#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 81 of 1
You didn’t say that 
Left out half the method
Oh joe
A nice alternative apparently for composites of separable tings is like
You can sps u get smth non separable and play w the min poly since we know we must have char p and smth of form g(x^p)
the invertible elements in AxB are those a,b s.t. (a,b)*(a',b')=(1, 1), yes?
Does that emoji mean yes?
=[]
Uh lemme reas the original source again 
could just as easily mean no
But it's on stack exchange
@rustic crown am i right
yee lol
yay!
eahahahheuehuehehheheeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
true
is there anything else i should state about that invertible elements of the direct product of rings?
yea just (A x B)* = A* x B*
group of units functor is right adjoint to group ring functor so preserves products 
ahhhhh
.<
i gave a stupid fact which is more painful to verify >.<
than directly proving it lol
Lol
yes if y is non-zero
in a direct product of rings
When is (0,y) = (0,0)
is 0 a 0 divisor

cause i don't think i've seen people say "non-zero zero-divisors"
isnt in the definition its assumed its nonzero
ah probably
I have heard that
And I've seen people state that the set of zero divisors is a union of prime ideals too
cause if i take it too literally, then every element divides 0
also you can define it with the map x-->ax is injective
but it wont be injective iff the ker isnt trivial
so ig it wouldw ork
Why?
Well I assumed ur only interested in finite but the comment seems to agree it is correct
Hm ill look more lol
Well it says like any irreducible factor is of that form but yeah hm
5*5 = 1 for example
Np
But yeah more generally like
Note that if m is coprime to n then m is a unit in Z/nZ
is the length of a permutation written in disjoint cycles the number of elements in the cycle, or that value minus 1?
Hm is length of a permutation even a standard term 
of the cycles
Okay sure yeah it's the number of elements in the cycle
that’s what i thought. i was seeing it what i thought to be both ways in different places, but i think it’s because the cycles weren’t disjoint
It can sometimes lead to confusion that a cycle of even length is an odd permutation and vice versa.
An R-Module is projective iff it is a direct summand of a free module. Direct sum of flat modules are flat. Why do this two facts imply that projective modules are flat
?
this is only true if the cycles are disjoint right?
i guess if they weren’t, we could still find the parity of the composition, two evens is an even, two odds is even, and even odd is odd.
unless i’m thinking about that wrong
I'm saying a single cycle of even length is an odd permutation. There's nothing for it to be disjoint from in that statement.
Suppose F = K \oplus P where F is free and P is projective. Then a map f : A -> B is injective if and only if the map g : K \oplus A -> K \oplus B defined by g(k,a) = (k, f(a)) is injective. Tensor g with P, and then use natural isomorphisms.
oh, and you'll need to use the fact that free modules are flat
zenc yu @thorn delta
npnp
i think i said this slightly wrong. Tensor f with P to get a map A \otimes P -> B \otimes P, and then define g : K \oplus (A \otimes P) \to K \oplus (B \otimes P), and then use natural isomorphisms and flatness of F to see that g is injective, and therefore the map A \otimes P -> B \otimes P is injective
can somebody give me a hint for a)? my first strategy was to show that the cancellation laws hold in R which is equivalent to saying that R has no divisors of 0, but i couldn't really get anywhere for that. i then tried multiplying both sides by b and i got that ab is idempotent, but again nowhere with that. maybe contrapositive or contradiction is the way to go?
and i'm not so sure how i can do a direct proof, since if a is nonzero then i must show that ab = 0 implies b = 0, but here a is nonzero on the right side of the equation aba = a
Do you guys have any examples of a finite dimensional associative unital k-algebra that do not admit a finite dimensional faithful representation.
i suppose i could do aba - a = 0 so a(ba - 1) = 0 and if i could get ba = 1 then that would show that the cancellation laws hold
but that's assuming R has divisors of 0, but it seems like they want me to go in that direction?
nvm i got it
what? wouldn't we have to show that ab = ab and ba = ab since ab is the unity in a ring R and a unity is unique?
well i suppose they have ab = 1
and ba = 1
whut about the left regular rep? A acting on itself by left multiplication, since A is unital it should be faithful.
not sure i understand what you asked >.<
I'm trying to show that the absolute galois group of Fp is the profinite integers
so we have invlim Z/nZ
I was thinking about using crt "to get something with primes"
but not sure how I would continue from there
show that the galois group is inverse limit of galois group of finite galois extensions of F_p
oh okie
my definition is prod_p Z_p
how do I show that those are equivalent
is my question
am I missing something obvious
we have invlim Z/p_1^i_1Z x ... x Z/p_n^i_nZ
what's the next step
and this breaks apart
but instead of doing it like that, better to construct maps both ways
right I'll try that
but for this, do we have invlim A_n x B_n = invlim A_n x invlim B_n or something like that in general?
that's true but here you don't have the same indexing n for both right
(ignore what i just wrote)
what did you write
something wrong 😂
try writing out the obvious map
how do you mean?
wait
im mf stupid
.
bru
disregard this questoin, i forgot its 10...
when was this 
Helping some friends with algebra
is L2 context free?
doesn't feel like it... but i don't remember much of this stuff
there was also a pumping lemma thing for CFGs
im not entirely sure but for context free it means i can think of a grammar for it right?
how would i prove this by contradiction
so we take z = b^x c^3x b^x (cb)^x?
ok i think i can see why its not context-free. in that case I would go with C?
