#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 75 of 1
ugh nope x.x
So you want e * 5=5 * e=5 for example
to put it another way, an identity e satisfies the equation
g * e = e * g = g
for all g in the set
But replace 5 with any rational number and the equations still hold
I mean equation in the same way as pre-algebra
so g is like a 'constant' and you want to 'solve' for e is one way of thinking about looking for an identity
Not the ideal way of thinking about it long term, I will say
The e certainly does matter.
but to get you to understand initially
if so, how do u narrow it down?
In words:
e combined with any member of the set leaves that member unchanged
If that's what u mean
Can you think of any numbers, such that when you multiply it by 5, you get 5?
1
Yes.
Can you think of anything else?
Perhaps 1 works?
If you multiply 1 by 42.57, do you get 42.57?
there arent.
yes
yes to this
Im curious - did you also take introduction to proofs before doing your current course
it in a diff course
if not, i would recommend it
we dont do induction in this course i believe
oh nope

Not all systems have a separate introduction-to-proofs course -- very often you're expected to figure that out by osmosis while learning substative things in other courses.
Like this doesn't make sense to me for starters
Let's get back to the identity. Do you feel it is resolved what the identity in (Q*, ×) is?
is it just 1?
Yes.
One of the first proofs should be proving the identity is unique in all groups
what does the x mean
(Q*, x)
It's not the letter x, but the multiplication sign. It tells you what the group operation of the group we're thinking about is.
oh i see ty
Can I see that LaTeX code, I've never seen $\mathbb{Q}$ done like that before
AM4DEUS
Ah
Consider on the set ℚ× of non-zero rational numbers the operation • defined by 𝑝 • 𝑞 = 𝑝𝑞/2 .
for this question
what does the dot mean?
multiply?
It's defining a new binary operation
Prove that this operation makes (ℚ×, •) into an abelian group.
commutativity is a tick
associativity too
closure yes
identity
Wonderful! I was just trying to come up with a good example of a set with two different group operations on it ...
what does p dot q means?
It is defined to mean pq/2.
oh?
so for identity
i need to figure out q
basically
p(2)/2 = 2(p)/2 = p
so identity is equal to 2
Wait, how did you check commutativity, associativity and closure without understanding what the operation is?
well since p dot q and q dot p
divided by 2
should be the same
commutative is a tick
since order dont matter
You are taking p = p/2 and q as 2.
p*q should give you back p/2, not p.
Yes, I agree. I'm just confused that you needed to ask for the meaning of p·q when you got to identity, when you've already used that definition when checking commutativity
No, the /2 came from the definition of the operation.
Just write the isomorphism with Q* and you get all of these things for free
Hush.
uh im confused about isomorphism lol
Ignore that for now.
Whoops. Sorry, don't ignore it then.
abelian first
Just say it is trivial and left as an excercise to the reader
identity should be 2 right
And you get everything for free
Yes.
Inverse of what?
No, the inverse can never be "just 4" -- you need a separate inverse for each element in the group.
The inverse depends on each element
inverse of p i mean
amadeus I think you should just let tropo help here, you're just confusing OP
But it will be a good start to find the inverse of a few concrete elements first, to get a feel for what we're doing.
So, let's find the inverse of 5.
2 is the identity, yes.
so that would be 2/5
Let's see if that works.
If it's the inverse, then we should have (2/5) • 5 = e, but the identity was 2, so that's the same as (2/5) • 5 = 2.
yay
Now remember that • is not multiplication here, but instead stands for the strange group operation the exercise defined.
So (2/5) • 5 means (2/5)5/2 which is 1, and it should be 2.
Yes.
So are you now ready to describe the inverse of an arbitrary p?
Exactly.
I haven't seen that part of your exercise.
ℚ× is also a group under the usual operation of multiplication ×. Find an isomorphism
of groups 𝜑 ∶ (ℚ×, •) → (ℚ×, ×).
so basically
the group is now defined as a multiplication
operation
Hmm yes. There are two different groups in play now. They happen to have the same set of elements, but their group operations are different.
Yes. A "group" is the combination of an underlying set and a group operations, and (ℚ×, •) and (ℚ×, ×) are two different such combinations.
The task is slightly tricky because there are many different ismorphisms between (ℚ×, •) and (ℚ×, ×), and you're only asked to find one of them. So we cannot hope to find a deductive argument that tells you exactly what φ must be. At some time during the exercise we have to make a jump and say "such-and-such is something simple that might work -- oh, look, it does work, so let's pick that!"
good place to start is with the homomorphism property
Writing q•p = qp/2 we can simply observe the isomorphism

Why the heck are you bringing up homo/isomorphism when they are learning the defn of a group
How in any way could this be helpul
im confused by what they meant
???
Well yes, of course, because you aren't there yet. Don't worry about it
the exercise they are doing is finding a isomorphism
wait what
(It turns out there's a single one that's a lot easier to describe than all the others, so "narrowing down" will not actually be our trouble. We just need the courage to try that simple thing, when we don't know yet it has to be something that will work).
That's apparently part (b) of the exercise.
oh my bad, missed this. Thought we were still at the previous part
mind giving me an example
Who should be sullying who
A good place to start would be to write down the definition of "isomorphism" from your book. There are a few different (but equivalent) ways to define that, and some of them will actually help us along more than others ...
