#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 73 of 1
any book recommendations for abstract algebra?
Artin's Algebra
doesn't artin have the
notation
$\mathbb{Z^+}$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
that clearly denotes the additive group
no
that's the positive integers
anyway arguing about notation is not really abstract algebra
that was supposed to be sarcastic
it's what's used in Artins
also
is there a lemma/theorem that implies this explicitly
this follows directly by the definition of gcd
the gcd is the largest thing that divides both of them
if not suppose for contradiction that d divides both m, n such that d does not divide the gcd
how do you actually prove that lol
do you need to use bezout's
this is more #elementary-number-theory at this point

is the trivial subgroup (order 1) still valid?
I can't think of a reason why it wouldn't bve
yeah exactly
lol
i got that question wrong
it won't tell me why though
I typed 2,3,1,6
maybe it wanted it sorted 
as in ordered smallest to largest? 
yea
apparently u were wrong
how was it defined
I was going to ask whether 11Z_55 meant 11 + Z_55 or literally multiplying the elements
I thought addition modulo n was always the default operator for $$\mathbb{Z}_n$$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
honestly I have no idea what 11Z_n means here given they keep using multiplication to denote the group operation
how much subgroups does (Z/10Z, +) have?
Hint: ||It’s a cyclic group||
so 3? Z/2Z, Z/5Z and Z/10Z?
also the trivial subgroup
for this question, can (436)(5124) be composed together to form a single cycle?
I am struggling to remember how to compose them
4->3->3, 3->6->6, 6->4->5??
or are these two cycles disjoint
but there is a 4 in both cycles right?
Hey! Do I understand correctly that:
if we take the category used to define a free group through universal property (where objects are functions from a fixed set into groups), then the terminal object would be the function that projects all elements of the set into the sole element of a trivial group?
if there's a 4 in both cycles, can it be disjoint?
maybe not a single one, but you can certainly rewrite them as disjoint cycles, yes.
I'm learning quatum information theory, what could the caligraphic 𝑆 mean here? I can't find it in the lecture notes.
symmetric matrices? self-adjoint matrices?
The terminal object [1] is whatever you have 1 and exactly 1 arrow from X to [1] for any X
I have no idea what category you’re using, but if there’s only one arrow towards that trivial one, then that’s terminal
The category is $$\mathfrak{F}^A$$ defined as follows: objects are pairs $(i: A \rightarrow G, G)$ where G are groups and $i$ is a set-function from $A$ to $G$, and morphisms are commutative diagrams that morph one $i$ into another through group homomorphisms
klay
I don’t know why you use morph there, do you mean A->G->H = A->H kind of commutative diagram?
The terminal object, if it exists, has exactly one arrow to it from every object (and if there’s more than one then they have unique iso morphisms between them)
(yee that's the final object, and the initial object would be A --> F(A) the free group on A)
Yeah, since any group has the homomorphism x |-> e
This is a very strange way to define free group imo
is it? :p
yep I know what a terminal object is, I just want to check if in this specific category the terminal object is what I think it is: a pair ( A -> {e}, {e} )
(self studying with Aluffi)
Yeah that would be terminal, since any function to {e} is equal
Function extensionality saves the day fr
(if you're cat minded, then that's the general recipe to define a free object or get a free-forgetful adjunction)
It’s a very categorical way, it’s odd to take it as a definition rather than an equivalent property 
Aluffi is a bit categorical in his approach, but I wonder whether I could digest it if I did not know a bit of categories already (and did not have an intuition about free groups either)
Relating it to more set-based math would be hard without knowing it
I’d have to read the book in particular to give anything more tailored, but I’d expect it to be feasible to follow on its own?
At least formally
well giving the definition via a universal property doesn't tell you that object exists
you still need to carry out the usual work with words (or a bit more categorically with the adjoint functor theorem)
🤔 I wonder how self-contained the relevant constructions and such are (I’d have to comb through the book though which is
)
if you are curious, in Aluffi this is on the next page after the basic intuition part and the universal property part
Yeah that’s what I was expecting about as far as a definition goes
Since definition via universal property still needs something to assert it exists
So might as well just make it anyway 
so I would say he s sprinkling everything with categories (and he even starts the book with some basic category theory) but it is still accessible-ish: the intuition and explicit constructions are there. Still, I am not a clean slate when it comes to university math and thus can't tell whether you can actually use it as your first algebra book.