that's a minor thing, doesn't affect much
iirc context-free intersect regular is context-free
although intersection of two context-free may not be context free
simplest example is {a^nb^nc^m} intersected with {a^nb^mc^m} which is {a^nb^nc^n}
alright thanks for the help!
what's your logic for third being D?
that language feels more complex than halting, so feels like it's not RE
but idr this stuff
is a the channel I can use for questions about linear algebra?
graduate linear algebra, yes
no
0 must be mapped to 0
so you just control where 1 is mapped to
Can 1 be mapped to 1?
i think not but idk why
what happens when you do phi(1+1), where phi is the homomorphism?
well 2=0 in Z2 so it's the same as phi(0)
oooo
so 2*phi(1)=phi(1+1)=phi(0)=0, so phi(1)=0 or 2 in Z4
Mm general, for Zm to Zn the prime numbers have something to do with the amount of homomorfismo between Zn and Zm?
It’s the gcd of m and n
Any map into a cyclic group of prime order must be surjective or trivial as Zp contains no proper subgroups - hence there are only non-trivial maps when Zm contains a copy of Zp - maybe that’s what you’re thinking of
Likewise with maps going out of Zp actually, they have to be injective or trivial
Le schur’s lemma has arrived
so @silent oxide
For two cíclic group there are only one isomorphism, no ?
we're talking ring homomorphisms btw
sorry no
Oh lol
well phi(1) can only be 0 or 2 as well, but if phi is a ring homomorphism, we also have
phi(1)=phi(1*1)=phi(1)*phi(1), so of phi(1)=2 we have a contradiction
lol
schur
Hi, guys, we know that if N, H are subgroups of G, and if N is normal( H< N_G(N)), then HN is a subgroup of G, but does the same condition imply that NH is also a subgroup?
the product of two subgroups is a subgroup iff they commute with each other
this is the case if either one of them is normal
if both are normal then their product is normal
under your condition HN=NH
what does this language even mean??
like w=aaabba so numa(w) = 4 and numb(w) = 2?
so a^4#b^2#aaabba is in my set?
So I know the natural irrationalities theorem for finite extensions (K/F finite Galois => KL/L Galois and Gal(KL/L) isomorphic to Gal(K/K\cap L) via restriction to K), but does it hold for infinite ones (i.e. only assumption K/F Galois)? It's easy to show that KL/L is Galois and that restriction to K defines an injective homomorphism Gal(KL/L)->Gal(K/K\cap L), but in showing it's surjective the proofs I know use the Galois correspondence for K/F and idk how to show the image is a closed subgroup for K/F general (is it?).
can't you say like for finite galois extensions k/KnL, you have the isomorphism, then you take inverse limits over all such k. the extensions kL/L are also finite galois and moreover are a cofinal subset as any finite galois extension l/L with l <= KL is contained in some kL/L for k/KnL finite galois.
yee
or in other words, to show surjectivity i'll pick any automorphism of K/KnL and look at the induced automorphism of k/KnL, that will give me an automorphism of kL/L, these automorphisms define an automorphism of KL/L because each element of KL is contained in some kL, and the family of these automorphisms all agree on intersections as the reverse map was just restriction.
in the case of topological spaces, does the inverse limit "loop over" the open sets?
What do you mean
let T_i be a sequence of topological spaces, then proj lim T_i = subset of prod T_i
is this limit the topology
so prod T_i refers to the topologies as a product topology or whatever?
The limit will be a subspace of the product of the topological spaces
Also, maybe this isn't suited for this channel
is there a short english name/expression for this monoid? $\langle a,b | a^2 = a, b^2 = b \rangle$
wait no hang on that's the wrong monoid
bee
there
but an auto of K/KnL does not necessarily restrict to an auto of k/KnL, k would have to be normal (aren't we doing this for k finite arbitrary?).
is "bilinear map of Rmodules that yields an Rmodule" appropriate intuition for what a tensor product is
it also yields a linear map
M x N --> M⊗N is the universal bilinear map, so any other bilinear map M x N --> P must factor uniquely through M⊗N giving a linear map M⊗N --> P
in other words any bilinear map out of M x N is a tensor product composed with something else
yee
Show that the element $2 \otimes 1$ is 0 in $\Z \otimes_\Z \Z/2$ but that it is not 0 in $2\Z \otimes_\Z \Z/2$.
sebbb
ok i have this as a practice problem
the definition of a tensor product that i have is like
in terms of the universal property thingy
but what's it like for individual elements
Well
A key thing is that the tensor product map is a bilinear map A x B -> A \tensor B
in other words lol like
(a+b) (x) c = a (x) c + b (x) c and all that jazz
only two unicodes i remember are u+2295 and u+2297 for ⊕ and ⊗ :3
\otimes
can someone help me with the following problem?
Let N be normal in G, such that [G:N] = m. Show that a^m is in N for all a in G.
whut have you tried
I first considered the natural projection p: G -> G/N by p(a) = aN
then p(a)^m = (aN)^m
but im not sure what i can and can't say about (aN)^m given [G:N] = m. For instance, is the order of aN = m? does it divide m? I'm not sure what can be correctly said regarding this bit.
i guess i don't know the rules well enough to proceed
when since N is normal G/N is a finite group of order m
so what does lagrange tell you 
does order of aN divide m?
i don't know if im being honest
i know that any subgroup has order that divides the original group
yep, and you have an arbitrary group H of order n, and h is an element then you can look at the subgroup generated by h!
what can you say about the order of the element h vs the size of the subgroup <h>?
if h generates it then the order of h equals the size of <h>
so the order of aN divides |G/N|
okay so (aN)^m = (a^m)N = N, thus a^m is in N
yep 
alright so is it even necessary to talk about the natural projection here? or can we simply consider aN in G/N for any a in G?
yea not required

