No your notation was just wrong
Yes
But those are the cosets
how to do backflip
Spin real fast like
ok so then i have my cosets same as my orbits since H = 3Z. in part (c) they just want me to say my cosets and orbits are equal to n given that H = nZ? and im not sure about (d)
are cosets and orbits always the same? or its just in this case?
No, they want you to do parts a and b for H = nZ instead of just H = 3Z
Yes for (c) and for (d) they want you to show that if H is a subgroup of (G,+) then the action defined by the + operation holds the properties we saw previously (equality in cosets and orbits)
No. Consider the action of D_8 on the corners of a square. How can D_8 form cosets of the corners of a square when the corners aren’t even a group
In a very specific group action they are the same though
Same with conjugacy classes - they’re the orbits of a group acting on itself by conjugation
I'd like to correct this
if you have a group action GxX -> X and define an equivalence relation on X by x ~ y if and only if x and y are in the same orbit then the classes in X/~ are obviously the orbits
which is sort of analogous to cosets
so they're not completely distinct ideas
i see, thanks. so I think i was able to do (c) but for (d) im not sure how to generalize it.
because what I get in (C) is nZ, nZ+1, nZ+2, ..., nZ+(n-1)
i dont see how it relates to (d) since G can be any group
yes that's right
so for a general group G and subgroup H what do you think the appropriate choice for the group action HxG -> G would be?
have a guess if you don't know
addition should be my group action
yeah it was addition when you were in Z, but what does it mean to do h+g in an arbitrary group?
binary operation based on the groups operation?
but wouldnt this imply that any binary operation would result in cosets = orbits as long as H is a subgroup of G?
no
I could as easily define (h, g) = h^{-1}gh
it's just that specific action
although out of the 4 I'm thinking of rn 2 do just produce the left/right cosets
so if you round up then yes they all do 
but I still dont see the relation of this with (c). so in that case C would be g^n instead of gn? because the current thing in C is addition specific
you probably can't see a relation of that to (c) because it's a completely different action that's irrelevant to the question
I only provided it as an example of an action HxG -> G that doesn't give cosets as orbits
so is everything they want us to do is instead of giving the general addition, set (h, g) to hg (which implies all binary operations) and thats it?
suppose we have a galois extension F|K and two intermediate fields L1, L2. Is it possible to express Gal(F | L1L2) in terms of Gal(F | L1) and Gal(F | L2) ?
Intersection
This is clear from the Galois correspondence or because a map F -> F fixes L1L2 (pointwise) if and only if it fixes L1 and L2
if 4 is fixed then is cardinality of G = cardinality of H?
or they mean element 4 is fixed on H which is why its S3?
Yeah. It is the elements of S_4 which don't move 4 around. I.e. "fix 4"
alright i see. So I know that the number of left cosets is going to be 4 (because 4!/3! = 4) but is there a quick way i can find these cosets?
yes
my subset S3 = {e, (1 2), (1 3), (2, 3), (1 2 3), (1 3 2)} dont wanna do all elements of G not in S3 to find the cosets
can you find three elements not in H that all give different cosets?
think more abstractly, not concretely
remember how we got H
i think (1 4), (2 4), (3 4) would give different things?
That sounds correct. Can you justify that?
im just thinking of the square with 4 vertices and performing the rotations above would give me something else. Not sure if this is the correct intuition.
What is the stabilizer subgroup of each?
performing a rotation 4 times
or 2 reflections
What in S_4 is the stabilizer of each coset of H
the identity
dont think its right though because (3 4) (1 2 3 4) gives (1 2 4) but so does (1 4)(1 2)
how did you get (1234)?
(1234) along with any transposition will generate all of S_4 if I'm not mistaken
(1234) and (13) only generate D_8.
yeah that only works if your permutation order (or whatever it's called) is prime
a p cycle and a transposition generate S_p
oh true rip. at any rate, he shouldn't get (1234) in a coset of S_3
It has to be in some coset.
More concretely, it is definitely in the coset (1234) S_3.
You're probably thinking of (1234) not being in any conjugate of S_3.
someone should rename this channel to "how do i solve for x"
That's #prealg-and-algebra.
"find x"
"it's right there"
Oh, I see what you meant to say: (34)(1234) is not in the coset (34)S_3, because (1234) is not in S_3.
A better intuition would be: All permutations σ in the coset (4 a) S_3 satisfy σ(4)=a, and onversely the coset contains every permutation with that property.
So you can identify which coset a permutation σ is in just by looking at σ(4).
suppose we have a galois extension $F|K$ and two intermediate fields L1, L2. Is it possible to express Gal($F | L_1 \cap L_2$) in terms of Gal($F | L_1$) and Gal($F | L_2$) ?
matcool473
this right 
idk myself, might need normality on some of those to make it work
very familiar diagram
Making a guess: I think the latter 2 are just subgroups (maybe normal), and only when the intersection = K do you have a product
isn't it like the subgroup generated by the product of gal f/l1 and gal f/l2 or something
yeah pretty sure it is
i think its the smallest group that inclused Gal(F|L1) and Gal(F|L2)
is there a specific name for such conctruction between two groups?
lmao the channel names threw me off so bad 
the group generated by their product lol
the proof shouldn't be too involved (maybe 1-2 lines)
it's a fun little exercise
yes
woops ur right. ok (1 4) (2 4) (3 4) are cosets and now we would need to find 1 more coset. actually we dont as thats just the identity.
what do you think the stabilizers are
stabilizer so if i do (1 4)*x id need to get (1 4) back. x should be the identity?
use @tribal moss 's comment to help you think about this
incorrect, you do not need (14) back, you just need that (14)x is in (14)H
then isnt the stabilizer for each coset anything in H?