To add on to that, you might want to compare the operations with each other and see what changes, and then relate back to identities or properties of functions you have seen before
for example, the divide by 2 might be of use in finding the isomorphism
I'm not sure the "stare at the group operation" strategy is actually helpful at the level of experience Cephy has. Sure, we who already have seen a dozen examples of this can quickly say "oh, of course it is just ..." but that is only because we have already worked through the thought pattern Cephy is still just about to discover.
wait im just writing things down
Oh, take your time. I'm just stating that I don't think the approaches of Blitz and Wormscarf will be helpful for you.
Yeah, you're probably right. But i still remember doing abstract algebra and seeing places to use natural logs and exponents to simplify and find isomorphisms. There should be a lot of familiarity once you pass a certain stage.
And the shortcut you're hinting at will totally be worth pointing out once they have found their isomorphism.
Wdym approaches. That was a hint
i'm losing my mind because I forgot so much algebra and can't figure out this basic thing; if two polynomials $p(X), q(X) \in F[X]$ have a common zero in some extended field $F / E$, then their greatest common divisor in $F[X]$ is nontrivial / nonconstant
matcool473
I see that if $\alpha$ is their common root in $E$, then they have a common linear factor in $E[X]$; $p(X) = (X - \alpha) h(X)$ and $q(X) = (X - \alpha) k(X)$. But why would this imply that they have common (nonconstant) factor in $F[X]$?
matcool473
do you mean E/F?
yes!
look at m_\alpha(x)
Wait, is this all it takes; $m_{\alpha}(x)$ divides both $p(X)$ and $q(X)$, because minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ divides all polynomials which vanish at $\alpha$. And the minimal polynomial is non constant by definition of minimal polynomial?
matcool473
yes
thanks
the very fact that α is a root (common root) says it's algebraic
yes i figured that thanks 🙂
are they trying to hint out that i should use log
No they're not.
(I'm still waiting for your definition of "isomorphism", by the way, @hollow shore).
any bijective function φ that preserves the groups operation, in this case for any non-zero rational numbers p and q
Okay, that's somewhat bare-bones. Do you already know that an isomorphism necessarily preserves the identity?
Some definitions take "preserves the identity" and "preserves inverses" to be part of the definition.
Do you already know that an isomorphism necessarily preserves the identity?
Do we agree that "perserves the group operation" means that we must have φ(a•b) = φ(a)×φ(b)?
yes
So in particular if e is the identify for • (which we already know is 2, but bear with me), then φ(a) = φ(a•e) = φ(a)×φ(e).
(I often find it more helpful to write definitions algebraically/symbolically while stating/rephrasing the 'meaning' aloud in words. You're going to be manipulating those symbols in your proof)
This means that φ(e) can only be the identity in (ℚ×, ×), because that's the only way to make φ(a) = φ(a)×φ(e) true.
thanks for all the helps, let continue u this later today it 2am rn ima sleep lol
(Sorry, had to go and do something). When you wake up, consider this:
We now know we must have φ(2)=1. Given just that single point, what is the simplest bijection from ℚ× to ℚ× with that property you can think of? Check whether that happens to be an isomorphism.
("Always return 1" is not a bijection, and "subtract 1 from everything" doesn't work because it doesn't produce a nonzero rational when the input is 1. So those are too simple to satisfy even the conditions so far).
Just write q•p = qp/2 and think what sort of algebraic manipulations you can do to obtain h(q•p) = h(q)h(p) for some function h
Wouldn't every power of 2 get mapped to 1? Like phi(4) = phi(2)^2 = 1^2 = 1, so at the very least it's not an injection
I'm pretty sure we are considering the bijection x/2 from Q to Q
which is definitely not multiplicative
phi(ab) = ab / 2 which is not equal to phi(a) * phi(b) = a/2 * b/2 = ab/4
1 is not the unit in this new operation
what 
Well like I'm confused what you mean by this lol, like isn't the point that we are trying to construct an iso between Q with one multiplication with Q with another multiplication
But you have just used the "normal" multiplication on Q twice...
that's not how you would use the homomorphism property 😕
When you say phi(4) = phi(2)^2 and 1^2 = 1
ah i didn't scroll up nearly enough
lol
Absolutely no idea how to do (b) or (c)
This is my first time working with group representations so that's probably the issue
Not sure how the permutation matrix compares to the character table I sent
Is (b) just the straight computation? Call the matrix P, permutation π. So P_ij = 1 if π(i) = j and 0 otherwise?
Cause if it is I'm throwing that shit into SageMath unless there's a smarter way to do it
Is (a) really going to be me just listing 20 different elements? (b) just computing 20 traces?
(b) is straight up looking at the representatives you got in (a) and counting their fixed points
because the trace of a permutation matrix is the number of fixed points the permutation has
it should take a negligible amount of time compared to (a)
Oh
I did not know that
Ok yea that makes it much easier
intuitively that fact makes sense
Oh ok I'm dumb c is literally just linear combinations but is there a smart way to do this?
there's an easy way to speed it up for H_1, note how 5 and 6 are fixed by H_1
other than that, inner product rho_i with itself to get some idea of the number and multiplicity of the constituents - if you know about that
you also know the dimension of the direct sum has to be the dim of rho_i
It is probably more natural to prove $U^\otimes V\approx\mathcal L(U,V)$. Things in $U^\otimes V$ are of the form $\sum_i u_i\otimes v_i$ where $u_i\in U^*$. Now, you might think of it as defining a function $U\to V$ by
[
x\mapsto \sum_i u_i(x)\cdot v_i
]
Croqueta
for every x in U
yeah I guess this also works
what I said is like that
but like the dual counterpart lol
yooo
is Z/2Z x Z/2Z a comm ring with identity that has only two maximal ideals? (namely Z/2Z x {0} and the other way around ? )
Thanks!
the only other possibility would be the ideal (1,1), but that gives the whole ring
what you mean by wrt to a unit
If you mean inverting the unit, everything stays the same
nothing happens right?