Can and should are very different questions too
aluffi is a good book :3
easier than Lang that much I am sure about
It was nicely readable for the first little bit I saw, but as a first book idk
That’s a lot stronger of a statement and baits kids to becoming category brain
Better than category’d real analysis
question
in finding all the elements of
$K=\Bbb{Z}_2 / (x^3+x+1):={a+b \theta+c \theta^2: a,b,c, \in \Bbb{Z}_2}$
MyMathYourMath
are these some of the 8 elements
how did you get 8
${0,1,\theta,\theta^2,1+\theta, 1+ \theta+\theta^2,...}$
MyMathYourMath
what are the ...?
good luck because there are only 6
is it those 6 i listed
i thought there were 8
8
You're good, you have to list two more
Yes, those 6 elements are distinct
I thought 2^3 = 6 lmao
Right
sweet thanks
Note that these correspond to the elements in Z_2[x] of degree less than 3
And this should make sense, because if you have some polynomial p(x) of degree greater than or equal to 3, the division algorithm in Z_2[x] tells you that you can rewrite p(x) = q(x) * (x^3 + x + 1) + r(x) for some polynomial r(x) of degree less than 3
Then p(x) corresponds to r(x) in the quotient
what would a basis for K[x]/(x^5-1) look like
would theta times theta^2+theta+1 just be theta^2+theta+1 again
or would it be 1+\theta^2
Let R be a ring, S a multiplicative system, I a prime ideal. Are there nice conditions under which Frac(R/I)=Frac(RS^{-1}/I) holds?
Assume I and S are disjoint
Frac(R) is the quotient field of R
isn't that always true?
also in RS^{-1}/I i think you wanna quotient by the extension of I
sure
by I there I mean the ideal generated by the set I in the ring RS^{-1}
I haven't really played with routine facts with localization tbh
RS^-1 
if you let S' be the image of S under R --> R/I then (S^-1R)/I^e is same as (S')^-1(R/I) right
Or are these like non comm rings lol
nah nah, all commutative
so here you're first inverting fewer elements of R/I and then later inverting all, and asking is this same as if you inverted everything to begin with
is it a fact that the order of elements in Zp* is symmetric if you look at them in a list?
like for Z_7^* you have 1 4 2 2 4 1 for 1 2 3 4 5 6
mistyped, i meant when squaring elements
ah
this
(-1)^2=1
makes sense ty
🐧
can someone verify if i did the multiplications correct thus far
is (1+theta)(1+theta)=1+theta+theta^2?
No.
i think i caught my mistake
is it 1+\theta^2 @coral spindle
since 2 is cong to 0 mod 2
Yes.
got it
thanks
so \theta^3 = \theta+1
so then would $(1+\theta+\theta^2)(\theta)=\theta + \theta^2 - \theta - 1 = \theta^2 - 1$ which is $\theta^2+1$ mod 2
MyMathYourMath
and is $(\theta)(1+\theta^2)=\theta+\theta^3=\theta-\theta-1=1$ mod 2
MyMathYourMath
does this problem reduce down to into showing that $|G| = |G'|$? Since $\phi[G]$ is finite and is a subgroup, we have to prove that it divides the order of $G'$. Therefore all we need to show that $|G| = |G'|$?
okeyokay
No, typically |G| and |G'| will not be equal
Hint: use the first isomorphism theorem
what's the first isomorphism theorem
Good luck
Do you know langranges theorem?
so would Q(sqrt2,sqrt3) be the set of a+bsqrt2+csqrt3+dsqrt6 where a,b,c,d are in Q?
and so would iv be 4? and iii be 2?
yes
Then you are done right if you showed it is a subgroup
Or well isomorphic to a subgroup of G
well clearly $\phi[G]$ is a divisor of $|G'|$ since $\phi[G]$ is a subgroup
G’ need not be finite
okeyokay
So divisor here doesn’t make sense always
I tried solving this using the Euclidean algorithm but 25 and 5 are not relatively prime so I don't know how else I can form the Diophantine equation to find the general solution.