H only stabilizes H
then for the coset (1 4)H i can have (2 3) as a stabilizer? or anything not involving 1 and 4? i am not sure honestly.
actually, wouldn't the identity in S4 work? (1)*(1 4)H would give back (1 4)H
i dont see why this is incorrect
I think you need to review the definition of stabilizer?
stab(H) = {g element of G: g*H = H} right?
what is stab(xH)?
element of G such that g*xH = xH
so what is stabilizer of H?
in our example
and what is stabilizer (14)H, in our example?
remember, stab(H) is a subgroup
as is stab (xH)
also recall, |stab(H)| = |G|/|orbit(H)|
so then the subgroup consists of 6 elements?
but im not sure how to come up with them
stabilizer of H is H?
and of xH it would be xH
if i do (1 2)*(1 2) (being elements of g and H) id get (1 2) and if i do (23)(12) id get (1 3) which is also in H. I think this would work for all cases
would anyone mind reading through this and telling me if i went astray?
that is not correct. xH isn't a subgroup.
I think well defined is wrong here shook
Cuz it doesn’t depend on H cap K is trivial
Should be that h h’^{-1} is in both H and K so is the identity and similar for the k’s
Ah! It’s because you were trying to show that if the inputs are equal then the outputs are equal, but started with the outputs being equal
so i have to show that g = g' => p(g) = p(g') yes?
yes
Also I think your injective proof uses circular reasoning too
Phi(g) = e implies g = e seems sketch
well it's using the fact that ker(phi) is trivial implies injective
at least that was my aim
you have to use it explicitly.
I think it’s cleaner to just do it directly
what do you mean?
so let g,g' in G s.t phi(g) = phi(g') and show that this implies g = g'
Yes
okay, thank you for your help y'all
Actually your proof is right but needs one more step
You should decompose g = hk (which exists clearly) then you get
phi(g) = (h,k) = (e,e)
Then you can use that (a,b) = (c,d) iff a = c and b = d
Technically you did this but I think it would help to state it explicitly
this is in reference to the injective part?
Yes
but you first need well-defined
Homomorphism looks great
okay so im still a little unsure as to what i still need to show regarding injectivity
Injective is phi(a) = phi(b) implies a = b
Equivalently for groups that given a in ker(phi) a = e
You need the implication going in the right way
so i should not use the phi(g) = e argument?
okay fair
as for the well-defined part:
let g,g' in G such that g = g'.
then g = hk and g'=h'k' for some h,h' in H, k,k' in K
so g = g' => hk = h'k' => (h,k) = (h',k')
thus phi(g) = phi(g'), hence phi is well defined
is this sufficient?
noooo my abelian grapes
No because in the second implication you are assuming it’s well defined
To get that implication you need to show that h=h’ and k=k’
Pretty much if you ever haven’t used a given something is probably wrong ( in this case, you didn’t use that H cap K is trivial)
okay so i must somehow use H cap K is trivial to show h = h' and k = k'
let me try that
Yes
ah okay how about this:
let g,g' in G such that g = g'
then g = hk and g' = h'k' for some h,h' in H, k,k' in K
then hk = h'k' => k(k')^{-1} = h^{-1}h'
because H cap K is trivial, k(k')^{-1} = h^{-1}h' => h^{-1}h' = e and k(k')^{-1} = e
thus h = h' and k = k', so (h,k) = (h',k'), thus phi(g) = phi(g')
i hit enter prematurely lol
yep that's what i had in mind
Thats true. the stabilizer of xH should still be H?
it needs to be a subgroup of 6 elements. I can not think of somthing else that could work
lol
muted potat
nvm the inverse can work. so (1 4)H(4 1)
II am trying to prove this. Can someone help me see why the second square commutes?
this is my trial. I proved that first square commutes
I believe there is a theorem which states that the stabilizers in an orbit are all cojugate
how does y = ax²+bx+c work?
memeke
you mod k[x, y] by (x^3, y^2)
G_3
ϕ_3 is an isomorphism
but i don't see how this helps
I don't know what you still need to prove?
yes,but how does this help?
I need to prove that the square commutes
this means $\phi_3 \circ f_2= \pi \circ \phi_2$
that projection->iso is same as iso-> projection?
check that $G_2\rightarrow[f_3] G_3 \rightarrow{\phi_3} G_2/f_1(G_1)$
bruh
khaki ryu
anyway you can show ϕ3 ∘f3= π by definition
what si f_3?
One way to think of it is: We have concluded that the coset (14)S3 consists of exactly those permutations that send 4 to 1. What are the elements g such that if h(4)=1 then gh(4) is also 1?
what kind of map is f_2 (remember the sequence is exact)
f_2 is surjective.
this is the unviersal property of the quotients
yeah makes sense
i see now
thanks 
3x^2+6x-9
how do I factor this quickly?
Divide by 3
x²+2x-3 = (x+p)(x+q) = x² + (p+q)c + pq
=> pq = -3, p+q = 2
Therefore p=-1, q=3 is a solution so
3x²+6x-9 = 3(x-1)(x+3)
I have trouble understanding this proof. Q^# denotes the set of all nonidentity elements of Q.
Since we choose Q as the smallest counterexample, then for all 1=/=g in Q we have g is not in <A, A^g>.
What I don't understand is why does that mean that [[g,A],A] = 1
Can someone give me an idea? Since g is not in <A, A^g> then g is not contained in [g,A] for all g=/=1 but I don't see how to go on from here
not entirely sure how the notation here is being used
A^g, <A,A^g>, [g, A]
I am going through Aluffi and there's a problem I'd skipped which I'm trying to have a 2nd go at rn:
Proposition:
There exists a surjective homomorphism $\sigma: \bZ * \bZ \to C_2 * C_3$ where coproducts are considered in Grp.
I avoid denoting many (intermediate) hmorphisms by symbols because otherwise I'd quickly run out of symbols to use.