I dont think so
you can't localise "with respect to a unit" you have to localise with respect to a multiplicatively closed set - if you mean localise with respect to like, {1, u, ..., u^-1} with u a unit then yeah I'm pretty sure it's iso to the original ring
Multiply your polynomial by x-1.
le roots of unity have arrived
I'm not on that PACK the roots of this are just the 101st roots of unity (not counting 1 itself) right
yes the canonical map r->r/1 should be an iso then i think?
it's injective since S does not contain zero divisors
and surjective since every fraction can be rewritten
it's bijective because it's obvious
yeah, that polynomial is a cyclotomic polynomial
then this should still be the case if you localize at {1,u,u^2....}
yooo my brain just blew up , i couldnt find integer solutions to a^2+b^2=2
since 101 is prime
which is usually what localizing at an element refers to
103 is invertible modulo 101, so the nontrivial roots of x^101=1 each raised to the 103th power are exactly the nontrivial roots of x^103=1, just in a different order.
yeah I was gonna say that x_k -> x_k^2 just permutes them cause coprime
And those roots are xi, xi^2, xi^3, ..., xi^100 where xi is a fixed primitive root. And you know already what the sum of those is.
ah, my apologies - didn't know this terminology
The point of localization is inverting elements. If you invert an element that was already invertible, you obtain nothing new. Because if u is a unit and you "add" an inverse x, then you have ux=1, but multiplying by u^{-1} yields x=u^{-1}
This is similar to the situation $\R[x]/(x^2-2)\approx \R$. Tho this situation is not exactly the same because x is either sqrt 2 or -sqrt 2, but you cannot tell which
Croqueta
However, whereas R[x]/<x²-2> is not exactly isomorphic to R, localizing at a unit does produce something isomorphic to the original ring.
(Due to how equality in the localization is defined).
okay
R[x]/<x^2-2>=R is not true I think
because thats not the kernel of the map x--> sqrt 2
R[x]/(x^2-2) is not even a domain
Indeed, since (x-sqrt2)(x+sqrt2) = 0.
I guess, in a ring, you can have a polynomial with as many distinct roots as you want
but in rings, inverses are unique. So my comparison was not accurate at all lol
i was to show
that
if a ring has the property that any element is either nilpotent or a unit
then it has a unique prime ideal
and ig localization didnt work for me
commutative
The statement ought to immediately suggest a candidate for what the unique prime ideal is ...
You can save the comparison by saying something like R[x]/<2x-5> instead.
yeah
R right?
the whole ring?
Don't know what constituents are.
??
or ig 0
0 isn’t prime if you have zero divisors
truu
yea let me check if its assumed
It's an explicit condition in the definition of "prime ideal" that the whole ring doesn't count as a prime ideal.
@void cosmos do you know the proof that the nilradical is the intersection of all prime ideals?
It's clear from the assumption that the nilradical is a maximal ideal and therefore prime.
the trivial part of that proof is required for this exercise
suppose a is not a unit --> a is nilpotent --> R_a is zero
the ring is as localized as possible
indeed
yea its the nilradical
"it"
oh okay ye the unique one
Well whenever you have a local ring, the maximal ideal is always gonna be the set of non-units
espanol
which is clear here as tropo says, since the set of non-units just is the nilradical
si si
mon francais es terriblé
lol
lol
lol
la nuit noire
2 isnt tho
try it
in Z[i] the primes congruent to 3 mod 4 remain irreducible, the ones congruent to 1 mod 4 no
this is not trivial tho
i think this comes from when a prime square is represented as the sum of squares
my guess
yee
what's localization in a nutshell
inverting
adding fractions
but i think the p cool stuff about it is the correspondonce between prime ideals
More elementarily, it's easiy to list all of the elements of Z[i] with norm < that of 3 and show that none of them divide 3.
add they fractions
hm what's the easiest way to see this
i mean
one direction is basically two squares theorem
eh okay and the other is easier
okay question is 3 prime in R={m/2^n | m in Z , n in N}?
"just prove the 2 squares theorem dawg"
thats the localization wrt to 2 right
yes
and 3 is prime in Z
ye i suppose the other is easier as you'd have p = a^2 + b^2 which is impossible mod 4 if p is 3 mod 4
there are standard facts with localization
or
3/1
notice that the quadratic form x^2+y^2 has discriminant -4
why don't you just try to provide a proof
show that the class number is 1
oh nice
do I look like I know what a class number is
thats it , i just used the correspondonce between primes here and primes that do not contain S theere
and use that n will be represented by a form of discriminant -4 iff -4 is a square mod 4n
all I want is a god damn DIMENSION FUNCTOR FROM THE DOUBLE BURNSIDE RING
fancy word
in Gauss language you have like quadratic forms
and you define some change of coordinates
But also like more easily to check irreducibility you've just gotta do like
if 3 = (a/2^n)(b/2^m) where a,b are odd
and look at "reduced" quadratic forms (so you pick a simple quadratic form up to permissable changes of variables)
there may be several non-equivalent reduced forms of the same discriminant, but with discriminant -4 this doesn't happen, and the argument is simple inequalities
and so ye
cool!
okay where does this come from croqueta
i've not seen this proof of two squares aha
inch resting
Look at Niven chapter 3
I didnt explain it propertly tho, cuz tired
that's the guy who did the trig thing
yes
no wayyyy
you mean proving pi irrational?
no the other one, the rational values one
it's almost definitely a different niven
oh maybe not actually
Consider quadratic forms $f(x,y)=ax^2+bxy+cy^2$. The discriminant is defined to be $\Delta\colon= b^2-4ac$. The group of $SL_2(\bZ)$ acts on the set of quadratic forms by $f(x,y)\mapsto f(ax+by, cx+dy)$, for each matrix
[
\begin{bmatrix}
a&b\ c&d
\end{bmatrix}
]
in $SL_2(\bZ)$.