det can we talk about RCF again
wondering if this was all accurate
link to convo
ok more concretely im a bit confused at this lemma
given a decomposition of V_T (a k[t] module) into k[t]/a(t) for a bunch of a(t)'s
each component of the direct sum has the "standard basis" (or maybe more like the expected basis) of a polynomial ring modded an ideal generated by a polynomial
what's the k-linear operator
okie so when you have a k-vector space V and a linear operator, you can form a k[t] module out of it, where multiplication by t now acts by T.
now you use structure theorem on this k[t] module
oh so is it that map on each index of the thingy?
right so you wanna understand the multiplication by t on your space V. so you decomposite it as a k[t] module and understand each summand nicely
each summand looks like k[t]/(a(t)) like you said
and this has an obvious choice for a basis
but yea people do mix up the order
some people like to do 1, t, t^2, ...
others do the reverse
t^n-1, ..., t^2, t, 1
why doesnt it go up to t^n
because as a k-vector space k[t]/(a) has dimension deg a = n
ohhh

ok hm
i need to phrase this all out myself
a k-linear operator is what we represent with a matrix right
it's useful because if you have a vector space V and two operators S and T on it... these operators are similar if and only if the corresponding k[x] modules are isomorphic 
ohhhhh wait ok so
given the k-vector space and an arbitrary k-linear map
wait no i lost it
grahhhh
right so you wanna write the matrix for "multiplication by t" map
and that's a map from the k[t] module to itself right
yep
so once we've expressed the k[t] module as the direct sum of those other guys, looking at how that endomorphism works on each summand gives us the characteristic polynomial for a given summand
then putting each companion matrix for those polynomials in one bigger matrix gives us RCF...?
yee
:O
Do you guys think AI poses a threat towards Math research?
no
Penrose argues that godel's theorem implies no
also go to some general channel
Because it can only spit out stuff that has already been discovered right?


and mine
he's the one tutoring us 



this is the same as saying that S and T have the same RCF right
yep
so for example with that you can show that any matrix is similar to its transpose

the last simple thing im a bit fuzzy on is how we get from the k-vector space to the k[t] module
do we just like
do it
univewsal pwopewties
an R-module M is a ring homomorphism R --> End_{Ab}(M)
so a k-vector space is map k --> End(V)
if you have a nice element T in End(V)
you can extend it to k[x] --> End(V) by sending x to T
T needs to be k-linear to be able to do this
because in k[x] scalars and x commute
yeah im assuming that for the T and S from before too
here yeah
that theyre k linear
and k-linearity is all we need for this to be "nice"? since that means we can write it as a matrix?
you already know it's additive since it's an End of abelian groups
quite the contrary? like having computers proving the Riemann hypothesis or something wouldn't "ruin" research. Also, AI is also mathematically interesting
also yes #math-discussion
mb
john carmack has a podcast with lex fridman where they talk about AGI, pretty interesting (i dont have access to those channels so this will be the last i say on it)
studying role is uwu
I meant like jobs
.
sometimes i wish it wasnt perma but then i remember i here to do me a learn
okie det also has studying role :3
Gave you the studying! selfrole.
double study
how did you get perma-study
just ask a mod for it
i bothered roketto like a year ago and havent taken it off since