Ah i see where his hint comes in
Try using the 1st iso theorem to build an isomorphism from a quotient of G (also finite) to the image
i'm not familiar with quotient groups yet
they're introduced in the next chapter
Ah i see
so i have to prove this without the first isomorphism theorem or whatever or any knowledge of quotient groups
Think about the kernel and how that relates to the size of the image.
In doing so you will get close to proving the first isomorphism theorem. Swings and roundabouts.
For finite try arguing that the image has size <= |G|
would this line of argument work?
Since $|G|$ is finite, we may number its elements $a_1, \dots a_n$. Then for each $a_j$, $\phi(a_j) = \phi(a_je) = \phi(a_j)\phi(e)$, so $\phi[G]$ is finite.
or nah
okeyokay
Yes that works
ok sweet
The argument is flawed
why does phi(a_j) = phi(a_j)phi(e) imply that phi[G] is finite?
Simply say that the elements are listed (possibly non uniquely) by phi(a_1), phi(a_2), ..., phi(a_n).
That's all there is to showing that phi[G] is finite.
No I disagree, your argument made no such mention and also talked about something non-relevant
Should say one more sentence like and as 1 <= j <= n then it is finite
right
okay you're right
This is better fitted in #elementary-number-theory ? Maybe #proofs-and-logic
Anyways for divisors if it’s cyclic then it should be clear enough but not quite sure how to do it if it’s not cyclic
Yea I realized, I posted in #elementary-number-theory
Elaboration on this hint: when is it true that phi(a_i) = phi(a_j)?
wait bruh isn't this kinda trivial or am i tripping
Since $|G|$ is finite, we may list its elements $a_1, a_2, \dots a_n$. Then $\phi(a_1), \phi(a_2), \dots, \phi(a_n)$ is finite, so $\phi[G]$ is finite. But then $\phi[G]$ = n, and clearly $n \mid n$.
okeyokay
No
No
It can map to not distinct elements
You should consider the hints I have given
i will look right now
good man for that
Or you could just move on and come back when you've learned the first isomorphism theorem
nah i'm tryna prove this without that
cuz it's in the chapter before that
so i should be able to prove it with the tools i've learned from basic properties of homomorphisms
if it even requires that
Maybe try constructing an isomorphism from the image back into a subgroup of G
We know right away there’s a right inverse…
This will rarely exist.
ah that's smart
There is not a right inverse, no.
Yes
Onto iff right inverse?
Not for group homomorphisms, no.
perhaps i can relate it to the coset of the kernel of G
and then it would have the same cardinality of a subgroup
which would divide the order of G
This is just 1st iso theorem
is that what you were going for @coral spindle or something like that
What you say about phi[G] having the same cardinality of a subgroup is not correct
this typically does not occur
well isn't by definition phi[G] a subgroup
Of G’
oh okay
My right inverse misconception messed up a lot of things
i thought you were talking about G' my b
hmm..... this might be a little bit stupid or silly but we know phi[G] is a subgroup of G', so phi^-1[phi[G]] is a subgroup of G
so maybe i could play with that
Yes, phi^-1[phi[G]] = G.
Maybe you should think about this on your own for a while.
At the moment it seems like you're checking ideas with us instead of trying to think independently
One last hint for you to take away: phi(a) = phi(b) if and only if phi(ab^-1) is the identity in G'.
perhaps i can construct a homomorphism $\tau: G \mapsto G\H$ given by $\tau(g) = gH$ where $H$ = Ker($\tau$)
okeyokay
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oops compling error
anyways
compiling
oh well we know that $\mu: G\textbackslashH \mapsto \phi[G]$ given by $\mu(gH) = \phi(g)$ is an isomorphism
okeyokay
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Don't confuse G/H for G\H
oh
my bad
wrong backlsash
backslash
I lied
Gonna use the first isomorphism theorem
Why?
because it provides an isomorphism from the image of G to the factor group of G
$|\phi[G]| = n$, correct?