Two quadratic forms $f$ and $g$ are equivalent if there is a matrix $M\in SL_2(\bZ)$ such that $fM=gM$ (where the action is as above). This is of course an equivalence relation. Now, you have: If $f$ and $g$ are equivalent, then an integer $n$ is represented by $f$ if and only if it is represented by $g$. Moreover, the discriminants of $f$ and $g$ are equal.
Let $f$ be a quadratic form whose discriminatn $\Delta$ is not a perfect square. We call $f$ reduced if
[
-|a|<b\leq |a|,,\text{or if},, 0\leq b\leq |a|=|c|.
]
A main result is: Let $\Delta$ be an integer, which is not a perfect square. Each equivalence class of quadratic forms of discriminant $\Delta$ contains at least one reduced form. Furthermore, the number of reduced forms of a given nonsquare discriminant is finite. This number is called the class number of $\Delta$, and you mayd enote it by $H(\Delta)$.
Croqueta
okay took some time because I was preparing dinner lol
@south patrol
And also, you have this main result: Let $n$ and $\Delta$ be given integers with $n\neq 0$. There exists "a" binary quadratic form of discriminant $\Delta$ that represents $n$ properly if and only if the congruence $x^2\equiv \Delta$ modulo $4|n|$ has a solution
Croqueta
(represent properly means f(x,y)=n with gcd(x,y)=1)
Now, if you can show that the class number H(-4) is 1, the theorem of Fermat follows
And this class number agrees with the modern class number, etc
one sentence proof more like four sentence proof
This is Gauss theory, which deals with the special case of quadratics (but with a different flavour) and follows from usual algebraic NT
so the key here, is to consider not just one equation (namely, x^2+y^2), but many
Thankss
Wait how does this class number relate to the normal class number
or does it not at all ig lol
nono It does
but I dont really know how either
The -4 discriminant is related to Z[i] ofc
And Z[i] is a PID, ie, has usual class number 1
So it makes sense
yee noice hm
This is something I have yet to study more
Class number 1 says there is just one equivalence class of quadratic forms
Tbh the proof using the fact Z[i] is a UFD feels the most like explanatory (since it immediately shows uniqueness too) but then i think that's just because we are using more known facts idk
Like the Zagier proof is probably the only nicely self-contained proof I suppose
But not v intuitive lol
what is class number in ant
Hm okay might be hard to give a short explanation if you've not seen the relevant theory but the point is that one associates to a ring of integers a finite abelian group known as the "ideal class group" and the size of that group is known as the class number
What are some of the applications of cohomology theories of algebras (e.g Lie Algebra Cohomology, Hochschild Cohomology, Cyclic Homology and etc...) to classical problems about these (for example classification theorems)?
You can view the class number heuristically as measuring how far the number ring is from being a UFD or PID, since the class number is one iff the ring is a UFD or PID
Maybe a better question would be to ask what they are good for.
Can i get some help showing if H cap K is normal in both H and K, then HK is contained in the normalizer of H cap K in G
everyone wish me luck my first modern algebra midterm is thursday and this is my last math requirement for my degree and I have a job lined up for after I graduate I need to pass 🙏🏻
good luck uwu 
This is just applying definitions. To show that $HK\subset N(H\capK)$ we need to show that for all x in $H \cap K $, all $hk\in HK$, $xhk=hkx$. Can you use the fact that $H\cap K \unlhd H,K$ to show this?
,av am4deus

Good luck
HK is contained in N_G(H n K), so for all x in H n K, all hk in HK, xhk = hkx?
AM4DEUS
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Is it correct to call the vectors in the tensor space u_1×v_1, u_2×v_2,.....
What about u_i×v_j for i not equal j? Is it an abuse of notation to put u_i×v_i?
Well that is what you want to show
They are equivalent statements
I think they meant u_i tensor v_j actually
That's what I thought
Unless the "diagonal" tensors are the only one's linearly independent
right. and since H n K is normal in H, g(H n K)g' = H n K for all g in G right?
If you show this xhk=hkx then you show that HK is contained in the normaliser
No, the set of all elements of the form u_i tensor v_j is linearly independent
for example
if V and W is finite dimensional
and the {u_i} form a basis for V and {v_j} for W
No
It's normal in H, not in G
Then their tensor product has dimension the product of their respective dimensions
yea okay
this corresponds to the fact that {u_i tensor v_j} will be a basis for their tensor product
i just dont know how to apply the definitions to help me
and this set has cardinality dim(V)dim(W)
Say H is normal in G, then for all g in G, h in H, gh=hg
yes
That's another property of normality, which might be more helpful
so for all x in H n K and all h in H, xh=hx, same thing for normal in K, xk=kx
probably an easier way but like this?
feel like i shouldnt have to do the last multiplication on the right by x but maybe so
You could just say that hkx=hxk=xhk
Snake lemma or butterfly lemma?