you have to ask a mod to take it off too though
and note that you still have access to obsidian and advanced lounge
Does the inequality $||x|-|y||\leq |x-y|$ hold for normed vector spaces in general?
Croqueta
yes
but like idk why I just didnt see immediately that you could derive it directly lol
Hi! If $\omega$ is $n$th root of unity, is $\sum_{i=1}^n \omega^{4i}$ $n$th root of unity as well?
emphatic_wax
n=2
thats like $\frac{\omega^{4n+4}-1}{\omega-1}$, no reason why that should be an nth root of unity
Croqueta
Okay gotcha
using i as an index 
but thats true if omega is a 4th root of unity that is not one
and this is the only case (besides when n=1 and omega=1)
try figure it out
okay thank you!
well its what I wrote
when we have a mapping f: G/N to G/H defined by f(xN) = xH
(and N,H normal in G, with N subset of H of course), is surjectivity obvious?
n in h...
well... a preimage of xH is xN
yes
it's like
well xH comes from xN so the x matches up
but how should i go about "rigorously" showing this
take any element gH in G/H....
hey is this what the sum is equal to?
i currently have; "take any xH in G/H. we know f(xN) = xH, thus f is onto"
okay thanks, ik it's simple but i always feel as if im doing this stuff incorrectly
dw, you'll do it incorrectly next time
okay thank you!
you're right
I mean, this is not rigorous
as is.
you want to briefly justify choice of x doesn't matter
OR rather than saying take xH in G/H
say take x in G
ok i going back to tensor products now
what is 1) sstating
- is pretty clear
is it like a weak basis?
its stating that simple tensors m\otimes n for m in M and n and N generate M \otimes N as an R-module
isnt that a bit circular
i.e. if $f \in M \otimes_R N$ then $f = \sum_i r_i m_i \otimes n_i$ for some $r_i \in R$, $m_i \in M$, $n_i \in N$
how is that circular?
kxrider
in other words, M \otimes_R N is the R-linear span of all the m_i \otimes n_i
is this okay to say? trying to express Z_140 as isomorphic to product of cyclic groups
And similarly U(140)
do you know how the construction of the tensor product works?
that's a bit later in my notes but i vaguely know yeah
well okay,
you have a canonical bilinear map M \times N -> M \otimes_R N
a simple tensor m \otimes n is just the image of (m,n) under this map
yeah ive seen the diagram for this
so 1) here is just saying that it's surjective..?
no
nvm surjectivity is weaker than image spanning i think
yea, but your instinct is correct
- tells you that you can choose to think of the tensor product space as the space of formal linear combinations of simple tensor elements
when you construct the tensor product, youll see that this canonical map is just the composition
$M \times N \to F(M \times N) \xrightarrow \pi F(M \times N)/K = M \otimes_R N$, and you're essentially just asserting that $\pi$ is surjective
kxrider
Hi everyone, I've been self studying aluffi and am stuck on the following problem (1.20 from ch 7 of the book)
Let $p$ be a prime number and $\alpha = 2^{1/p}$. Let $g(x)$ in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ be a non constant polynomial of degree less than $p$. I need to show α can be expressed as a polynomial in $g(\alpha)$ with rational coefficients.
I tried tinkering with a few examples like $p=3$ and $f(x) = x^2/2$ and $g(x) = x^2$, and I think the overall intuition is to construct $f$ such that $f(g(\alpha)) = \alpha$. You can get rid of the constant term in $g(\alpha)$ if you define $f_1(x) = x - g_0$ and then my intuition is to try to define other $f_i$ such that you reduce the power of all the other terms in $f(g(\alpha))$ by one with each iteration.
But the issue I have is generalizing my toy examples to arbitrary polynomials $g(x)$ (with degree less than $p$) and $f(x)$
Eternal Way
Maybe there's a simpler way of going about this, like thinking about Q(g(α))
Indeed, you should think about the tower of extensions Q(alpha) contains Q(g(alpha)) contains Q
This seems like it should be easy but I'm not sure really what to do
I know there'll be a nonempty normal subgroup consisting of the elements of order 2
But not really sure where to go
I was thinking maybe that different group elements will either include or not include the element of order 2, therefore splitting the group
well, it sounds like you are almost done
exact sequences of that form dont nec split
so you cant view G/<g> in G necessarily
i think that problem is tricky. maybe sylow?
If Sylow were available, there wouldn't be a need to point to Cauchy's theorem in the problem statement.
first thing to notice is that n odd is necessary as A_4 has no index 2 subgroups
Here's one thing that seems to work: ||Let the group act on itself by left multiplication, and send each element to the parity of the permutation it creates.||
I don't see why the index of that subgroup would be 2 though?
It isn't necessarily -- for example if G is cyclic of order 2n, there is just one element of order 2, so the index of that subgroup is n.
(this is why i crossed it out)
This sounds like the intended solution, since this question came up in a section on group actions
Oh, but Q(alpha) has prime degree over Q, but such an extension has no subrings properly contained in Q(alpha) and properly containing Q. This implies Q(alpha) = Q(g(alpha)) right?
well we don't necessarily know that Q(g(alpha)) is properly contained in Q(alpha)
ah yeah, you've fixed it in the edit
Maybe it's worth justifying why g(alpha) isn't in Q, but otherwise you're essentially done
Awesome, thanks!
And just to confirm, this is because g has degree less than p right?
yes, that's right
I'm trying to prove that if F is a finite field, then there exists a prime p such that pa = 0 for all a in F (where pa = a + a + ... + a).
If we suppose F has n elements, then certainly na = 0 due to F being a group with addition. My professors hint to us is to then consider that n1 = 0, and to leverage properties about fields and integral domains. But I really have no idea how to get started.
Well, what happens if n isn't prime?
Well the group (F, +) doesn't care whether n is prime. It's happy to be a finite abelian group regardless. So we must get some funkiness when looking at multiplication... Not sure what
If n isn't prime, then the orders of nonzero elements w.r.t addition can be less than n
Is n the size of the field?
yes
I wouldn't start there. Instead I'd look at the smallest positive m such that m1 = 0.
(n1=0 is still relevant for that approach, I suppose, because it tells us that at least one such m exists).
If m1 = 0 then ma = 0 for any a, so the order of every element divides the order of 1. Now if I can just force m to be prime
What happens if m is not prime?
If m is not prime, then we could have a nonzero element $a$ whose order is less than $m$ but divides $m$. Let's say $k\cdot o(a) = m$. Then $\sum_{i=1}^k a = 0$. But this is just $a\sum_{i=1}^k 1 = 0$. However, $a$ is nonzero and $F$ is an integral domain, so $\sum_{i=1}^k 1 = 0$. This contradicts that the order of 1 is $m$.
ecurtiss
Hence the order of 1 is prime, and in fact the order of every nonzero element is the same prime.
(order w.r.t addition)
Yes.
Thank you!
are all finite integral domains isomorphic to Zp where p is prime?
npnp
But these are the only ones
hmm
do you know what texts discuss this?
i believe you fasho but i just want to read up more on it
every finite integral domain is a field
and finite fields have cardinality pⁿ
proof is easy as R → R by x ↦ax is injective and being finite it's surjective. so there is one b s.t. ab=1=ba so every nz element is invertible
the p^n part is then just it being a Z/pZ vector space where p is its char, by simple counting you get that it has order p^n for some n > 0
uniqueness follows from it being the splitting field of x^p^n - x
Hey! I've been stuck on this book exercise for a while:
If G acts transitively on a set S and H <= G with index s.
If the induced action of H on S has l orbits then l <= s. (G can be infinite)
My intuition is that each coset essentially adds more actions and eventually when you add all the cosets together you get the original transitive action.
My expectation is that somehow we can prove that each orbit progressively gets eliminated by adding more cosets and (for some reason) can only be up to s orbits
Maybe it would be better if I try and find an injection from cosets to orbits
is H normal?
Sadly not
have you tried letting G act on the set of orbits of the action of H on S?
No, what is the intention of that
i thought i had an idea but realized i made a silly mistake
actually, i think my idea does work
Okay nice, I'm guessing the action of G on the orbits is the "typical" one
where you act on a representative or something
wait hold on, i may have made a mistake
another cute argument is by saying if it had two different prime factors, then you have elements of (additive) order p and q. this would force char = 1 which is bad.
i don't think the action i had in mind is well defined, but my "idea" was to let G act on the set of orbits of the action of H on S, call it S', by g[x] = [gx]. This action (if it were well defined) is transitive.
Then you get a homomorphism G -> Sym(S'), where Sym(S') the symmetric group on S'. Since the action is transitive, this homomorphism is surjective. Let gH be a coset of H in G. Then
gH[x] = g[Hx] = g[x] = [gx]. This defines a surjective map G/H -> S(S') which would show s >= |S(S'| >= l.
Yeah, I'm currently trying to prove the well-defined-ness
Like, I get to this point
x^g is is g acting on x if that's not obvious
Since the action is transitive, this homomorphism is surjective
also, i think this is wrong actually
Last line is incomplete
I'm kinda stumped, though, doing an action on the orbits seems like the right idea. Just need to make a well defined action
does conjugation work?
wdym by conjugation?
apologies my brain is fried
for some reason I was thinking we were acting on a group for a second there lol
its okay mine too
i thought of that. i don't think it works
so, define [x]g = [g^-1 x]. then we have to show if hx = y then [g^-1x] = [g^-1y] and we pretty much have the same problem
yeah true
WAIT
i got it I think
your action needs to multiply the other direction
so let:
[x]g = {xhg | h in H}
rather than what we were doing which was
[x]g = {xgh | h in H}
Is there anything wrong in these steps?
I'm guessing when I do g^-1 on the right that doesn't work
right action I think
[x]g = {xhg | h in H}
I don't think is an orbit of the action of H on S. For h \neq h', gxh might not be in the same orbit as xh'g
Yeah I am concerned about that
we could do conjugation on H to get a different orbit, I'm not sure if that is closed though
Like:
Take H -> g^-1 H g
and then take the orbit of the element w.r.t. that
Does that make sense?
not sure, like [x]g^-1Hg = [xg^-1Hg]?
So the orbit of an element x under group H is the set { xh : h in H }
If H <= G,
Is the following also an orbit:
{ xg^-1hg : h in H }
Like, potentially this orbit of x under g^-1Hg is identical to the orbit of some y under H (this would need to be proven to show it's true)
Since the conjugates of a subgroup all kind of behave the same way
That's my intuition for why this action might work
if N is the stabilizer of any element of S, S is pretty much G/N, and the orbits of the actions induced by H are the same as double cosets H\G/N. We have an obvious surjection H\G -> H\G/N
and uh according to wikipedia the sizes of H\G and G/H are equal
so H\G has size n and H\G/N has size l
the hard part is probably showing that |H\G| = |G/H|
I'm not sure how to prove it
somehow i am more confused 💀
Yep okay
if s is any element of S
you have a surjection G -> S given by g -> g.s
it's a surjection because the action of G on S is transitive
now I claim this surjection induces a surjection from H\G to the H-orbits of S
so I have to check that two group elements in the same right H-coset are sent to the same H-orbit
which is uh just unfolding definitions
hg.s = h.(g.s) is in the same H-orbit as g.s
so we get a map H\G to the set of H-orbits
and it's still surjective
Okay nice
so the only thing we really have to show
is that the size of H\G is equal to n
and if we define the index to be the size of G/H, that's not immediately obvious
let N be the kernel of the action of G on G/H
it's a normal subgroup of G of finite index (because it's the kernel of a map into the group of permutations of (G/H), which is finite)
and hopefully it can make a clearer picture
then G/H and H\G are isomorphic to the cosets (G/N)/(H/N) and (H/N)\(G/N) between finite groups
blanket
so their size is [G:N] / [H:N] in both cases
So a must have order 1,2,5,10 else the order of (a,b), which is a multiple of the order of a, cannot be 10. Thus one of these hold, 150 | a, 150 | 2a, 150 | 5a, or 150 | 10a. Observe that if one of the first 3 hold, so does the last one. Now we know that 10a = 150b for some integer b, thus a must have factor 15, thus a is in the subgroup of Z/150Z generated by 15
I'm having some difficulty with the proof that the sum and product of two algebraic integers are algebraic integers.
I proved that if u is an algebraic integer, that u + n and un are algebraic integers if n is an actual integer, but I'm not sure how to generalize, since the proof relied on the fact that I could construct another polynomial with integer coefficients.
One way to prove $\mathbb{A}$ is a ring is by proving $$\alpha \in \mathbb{A} \iff | \mathbb{Q}(\alpha):\mathbb{Q}| < \infty.$$
cflau_
It's not a trouble with the algebraic numbers
but the algebraic integers.
We can show that the algebraic numbers are in fact a field.
But the problem lies with the algebraic integers.
I'm not sure how to show that the sum/product of two algebraic integers is an algebraic integer rather than just a general algebraic number.
Intuitively, I know it to be true.
And rigorously, I've shown it from a number theoretic perspective, but since we're dealing with this from an algebraic perspective at the moment I'd like to try to wrap my head around it that way.
number theory isn’t algebra
Very based
Well
What’s the definition you’re using for algebraic integers is it the polynomial one or the slightly stronger (but equivalent) matrix one
whoops, I think a way to prove algebraic integers is a ring is by considering the characteristic polynomial
The way I proved it in number theory (and I can't remember it in full generality) is by using Sylvester matrices to construct resultant polynomials, which is not what we're dealing with right now in algebra.
Yeah, the polynomials were my first thought, but I wasn't sure how to show that the minimal polynomial for u+v is monic.
(and has integer coefficients)
If u and v are algebraic integers, they are the roots of some monic polynomials in Z[x].
I'm not sure how to show that the same is true for u+v and uv.
I proved it for u+n and un where n is an actual integer
because there is an explicit construction for those polynomials that keeps the integer coefficients.
it’s easier if you think about them as satisfying the characteristic polynomial for a matrix
I seem to recall the number theory proof being very constructive in a way that involved a lot more computations than we normally use in this class.
What do you mean about the characteristic polynomials for matrices?
Then your algebraic integers are eigenvalues of those matrices
It's been awhile since I've dealt much with those. We haven't actually looked at a matrix once in this class.
Well
I take that back
I think we dealt with the quaternions as a group of matrices
Have you seen the tensor product yet
