#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 74 of 1
Yeah, they seem to jump the gun a bit right below where they write ex = x
Like very explicitly you could say *(e, x) = x for all x in X
But the standard notation for a group action is just gx
sometimes there's a dot in between, you can usually figure it out from context
Yes, that's correct
great, it is clear now, I am confused that initially the map is defined from $G\times X \rightarrow X$, but here it becomes $X\rightarrow X$
Witness
Yeah, so once you fix an element g in G, you now just have a map X -> X that sends x to gx
Glad I could help clear it up, group actions are very fun
thank you so much!
I am one step closer to understand the quintic eq is not solvable 
That's a great goal to have in mind
I think that's what originally motivated me to start studying algebra lol
yes, exactly, me too!
walter 
depends on whether your textbook does clockwise or counterclockwise rotations
if we look at this, it means the label 1 is replaced by label 2 ,right?
Wow pigeon u transformed!
I wouldn't really treat it as labels
this is a bijection from ${1, 2, 3, 4}$ to itself, so $p_1(1) = 2$ and $p_1(2) = 3$
Spamakin🎷
my question is how do you label them
there's no label, these are elements of a set
I know p(1)=2, but how do you label me on square?
yes, but if we want to label them on square, how to do
I mean if you want to number the corns of a square then you can do it either clockwise or counterclockwise
no way is more correct than the other
depends on your text / professor
if you want
P is a function on a set
if you want to give extra meaning to the elements of the set
you can, but that has no bearing on how P works
you could, but keep in mind a group by itself is just a closed system of maps that are all invertible
the order in which you label the square is a separate matter, the group only comes into play once you devise a way to have the group act on the labelled squares
the labels could be emoji if you wanted it to be
you just have to make sure your action on those emojied squares make sense
sure
also, don't look at group elements as "elements" usually, think of them as maps that are not intrinsically tied to any concrete model - for example, the symmetric group S2 is a system of (two) maps: an identity map id, and an involution f (such that f^2 = id). now this group does not come attached with an intrinsic model; in fact we could describe it as a freely-generated group with one nonidentity map where we arbitrarily impose the relation f^2 = id because we feel like it
but there are a TON of contexts where we have a system of maps that behaves the same way – i.e., there is an identity map that does nothing, but there is also a map that is its own inverse. for example, in any vector space, we have an identity map id(v) = v that does nothing, and a linear map f(v) = -v that multiplies by the scalar -1, and we have f(f(v)) = f(-v) = -(-v) = v, or f^2 = id. or on the complex plane, we have an identity map id(z) = z of course, but we also have f(z) = z * exp(pi * i) such that f(f(z)) = z * exp(2pi * i) = z, that is, f^2 = id. with group theory, we can isolate these systems of maps from their context and just study those, which also allows for any general results about these systems of maps. you can tie these results to a concrete context via group actions
if rho(1)=2, then only the top one is correct, the bottom one is rho(1)=4
why you said it depends on the rotation clockwise or counter-clock?
what's an example of a decomposable group?
I havent read that proof, but iyou can write (ab)=(1a)(1b)(1a)
Try to finish the proof with this observation
can 1 just be replaced with any other element?
or
No
Ah
Yes sorrt
Its irrelevant the 1 there, but the idea is that you should choose just one element
Then all transpositions are of the form (xa) with x fixed, and that equals the identity
i see
idk im just
completely lost on the proof and im like
my brains refusing to work now
i see what your saying though but i honestly am struggling trying to apply it here
try considering the direct product of Z_n and Z_m where n and m are relatively prime
Let φ : G1 → G2 be a homomorphism of groups
For any element g ∈ G1 and n ∈ Z, φ(g^n) = [φ(g)]^n
can i get some hints for this?
g^n makes me think of generators but i dont know if its of use
this is just exponentiation. repeated multiplication
do n positive and n negative separately
what does the formula mean in the case n=2
yeah i managed to do it with induction i think!
φ(g^n * g) = φ(g^n)*φ(g) = [φ(g)]^n φ(g) = φ(g)^(n+1) right?
used IH to replace [φ(g)]^n
huh? what is pi? dont really get it
i thought it was supposed to be the the cycle so for (0,1) pi(1)=3 because 1 -> 3
yes
pi is some permutation
yes and because pi(1)=3 you have M_31=1 and the other entries in the column are 0
for pi=(2 1 3)
ohh.. i started counting from i=0 j=0..
alright thanks!
so no matter the permutation we always get the same matrix back right? so even with (1 2 3) ...
so for (a) the answer is the example they gave?
no for pi=(1 2 3) you would get another matrix. in that case eg M_21 = 1 cause pi(1)=2 and M_31=0
ohh right, and for (a) they want us to give a general expression matrix right?
well S_3 has only 6 elements so maybe they want you to give all 6 matrices
considering they write "explicitly"
oh alright
Show that ψ is a group homomorphism.
any tips on how i can do the above?