Which diagram is prettier
there’s the easier way
i think you mean hkx = hx'k = x''hk
whut nu, gh = h'g
gH = Hg translates to that, not commutativity on the nose
yes normal means it may be a different element that it holds for right
i think a nice way to do this is by using that N_G(H) is the largest subgroup of G which contains H as a normal subgroup
so N_G(H n K) contains both H and K
and hence contains HK
it also contains HKHKHKHKHK and stuff because the subgroup N_G(H n K) is closed under multiplication
(HK apriori is just a set, it may not be closed under the group operation, if one of H or K is normal in G, then you can say HK is a subgroup)
but if you like elements, then this is also nice :p
i prefer elements for the proofs but having an intuition like you suggested helps see the big picture
Guys
Ahh 🤦
Sorry
Another way would be if X = H \cap K, then hkX=hXk=Xhk for all hk in HK
is this (12.7) true? I searched online and found a similar question in several places, but they all have the additional assumption that G is a subgroup of S_p
<@&286206848099549185>
It is true
What’s the proof you’ve seen with the additional assumption?
Yes
You use the action to “transport” your element of order p to an element of order p in S_p
So there exists a surjective homomorphism from G to S_p, then for some element in S_p that satisfies this property, an element in the preimage has the property?
Yes
But how do we know that the homomorphism from G to S_p is surjective?
It doesn’t need to be
It just needs to map to an element of order p
How do we know it maps to an element of order p?
Because the stabiliser of a given element can’t contain every element of order p (I can justify this with sylow formally, but idt you’ll know that yet)
i do know sylow
Interesting…
Ok, then you just consider that sylow guarantees that there is a subgroup of p element of size p^n, maximal dividing the order of the group
The intersection of the stabiliser and this group has size at most p^{n-1}
So there is an element of order p outside the stabiliser
Or, of order a power of p, but that must also be mapped to a p cycle if it’s not trivial
sorry, could you elaborate on this a bit?
The order of the thing it’s mapped to must divide it’s order
So as it’s order must be p^a, the order of its image must be a power of p, and as it doesn’t fix a particular element, it can’t be 1, and because of the size of the set, it can’t be larger than p, so it is p
oh, thanks!
To prove that the equivalence relation is symmetric, is this line of logic sound? Suppose $H \sim K$. Then $i_g[H] = K$ for some $g \in G$. Expanding, we obtain $gHg^{-1} = K$. But then, replacing $g$ by $g^{-1}$, we obtain $g^{-1}Hg = K$, so $H = gKg^{-1}$ and $K \sim H$.
or would this not hold, because the inner automorphism is only of g
I suppose we could let $i_g^{-1}[K] = H$, but that doesn't follow from $H \sim K$
Never mind I figured it out lol
Would this proof work for the intersection of 2 normal subgroups? Let $H, K$ be normal subgroups. Fix $r \in H \cap K$. Since $H$ and $K$ are normal subgroups, $grg^{-1} \in H$ for all $g \in G$ and similarly $grg^{-1} \in K$ for all $g \in G$. Then $grg^{-1} \in H \cap K$ for all $g \in G$ and $r \in H \cap K$, so $H \cap K$ is a normal subgroup.
not necessarily
let g stand for a\inv b
then ag b\inv is not necessarily gab\inv
unless it's abelian
this is fine
I'm assuming by fix you meant let r be an arbitrary element of H cap K
ye
yes
there aren't many polys to check
quadratics it's enough to show there's no root in F_7
How would you prove that if C is a subset of Z and (C,<) is a well ordered set then its intersection with Z- is finite
plug in
C could be N?
you mean Z minus?
ah didn't see the - there 
yes
plug in elements of F_7 in the polynomial
yes
what's the least element of Z_ ∩ C then?
yes, for quadratics at least
what do you mean ?
C is well ordered and Z_ ∩ C has a least element
how does a Lie algebra automorphism preserves the Lie bracket?
Let $T:V \to V$, does it mean $T([V, V] = [T(V), T(V)]$?
Minh Pham
T[V,W] = [TV,TW]
thank you
I think it's easier to count the number of monic reducible quadratics, then subtract that from the number of monic quadratics
think about it
well, for starters can you give me an example of a reducible monic quadratic
yeah, well I suppose in your case you want it to be in F_7[x], but that works
so how do you know that one's reducible
that would be irreducible
ok good, and what's the other root
so you could rewrite it factored as (x-2)(x-4)
in general you could write every reducible quadratic this way right?
ok, cool, so how many ways can we do that?
I'll show you how I'd do it for F_2
(x-0)(x-0)
(x-1)(x-1)
(x-0)(x-1)
so that's all 3 possibilities
in total x^2+ax+b there are 2 choices for a and 2 choices for b, so there are 4 monic quadratics
what I'm saying is generalizable to every finite field
there are only finitely many choices for choosing the roots of your polynomials
and there are only finitely many polynomials
I'd be wasting my time if I just told you the answer
work out the case for F_3[x], how many monic quadratics are there? how many reducible monic quadratics are there?
maybe that'll help you see how you can work out the case F_q[x] in terms of q
Ferb 
okie me had a question
we define an inclusion of rings R --> S is integral if every s in S satisfies a monic polynomial over R.
is there any advantage/disadvantage/reason to work with inclusions and not any ring map? we can say R --> S is integral if S is integral over the inclusion of the image.

who is "we"
i've seen people define "integral" for arbitrary ring maps
I guess wikipedia defines it that way
(requires inclusion)
but stacks project doesn't require it
the few introductory sources i saw >.<
i guess there is some geometric reason to require it
if R --> S is integral (and an inclusion) then Spec(S) --> Spec(R) is surjective
Lying over property innit
me doing taxes
Fr
infact I've heard ppl mention it's a covering (ramified covering?) but haven't seen a proof yet
for (d), I don't really understand how I can approach this problem. Can someone give me a hint?