It is fairly trivial to construct a homomorphism, but I'm having some trouble trying to show that it's surjective. My approach has been to consider homomorphisms $\varphi: \bZ \to C_2 * C_3$ given in the obvious way by composing a (surjective) homomorphism $\bZ \to C_2$ with the (injective) inclusion map $i: C_2 \to C_2 * C_3$, and similarly for $C_3$. Then by applying the universal property on $\bZ * \bZ$, the existence of a homomorphism $\sigma: \bZ * \bZ \to C_2 * C_3$ (unique given the chosen maps) is immediate. I suspect this is the correct homomorphism, but I'm struggling to show that it is surjective. It doesn't seem like I can actually conclude anything about the (surjectivity or injectivity) of the maps $\varphi: \bZ \to C_2 * C_3$, even though they seem to be the most natural choice. Am I on the right track? Any hints?
humefanboy
note that Z →C2 and Z → C3 are surjective, can you use that somehow
yeah but I'm composing them with injective inclusion maps
I'm not immediately using Z to C2 or Z to C3, I'm using Z to C2 * C3, it doesn't seem like I can say much about that
you can try to use explicit definition of G*H
I have not covered that yet
this is supposed to be before the explicit definition which I believe is covered in chapter 8
I'm still at chapter 3
I see
one more thing you can try showing is it's epi (in categorical sense)
Say you have f,g: C2*C3 → X then this will give you 2 maps from Z to X through C2 and C3 and from which you can claim f=g showing epi
in Grp epi=> surjective
try to see if you can fill the details
@warped fulcrum
epi is equivalent to surj hmorphism in Grp right?
yes
the proof I was thinking doesn't work
I remember seeing the nlab article for this lol
it's not trivial
well ok the direction ryu assumed is the harder one
lol
...$*$ is coproduct right? i feel like i remember that but idk if i'm just wrong
bee
(as in, in Grp)
important tex
yeah didn't realise it stops at epi step
yes
Yeah, but they call it a "free product" usually
🦅
(yeah i knew that)
OK
use explicit construction and call it done 
Idk I did smth like this a while back lol
yes the Free functor
A^g := {g^-1 a g | a in A}
<A, A^g> is the group generated by A and A^g
[g,A] is the commutator, i.e.
[g,A] := {g^-1 a^-1 g a | a in A}
wait so which direction didn you want to prove
which is the hard one
oh epi => surjective ?
humefanboy
the map I constructed above
I don't know how to show it's epi either
I do know the proof epi <=> Surj in Set, I suspect epi => Surj in Grp is going to trivially follow from that
lol
it seems that the phi's I constructed ought to be surjective because if they were the proof works out perfectly 
does that pass for a rigorous proof
hm
ok wait
the phis you constructed aren't surjective, but i think the overall sigma is
it's not actually that hard to just take any element of C2 * C3 and produce an element of Z * Z that gets mapped onto it
tbh I don't even have the slightest clue what elements of C2 * C3 are supposed to look like, the explicit construction is not given until like chapter 8 of Aluffi I believe
...hm
ok well it's still definitely surjective, but idk how to prove it purely from the universal property of C2 * C3
ok I will trust you and wait until I learn the explicit definition lol
i can explain the basic idea even without the details of the explicit definition
everything in C2 * C3 is some combination of things from C2, and things from C3
things from C2 are produced by the left Z in the Z * Z, things from C3 are produced by the right Z
so overall every combination is produced by Z * Z
but if you try to view this categorically, you don't have like, a homomorphism from C2 to Z
i'm not sure if there's a reasonable way to phrase "surjective" group homomorphisms entirely in terms of arrows to get away from talking about elements of C2 * C3
oh I see, pretty weird that Aluffi would give it as a problem this early in the book then
i might just be missing something
Aluffi is wild unless there's some easy solution I'm not seeing
Does anybody have hints for this?
Also [[g,A],A] should be a subgroup of <A, A^g> so then for all nonidentity g: g is not in [[g,A],A] but that's not enough to prove that [[g,A],A] = 1
I don't really understand why there is an inequality at the arrow instead of equality, isn't the orbit-stabilizer theorem applied here?
because we know that the stabilizer is a subgroup
what is the meanings of the symbols you're using?
[x,y] := x^-1 y^-1 x y is the commutator of x and y
A^g := g^-1 A g is the conjugate
i see
so to answer your original question, by your definitions [[g,A],A] is a subset of <A, A^g>, isn't it?
That's correct
so ur good then?
Not quite, i need to show that [[g,A],A] = 1 for all g in Q but so far I only know that g is not in [[g,A],A] for all g=/=1
I don't see how it's useful that A acts non-trivially on Q
And also I don't understand where the minimality of Q is being used
is dummit and foote a good place to start for representation theory?
artin has a great treatment of rep theory
okay thanks
so, if something in [[g,A],A] were nonzero
it would be in <A^g,A>
so either you can find a bigger Q, by construction, or you're still in Q.
I recommend artin
Books?
yes, artin's algebra book
Just one book?
it's a good starting point
read it first, then ask "and after"
thoughts on gallian?
no idea
What do you mean by that?
Any ideas on this?
well we're saying that the orbit has at least 4 elements
if the orbit had 8 elements then you would end up with \ $|G_1| = |G_{1,2}| \cdot 8 \geq |G_{1,2}| \cdot 4$
bee
ohhh I see thanks
Aluffi 
honestly I think it’s manageable, I’m currently going through it and I don’t have that strong of a background in algebra
If you don’t even yet know what a group or a homomorphism is, then certainly not, but if you do know the basics it’s quite a nice book (at least from what I’ve seen so far)
I did learn the basics from Artin, it’s also a nice book but a bit too long, did not complete it lol
should these two be equivalent?
yes, but it's a little strange that they're using additive notation for the multiplicative group of C
I guess really the cocyle arises as the choice of a lift of a homomorphism to PGL to a map to GL
how could one see equivalence?
for one direction this is the hint
but I fail to see why theta is a homomorphism
and for the other direction I have no idea 
it's me being too illiterate mathematically in notations. in the original text ti was denoted by $\mathbb{C}^{\times}$
ProphetX
yeah, it is the center of the linear group so it commutes...