φ(g1 · g2) = φ(g1) ◦ φ(g2) this is what i have to apply
and i did it on a small example where it gives me the identity (i took (123)(213))but idk how to generalize it
where do the matrices send the unit vectors
to pi(j)
M_pi(j)?
by that I mean a matrix with 3 rows 1 column
yes
e_pi(j)
so id need to show that LHS and RHS same transformation happens right?
so you have to show that $\psi(\pi\circ \sigma) = \psi(\pi)\cdot \psi(\sigma)$. where does the LHS and the RHS send the vector $e_1$
Denascite
yes
the notation is a bit confusing for me, why is it pi o sigma? are they just elements taken from S3?
pi and sigma are elements in S_3, yes
the circle is composition, aka the multiplication in S_3
so in LHS its gonna result in a new element in S3, say f and then ψ(f) would give us a matrix
Suppose the identity is a product of an odd number of transpositions. Write each transposition (ab) appearing in the product as (1a)(1b)(1a). Then the identity is a product of an odd number of transpositions of the form (1a). Written: $\text{id}=\prod_{i=1}^m (1a_i)$ where $m$ is odd and $a_i\in [n]$.
Show that this is impossible (this is way easier than what you had before)
Croqueta
(note that 3*odd=odd)
Hmm, it is not clear to me how that is any easier -- and the proof @solar shore posted initially certainly doesn't go that way.
yeah I said I haven't read the proof of blanket
In my opinion its way simpler
say you map 1 --> a
then you must map a --> 1 again
and since all transpositions are of the form 1-->x, if (1a) appears once, it must appear twice
etc
But so what?
am I missing something?
It could appear three times.
well nuh, but you use the same argument
How?
cuz you can delete the first two, as they are irrelevant
The first two are not necessarily neighbors in the sequence.
if you send 1-->a
then it will be unaffected until it arrives at a transposition of the form (1a)
Otherwise you're saying that 1a)(1b)(1a) = (1b) which is definitely not true.
i mean im not trying to make a rigorous arugment here
In my opinion this is way simpler, and certainly intuitively clear
but maybe its just me 
You're opining that something that as far as I can see makes no sense is "way simpler" than a proof you also say you haven't even read?
Which basis do you have for making such a claim?
because I have read similar proofs?
I mean
like
its certainly not more complicated, right
but you just have to keep track of the 1 here
(and btw, by "didnt read", I meant not to follow the details, but I glanced at it to know that the proof didnt use what I said)
To the extent that handwavy nonsense is "not more complicated" than a proof that actually works ...
Futile indeed.
you just have to keep track of one element (namely, 1)
You keep repeating that. That doesn't make it make sense.
Where would your purported proof then say anything about the number of transposition that don't move the 1 element?
you agree that a transposition (1a) with a fixed cannot appear just once right
Yes.
then it appears at least twice
There are odd numbers that are >= 2.
so you have $\prod_i (1a_i)=P(1a)P'(1a)P''$ where there are no transpositions $(1a)$ in the products $P$ and $P''$
Croqueta
For example, (12)(13)(12)(13)(12)(13) is the identity and contains three copies of (12).
what
wait you are right
Im speaking nonsense
I apologize lol
My bad, tho that's the argument my professor used, and he kinda waved hands to be fair, and didn't really check rigorously. 
(btw, it is written in the notes, so not that I misinterpreted him)
Thanks for the patience, and making me realize I made a mistake 👍
Apologies for the impatience.
Hopefully blanket didn't try to pursue my hint, or reads this
try using your answers to a and b to explain why the subgroup is as such
I did it thanks pigeon
XD
yep
seems weird that he uses an additional letter K
It has to be ... but the theorem can't quite be stated that way because LE isn't really well defined unless we already have a common field for L and E to embed in.
For example, Q[x]/<x³+2> and Q[y]/<y³-2> are both perfectly good field extensions of Q. But it doesn't make sense to speak of the field "generated by" them, because it's not clear how arithmetic on combinations on x and y should work. Each of the two fields embeds into C in three different ways, and depending on which embeddings we choose, we might either end up with x+y = 0 or x+y != 0.
i ended up understanding it
after a bit
i tried giving this an attempt now but i am stuck on what u mean by sending the vector e1. Maybe i can see it better with an example?
so we can take pi as (2 1 3)
and in this case vector e1 is sent to e_pi(1)?
yes
so even if the general case its always sent to e_pi(1)
but the result vector will be different depending on pi(1)
wait no
ok i have no idea how to generalize this. vector e1 is sent to the vector e_pi(j) if pi(j) = i for the element pi
and for the function with sigma as element (In RHS) would be the same thing e_sigma(j) if sigma(j) = i
but in the example case e1 is sent to e_pi(1) because for i=pi(j) this holds true forM13
thats what i mean by i j
M_31 if anything
sorry yes m_31
but e1 isnt always sent to e_pi(1) this is only true in the example case right?
like i could also have e1 to e_pi(2) or e_pi(3)
e1 is always send to e_pi(1)
or nvm i am getting a little confused. e1 is alwaysa sent to e_pi(1) yeah
its just that yeah the pi(1) will have a different value
in that case yeah we have this and for e2 e 3 e_pi(2) e_pi(3)
then we would multiply them with the sigma ones
well the way I wrote it down earlier you would do sigma first. but yes
so e_pi(1) is again a unit vector, so where does psi(sigma) send it to
bad notation
psi is the function which takes in a permutation and gives you the matrix
e_sigma(pi(1))?
yes
so that is $\psi(\sigma)\cdot \psi(\pi) \cdot e_1 = e_{\sigma(\pi(1))}$. what about $\psi(\sigma\circ\pi)\cdot e_1$
Denascite
so in the part that we solved $\psi(\sigma)\cdot \psi(\pi) \cdot e1 = e{\sigma(\pi(1))}$
computation starts from right to left correct?