I could only come as far as: We have that for solutions $x,y \in \Z$, it must hold that $(x+y\sqrt{3})$ is the multiplicative inverse of $(x-y\sqrt{3})$.
FrankF
Compile Error! Click the
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I'm not sure if you are allowed to used this but all solution of the equation will look like
$\frac{x+\sqrt{3}y}{x-\sqrt{3}y}$
but for your purpose, it's enough to show numbers of this form are solutions
@feral agate
you mean will look like $\frac{x+\sqrt{3}y}{x-\sqrt{3}y}=1$?
FrankF
Just go about it like you would with a complex number
Thats the way i see it
Also mayne its more fittes to undergraduates channels
Can you elaborate?
Im trying to not give it away but
How do you get the inverse of 1/3-2i
Do the same thing
Will work the same
But that is just $\frac{1}{1/3-2i}$ and it does not give a more specific solution than what I already have which is
FrankF
I asked my students to compute the number of necklaces one can make with 3 colors having 6,4,2 marbles in each class.
The book answer considers the necklace as a line and computes 12!/(6!4!2!) necklaces. So far, so easy.
But the smart ones started asking questions about accounting for the cyclic symmetries on the possible necklaces... How would one go about that? I was thinking in the direction of Burnside's lemma, but how was that applied again?
5,4,3 would be easy enough, since 5 and 12 are co-prime and there are no cyclic symmetries and I only have to consider reflections, yielding [12!/(5!4!3!)] / [5!/2!²]. but the cyclic symmetries you get for 6,4,2 make this kinda hard.
that's not what I meant
N(x+√3y)=x²-3y² and what I said is if
s=(x+√3y)/(x-√3y) then N(s)=1
now write s in the form a+√3b
what is N?
N is "norm" function but it's not important
I have already given the definition of N
although this will give you solution in rationals
This $\frac{x^2+3y^2}{(x^2-3y^2)} +\frac{xy\sqrt{3}}{(x^2-3y^2)}$?
FrankF
yes
This is the same as before except in the denominator you don't have complex numbers anymore.
that's not =1
N of that=1
well I think it's circular now since you are looking for integer solutions
we need denominator =1 which is the problem to begin with

so try this now
x²-3y²=(x-√3y)(x+√3y)=1
Now square both sides, you get
(x-√3y)²(x+√3y)²=1
Infact any power
(x-√3y)ⁿ(x+√3y)ⁿ=1
will give you a solution as we already have 1 solution given
just show all of them are distinct and you're done
Where does this fit in though?
So we have a system of equations, using two of them would already be enough to guarantee unique solution for x and y right?
it doesn't, it gives you general form of the solution in Q[√3] but since we are interested in integer solutions, it's useless
well didn't understand what you wanted to say
what I said is given we already found one solution, we can generate infinitely many by taking powers
I meant that there are two unknowns and two equations involving these are needed to find a unique solution for the two unknowns
there's no unique solution
the point of the problem is to show there's infinitely many solutions
O I see
Yep thanks

Btw, this is not true right? Because you need that $(x+y\sqrt{3})^n$ and $(x-y\sqrt{3})^n$ may be written in the form $a + b\sqrt{3}$ and $a - b\sqrt{3}$ with $a, b \in Z$, respectively for a and b to be solutions generated from x and y. This is not necessarily true, at least not for n = 2
FrankF
Im not sure i understand, does he mean ro count in a way where 123 and 312 are the same (cyclic permutations) ? Because that wouldnt be too hard
(Just dividing by the length of the necklace should do it)
If F is a field, then is an F-module just a vector space over F?
y
Yes?
yeaa
Thanks
let's try 2,1,1.
There's 4!/(2!1!1!) = 12 linear necklaces: ABCC, ACBC, ACCB, BACC, BCCA, BCAC, CABC, CBAC, CBCA, CCBA, and CCAB.
But BCCA is the same as CCAB under rotation. And ACCB = BCCA under reflection.
How many are there accounting for rotations and reflections? How many are there for 6,4,2 in each color class?
i'm having trouble seeing why this sentence is true; any normal subgroup of G/M is of the form {a_1M, a_2M . . . a_nM} and its inverse image if {a_1, a_2, . . . a_n}. Why does this normal subgroup have to contain M?
M is sent to the identity of G/M under γ and every subgroup of G/M contains the identity
Anyway, I feel obligated to point out that this theorem is only a special case of smth more general
Subgroups of G/M correspond exactly to subgroups of G containing M
(This is the correspondence theorem)
Furthermore, that correspondence sends normal subgroups (of G/M) to normal subgroups of G (and vice versa)
Well that becomes harder.
You would need to make classes of lists that are equal after a circular permutation, hhat may help, but maybe its searching too far
And from this, the theorem is immediate !
Also, no, what you said is not true
The preimage won't be the same size as the image unless the map is injective (at least for finite groups lol)
(Also you seem to be assuming the groups are finite there)
And also - unless I'm misinterpreting smth - the theorem should say maximal proper normal subgroup right
But do I? Is there no elegant way to count?
That's my question, I guess.
wait sorry how does that show that G/M is simple
oh right i keep on making those assumptions
ohh ok i'll digest that
Can you do a reflection then a cyclic permutation ?
Like any number of times?
sure. anything you can do with a necklace. you can turn it and you can flip it around.
nvm ignore that
Sorry i cant come up with a formula.