I just wrote ti as $C^{*}$
ProphetX
It should just be a direct computation to show theta is a homomorphism
yes. I tried,but don't see
let me show what I did. one sec.
Do you understand what the map GL(V) -> PGL(V) does?
you are modding out by the center of a group, the center is always normal.
not precisely
i guess that's my confusion
Right, that's probably the first step
$\theta(g_1g_2)=(\pi_V \circ T)(g_1 g_2)=\pi_V(T(g_1g_2))=\pi_V(\alpha^{-1}(g_1,g_2) T(g_1) T(g_2))$
ProphetX
and now i'm stuck cause idk what pi does
If V is a complex vector space, PGL(V) = GL(V) / C*. What this means concretely is that we're identifying all nonzero scalar multiples of a matrix
Aka GL(V)/{cI:c in C, c not 0}
So in particular, pi takes an element of GL(V) to the equivalence class containing all nonzero scalar multiples of that element
You will note that A(cI)B(dI)=AB(cdI)
so in partcular we have that $\pi_V(\alpha^{-1}(g_1,g_2) T(g_1) T(g_2))=\pi_V(T(g_1) T(g_2))$
ProphetX
I should use E instead of I for legibility
Oh, I see
(alpha^-1 exists because alpha is nonzero)
Right
(by assumption of alpha)
I guess it doesn't really matter which side you put alpha on since it'll always be invertible lol
But good, hopefully the forward direction is clear to you now
and now the real question is: is pi_v a group homomorphism?
because if it is,we are done
Indeed it is. As memeke pointed out, the subgroup of scalar transformations lies in the center of GL(V), hence it is normal
as PGL(V) is a group, i assume this is just the quotient morphism
That's right
iirc it is exactly the center, but i dont recall the proof offhand
Yeah, it is the center. Maybe it falls out if you consider what commutes with elementary matrices
(quick question before we finish this direction): does everything we said above hold for V infintei dimensional too?
or only for V finite dimensional
😬 idk about infinite dimensional stuff lol
(ignoring continuity issues)
seems messy
just algebraically
Maybe someone else can comment, I have no idea
Yes, the other implication holds as well
The other direction is maybe a bit more involved, but I think we can work through it
So we're starting with a homomorphism G -> PGL(V), right?
yes
The idea is that we want to try and lift this to a map G -> GL(V)
So what this means is that for each g in G, we should associate some scalar c(g) in C*
And then we can define our map G -> GL(V) by sending g to c(g) \theta(g)
it is always the case that GL(V)->PGL(V)\equiv GL(V)/Z(V) is homo. There are many issues with I.D. this isn't one.
Ok neat, thanks for the confirmation
right
There's an extra layer of structure imposed on the map c because theta is a homomorphism
Oh wait, I think I have this wrong
Ok yeah let me back up for a second
so what we have: $\theta:G \to PGL(V)$ homomorphism
ProphetX
Right, we start with a homomorphism G -> PGL(V)
Let's try to lift this to a map T: G -> GL(V)
We want a map $T:G \to GL(V)$, such that $T(g)T(h)=c(g,h) T(gh)$ for some $c(g,h):G \times G \to \mathbb{C}^{*}$ satisfying some condition
ProphetX
yes
However, T(gh) and T(g) T(h) both get mapped to theta(gh) under the projection to PGL(V), right?
What this means is that in GL(V), T(gh) and T(g) T(h) differ by some nonzero scalar multiple because they lie in the same equivalence class in PGL(V)
supposing T satsfies the equality given
but first, we want to construct a map T
then show it satisfies the equality
Sure, but we can just define T by arbitrarily choosing a lift of theta
Like just choose some preimage of theta(g) in GL(V)
can you please elaborate? I am not very familiar with the word 'lift'
Yeah, let me be more rigorous. So a lift of theta is a map T: G -> GL(V) such that pi o T = theta, where pi is the projection GL(V) -> PGL(V)
The naive thing you can do is just choose some preimage of theta(g) in GL(V) at random
and by construction, this gives you a lift
(also wait one second)
there might be a mistake because of my notation
the cocycle condition should be addition or multiplication? 
is this correct?
or should be * between them
It's easier to write it as multiplication here because it takes place in the multiplicative group of the field
I'd rewrite it with *
but wait. alpha(g_2,g_3) is a complex nonzero number right
so alpha(g_1,g_2) is added or multiplied with another alpha?
Multiplied
Yeah, more generally one usually defines 2-cocycles as maps G -> A satisfying this condition, where A is some abelian group
In this case A is the multiplicative group of C, so the group operation is multiplication
one second,let me get back to this. so if theta(g) in PGL(V), then preim theta(g) in G.
how does this tell me anything about T?
Oh, let me rephrase
So theta(g) lies in PGL(V), which is an equivalence class of elements of GL(V)
You can choose some representative of this equivalence class, which will lie in GL(V)
And just set T(g) to be this representative
Obviously this isn't well-defined, as different choices of representatives lead to different functions T
But bear with me for now
Now T(gh) and T(g) T(h) both lie in GL(V), but there's no reason they need to be equal, right?
one second. let me try to write down formally what you wrote
to make sure i understand
$\theta:G \to PGL(V)$. Then $\theta(g) \in PGL(V)$, but as $PGL(V)=GL(V)/ \mathbb{C}^{*}$, we define a map $T:G \to GL(V)$ as $T(g) \in GL(V)$, such that what?