tom310
so we first transform it to the e_pi(1) then sigma sends it to e sigma(pi(1))
well just like normal matrix vector multiplication
and I mean in general composition of function. most of the time you start at the right and then successively apply the next and next function
ok for the next part we have for the function sigma(pi(1)) sigma(pi(2)) and sigma(pi(3))
thats how our new element in S3 will look like
oh and from this thats how we get e_sigma(pi(1))?
and to complete the proof we would do e2 and e3?
well how about we first actually finish looking at e1
you havent answered my question
for this one the sigma o pi will be the new element in S3 that looks like:
pi(1) -> sigma(pi(1))
pi(2) -> sigma(pi(2))
pi(3) -> sigma(pi(3))
so if we would have (1 2 3) as sigma and (213) as pi
sigma(pi(1)) = sigma(3) = 1 (3->1) and so on
i hope this was the question i am supposed to answer
the question was, where does psi(sigma circ pi) send e1
and to do this i first computed the sigma circ pi (the above) and e1 will be sent to e1_sigma(pi(1))
ah ok that's how you meant that
ok
so we see that both sides send e1 to the same thing
then yes, now we can do e2 and e3
oh alright and the process would be really similar
yes
tom310
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yes
alright thank u very much for the help!
i do understand it
and thanks for being patient with me! took me a while
youre welcome
linking myself to this convo dont mind me
I'm bad at group theory so I'm probably being dumb. But is (Z, +) isomorphic to all rational points on the complex unit circle?
no
Why not
for one, all rational point of S¹ has finite order unlike Z
What's S1
also by rational point, do you mean p/q + i r/s or points with angle a rational multiple of π
complex unit circle
Rational multiple of π
exp(2πi p/q) ^ q= 1 so all rational points have finite order
Err
I think I'm too dumb to understand stuff
I have a similar question then
Is Cn isomorphic to x^n=1?
Yeah
So why does that stop working for infinite cyclic groups
Sorry if you explained it already. Like I said I know very little group theory.
the group you described is collection of all roots of unity and not a single xⁿ=1; so you can't expect them to behave the same. i.e. still remain cyclic if you take their union
this is essentially (Q, +) quotiented by the integers
which contains for instance the element 1/2 != 0 with 1/2 + 1/2 = 0
there is no nonzero element of Z that is "half of zero"
in terms of the complex numbers the "1/2" counterexample corresponds to the complex number -1
which, if you do it twice, you get the identity point (1), whereas there's no integer that can be added to itself to get 0 (the identtiy)
anyone know an an example of a finitely generated module over an integral domain R which is not a direct sum of cyclic R-modules.
i dont think that should exist? but i’m probably wrong lol
the structure theorem for pids says that you can't do this when R is a pid
so if you're looking for a counter example, try something like k[x, y]
can you find a f.g. k[x, y] module which is not a direct sum of cyclics?
wait but then it would be isomorphic to Znm, and aren't Zn and Zm not subgroups of Znm or am i trippin
they arent subgroups immediately
but they are isomorphic to subgroups
for example in Z_20 we have a subgroup of order 2 which is isomorphic to Z_2
why the permutation can give two results, I mean the bottom one, how ?
I mean, must be a mistake then lol
yesterday someone here said, it can be both, depends on rotate clockwise or counterclockwise
but I thought this permutation can only give clockwise result, since p(1)=2
the bottom one is corresponding to p(1)=4
yes, so I think the textbook has some problem here
The bottom of the first image is wrong
the textbook takes the left square, and says $\rho$ will rotate this square counterclockwise by 90 degree
Witness
but it should be clockwisely
that was me

both ways are fine so long you insist your rotations are ALWAYS in that direction
thats what I said which evidently you seem to have ignored
abstract chill moment
oh shit we're in abs-alg my b
no this is chill
take a look at what derpz wrote (ty derp
)
I didn't ignore, I put this picture to show rho(1)=2 so should be only the top case, but you didn't reply
so I have to ask again
ohhh ok got it thanks!
oh ok cool thx
your textbook mandates a counterclockwise rotation
so you'll use thst one
yeah sorry I sometimes answer qns while im at work and I don't follow up in time
Wait how
The permutation they gave maps 1 to 2 etc
There isn't any ambiguity as to whether it is clockwise or not
as in
I didn't know
because the user didnt present the textbook info at first
they just showed me the permutation in both directions
so I said if the textbook has a convention or similar use that
if not you choose one (typically counterclockwise)
Hm how has this got anything to do w conventions tho
I did not see at first that
Hm ok I dont understand but fair
Huh
the first one seems to send 1 to 4 rather than 2 which is wrong
the textbook only gives this square and they mark the corner in this 1234 order. So my confusion is if accordint to this , after applying rho to this square, what is the new labels at the corner
First is correct
wait now I am confused
what
oh yeah it is mybad the textbook goes counterclockwise
What im so confused lol
Now I am confused too
The permutation maps 4 -> 1, 1 -> 2 etc
So it must be the first one in the first image sent
..............
this is what I interpret this permutation, it is clockwise
p = (1234) yeah
p(4) is 1 so it goes down
it correponds to a 90 degree counterclockwise rotation

why this pic is incorrect?