but we deal a lot more with the abstract side than the representation side.
Yes.
If it means anything to you, we're in Hungerford, chapter 5.
Ok good, then you should be able to take A and B with eigenvalues u, v and construct a matrix with uv as an eigenvalue fairly easily
u+v is a bit more tricky
Hold on a sec; I'm not sure how to do that.
and then since it’s an eigenvalue it satisfies the characteristic polynomial
We dealt with abstract tensor products.
I've dealt with eigenvalues before in the past
But we haven't looked at them in this course.
Ok call this the krondecker product then
I haven't heard of the krondecker product.
Ngl this excuse is flimsily, you can do some research lol
It’s not that complicated
That's not really my point lol
I'm sure it wouldn't be that complicated to show that the ring of algebraic integers is in fact a ring
But
I think many ways of doing so may be outside the scope of what we're doing in the class at the moment.
Like I said, I've gone through a proof of it before, and even that the ring of integers of any field is integrally closed in its field of fractions, but that's also outside the scope of the class.
Right now we're in introductory graduate field theory.
Outside the scope more like outside the cope… a proof is a proof!!
I've seen some of this stuff in the past, but I'm not sure how to approach the proof regarding the algebraic integers using the tools currently at our disposal.
Well, I did get 1/4 on an assignment in another class for proving a complex analysis fact using calculus.
Honestly though
the grade isn't really important
I've already pretty much guaranteed full marks in this class.
I'm just trying to wrap my head around the proof of this fact from the field theory perspective.
Here's the remainder of the problem, for reference.
Well I don’t know any field theory so I will wish you luck
I appreciate the help!
Honestly, a lot of this has been mostly number theory, but I think going into explicit matrix representations of tensor products to construct matrices with appropriate eigenvalues might be a bit much when we haven't said the word eigenvalue this semester 😂
That said, there are a couple other places where I've been stuck this time around.
That's one; I'm not sure how to approach that problem at all (well, loosely, but not very well).
And this is the other one:
Currently, my cheeky solution to "I don't know why x^3 - ux - u has no roots in K(u)" is to say "It does not."
as if the rest of the contradiction had already been established lol
If there's anyone who can help with any of these 3 questions I would quite appreciate that.
I have an idea, but I just started reading about field extensions, so it may not be great. ||For the forwards direction, if E = K(a), then as F is algebraic, Irr(K,a,X) = f exists. As f has coefficients in K, sigma(f) = f. (If f = f_0 + f_1 X + ... + f_n X^n, sigma(f) = sigma(f_0) + ... + sigma(f_n) X^n). As sigma(a) is a root of sigma(f), it is also a root of f. Thus [E:K] = deg f = [K(sigma(a)) : K] = [sigma(E) : K], hence sigma is surjective, and thus an automorphism. I think you can do something similar for arbitrary finite extensions. I don't know how to argue for infinite extensions however. ||
For arbitrary extensions, ||if E is an infinite extension then for a in E let E' be the extension of K generated by all of the roots of Irr(K,a,X) = p(X) that lie in E. We observe that sigma sends a root of p(X) that lies in E, to another root of p(X) that lies in E. Thus sigma(E') is a subset of E'. But by a cardinality argument they must be the same field. Thus a lies in the image of sigma restricted to E', and thus a lies in the image of sigma, i.e. sigma is surjective and hence an auto ||
I think for the the other direction you could do contraposition.
Damn, no cute parrot emote on the server
Thanks man! I'll read through it and see if I can make sense of it all.
I'm looking back over this, and I don't think it's correct. I showed that if one could find a nonzero element whose order is less than m but divides m, then m must be prime. But I don't know that such an element exists.
Alternatively, I could suppose that such an element does exist, and reach the conclusion that the order of every nonzero element is the same. But that doesn't tell me that that order is prime.
I mean, yes the group of units of Z/5Z is Z_4 but I don't see how that relevant in factoring Z_140 into cyclic groups?
Hm a question im doing asks me to show that if M is a simple A module and I a two sided ideal with I^n = 0 then IM =0
Ofc this also follows by Nakayama but we can just say like oh if IM is nonzero then it's M, so for all k we have I^k M = M, so in particular 0= I^n M = M, a contradiction
Because this is meant to be like 6 marks or smth lol
hmm lol
lol what does that mean
maybe they want you to prove Nakayama before using 
our grader once deduced 2marks for assuming Aut(S3)=S3
lol
Tbf I didn't know that was the case lol
Well or at least I'd have to think about it a lil
lol even I don't see this immediately now, ig it was justified then
what's your worst grading experience
A is commutative here right?
'A'
what
'A'll rings are commutative
actually no wait nvm you've specified it's two-sided irregardless
I can't see where that argument fails lol
Hm
Well definitely not the worst but a funny one was when the grader thought questions were out of 20 instead of 25 and like
One question went a little meh but was marked correct, but the other was perfect so he just gave it 20
how the hell do you cock that up
just scanning I see no reason why T needs to be trivial
I was just wondering,because it is claimed in the book that E as a set is U(1) x G
my guess was that E= (U,g) so that U is in the preimage of Tg under hat gamma (according to a SE hint)
so i was guessing T must be trivial
but I have no clue tbh
learning about tensor products rn, is it just my impression or is commutativity of that operation really powerful
so E here is the particular subgroup of U(H)xG such that when you map the first coordinate through gamma you get the second coordinate mapped through T, so the composition gamma(S(U, g)) = gamma(u) = Tg = T(pi(U, g)) holds for all elements in E?
I'm struggling to se how this kinda isn't just true by definition of E
oh right the other square
I can't just 5-lemma my way out of this one
yeah the other square commutes pretty obviously if the bottom map is U(1) -> U(H) given by lambda -> lambda*Id_H, I'm not too sure what you're confused about
it definitely doesn't need to be trivial
I am trying to see why E=U(1) x G
do you see why is this true?
I am confused about this
it's not about commutativity
right ok sorry I got distracted
firstly, E is a subgroup of U(H)xG - good start
it's a central extension so (U(1), 1) is in the centre of E - are there any elements outside of U(1) that commute with all of U(1)?
I must admit I don't actually know what these U(-) groups are 
unitary groups of a hilbret space
U(P) is the unitary group of the projective hilbert sapce
agree
cause if there aren't elements outside of U(1) (well, what I mean by that is elements in U(H) that aren't in U(1)) that don't commute with all of U(1), then this contradicts the fact that (U, 1) is in the centre of E for all U in U(1).
As we'd take some U* in U(H)-U(1) and then the inclusion (U*, 1) wouldn't commute with some (U, 1) in the inclusion of U(1), contradicting the centrality. So if there are NO elements in U(H)-U(1) that commute with all of U(1), then the group just has to be U(1)xG right?
the question is, are there no elements?
not sure
I've solved one of my earlier problems; currently I'm having some trouble extending the proofs here in (b) and (c) to the question (d):
Do you know that algebraic numbers form a field?
Otherwise this is much harder than a),b) and c)