Claim: $N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$, pick any element $g\in G$, if $k$ is the smallest positive integer such that $g^k\in N$, then $k$ is the order of the element $gN$ in $\frac{G}{N}$.
Witness
The proof would be ||M is a maximal proper normal subgroup of G <=> M is the only proper normal subgroup of G containing M <=> There's only one normal proper subgroup of G/M||
That sounds weirdly said
Like k^n will always be in g because as a subgroup its stable by ×
Unless i missread
k is smallest positive integer such that g^k is in N
Ooooh mb. Got confused by the way its formulated because ive seen it said differently
I guess another way of phrasing what potato said would be if we have a chain $M\subset N \unlhd G$ where $M\neq N$, then $N = G$
Parrot Tea
no
Why not?
Hm that's not quite the whole thing
But ye
I was just saying that the theorem falls out of a more general correspondence
$G=Z_4, N={ 0,2}, M={0}$
Witness
both of these underlined in blue are in C, correct?
I may have misinterpreted where the confusion is
M isn't a maximum subgroup of Z/4Z
you didn't say M is max
It was said so originally lol
In the statement of the theorem
you didn't talk about my claim?
Parrot ws talking about the other problem being discussed here
But then I did say smth about your one Witness
Yeah if you think about what the order of gN in G/N is then this falls out fairly quickly
got it, I thought he is talking about mine..
Yes, I have proved this, so I post to check if this is right one, since it is not in the book, it is when I do some computations and find this feature

wdym "If this is right one"
Oh like you worked this out yourself and are checking it's true?
Yes
so I wrote "Claim" in the very beginning, maybe some of claims are false, since they are not in book
how to change the avatar?
When R is a non-commutative ring, is an R-module defined as being both a left R-module and a right R-module?
pingu
Noot noot
Usually one gives a convention
Like modules being left (or sometimes right) modules by default
You can "go between" left and right modules with the opposite ring, so when R is commutative R^{op} = R, so the left and right R modules are "the same".
so there is no need to specify whether something is a left or right R module
But for a non commutative case, as potato said, a convention will be established
Can somebody give me a hint?
What does it mean for a subgroup not to be normal?
ok i think i got it
i used the contradiction suggested by ur hint
thanks!
I don’t understand how to find the elements in D8/Z(D8)
i know that Z(D8) = <a^2>
and that D8/Z(D8) = { g in D8 | gZ(D8) }
i just don’t know what to look for. like can’t any element a in D8 be in it?
Does D8 in your notation have 8 elements, or 16?
And "a" is a specific generator of it, of order 4?
If a is an arbitrary element, then <a²> can be different subgroups depending on which arbitrary element a is.
You could write Z(D8) = { a² | a in D8 } and be right, but that's not a possible meaning of the notation <a²>.
i think this is what i meant
a is a rotation, the center is <a^2> = {e, a^2}
THat's backwards, though -- you should write { g Z(D8) | g in D8 }.
The thing before the | in a set builder is always the general element of the set you're building, and the stuff after the | are conditions.
gH ought to be defined to { gh | h in H }, that is the set of everything you can get by multiplying the fixed element g by something from H.
In any case, you can now start writing down cosets explicitly.
Z = {e, a²} itself is one of the cosets.
aZ = {a, a³} is another.
bZ = (b, ba²} is a third.
a²Z = {a², e} turns out to be the same as {e, a²}, so that is not a new coset.
abZ = {ab, a^3b}
Yes.
so these are the subgroups of order 2
No, most of them are not subgroups. They don't contain the identity.
oh yeah duh
They are the elements of the quotient group.
so then G/H = {aZ, bZ, abZ, whatever the last one is}
it’s like a set of sets?
if you wanted to write it all out
Yes.
that was my issue
Not "like" -- it is a set of sets.
he told me that D8/H would be a subgroup of order 4 so i think i was getting confused with that
i was looking at the 3 subgroups of order 4 and couldn’t figure out what condition i needed to meet
That is not quite true -- it's not a subgroup. One of the subgroups of D8 happens to be isomorphic to it, but that's just by accident.
okay i’ll have to ask him about that
it seemed like to me it could be any of the subgroups of order 4 if thay was the case
but it being a set of sets makes it make more sense since some elements will give the same set
and it won’t just be all the elements in G
More precisely, the subgroup {e,a²,b,a²b} is isomorphic to your quotient, and so is the subgroup {e,a²,ab,a³b}, but the subgroup {e,a,a²,a³} isn't.
and surely you could get the same quotient group by multiplying on the right, right?
Yes, in fact you have to. That's why the subgroup you're quotienting by needs to be normal.
ah yes bc you need the mod whatever group to be normal in G
what contradiction do you get? I will use automorphism to prove it.
yeah ||inner automorphism|| does it
yeah i used inner automorphism
can i have a hint for this question?
idk if this is useless or not but i'm starting to consider $\phi(ah)$ where $a \notin H$ and $h \in H$
okeyokay
yes i understand
what you did is from coset
but it says that $\phi$ induces the natural homomorphism
okeyokay
so i'm starting from there
phi has inputs in G
maybe i don't entirely understand what they mean by "induce"
i understand
i need to define phi* in terms of phi then
my guess is that we define $\phi^$ as $\phi^(aH) = a'H'$
okeyokay
or maybe $\phi^*(aH) = \phi(a)H'$
okeyokay


a spotlight search of it in my book returns 0 results so
gallian has no modules
Lang looks brutal
I'm finding Lang fine, but I did go through 2 undergrad algebra units and I'm only in chapter 4
I also know people who just can't read Lang, but I think it is worth a genuine try
parrot tea your bio is the worst joke I've read in a while
Hahahaha
you should've phrased it "if I research galois fields, does that increase my chances of getting a gf?"
ah this is my first semester of algebra
now i don't know what the original is
Quick sanity check
If you have $k$-vector spaces $V\supseteq W\supseteq H$, then is it true that $\text{dim}(V/H)=\text{dim}(V/W)\cdot\text{dim}(W/H)$ ?