What does the rho_{(2)} etc mean
it should be clockwise
why would it be clockwise tho
as I said in pic
congrats on graduate+ 
rho(1)=2
Yes that’s fine
Now I am confused
Counterclockwiseheads btfo
ah, I konw why he is confused
What
let me draw
What
You just read where the permutation sends the vertices
Wdym “oh you’re going clockwise” the counter clockwise rotation is (1432) it’s a completely different thing
thats fine I think your question was already answered
I instead will go take a nap
yes, I like the way1
isnt a finitely generated module also just a PID tho?
Huh
what
Thank goodness you replied now I can start saying stupid shit

Idk what you mean
i blaspheme
Consider Z/8Z as Z/16384Z-module
You can be a fg module over a ring without even being a ring
id really rather not
Or like
ok yes thank you
any ring R is a f.g. R module
yeah i didnt realize what i was saying lol
I use way 2 
I think the first is what like
I also use way 2 lmao
Bring on the sullies
This a meme
ah, I catch a fly, by hand!


man I hate when homework doesnt do itself
ok starting simple
i can do this just by matrix operations right?
like smith normal form
Indeed you can
Le free abelian group has arrived
wouldn't this only be true if H was the kernel of some homomorphism? what if H was just a normal subgroup?
every normal subgroup is a kernel
wait, very kernel is normal subgroup, but every normal subgroup may not be a kernal, depends on how the homomorphism is defined, right?
every normal subgroup is the kernel of the natural homomorphism
the proposition is that given any normal subgroup, there is a homomorphism such that it is a kernel
but we can find some non-natural homomorphism to make some normal subgroup fail to be the kernal of this non-natrual homomorphism, right?
Hm well
"Non-natural" is a bit odd and yeah I mean the normal subgroup isn't the kernel of every map out of the group
I mean sure you don't have to try very hard
But N is the kernel of the quotient map G -> G/N
por ejemplo
Like for example I could always be like
Ok let f(x) = e
Then yeah your normal subgroup probably won't be the kernel
but in this trivial case the normal subgroup H is inside the kernel, I mean is that possible the normal subgroup not inside the kernel at all, except the identitiy e
H is normal, but $ker(f)\cap H={e}$ and $H$ is not inside $ker(f)$
Witness
is this possible?
For some groups sure
But like
Since the kernel is a normal subgroup
You can just ask like can you have two normal subgroups N and H with trivial intersection and neither contained in the other
And the answer is yes
E.g. take the subgroups 1 x Z and Z x 1 of Z x Z
what I mean is this
ah, yes
Hi! I am currently trying to show that $\mathbb{Z}_m\times\mathbb{Z}_n$ being cyclic implies $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. So far, I have worked out that if we have generator $(a,b)\in\mathbb{Z}_m\times\mathbb{Z}_n$, then the order of $(a,b)$ must be $mn$ since $\mathbb{Z}_m\times\mathbb{Z}_n$ has that many elements. Is it okay from here to make the following assertions? \
The order of $(a,b)$ is the smallest integer $k$ such that $(ka,kb) = (0,0).$ So $ka$ divides $m$ and $kb$ divides $n$. The smallest such $k$ for which $ka$ divides $m$ is $\mathrm{ord(a)}$ and the smallest such $k$ for which $kb$ divides $m$ is $\mathrm{ord(b)}$. So then
\begin{align*}
\mathrm{ord}(a,b) = \mathrm{lcm}(\mathrm{ord}(a), \mathrm{ord}(b)) = \mathrm{lcm}\left(\frac{m}{\gcd(a,m)}, \frac{n}{\gcd(b,n)}\right),
\end{align*}
where we consider the orders of $a$ and $b$ in $\mathbb{Z}_m$ and $\mathbb{Z}_n$, respectively. We know that this is less than or equal to $\mathrm{lcm}(m,n)$ so
\begin{align*}
\mathrm{ord}(a,b) \le \mathrm{lcm}(m,n) = \frac{mn}{\gcd(m,n)}
\end{align*}
But since $\mathrm{ord}(a,b) = mn$, it follows that $\gcd(m,n)$ must be $1$.
My main confusion is whether it is okay to make the jump that ord(a,b) = lcm(ord(a), ord(b)) or if i need to justify that better
Haya
yes 
(to be more clear derpz means yes your proof is fine)
man I thought
already implies it
the fact that you take lcm guarantees you do in fact get the smallest such k for which (ka, kb) = (0, 0)
tyy 
no, if ka=0 mod m, it means ka=mq, so m divides ka, but you said ka divides m
for exmaple, take m=5, a=4
OH true
. Sorry, I should've thought of that. If I rephrase to that we know its the smallest positive integer for which ka = 0 mod m (and likewise for kb in mod n), then the overall argument should hold?
yes
why? @glacial token
The cardinality of Zm x Zn is mn so if (a,b) is a generator, then the subgroup it generates should have order mn, right?
oh, I didn't see it, yes if (a,b) is generator, then no problem
Is there anybody that knows about drazin inverse matrix?