okeyokay
by my way of construction
wait no
that's not true
two elements could map to the same element
so i would have to define or use from the first isomorphism theorem
$\mu: G/H \mapsto \phi[G]$
okeyokay
which shows that $G/H \simeq \phi[G]$
okeyokay
try to be careful on notation, this picture is nonsense
you should use \to instead of \mapsto
$\to \mapsto$
bee
say $f(x) = 3x$
Geopchad
ah i see
okay
fuck i've been doing it wrong all along then
my prof prolly thinks i'm an idiot lmfao
anyway the map myu would be myu(gH) = f(g)
right
and then you have to show this is well-defined, a homomorphism, a bijection, and then you have 1st isomorphism theorem
this is for injective
so could we perhaps plug all the elements of g into the isomorphism
which would show that \phi[G] is of order n?
since a bijection shows the cardinalities are the same
wdym
it would show \phi[G} iso to G/ker(phi)
which has order |G| / |ker(phi)|
and then clearly |G| / (|G| / |ker(phi)|) = |ker(phi)| which is an integer as desired
yes it is but you would need to prove that about myu
ah
but i'm relying on it already being proven in the textbook LOL
ah okay
wait have you learned this in class?
nah i've read ahead
section 13 is about homomorphisms
section 14 is about factor groups
i'm doing a problem from section 13
from fraleigh
ah
i would suppose this problem is to motivate the defintiion of a factor group
or the first isomorphism theorem
is the book in portugese?
what the hell did i find lol
bruh what did you find
what exercise in section 1 3?
math moment
no, this problem is before the chapter introducing 1st homo theorem. So he should try to prove it without using that powerful weapon
That or just prove it 
linkint this convo
tbf if the exercise was given before the theorem you probably should not be invoking it
I think I’ve seen books that blatantly say some exercises shouldn’t be done on like a first pass through
But that’s definitely not this book
wrong
(123645)
how did you get that
i did it again and got the same answer lol
just by eyes
start with 1
1->2->2
2->4->3
3->3->6
6->6->4
4->5->5
5->1->1 done
so its (123645)
oh wait
why are you going from right to left 
you always go right to left
it is. but its right to left. pretty much everything in algebra is right to left
think of it like functions
Yeah I know
$f\circ g$ means $g$ then $f$
nilpotent nix
but like for permutations
a permutation is a function
um why does this guarantee the field can't be trivial
nvm Lang defines division ring with the condition 1 \neq 0
people often write $f \circ g$ as $g\cdot f=gf$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
I think in artin they made permutations go the other way
oh that might b why
who tf does that
so its like x (permutation) rather than (permuation) x
yes, just use the fact that G is partitioned by its cosets
some reason related to reading out cycles or something
yeah
it doesnt really matter
then just switch to another book
well its a really small thing id hardly say enough to switch books over lol
too bad
the answer was left to right btw
so I was right
i think
what happens when a function f is 0 at some value? What would its multiplicative inverse be in Map(S, A)
if f is 0 everywhere then it is the additive unit/identity so we don't need it to have an inverse, but for functions that are 0in some places, we need there to be a multiplicative inverse, but what do you multiply by 0 to get 1
later in the text they say this:
But I don't see why this issue doesn't affect the general definition too
can someone please explain why this is a negative parity?
a 4 cycle composed with a 3 cycle is an even permutation right?
so +1 parity?
I usually see f \circ g as fg or like f(g) or such, I rarely see it as gf except on like nLab sometimes
3 cycle is even, 4 is odd
Even number of transposition in an odd number length cycle since (123) = (12)\circ(23)
if you want to give the set of some class of functions the structure of a ring, it is common to make addition function addition and multiplication function composition. In this way, f * g = g ○ f makes more sense
do I just memorise these rules
like I understand the logic behind it
but do I really need to think of the entire permutation sign proof every time I do a sign computation
also, in this case, what would be the additive unit if the ring does not permit functions that are 0 somewhere?
can someone help me with the following:
dihedral group Dn with a of order n, and b of order 2, and ba = a^(-1)b.
show that ba^m = a^(-m)b
i just can't seem to show it no matter what i try
induction would work well
and BIG hint: remember that b = b^{-1}
i though about that, but wouldn't i need to show it in the negative integer direction as well or nah?
ok problem solved. I forgot that rings need not have multiplicative identities lol
Q: Let $f$ be a permutation on the set ${1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}$, defined as follows $$f=(576)(642835).$$
Write the permutation $f^4$ as a product of disjoint cycles.