Croqueta
Ye third iso + use the splitting
Guys ¿Can you help me with this one?
I know that for groups Z_n is isomorphic to the group of coset of a+nZ
where am I supposed to look at
The entire theorem
I think he meant Fermat’s little theorem
I just don't get
I'm trying
Why is a^(p-1) congruent with 1modp
And I still don't know how to visualize the group of coset of a+pZ under multiplication módulo p
Ok, Z_p is isomorphic to a+pZ
And the order of Z_p is p-1 I get it, now each element of Z_p is in corresponding to each representative of the coset a+pZ.
So (a+pZ)(a+pZ)=a²+pZ under multiplication módulo p
So (a+pZ)^(p-1) must be in correspondence with 1
@jaunty glacier do you know what the elements of the dihedral group look like?
@formal ermine not really I've never worked with this before
I know they are reflexions and rotations
but I don't know why they are only reflexions and roations
I'm i right?
by definition
Oh alright so no need to prove this
Cuz 1 is the identity of Zp under multiplication modp
what order does the rotation have?
n I would guess and 2 for the reflection
yes
so you want a cyclic subgroup of order n
and the rotation has order n
so...?
Oh so that's it?
You've been doing too much field theory, bro.
Trynna be a farmer
Are there standard tools to compute:
$$
\text{Der}(\mathfrak{g})/\text{ad}(\mathfrak{g})
$$
Where $\mathfrak{g}$ is a given Lie algebra and and $\text{ad}(\mathfrak{g})$ denotes the subspace of derivations of $\mathfrak{g}$ generated by the adjoint derivations of $\mathfrak{g}$?
MisterSystem
I am doing going through some Algebraic number theory notes and problems recently and I have run into the following problem regarding Dedekind domains:
If D is a dedekind domain and A,B are proper coprime ideals such that AB=C^g for some proper ideal C of D then there are ideals E and F such that A= E^g and B=F^g
Now this seems obvious to me since we have unique factorization of ideals? But I am assuming I am missing something as it was grouped with some medium-hard problems
My logic is C can't be a prime ideal since A,B are coprime and in fact, if we write A =\prod P_i^(k_i) and B=\prod Q_j^(f_j) then AB = \prod P_i^(k_i) \prod Q_j^(f_j) = C^g = \prod L_i^(g*t_i) where C=\prod L_i^(t_i) is unique factorization of C
Now by unique factorization and coprimness of A,B we get the result easily, right?
How to prove this: in domain, if b isn't a unit (ab) is properly included in (a)
invent an element that isn't in the former?
It's equivalent to (a)=(ab) then b is a unit...
And converse of this is easy to prove..
But how to prove original statement..
Well, if a is in (ab), what can you say
Then a=abr
For some r, yes
Now have a think about that
I claim that from that you can deduce that b is a unit
Of course, here we must assume a isn't 0 lol
But why br=1
Ah I see
fix a diagonalizable matrix, is there a method to find it's centralizer? (the set of all matrices which commute with it)
is it provable/convincing reason why there does not exist a general method if that is the case?
solve some equations? 
I am considering arbitrary ones, namely I want to think about centralizers of the centralizers of the centralizers, but even this first step I am stuck thinking about
(also it should be clear that I am not considering diagonal matricies)
BAB^(-1)=1 iff (BP)D(BP)^(-1)=1 where A =PDP^(-1) with D diagonal
So find the matrices that commute with D and multiply from the right by P^(-1)
Isnt it just that? Maybe Im missing something
Why do we equate it to 1

Parrot Tea
Ye
equality of classes
how exactly is this an additive group isomorphism, if the only operations involved are multiplication? is it because n x 1 = 1 + 1 + ... 1 n times?
well n dot 1 is that yeah
Well it is easy to check by hand
I guess they mean
It's a homomorphism of the additive groups underlying the rings
And then they check multiplication separately
i'm assuming an additive group is just any group equipped with the binary operation +?
Yeah i mean it is more or less conventional but like
In the ring context, the additive group underlying a ring is what u get when u forget multiplication
Ans we always use + for that
also how exactly is the map surjective, for example if r = 7 and s = 5 what choice of n could we even choose to get, say (3, 4)
ohh ok
24
you also know a solution exists because of CRT
chinese remainder theorem?
ya
that is true 
Try to find an example to satisfy the following:
If H is a subgroup of G, is that possible to find a group A, such that $A=gHg^{-1}$ for some g in G, and satisfies $A\neq H$ and $A\cap H$ has more than one element?
Witness
well by intuition it seems not possible
but i dont have a proof rn
yes, by intuition it seems impossible
Any non-normal subgroup containing the centre seems to work, provided the centre is non-trivial
So (12) x C_3 union e x C_3 in S_3 x C_3 works, with g = (23)
sorry what is C3 stands for
cyclic group(?)
Cyclic group of order 3
Yes
${e, (12)}\times {e, a, a^2}$ do you mean this?
Witness
Have you not met the direct product of groups?
If not, that’s what it is, the underlying set is the Cartesian product of the underlying sets, and the operation is componentwise