MutatedCluster
anyone have an example of a non-noetherian ring and an ideal in that ring not containing a product of prime ideals?
ring of algebraic integers works i think
yea it does
say you have prime ideals p_1, ..., p_n in Zbar, such that p_1 * p_2 ... * p_n is contained in (2). you can intersect this with the ring of integers A of Q(2^(1/m))
to get another containment,
p'_1 * p'_2 * ... * p'_n inside (2)
these p'_i are prime in A, but now you can use the dedekind domain stuff and factorize (2) in A, since (2) = (2^1/m)^m for very large m, say m > n, (2) has more than n prime factors but it divides a product of n primes!
im a bit confused here isnt Zbar noetherian (note: first learned about dedekind domains yesterday so i may be saying smth stupid)?
it isn't
you can take squareroots as much as you want
so you have a infinite nested sequence of divisors
or better, since you know ACCP is equivalent to existence of factorizations into irreducibles, notice that there aren't any irreducible elements in Zbar
Right yeah
Huh that’s a surprisingly nice example of a non noetherian ring im shocked I never had it in the back of my mind before
Find all the subgroups of D4. Which subgroups are normal? What are all
the factor groups of D4 up to isomorphism?
how do I do this?
for now i wrote all generators of D4:
<e> = {e},
<r> = {e, r, .., r^3} = <r^3>
<r^2>= {e, r^2}
<s> = {e, s}
<sr> = {e, sr, r^2, sr^3} = <sr^3>
<sr^2> = {e, sr^2}
it looks like you know group presentations
D_4 is small enough to just compute this by hand tho lol
so for the subsets I generated do I do gN = Ng?
there's one normal subgroup which is really trivial
but did i generate all subgroups? are there more?
<e>
D_4 should have 8 proper nontrivial subgroups
well I meant besides the obvious normal subgroups like D_4 and {e} lol
the rotation group?
no
are you asking if <r> is normal in D_4
yes
yeah
do you know why
are you aware of the proposition that if a subgroup has index 2 then it is normal?
no, might have missed that when reading
I guess you could painfully check the rest by hand
it should be a 2 element normal subgroup
(i havent done cosets and group actions in case that theorem appears there)
but ive done group homomorphisms, isomorphisms and normal subgroups and kernels
which subsets are missing here? should i try doing generators with more than 1 element to find them all?
but how do I know when i found them all?
yeah my question is how did u know there are 8 proper nontrivial subgroups? like what is ur stopping point for computing subgroups
I know there are because I looked at my book
where I computed this before
and now you know too
oh so there isnt really a way unless they tell us
I mean....
check all possible subsets
ahh
please don't
you can immediately rule out a bunch of subsets though
there's a lot of them that aren't closed
firstly we know any subgroup of D_n must either be all rotations or half are
secondly the rotation group is cyclic so we don't have to worry too much about that
shouldnt cyclic generate the full set? because <r> doesnt generate the full set D4
oh so <r> is cyclic in that it generates all rotations
yeah
you know about cyclic groups right
yes so if i have a set there is an element in that set that can generate the full set
so for {e, r, r^2, r^3} there is <r>
r^3 generates <r> because it's coprime to order of r
but yeah I assume you know this
then all you have to do is
just start sticking in the other stuff
sr, sr^2 and whatnot
ohh ok so like <r, sr>, <r, sr^2>
sure
alright ill write all the subsets down
Result:
256
there are 256 of them 
just use what we said and toss out everything that can't be a subgroup
sorry subgroups
not subsets
but when u said start sticking other stuff do u mean with r? because this just generates the set D4 (<r, sr>, <r, sr^2> gives the set D4)
so would <r, sr^3>
or do we stick everything besides r/r^3? (<sr, sr^2> etc)
Let's fix $V$ a vector space over $\mathbb{K}$ and $g$ a symmetric, non-degenerate bilinear form on $V$. I am trying to find an explicit formula for the Hodge Star operator on $V$, but it doesn't agree with the one I find in the literature. By fixing an orthonormal basis ${e_{1},\cdots, e_{n}}$ of $V$ and writing for $\beta \in \Lambda^{k}(V)$.
$$
\beta = \dfrac{1}{k!} \beta^{i_{1},\cdots, i_{k}} e_{i_{1}} \land \cdots \land e_{i_{k}}
$$
Using the Einstein summation convention. We have that:
$$
\star \beta = \dfrac{1}{k!} \beta^{i_{1},\cdots, i_{k}} \star (e_{i_{1}} \land \cdots \land e_{i_{k}})
$$
So we need to compute:
$$
\star (e_{i_{1}} \land \cdots e_{i_{k}})
$$
In order to find an expression for $\beta$ by linearity. I have found that (no Einstein convention here)
$$
\star (e_{i_{1}} \land \cdots \land e_{i_{k}})
$$
$$
$$
$$
\varepsilon^{i_{1}, \cdots, i_{k}, i'{1}, \cdots, i'{n-k}} g(e_{i_{1}} \land \cdots \land e_{i_{k}}, e_{i_{1}} \land \cdots \land e_{i_{k}}) e_{i'{1}} \land \cdots \land e{i'{n - k}}
$$
Where ${i'{1} < i'{2} \cdots < i'{n-k}}$ is the complement of ${i_{1}, \cdots, i_{k}}$. Is this correct?
I think there's a slight problem here because I am not assuming the i_1, ..., i_k to be in increasing order.
MisterSystem
Well
Is this computation correct?
For some reason
most other sources I find online actually have the last formula with a 1/k! at the end
for some reason I am not getting it
Here they are using a different index convention for which components and subscripts and which are superscripts.
So our formulas are pretty much the same except for that 1/k! factor.
So what's happening here?
Also, I don't even think I am using the fact that we are working with an orthonormal basis here.
lets assume (a) and (b) are true and i wanna prove group homomorphism
cant i just say that because the RHS is commutative i get
φ(g1g2)(x) = φ(g1) (φ(g2)(x)) = (φ(g1)oφ(g2))(x) and thats the formula for group homomorphism ?
or thats not allowed?