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
A key question that I have: is it typically better to first rewrite $f$ as a product of disjoint cycles so that taking powers will then be easy:
$$f=(576)(642835)=(283574)\implies f²=(283574)^2$$ Or, should simply keep them separate: $$f^2=(576)(642835)\cdot(576)(642835).$$ In the latter case, would $$f^2=(576)(642835)(576)(642835)=(576)^2(642835)^2$$ be true? Because in this instance, these 2 cycles are no longer disjoint, meaning that shouldn't be commutative right?
Meanwhile, I can write $f²=(283574)(283574)=(237)(485)$, whereby because they are disjoint cycles, I can do $f^4=(f²)²=(237)^2(485)²$.
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
you should be able to just compute both sides and see for yourself whether such a statement is true or not
suppose $G$ is a finite abelian group. then it's isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}{p_1}^{r_1} \text{ x } \mathbb{Z}{p_2}^{r_2} \text{ x } \dots \text{ x } \mathbb{Z}_{p_n}^{r_n}$. it would be incorrect to say $a \in G$ is of the form $(a_1, a_2, \dots a_n)$, right? because we could send $a \in G$ to some element in this direct product, but $a \in G$ is not necessarily of the form $(a_1, a_2, \dots a_n)$
okeyokay
because i'm trying to describe the kernel of phi if G is a finite abelian group
yeah true
You can talk about it in terms of the homomorphic image if you want I guess?
hm ok
i'll have to think about that
Oh, maybe what you want is
The kernel is isomorphic to
a subgroup of those products
But if that theorem (classification of finite abelian groups) is later on in the book I wouldn't invoke it yet
for this Q
well i think it's pretty much the same
the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
is what my book says
$f = (6537412), f^{-1}=(2147356)$
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
I can decompose this any further right?
Z is euclidean domain with norm N(n)=|n|.. and every nZ is ideal of Z... and every ideal of euclidean domain is (d) where d is nonzero element with smallest norm...
So here's contradiction cause every nZ is ideal...
what did I wrong
ok i'm too lazy but you know what i mean
G is finite and abelian then it's isomorphic to a direct product of set of integers mod blah blah
is it true that if G is a finite nonabelian group, then the order of any element a in G is n where n is the order of G?
i know it's true for cyclic groups
but i'm not sure for nonabelian groups
and i'm too lazy to prove it
or disprove it
lol
e is order 1 right?
3 in integers mod 6 is order 2 for a less haha identity one
what
Also, consider Z_2 x Z_2, which is order 4, but I'm pretty sure each nonzero element is order 2
3+3 = 6 = 0 mod 6
oh nonabelian
ye

well
also it has no order 6 element
err if we had such an a
it would generate G
since <a> is a subgroup of G but has the same order as G
since powers of a gives all n objects
oh wait i'm stupid
contradicting your assumption of it not being abelian
wait
?
its already a disjoint cycle
unless you want to turn it into 2 cycles
isn't n of smallest norm
lil bro snapped
for things that make nZ
norm of k for k in nZ is |k|=|nm|=n|m|
so m=1 and get n idk
where's contradiction
2Z=(2), 3Z=(3) and N(2)=2=/=3=N(3)
So??
2=3 but 2=/=3
Every ideal in eculidean domain is (d) where d is nonzero element with minimum @lethal dune norm
d is the non zero element of the ideal with minimum norm
The fact that Z is a PID is not a contradiction
For every ideal in a Euclidean domain there exists some element d s.t. the ideal is (d)
I got it
You got what???
Got what I did wrong
What did you do wrong? What are you even trying to prove?