ignore, I thought you're talking about alg integers
c) you need to use the fact that algebraic integers form a ring
even for d
cuz they are rings that contain Z
like there's no additional structure, in fact its the opposite
n(a/b) = (na)/b
n(x+yi) = nx+nyi
ta-da
and yes they're Z-modules are they're abelian groups under addition

this means that Q \otimes Q should just be isomorphic to Q right?
and same for C \otimes C?
Yes, we know that much.
So we know that if u and v are algebraic integers, then uv and u+v are algebraic numbers, but I don't know how to show that they're algebraic integers.
My intuition suggests trying to show that if u and v are the roots of monic polynomials in Z[x], then so are uv and u+v.
We know that they're roots of some polynomials in Z[x], just not necessarily that they're monic.
Of course, I know they do have to be monic, but I'm not sure how to argue that point.
Honestly i've never tried to deduce the fact this forms a ring from the fact the alg numbers forms a field lol
How much stuff have you already done on alg numbers/integers? Like how did you prove that the alg numbers form a field
We have that the set of all elements that are algebraic over a field form a field.
In general.
In particular, the algebraic numbers were (as far as this course is concerned) defined in the problem statement.
We're in introductory graduate Galois theory.
I've proven some of these things in a number theory course, but this class is sometimes particular about using content that we've covered.
For reference, if it means anything to you, we're currently on Hungerford chapter 5.
i have this question
is this diagram enough for the first part
basically combining universal properties of product and tensor product
that diagram not correct >.<
f1 and f2 aren't bilinear, so they don't factor through the tensor product
depends on how much you've played with tensor products
if you've shown by now that it's a nice bifunctor and is right-exact then there is a much simpler diagram lol
slightly related question that's just popped into my head, do functors R-mod -> R-mod preserve injections/surjections?
I know they do in set
which functor?
just an arbitrary one lol
maybe the question isn't well phrased it was just a thought I had
hmmm
yea dunno what you mean
,ti sebb
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,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 02:42 PM (EDT) on Fri, 31/03/2023.
it's a reasonable time for once
did you not get a good sweep >.<
Member selection timed out.
been a long week