Can someone help me with tensor product basics? I'm trying to show the usual construction of the tensor product satisfies the universal property. Here is my work so far:
You made a conceptual mistake
Which is understandable since the notation doesn't really help much
but in $R^{M \times N} / U$ we do not have generally that:
$$
[(x,y) + U] + [(x',y') + U] = [(x+x',y+y') + U]
$$
MisterSystem
Using a more standard notation, by denoting:
$$
x \otimes y = [(x,y) + U]
$$
What this is really saying is that:
$$
x \otimes y + x' \otimes y' \neq (x + x') \otimes (y + y')
$$
In general
MisterSystem
Yeah so
The intuition for why we do not want the tensor product to satisfy that
is the following
you can think of a tensor $x \otimes y$ really as an abstract notation for a certain bilinear map $f(x,y)$.
MisterSystem
and we want $x \otimes y$ to satisfy the properties that a bilinear map satisfies
MisterSystem
namely:
$$
(x + ax') \otimes y = x \otimes y + a x' \otimes y
$$
Which is really """just""" the condition:
$$
f(x+ ax', y) = f(x,y) + a f(x',y)
$$
I.e, $f$ is linear in the first entry.
MisterSystem
The same linearity condition holds for the second entry
but ofc
if you have a bilinear map $f$
MisterSystem
we know in general that:
$$
f(x+x',y+y') = f(x,y) + f(x,y') + f(x',y) + f(x',y')
$$
$$
\neq
$$
$$
f(x,y) + f(x',y')
$$
MisterSystem
And since the tensor product really satisfies the same formal properties as a bilinear map
this should correspond to this fact
yeah so
the sum of equivalence classes of pairs (x,y) and (x',y') is not defined to be the sum component wise
to reflect the properties of bilinear maps correctly
instead
the sum of these equivalence classes is just a formal sum (x,y) + (x',y')
i.e, we are really working with the free module over pairs of the form (x,y) or x in R^N and (x',y')
What you really have to do here is to define φ([(x,y) + U] = f(x,y) and extend it linearly to all of R^(M+N)/U
and so φ is by definition linear if it is well defined
so the whole problem here is just checking this map is well defined
and we win
So I saw this recently
And it doesn't really make sense to me. The lie algebra su(2,C) already has entries in C. Why do this? Does its complexification yield something different?
I thought the idea was su(2, R) is not isomorphic to sl(2,C) but if we first complexify it by tensoring with C over R then we obtain an isomorphism? But the picture says its actually su(2,C) that we need to complexify?
It's probably something basic that I am misunderstanding here.
Thanks for your help. I think I'm slowly getting it
ok
When we mod out by U we are essentially declaring (x,y+y') = (x,y)+(x,y') and (x+x',y) = (x,y)+(x',y)
this is the same as showing sl(2,C)=su(2,C) x su(2,C). Concretely, for matrices A and B in su(2,C) you have that A+iB is in sl(2,C), and if you have a matrix X in sl(2,C) then you can find matrices A and B in su(2,C) such that X=A+iB
the Lie algebra already has entries in C
yes, but you're regarding it as a Lie algebra over R in a natural way. So it's natural to ask what this Lie algebra becomes over C.
the complexification of su(2,C) is sl(2,C). The complexification of sl(2,R) is also sl(2,C). So here are two Lie algebras over R which become isomorphic over C, but are not isomorphic over R.
When you go to classify (semisimple) Lie algebras over R this same issue arises. You first classify (semisimple) Lie algebras over C, where the classification is rather simple, and then you have to answer this question about classifying the different real forms of your Lie algebra
This all makes a ton of sense 🙂
but my fundamental misunderstanding here I guess is what we mean by a lie algebra over R or over C. So su(2,C) here is a lie algebra over R? despite having complex entries.
right, despite having complex entries you're regarding this as a real vector space
like all you're demanding in this example is that you have a 3-dimensional R-vector space and some bracket operation on this
Okay, so to be clear, something else that is related that I was unsure of was the lie algebra of u(1). Right naively this is i\mathbb{R} with the commutator but is this a complex lie algebra or a real lie algebra? I was never sure.
I guess now I would say its a real lie algebra right? despite the elements being ir where r \in \mathbb{R}
again this is a real Lie algebra, this extra "i" is sort of a red herring but it does help you keep track of things when you pass to complexification
the Lie group U(1) is the circle group, so its tangent space at the identity ought to be a 1-dimensional R-vector space!
Right! Yeah it seemed bizarre that we also had this i and well, so on...
But no, that all makes sense now.
Thanks nGroupoid 🙂
no problem! I find this stuff confusing sometimes too 
nG, could you verify some computation I did with the hodge star? 