I think they interpreted as
For every Euclidean domain there exists some element d s.t. every ideal is (d)
1.1.1 easily implies 1.1.2 but how to prove the other direction
sucks when you're stuck on the first problem of the book
the rest of the problems are a lot easier tho
the definition1.1.1, it didn't say the binary operation is closed
aight let's just assume it is
it is not assume, it is a must...
why didn't they specify it tho
if it is default, why doing hw exercise prob need to prove it is closed
You can prove that 1.12 means it has an identity element right? After this showing that each element has an inverse is also quite straightforward
That might be when you need to show something is a subgroup
I was only able to show left and right identities but not a unique identity
Did you use associativity?
lemme see what I did
What if you multiply identities
There's a related fun question, given a finite set with an associative binary operation having cancelation property (ax = ay implies x = y and xb = yb implies x = y) is a group.
is this a nosols moment
thanks
is this just saying that the direct sum decomposition has length 2
if so it seems extra that they "index over the ring Z/2Z" instead of just saying "direct sum of two subspaces"
Let $H,K$ be proper subgroups of a group $G$. If $|K|=39$ and $|H|=65$, what are the possible orders of $K\cap H$? Enter your answer as a comma separated list.
My answer: 13,1
**Motivation:**
Let $Q=K\cap H$; by Lagrange's Theorem, $Q\over 39$ and $Q\over 65$, so this effectively becomes a basic number theory question; I need to find all common divisors of 39 and 65.
Thus, I first find the $gcd(39,65)=13$, since all common divisors are also divisors of the $gcd$.
(how do I prove this? I tried.) Since 13 is prime, the only possible orders of $Q$ are 13 and 1.
Have I done this question correctly / is there a better way? I have not taken a formal number theory course yet, so I am quite weak at it.
where is the TeX bot
probably sleeping at this hour
Anyone confident with abstract algebra can help me over dm?
Abstract algebra is a broad term but I might be able to help depending on whats the problem
yes please lemme try them first tho
that's the idea of this channel
yea
time to practice a bit of number theory then
,rccw
oh you're trying to make them into disjoint cycles
what happens next when 1 is the 1 cycle from b
what is a and b
a = (132)(45) b = (2543)(1)
yea so where does it go
nah like when i multiplied it
compute ab(1)
from a) 2 -> 1 then what after that?
that's it
so what do i write when it done?
write it as disjoint cycles I guess
can u show me how to do a.b?
you're probably asked to find ab in terms of disjoint cycles
a trick to find disjoint cycles is as such
ab(1) is 3 so we'll see what ab(3) is
ab(3) = 1 so (13) is a cycle
now we check the other numbers
what do u mean by ab(3)?
okay
can you evaluate ab(2) ab(4) and ab(5)
^
i havent been taught to calculate ab(1) or ab(2) like how u did it
i been taught to go from a to b
now you know
ok do you want me to demonstrate how i found ab(1)
ab = (132)(45)(2543)
(2543) fixes 1 and so does (45)
(132) sends 1 to 3 and thats the last cycle so ab(1) = 3
note that I am composing permutations right to left
can you demonstrate how to compute ab(3)
ab(3) sends 3 to 2 and 2 to 5?
cool so you've already discovered a cycle in the final thing
(13)
we're still missing information about 2, 4,5
no no
you evaluate ab(2)
etc
you must treat the whole thing as a function
because it is
you cannot treat them as separate here because they are not disjoint and so don't commute
cuz i said we start from b, if thats the case then 2 -> 5 -> 4
so 2 goes to 4
so ab(2) = 4
is that what u meant
yep
so start from b yea okie
now ab 4
oh sure if ur thinking about it like that
4 -> 5 then 5 ->4
so
yea i need to think of them as systematic thing
cuz i cant wrap my head around them otherwise
this is the system you use
you see each cycle
you do them one by one
right to left
what does your textbook use
Write 𝑎 and 𝑏 in cycle notation, and compute their product. (Remember that for us,
𝑎 ∗ 𝑏 means “first do 𝑎, then 𝑏”)
"first do a, then b" confuses the hell outta me
so back to start or
so i start from a right
one sec please
how would you evaluate this permutation
(132)(354) on 3
like
based on your class
so 1 -> 3 -> 5
wait
are you sure
theres no one
ok let f = (132) g=(354)
i want to know if fg (3) means
f(g(3)) or
g(f(3))
here, do you evaluate permutations left to right
anyway the idea here is just
start with some element
say 2
see where that permutation sends it
say 2-> n
then evaluate the permutation on n
eventually youll get to some point which goes back to 2 and that completes the cycle
you repeat until you got everything
Hi, guys, suppose A is a finitely generated k-algebra, and A is an integral domain, then is it true that Frac(A) is also a finitely generated field extension of k?