ProphetX
We're choosing $T(g) \in GL(V)$ such that $\pi \circ T(g) = \theta(g)$
walter
So we haven't really made a specific choice for T
The point is that theta(g) is a whole equivalence class of matrices, right?
yes
Let me just pick out one of these matrices, and I declare that T(g) be equal to this matrix
And I make this choice for every g in G
Indeed, it (sort of) doesn't matter as we'll show later
Right now, different choices will lead to different definitions of T
but assume that we've fixed one such choice of T
so now I have g many linear maps V->V, namely T(g)
That's right
We've just built some set theoretic function T: G -> GL(V)
And the only thing we know about it right now is that pi o T = theta
Ok, so now let's try to deduce some more structure/information about our map T
There's no reason why T(gh) should be equal to T(g) T(h) since we've just chosen representatives at random for theta(gh), theta(g), and theta(h)
But we can say something nontrivial about them - namely, $\pi \circ T(gh) = \theta(gh) = \theta(g) \theta(h) = (\pi \circ T(g)) (\pi \circ T(h))$
walter
right,this follows from theta being homomorphism
Exactly
In particular, T(gh) and T(g) T(h) lie in the same equivalence class after we pass to PGL(V). Explicitly, they differ from one another by a nonzero scalar
true
walter
we could formallry write: $\pi(T(gh))=\pi(T(g)) \pi(T(h)) \iff [T(gh)]=[T(g)][T(h)]$, right?
ProphetX
Yes, that's right
yes,now it is left to see cocycle condition si satisfied
Right, and to see this we'll need to use associativity of G
Namely, we'll want to consider that $T((gh)k) = T(g(hk))$
walter
It might be easier to write it as T(gh) = alpha(g, h) T(g) T(h), I'm not sure
But it doesn't matter either way
can we please continue this way as this is how we use it in physics?
Ok, sure
(it would just replace alpha^{-1} with alpha but to make it consistent)
Fair enough
Yeah, so evaluating the left side we get $T((gh)k) = \alpha^{-1}(gh, k) T(gh) T(k) = \alpha^{-1}(gh, k) \alpha^{-1}(g, h) T(g) T(h) T(k)$
walter
Evaluating the right side gives $T(g(hk)) = \alpha^{-1}(g, hk) T(g) T(hk) = \alpha^{-1}(g, hk) \alpha^{-1}(h, k) T(g) T(h) T(k)$
walter
Spacing is hard :(
so we conclude that $\alpha^{-1}(gh, k) \alpha^{-1}(g, h)= \alpha^{-1}(g, hk) \alpha^{-1}(h, k)$
ProphetX
wdym niverting everything
this alpha^{-1} is the inverse of the complex number,not the inverse of the alpha map,right?
i'm confused a bit
Yeah, alpha^{-1} is the inverse of the complex number
So we can just take the reciprocal of both sides of the equation
walter
Just like we wanted
yeah,makes complete sense 

Right, so this technically solves your problem but maybe there's one little discrepancy left
We made a lot of choices in constructing T. Hopefully this computation makes it clear that every choice of T leads to some 2-cocycle alpha
so the outline is,we define a map T, then using that theta is a homomorphism, we infer somethnig about this map T, namely that T(g)T(h) and T(gh) differ by a complex nonzero multile. We now define a map alpha;GxG->C^{*} and from associativity of the operation, we obtain a condtion on alpha
That's right
what choices did we make?
Well, we made a choice of representative in theta(g) for each g in G
yes
And making different choices of representative would've led to different functions T, which would've led to different cocycles alpha
but nothing changes if we choose a different representative, as when we map by pi, we still get same T'(g) T'(h)=some number T'(gh)
Yeah, so you always get a 2-cocycle but my point is that you might get a different cocycle if you have a different lift T
(This part doesn't matter for your problem, but I think it's interesting so I'm talking about it anyway)
this seems problematic then
or well
how do I guarantee uniqueness of the lift then?
Well, you don't
wait is this the stuff which was in the book that the lft is unique iff H^2(G,U(1))={e}?
ok this would be really nice to clarify,because i am interested very much in why the second cohomology group parametrizes lifts
to be very concrete this means different representatives, right?
Yes
Again, we get that L(g) and T(g) are both mapped to theta(g) when we pass to PGL(V), so they differ by some scalar
We can write L(g) = f(g) T(g), where f(g) is in C*
Oh, and I guess the lift L will gives us a different 2-cocycle, say uhh beta
L(g) L(h)=beta(g,h) L(gh)
Perfect
So now we get $f(g) f(h) T(g) T(h) = \beta(g, h) f(gh) T(gh) = \beta(g, h) f(gh) \alpha^{-1}(g, h) T(g) T(h)$
alpha^{-1} i think no?
walter
And rewriting yields $\beta(g, h) = f(gh)^{-1} f(g) f(h) \alpha(g, h)$
walter
right
Hmm, I'm maybe forgetting what happens now
I think the point is to show that $f(gh)^{-1} f(g) f(h)$ is a coboundary
walter
what is the definition of a coboundary?
i am unsure but thiseems very related tolamba here
we have almost same formula
actually,it is thesame
Yeah, we're very close
Oh perfect
Ok yeah
So the point is that lambda here is a coboundary
I'm a little confused though
the book didn't define coboundary
in our case f= lambda, beta=w', alpha=w
we have the concrete exact same formula
i just don't know what we use it for
Hm yeah I'm missing like one piece lol
But I guess for your purposes, this suffices
we should rewrite $f(gh)=\beta^{-1}(g,h) \alpha(g,h) f(g) f(h)$ and we have the same formula exactly
ProphetX
The point is that two different lifts of the same projective representation lead to two cocycles which differ by such a function lambda
Conversely, a cocycle gives us a projective representation, and you can probably convince yourself that equivalent cocycles gives you equivalent projective representations
So we get a bijection between projective representations and H^2
Isn't that neat?
did we not show this?