I think I am getting confused with some 1/k! convention
Lmfaoo
sure, although maybe Hodge star stuff belongs in #diff-geo-diff-top
Yeah, but I am only doing stuff over vector spaces, so not really anything related to differential forms.
here
this is the computation
ahh okay let me stare at it
bro idk I'm not reading all this indexing lmao

I understand your pain
But yeah so
The problem is that I am not getting that 1/k! at the end
and some materials even have some sqrt(det(g)) or something
right so the sqrt(det(g)) will only show up when you have a non-orthonormal basis
And I just don't know why I am not getting these constant factors
the factorial comes from like
so in here
you're indexing over i_1<...<i_k
if you instead indexed over all i_1,...,i_k
you would be overcounting, and you would need a factorial to deal with this
any differential can be written like this
the difference is in this indexing and overcounting
I think what you have is basically correct you just have to think about these differences in indexing, and then think about where the extra metric term is coming from when you don't have an orthonormal basis
Oh
I will take care with that now
Yeah, I thinkI might have counted things wrong here
right you're counting with increasing indices, so you shouldn't end up with a factorial in the end
I mean there's nothing "wrong" with this, it's just a choice of how you're counting indices
that for every element you get an element of K[t] such that applying your multiplication gives 0
find a polynomial such that you get 0 when you plug in your endomorphism
wait am i misreading this
hol up
timo someone messed up your roles
ok what i said covers the torsion part
What is V_T in this notation?
probably V as k[t] module wrt to T
since you're fixing one endo to define this
yes ok the torsion part is covered by lin alg
got interrupted at a bad time, brb
The fact that it is finitely generated too
I am pretty sure it follows from the existence of a minimal polynomial for T or Cayley Hamilton
Isn't V_T just the quotient of K[t] by the ideal generated by the minimal polynomial?
okay i gotta go sry
technically havent learned minimal polynomials at this point
these are corrections for an old hw
we covered it the week after this was originally due

what do they mean by g in the notation lambda_g?
a fixed element
both a and g are elements of G so what is this supposed to mean?
going back to some concepts, this should be working up to structure theorem, but what is this thm saying
not always u mean for a or g?
could u maybe explain with an example what this lambda_g is supposed to do though?
as im not understanding what exaclty it does
this is the homomorphism induced by a group action
currnetly reading about cosets
the group action here being on the group itself with the operation
do u know about group actions @kind jacinth
no
okay forget about those for now
this function is identified with a specific element in G
namely here,g
and multiplying it by the input
so this function image is just all of the elements that differ by the fixed element g
yes this makes sense
other notation would be $\lambda(g, a)$
Geopchad
but the other way makes thinking about it easier (getting a 1 variable functoin when you fix g)
so its a fixed g but a varies
@kind jacinth if ur having trouble understanding something try to get your hands dirty with concrete examples
and all it does is it maps all elements a to a ga
take G any group ur comfy with and can do operation by hand inside
yeah e.g. f(x) = 2x
yea see where this leads
wdym
do u want a proof
or intuition
hahah sorry cant help with that lmfao

since u mentioned cosets im not sure if this is what u mean but something like Z_4
subset {0, 2} and for this the cosets would be
1 + {0, 2} and 2+{0, 2}
{0, 1, 2, 3}
idk its just oilke brute forcing
oh
like any ideal is jsut a submodule
of the ring itself ig
so its free and has a basis but its an ideal so it must have dim 1
is this what the proposition is saying but im not getting it?
why not 3+{0,2}
3+{0, 2} would give the same thing as 1 + {0, 2} right?
yeah it would
so you've basically partitioned Z/4 using the subgroup {0,2}
do you know quotients of groups?
btw @pastel cliff what i said isnt enough cuz you still have to prove R is an integral domain
first
all rings are integral domains 
oh then its done
no
the intuition ig is that when the action is multiplicatoin the linear independant subsets must have only one element
thats it XD
i have quotients and rings as the next chapter
weird but ok
what are the partitions? the cosets 1 + {0,2} and 2 + {0,2}?
yeah
but remember that that 1 is actually [1], the equivalence class of 1 mod 4
you noticed earlier that with this subgroup, 1 + {0,2} and 3+{0,2} are the same
what element of Z/4 have you not considered
0 which gives {0, 2}
which is the same as 2 + {0,2} right
yes
what you've done is really quotient Z/4 by {0,2} to get Z/2
ohh because of the cosets 0 1?
Yes there’s only two elements
And there’s only one group of order 2 (in fact, only one group of prime order)
@kind jacinth you are in for a fun ride
and this is true for every group when i find the cosets?
i get another group with order = nr of cosets
but why is this important?
sometimes you can say somethings about the original group
quotienting the right things.
i dont really understand how the example is related to the proposition
i think he was responding to this
ahh i see
Given the fraction field functor R->Q(R) for integral domains, is there an analogous construction producing a division ring out of a noncommutative R w/o null divisors?
Did i do okay on these first two?
why is the factor group of order 2? Shouldn't it be of order 4, since we have $(0, 0) + H, (1, 0) + H, (2, 0) + H, (3, 0) + 4$?
okeyokay
yea I think so
I mean explicitly giving the mappings is overkill but yea I think what you wrote is correct
all field homomorphisms are monomorphisms
how?
isn't the trivial homomorphism not monic?
i assumed it was all injective homomorphisms, so i assume this is talking about nontrivial homomorphisms
right
im just asking if nontrivial was assumed, because clearly the trivial homomorphism is not monic
Ye
i'm using it like my author uses it
monic in the sense that it is a monomorphism
first time i seen this
a monomorphism f:X -> Y satisfies that for g,h in Hom(W,X)
fg = fh implies g=h. it's from a category theory perspective, but i figured the question was actually about algebra
i have seen monic polynomials, don't know if there's any relation there
there isnt.
confused what this comment means
monomorphisms are injective homomorphisms?
no
they are saying they arent
but in the category of fields they do happen to be just injective homomorphisms
that is, a mono in the category of fields is an injective homomorphism
riehl (the author) does say that monomorphisms and epimorphisms are categorical analogues to injective and surjective maps, but they aren't really the same
take what im saying with a grain of salt, it's my first time seeing this stuff as well
Z6/Z3
Z6/H has order 2 because H has order 3
H = <(0, 2)>
There is no trivial field homomorphism. The function which sends every element to zero is a morphism of abelian groups, but not of rings
thank you , but what do you mean overkill, to what...
idk I wouldn't give the actual isomorphism
I would just say "compositions of two isomorphisms is an isomorphism qed"
That's just me being me it honestly doesn't matter
Ohhh ok thanks!
the zero homomorphism is not a homomorphism?