yo
hewwo 
What's going on with the server and channels
why do they have weird glitchy names
HACKERS?
Fuck yeah I love this new channel name!
look at all the other ones
suits it better
realise the day

congrats!
I haven't been here in a while so sorry if this is old news
Boyjie I don't know how to tell u this...
det only has the mod color >.<
Hahahahaha
u have been april fooled
Ah yes hacked server
ofc
To make up for that...
I'll post something cool I think is true about monoids
Let's say you have a monoid $M$ and a submonoid $S$, and $M$ acts on some set $\Omega$. Then of course, the submonoid $S$ also acts on $\Omega$.
Now the question is (as has come up in some of my work) if we say that $M$ acts transitively on $\Omega$, when does it also hold that $S$ acts transitively too?
Boytjie
Now this has come up in some stuff regarding Markov chains. We can define a Markov chain via an action of a monoid M on a set Omega, and a probability distribution on M.
Amazing channel name change 10/10
anyway
so true king
but the point is, this probability distribution could be really badly adapted to the monoid
like, there could be a 100% chance of just choosing the identity for example
so we need to think about the submonoid generated by the support of the distribution
Anyway
It turns out that the condition seems to be that the transitive $M$-sets are the same as the transitive $S$-sets when $S$ contains any (two-sided) ideal of $M$
Boytjie
It's super easy to show that this condition works, though I haven't given it any thought whether or not it's necessary
section 3 of this paper does this https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.4250
We develop a general theory of Markov chains realizable as random walks on
$\mathscr R$-trivial monoids. It provides explicit and simple formulas for the
eigenvalues of the transition matrix, for multiplicities of the eigenvalues via
Möbius inversion along a lattice, a condition for diagonalizability of the
transition matrix and some techniques ...
Prop 3.2 is the correct statement but the proof is totally wrong
Channel Topic (for specific): Homological Algebra
im having a hard time understanding this commutative grape problem
specifically the notation at the bottom right where the sigma is in the subscript
what is happening?
sigma is a permutation
it maps elements in {1...4} to the same set
so sigma(1) is just a number.
oh true thank you
wo
If I have a rng of grapes (not necessarily commutative) such that x^3 = x, how do I show that 6x = 0?
Sorry let me rephrase
nani is this lmao
🍇^3 = 🍇
I don't think that's true because x=-1 in \bR satisfies this
hmm
interesting
I'm guessing the book made a typo
also whats the
fake moderator role
<@&1091183017051050074> your authority is being questioned
can I eat abelian grapes or can I only eat nonabelian grapes
shuri why aren't you moderator
if you eat a red grape and then a blue grape is that the same as eating a blue grape and then a red grape?
hmm
I don't think eating is abelian sadly
for example, if you first eat a steak and then eat ice cream
you'll be fine
but if you ate ice cream and then steak
you'll die
If you turn them into wine first, they commute.
mix em up in a blender form the commutator
what does this look like det 

ok working on a different question now and maybe im being silly but
is that surjection A^n -> M always there?
oh i guess it is
after thinking about it like an extra minute lol
there is a surj M x N -> M (x) N i guess
mod potat
Nu whut. Not every tensor is elementary
what's an example of a non-elementary one
Like literally anything :p
like…any of them?
ooh i thought you were saying like
not every element of a tensor product is elementary
correct.
i'll see myself out 
most are not, by definition.
V x V --> V (x) V where V is a dim 3 vector space
Oh oopsie
i kid
going back here for a moment, the surjective map onto a finitely generated R module exists because if we have M being finitely generated in R x M, then we can take n-many copies of R where id maps into each element in the generating set of M right
that's very weirdly phrased
ig im asking: the n in R^n -> M depends on the size of the generating set right
Yee

so to show that the tensor product of finitely generated modules is also fin. gen.
this is the question
abelian grapes?
The easiest way to prove this is probably by using the universal property
(Although idk what R x M is doing here)
lol I'm on phone, too hard to type here so I forget to read what's happening up :p
ok we have R^n -> M1 and R^m -> M2, using the natural(?) map R^n x R^m -> R^n \otimes R^m, we get an induced map to M1 \otimes M2 right
then surjectivity of all that means it must be finitely generated i think
is natural a good/bad word to use there? idk what categorical implications it has if any
wdym "using the natural map"?
nu natural is fine
i was not sure about the usage of "using" lol
like what's happening is you have map M1 --> N1 and M2 --> N2 then you get a induced map between teh products M1 x M2 --> N1 x N2 which you compose with the map N1 x N2 --> N1 ⊗_R N2 and this composite is bilinear so has to factor through M1 ⊗_R M2
if you can define the map without making choices specific to particular objects, it would be natural, so dw about that
det
yea true... but i think it might be good to spend a little time with getting used to the fact that if you have a set of elements m_i then the span of them is exactly the image of R^{⊕I} --> M
if you have done some field theory, this argument is pretty much same as showing the tower law for degree
if {m_i} is a generating set of M and {n_j} a generator set of N, then {m_i⊗n_j} is one for M ⊗N
whut does milk on carpet mean?
yeah


it means head empty no thoughts
(i havent followed the lectures very well and am behind)
Parrot Tea
we doign algebra >.<
No, for abc conjecture

Is this for an undergrad course (like bachelors)?
no it's a grad class
tensow pwoduct 
potato gave me this proof a little while ago
im a little confused about w in the first part though
in this equality, we go from lambda being a single element of k to the identity matrix times lambda right
and we're fine w this bc they act in the same way
ok nvm i think i see it
Does anyone know what happened to the discord channel?
I get all weird symbols and I can't differentiate the channels.
What channel are you trying to find?
det mod or april fools prank 
det mod
well one is called "Moderator" and the other is called "Moderators" >.<
how exactly is i[D] a subdomain of F? of course i can check, but i'm curious as to where the "of course" came from
i know that if phi is a homomorphism from a group G to a group G' then phi[G] is a subgroup
but that only applies to group homomorphisms
ah well i suppose it is kinda trivial
nvm then
i still don't get how this "proves the following theorem"
how exactly are those elements of D
i is a map from D to F
therefore i(a) and i(b) are in F
i can't be the only one who thinks this is ass notation
is it because D is isomorphic to a subring of F?
so that subring is essentially D??
ohhh okay thank you so much! that clears it up a lot
i've been trying to do some more problems where we count the number of elements and cyclic subgroups, so that insight actually helps out a ton
Elements in F are equivalence classes of tuples of elements in D, i.e. each f in F is of the form (a,b) where a,b in D
But once you get past the mental gymnastics to conclude that low quality materials are basically the same high quality materials isomorphism is basically the same as equals, you will be set to start your successful construction business algebra experience