Yeah, that's what we showed
Ok I've resolved this
Yeah, so formally a 2-coboundary is defined to be a map phi: G x G -> A such that there exists a function f: G -> A for which phi(g, h) = f(g) + f(h) - f(gh)
I'm ignoring some more technical stuff
But the point is that our function f that we had above gives us this exactly
yeah,i've read that you need to use tor/ext functors,and to get here you use a bar resolutioin
(whatever those words mean),for now i don't mind/care about those details per se
Right, yeah this is all group cohomology stuff
But yeah, no need to concern yourself with that stuff right now if you're working on other things
I've only briefly glanced at connections between group cohomology and projective representations so it was really fun to work through this
but wait,can we elaboraet on this please?
so i'm at the point we stopped:here
how to continue from here?
Yeah, so our starting point was that we were assuming we had two different lifts L and T of the same projective representation theta: G -> PGL(V)
And from there we deduced that the associated cocycles alpha and beta are equivalent in H^2
how?
we concluded this
Yeah, and that's precisely the equality that holds in the definition here, right?
yes,lambda=f, beta=w',alpha=w
Yeah, so the cocycles alpha and beta become equivalent in H^2
ohh you mean this
$[\alpha]=[\beta]$ for the equivalence relation defined in the picture
ProphetX
Yes, that's right
Sorry, I should've clarified
On the other hand, every cocycle gives us a projective representation, and equivalent cocycles in H^2 give us the same projective representations
so we showed: two different lifts give riise to two different cocycles, which become the same in the cohomology group
Yes
every cocycle gives us a projective representation: this is 1=>2
no?
Right
now the last part i don't se
Ok, we can work that out explicitly
equivalent cocycles in H^2 give same proj rep
So if we have equivalent cocycles alpha and beta
We can write $\lambda(gh) = \alpha(g, h) \beta(g, h)^{-1} \lambda(g) \lambda(h)$
walter
right
Let's rewrite this as $\lambda(gh) \beta(g, h) = \lambda(g) \lambda(h) \alpha(g, h)$
walter
Oh, hm
Let's see
Ok so maybe I was lying a little bit
I don't know if there's a bijection between H^2 and projective reps
Because I'm not sure if it's the case that every cocycle is realized by some map T: G -> GL(V)
Our starting point for 1 -> 2 is that there exists a map T such that T(g) T(h) = alpha(g, h) T(gh), but I don't know if it's the case that for any cocycle such a map exists
I believe it is true but the proof is too technical for me to relate it to our language
Hmm ok I'll look into it
Oh, sure so this is related
Yeah the classical result on H^2(G, A) is that it classifies group extensions 0 -> A -> E -> G -> 1
there's full proof of this,the bijection is written out and also showed that is both inj and surj
Right, yeah it's nice how explicit this is
how is this related to proj. reps?
Ok so first let me make an observation
so what I am sure about,but can't prove: a projective representation <=> U(1) central extension
We had that a lift of a projective representation theta: G -> PGL(V) gives us a map T: G -> GL(V) such that T(g) T(h) = alpha(g, h) T(gh)
in this case, H^2(G,U(1)) would classify U(1) central extensions, would classify proj reps
this is the missing piece (accepting that proof)
yes
Now if alpha(g, h) = 1 for all g, h in G (i.e. if alpha is the trivial cocycle) then the lift T is actually a group homomorphism
What this means is that if the cocycle associated to a lift is trivial, then our projective representation lifts to an actual linear representation
this is true
is this true also for cocycles equivalent to the trivial cocycle?
or not necessarily
Yes, it's true if you're equivalent to the trivial cocycle as well
(I think)
Now in general, a cocycle won't let you lift to a linear representation. However, it's always the case that you can lift to a linear representation of a different group H
And this group H will end up being a central extension of G
why?
Why can we lift?
yes,to a different group
I will tell you
So explicitly, if theta: G -> PGL(V) is our projective representation, we can construct a group H = {(g, A) in G x GL(V) : theta(g) = pi(A)}
There's an obvious surjection from H onto G by projecting onto the first factor
this is a set.
H is a subgroup of the product group G x GL(V)
so you just have componentwise multiplication
ok yes
The kernel of this surjection is the subgroup {(e, lambda I)} where lambda is any nonzero scalar in C
And hopefully it's clear that this is contained in the center of H
sure
Finally, we get a linear representation H -> GL(V) given by projecting onto the second factor
and so we have a central extension 0 -> ker -> H -> G -> 1
And we've lifted the projective rep G -> PGL(V) to a linear rep H -> GL(V)
In this case, we mean a lift in the sense that the composition H -> GL(V) -> PGL(V) agrees with H -> G -> GL(V)
pr(H((g1g2,A1A2))=A1A2=pr(H(g1,A1))pr(H(g2,A2)), this is why it's a group homomorphism?
That's right
what's the diff between 0 and 1?
Oh, I just use 0 on the left since the kernel is abelian and 1 on the right since G need not be abelian
In both cases they refer to the trivial group
It doesn't really matter, if anything it's bad notation on my part
here ker=?
ker is the kernel of the map H -> G given by projection onto the first factor
this thing
Yes

thanks a lot!
one last question if you don't mind: do you agree that proj reps <=> U(1) central extensions?
or proj reps <=> central extensions?
we showed that from a projective rep,we can obtain a central extension by H
is it true that from a central extension H,we can obtain a proj rep?