Would be easier to say if we saw the statement, but one inclusion is obvious and the other follows since a was generic
In the category of unital rings, 1 must go to 1. If you want commutative algebra to match geometry, this is pretty important
fair enough
thanks for the input
in like a non sarcastic way, i actually appreciate the new perspective
ig its R is a pid iff its a dedekind-hasse domain
do people do analysis first or abstract algebra? typically
seeing the latter first might be marginally more helpful, but it doesn't really matter
At an introductory level, none is a prerequisite of the other of course. But doing one before the other will build maturity, etc. Personally, I think analysis is really good for building rigorous thinking and proof skills. But if you want to do algebra before analysis, just go for it. You can also do both at the same time btw, if you have enough time
don't get too analysis pilled
In terms of rigorous thinking I would think more Algebra?
Pretty much nothing is blackboxed
In analysis you at least blackbox R's construction from the start
doing analysis first is better
imo
as for me who taught my self this i would have been better if i started with harder analysis
proofs in (basic) algebra are VERY misleading
most of the time they are just literally definition chasing
ah
proofs in analysis involve a trick or a tricky but cute argument
yeah i plan on self studying analysis bit um not sure
i would suggest starting with analysis tbh
sure
What is wrong with this
Is this referring to picking delta for epsilon? or did u have another example in mind
not really good setting up for harder stuff
any significant theorem in analysis really
minkowsi's inequality for example
every measurable function has a monotone increasing sequence of simple functions converging to it
etc
But then that sounds like you think algebra is easier
in which case it surely makes sense to take it first
🤨
yea it just makes you better prepared
If anything, I would recommend taking number theory before either of the 2, but maybe OP already has
ig NT is cool
i just think problems in like intro algebra are just very misleading and/or easier
(the problems one would see in a basic textbook for first time algebra)
not easier
but just the way they get solved is just idk
misleading for the difficulty of math at a higher level?
ig yea
I just can't figure how taking analysis and then algebra would be any better with the case you're making
in the end, you're taking both
yes but when i learnt algebra b4 anallysis for the first time i was surprised i couldnt do most of the problems (in analysis) and i was just weirded out by the fact that u cant definitoin unfold to the solution
i was mislead
thats just my experience
I guess its personal opinions/experiences at this point. But I learnt analysis form Terence Tao from the first time, and he doesn't black box anything. He constructs R by quotiening in the space of Cauchy sequences
based 
yes its just opinions after all
Doesn't algebra give you quite a bit of number theory for free? (I haven't done much number theory so I could be really wrong)
been too long, not necessarily but certain things perhaps
Like the idea of a quotient explains modular arithmetic ig
But usually its understood the other way round
Modular arithmetic is the usual introductory example to get ppl to understand quotients
I was thinking along the lines of Z/pZ being a field and the NT equivalent.
Lagrange is like Fermat little theorem
But I would do modular arithmetic before groups, that's how I did it and really liked it
I would say number theory is more focused on the results related to primes
thats the 'difference'
I am doing both of them simultaneously
Well its self study, so my rules lol
yes, a lot if results in elementary number theory are examples in abstract algebra
abstract algebra was developed to attack questions in number theory really so this is no surprise
a european math curriculum would do analysis first always
the problem with algebra is you need some examples first and its hard to come by them
so probably at least some familiarity with polynomial rings
how would i find the identity element of the set Q* (set of non-zero rational numbers)?
recall defn of identity
and you basically want to 'solve' this equation
or at least, think of it that way
If such an identity doesn't exist, then you'd have to prove there are no solutions
A set doesn't have an identity element unless you choose a binary operation to go with it. Then you can ask if that operation has an identity element.
say p, q is element of Q*
good point, I thought it was implicitly multiplication 
isn't p x 2 = p
the element that is unchanged in the set when apply to all the other elements?
like p x e = p
so for any g in your set under the operation *
An identity e satisfies
g * e = e * g = g
Not just one direction
That sounds vaguely like you're defining an absorbing element rather than an identity. When you say "p×e = p", do you mean that p or e is the identity?
e is the identity
Okay good.
for us thats how we been taught
its important to quantify
what each symbol means when u use it
so going back u suggested 2
So if 2 is an identity, for any p in Q*
2 x p = p x 2 = p
would that be true?
Well do you think it is?
Try plugging in, say, p=5 and see what you get.
2x any non-rational p is a non rational p
why it the same p?
the statement would be written differently if so
check this
We would instead write
g * e and e * g is a member of G
We wouldn't reuse the same symbol to mean something different, no.
The definition of "e is an identity" is "for every p in the set, computing e×p gives p as a result, and computing p×e gives p as a result too".
wait im a bit confused about the e * p = p * e = p part
if i classify p as any non zero rational
say 10
So if 2 were an identity, we would need to have, among other things, "computing 2×5 gives 5 as a result, and computing 5×2 gives 5 as a result".