where k is algebraically closed
quick question: in proving "every integral domain is a field", do i need to prove that the integral domain is commutative?
sorry, every finite integral domain
oh i see
,rccw
(45)(2543) is that (45) * (2543) or is there some other multiplication
that I'm not aware of
(132)(45) * (2543)
no
that is not what I am asking
I am asking if (45)(2543) is implicitly doing (45) * (2543)
that is not my question.
what do u mean by implicitly doing (45)*(2543)?
whats goin on D:
YES
they should leave it
ah okay
i should change my name to i am confusion
i been told to do this so

nice pound symbol
i cannot change
let me just evaluate it with the sane composition first
my applied math major only got 2 more units left
i suffered through 11, 2 more left and im DONE
(2543)(45)(132)
(12)(13) = (321) and nothing else 
wow
so stoopid
$a * b = b \circ a$

a = (132)(45) b = (2543)
taking these as functions
i been told to do left to right tho
a(b(x)) = (b * a)(x)
in which case the notation is nonsensical and u should use
left to right composition makes me want to cry
hewwo #abstract-chill

xab = x(a * b)
um so did i do it right?
^ i cant remember what this notation is called
xf
to mean f evaluated at x
yes
well nowhere do i see functional notation being used in their notes
so also: don't
It is worth asking whoevers teaching how they would notate
"a * b evaluated at x"
And see what they do
nty
hopefully itll be xab
i want him to not pick on me
youre there to learn
he was so strict that im 1 mark away from passing, yet he didn't give it to me
well no... thats how things work usually
well no im sure i did decently okay in my final
did you get your grade back for your final?
but they were being too picky when marking it
that was last year im redoing it again
this could just be your opinion
😱
this is technically no longer abstract algebra
you should get the opinion of someone else before thinking this
if you really must, see your prof in person and ask
well, i dont get my test back, only result

and my total assignment marks were quite high, like 38/50
sounds absurd schooling
are they using left to right only for permutations? or just in general
hm good question, so far thats what i been taught this week
functions
we'll be back next week
um no? not yet
thats why i was so confused when pigeon used function
well it is worth realising permutations are just functions
In particular they are bijections from sets to themselves
it is weird but it does make it 'easier' for permutations so you can read left to right
yes u r, shuddup.
but its not like reading right to left is really that much harder
that you would introduce special notation or w.e
i need stressball
hm can someone explain this to me?
How many elements are there in 𝑆10 of cycle-type (×××)(×××)? And how many elements
of cycle-type (××)(××)(××)? Explain your answers.
make me explain my answer
Are you DerpZ
im not ryc
are you rycool?
maybe 
I didn't ask who you weren't 
you could click on my profile
I'm on phone
someone pls halp 😱
Oh. You can click on avatar. TIL
You definitely need to pick 6 elements first
Right
And then figure out how to make a product of two disjoint 3-cycles from those
They mean two disjoint 3-cycles
I'm pretty sure
Why are we finding order of something
okay, explain to me how u would do it
We need 6 numbers from 10
So it's going to be 10 choose 6 times amount of how many products of two disjoint 3-cycles we can make from 6 numbers
Right
how many disjoint 3-cycles can we make with 6 numbers?
Well then we need to take 3 numbers from those 6
To make into a 3-cycle
But product commutes so we need to divide by 2
So it's 6 choose 3 divided by 2
10
And now we need to make those 3-cycles from the choosen 3 numbers
So it's going to be times 2^2
2 for each 3-cycle in the product
Wdym
because some cycles are similar
Wdym actually
like the order of the cycles repeat
Like ab and ba?