I'd have to think on it a little bit more. I want to say yes
my confusion here is. are proj reps central extensions, or U(1) central extensions?
yes
Ahh ok
So I think if everything is unitary then every time we have a map into the multiplicative group of the field, I think we can just replace it with U(1)
because the point is that in P(U), everything differs by a scalar but since everything is unitary, these scalars have to have norm 1
this seems slightly related,but does not relate central extensions to proj res
but my guess is this: claim: proj reps <=> H extensions. unitary proj reps <=>U(1) extensions
this makes sense to me
but i can't prove
Sure it does, the extensions k* x G are central extensions of G
I think it's saying the same thing we were saying before
Ok, so we've shown that projective reps give central C* extensions
And if you believe this, every unitary proj rep gives a central U(1) extension
I guess I forgot to clarify here that the kernel is isomorphic to C*
Conversely, if we have a central extension 1 -> C* -> H -> G -> 1 and a linear rep H -> GL(V)
why?
we showed they give H extensions
A C* extension of G is a short exact sequence 1 -> C* -> H -> G -> 1
A U(1) extension would be a short exact sequence 1 -> U(1) -> H -> G -> 1
But given this, observe that the linear rep takes C* as a subgroup of H to C* as a subgroup of GL(V), identifying C* with the nonzero multiples of the identity matrix
Then the fact that G = H / C* implies that the linear rep H -> GL(V) induces a homomorphism G -> PGL(V), which is precisely a projective rep
Explicitly in the last map, if you have an element g in G, you choose a preimage of g in H, map it to GL(V) via the linear rep, and then pass down to PGL(V)
Maybe you want to check that this is well-defined but that isn't hard
So this tells us how to get a projective rep from a central C* extension (or a unitary proj rep from a central U(1) extension)
And I think these constructions should be inverses of one another
yeah,makes sense. I'll try to work out this
but first,i'll type up in a TeX file everything we discussed. Thanks for the help 
happy to help
(in case you're a SE person and want free karma, feel free to answer https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4671037/equivalence-of-definitions-of-projective-representations?noredirect=1#comment9872664_4671037)
it was fun to think about
lol maybe i'll get around to it eventually, i usually stick to discord
(in case you are interested in physical applications of this pure math stuff)
this is the theorem I am aiming towards,but going in small steps
WOAH this seems neat
Yeah, I don't know any of the physics applications of projective reps, but I came across it a few times when I was reading about rep theory and some quantum mechanics stuff
so we in physics basically want to classify projective unitary reps of the symmetry group G in a hilbert space H
I saw this the other day, it was wild, but 2-cocyles are really common in physics for some reason and I guess this is another reason
(this later turns out to be more involved than theorem 4.8)-> the real classifciation is as follows: proj unitary reps <=>unitary reps of the universal central extension of the Lie group (this is a cnetral extensions through which every other central extensions factors through uniquely)
but theorem 4.8 gives us a classification for certain G,which satisfy that they are simply connected and H^2(g,R)=0
universal central extensions are cool
I know nothing about them but there's this perfect thesis written by a mathematician https://www.math.ru.nl/~landsman/Nesta.pdf
language is not on the level which we discussed/used, it's much more elegant/abstract
but i'm slowly getting there
You got it king 
in what context did you see them?
a string theory talk I went to, but don't ask me any details, I just went to absorb and not to understand lol
But there may have been some 2-groups floating around somewhere, and I think the main thing was gauge groups
@agile burrow I think why the confusion with + and * appeared for me haha! if we consider projective unitary reprsentations, then the cocycles will not take values in C*, rather U(1), and hence we will have cocycle relations such as e^{itheta(g,h)}e^{...}=e^{}e^{}
and then indeed the thetas add
ahhh
lel
yeah i was confused because i've read the statement in a mathematiics book
that's why PGL
but I use it for PU 😄
@agile burrow we discussed that a lift in general exists for a central extension of G
in case G is a Lie group, do you perhaps have intuiton why G should be replaced by its universal cover?
cf
Ahh, I'm afraid I don't know all that much about Lie groups so I don't think I can provide any insight for this
for our discussion G being algebraic(discrete) our result is true though right?
a discrete group is isomorphic to its universal cover
Yeah, this all works well for discrete groups
You build a universal covering group as a central extension of a lie group, it is built so that the projection is a covering homomorphism. It's really more of a lie algebra thing though tbh.
Right but we just showed that a lift exists for a central extension of the group
Is the central extension of the universal cover also a central extension of the group?
I think not
The universal cover is built via central extension.
It is really better to think of the extension in the context of the algebra.
Not necessarily
can someone help me understand the statement "and therefore any subgroup of order 3 is cyclic" what is the justification for this?
i think its talking about how any group with order 3 is cyclic
yeah no kidding
every group with prime order is cyclic
sure but whats the justification?
if a group G has order p, then lagrange's theorem says that any subgroup, say <a> for a in G must divide p, so |<a>| must be 1 or p
if it was 1 then its the trivial subgroup, so |<a>| is p
then |G| = p = |<a>|, then G = <a>
hence g is cyclic
ahh makes sense thanks\
np
are the number of left and right cosets equal in general?
Yes
There exists a very 'natural' bijection from the set of left cosets to the set of right cosets of a given subgroup of a group.
i love this "in case you are interested in physical applications of pure math stuff" [screenshot of pure math theorem] 
Im trying to find all intermediate fields of extension $\mathbb{Q}( \sqrt[4]{2} ) | \mathbb{Q}$. I guess one way would be to find all the intermediate extensions of Q(p), where p is the minimial polynomial X^4 - 4 by galois correspondence and then only look at those which are contained in our given field. But this approach seems horrible. Is there a quick and elegant way to determine all intermediate fields? (I believe theresnonly one, but im not sure how to show it)
matcool473
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how do i see that the dual of an injective R-module is projective/dual of a projective R-module is injective? where R is not necessarily commutative (i am not even sure if these statements are true, ive googled but to no avail)
you can add some of the roots to create other roots.
there are two intermediate fields
Second is just special case of first. Obviously Z/nZ is cyclic, generated by 1.
P is projective if every exact sequence of the form $$0\to A \to B \to P \to 0$$ splits. Now apply the $Hom(_,R)$ functor (a contravariant functor) to the diagram above to get the exact sequence: $$0\to Hom(P,R) \to Hom(B,R) \to Hom(A,R) \to 0 $$ which you can argue that splits.
Parrot Tea
Thx
dual of projective is not necessarily injective tho
like for pids R, injective is equivalent to divisible, which is not true even for free R-modules (unless it is 0)
yea that only checks very specific exact sequences
not every module is dual of something for eg
as dualizing kills torsion (for integral domains)
hmmm
but this is true if i take the "standard" duality functor? as in duals of vector spaces
Hom(-, k) where k is a field
well vector spaces are weird
because projective, injective and free are all the same things >.<
im having difficulty seeing this even for vector spaces: i can see that Hom(-, k) is exact, but why does that imply for a projective (resp injective) module M, Hom(M, k) is injective (resp projective) ?
because all vector spaces are projective/injective/free
hmm i see
yea, projective and injective are duals in the sense of opposite category and not the dualizing functor
projective in R-mod is equivalent to injective in (R-mod)^op
how do i prove that? 😮
basically this proof lmao
but instead of duals you did (-)^op
Is (R-mod)^op just the modules over the opposite ring?
left R^op-mods are just right R-mods
so for commutative rings, there is literally no difference in the two categories
but (R-mod) and (R-mod)^op are very different
to show Hom(P, k) is injective, i need to show that if i take arbitrary A, B in R^{op}-mod,
$$0 \to Hom(P, k) \to A \to B \to 0$$ splits
xy
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argh

latex hates me
there's no Hom(-, k) here >.<
Just do it in Google docs
yeah that's what i meant
but is still abelian so we can still define projective/injective
sorry i dont quite understand, im trying to prove your remark on projective iff injective in R-mod^op, so dont i take the duality to the opposite category?
okie what i mean is we're reversing arrows using (-)^op and not hom(-, k)... i didn't even define any k here
oh i see...
so show P is injective in the opposite category, start with any monomorphism i : A --> B in (R-mod)^op and a map A --> P.
this is equivalent to having an epimorphism i^op : B --> A and a map f : P --> A in R-mod, since P is projective you can lift this map to P --> B and in the opposite category this gives us an extension B --> P
ive moved on to JCF now and im confus
how do we know to choose those bases for RCF and JCF
i guess the process is outlined in the second lil paragraph
actually slightly different question, in the first part are we not decomposing straight into the invariant factors?
oh it's just the monic polynomials that make up each invariant factor
ok real question : is JCF the same as RCF but under a different basis?
i.e. different only by row operations on each block
Yes
Hello guys I need ur help
and this basis only exists when it's over an algebraically closed field right
Thanks
yes, by definition polynomials over non-algebraically closed fields need not split into linear factors.
i think if the irreducible factors of the char poly happen to be linear, then this is enough for the existence of a JNF
but yea, you would get this automatically by just assuming algebraically closed
JNF = JCF?
JCF is less C than RCF :p
yes of course.
(cause in RCF you have a C way to order the individual blocks based on the invariant factors, but for JCF there is no natural way to order the blocks with different eigenvalues)
so like RCF of a matrix is unique, while JCF of a matrix is only defined up to permutation of blocks with different eigenvalues
ofc for bwocks of the same eigenvalue you can order them on the size
RCF doesn't need cringe alg closure
i mean you can talk about JCF of only triangularizable operators 
this word is so hard to say 
trianguliozaidhafldif
i always end up saying it trianguralizable >.<
and then it sounds so weird 
oh maybe owofied vewsion wouwd be easiew to say since w = w = w
twianguwawizabwe

whut did i say lol
whut does it mean to reduce T?
like row reduce a matrix
oh
probably not
you can only replace it by a similar matrix
so like you can diagonalize/triangularize it if you want
row-reduction might change the eigenvalues
nah nobody wants you do to that much work
find the char and min poly
for smol examples they are sufficient to deduce the JCF
char technically not defined at this point
c_T >.<
oh i meant characteristic polynomial by that
:nani:
Hi! How can I prove that for irreducible characters the higher Frobenius-Schur indicator is an integer? Any hint would be appreciated
is this a shortcut to charateristic polynomial then?
whut
i was saying char poly and min poly tell you a lot about the JCF (in smol dimensions), so always useful to compute them quickly
pretty much like they did
my question is how they got c_T(x) so immediately then
oh cause they asked wolfy

there is a description of the char poly using the sums of principal minors
but asking wolfy is faster
or directly computing is also pretty much same
but this is only useful to like compute the coefficient of t^n-1 lmao
(because it's just trace)
I found an MO post on this: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/107256/sum-g-gk-frobenius-schur-indicators-s-n-invariants-in-freeassx-i-center-o
I'm almost certain there ought to be an easier way than viewing higher Frobenius-Schur indicators as Adams operations and using the connections to Newton polynomials, but I don't know of it lol
thank you!
iirc if we're talking about representations of finite groups, there is a fairly elementary way by interpreting morphisms of representation from V to V as G-invariant subspaces of V² (not sure about that one I'm a little foggy about the details) then using Maschke's theorem to say that this can only have dimension exactly 1. Whether it falls into the symmetric or antisymmetric part or whether there are 2 of them because V secretly splits over the complex numbers, tells you if V was real, quaternionic or complex.
G is finite and we are working over the field of complex numbers
you can also tie the thing into the existence of G-invariant symmetric or hermitian (?) bilinear forms on V
ah wait I only know about the k=2 case
hi i have a question
Lets say i have group G and centralizers Z(G). Is it right to say that Inn(G) ismorphic to G/Z(G)?
if by "centralizers" you mean the center, then yes
Yes, take the homomorphism G --> Inn(G) which sends g to the automorphism of conjugating with g. This is surjective and the kernel is Z(G)
So then from that i have another question
If i am looking at D_5, its Z(D_5) = {e} (the identity)
so Inn(D_5) ismorphic to D_5/{e}
which is basically just saying Inn(D_5) isomorphic to D_5
ye