Yeah
They're the same
This was when I counted 2^2, with 2 for each cycle
We can have (123) or (132)
Right
Sounds about right
Yeah. Because there is 6 x
but multiply by the product of 3 2 - cycles
Hm?
(xx)(xx)(xx)
We need to choose 2 for each batch
Blitz
But count the commutativity of the product
you also have to divide by 3! as the order of cycles don't matter
righto!
I am getting to this
oh okie >.< mb
Here. This means we need to divide by 3!
Now, if you have 2 numbers, there's only one way to make a 2-cycle from them
So that's it
Now I want to point out that I interpreted this to mean product of disjoint cycles
But I think that part is correct
cycle type would refer to disjoint.
Consider the Hilbert space ℋ = ℂ² ⊗ ℂ², what is the rank of the operator: 𝜌 = |00⟩⟨00| + |10⟩⟨10| + |11⟩⟨11|?
I just want a quick way to check that the rank is greater than 2.
Hi, guys, is it true that if L'/L is algebraic field extension, L'/k and L/k will have the same transcendental degree?
yes
proper or not?
that doesn't matter right
it does not say, so both cases i think
yea they have the same transcendence degree
I might’ve asked this but I can’t remember
how do i show this, suppose the transcendental basis of L/k is x_1,...,x_d, i hope to say that if x_{d+1}\in L' is transcendental over k, then x_{d+1} is transcendental over L
Is every Dedekind domain that’s finitely generated as a Z-algebra isomorphic to some ring of integers of a number field (as Z-algebras)?
okie i'll assume you have verified the usual stuff like the existence-uniqueness statement.
if B is a transcendence basis of L/k then by definition B is a maximal alg-indep set, so any bigger set can't be alg indep, so in particular this means that L/k(B) is an alg-extension. now show that B is still a maximal alg-indep set for L'/k using the fact that L'/k(B) is algebraic.
Thank you!
idk much theory of dedekind domains, but a bad counter example is F_p[x].
i changed the characteristic so can't be something obtained from number fields
bruh can someone give me a hint, i'm bad at number theory
clearly it follows from lagrange's theorem
and you can use induction of some sort
i just don't know how to a) show that (n - 2) does not divide n
i know you can do (n - 2)k = n and then expand that
can n-2 divide n for n > 4?
no, of course not
i'm just having trouble proving it
number theory wise
divisors can't be larger than sqrt(n) i believe <- try proving this
Try arguing via the size of n. Remember that a | b implies |a| <= |b|.
if n-2 divides n, then it divides n - (n-2)

thanks
this is nice
det's suggestion is the best
(oh they can be... the smallest non-trivial divisor can't be larger than sqrt(n))
4 is a divisor of 8 >.<
ah
but yea ig you wanted to say that a proper divisor would always be <= n/2

this worked perfectly, thanks!!
ig i should have thought about it a little more though
but my approach is to always do (n - 2)k = n and then try to find a contradiction there, but it's quite annoying to do so
yea but that's not a fun example :p
okie what about this... consider Z[1/2] i believe this is a pid, hence dedekind.. but since it's not a free Z-module it shouldn't be ring of integers of some number field.
or use some form of induction ig but that's annoying too
it's not going to be that bad... you know k = 1 doesn't work, so k >= 2. this inequality gives you what you want.
start from here, $k=\frac{n}{n-2}$, now take $k$ as a function of $n$, $k(n)=\frac{n}{n-2}$, find the range for this function, then you will find the contradiction if $n>4$
Witness
would you have to prove this with means of induction then
nah, k >= 2 means n = (n-2)k >= 2n-4 which is same as n <= 4
something tells me real analysis is gonna fuck me in the ass if i can't see these inequalities
i see
thank you
you get used to it
haven't learned ring part, is ring more difficult than group or less difficult?
sqrt(R)? i think they mean the nilradical of R, which shoudl be denoted sqrt(0)?
we don't necessarily have that R is an integral domain so i'm not sure how to show that all the non-constant coefficients couldn't theoretically multiply out to 0
our class has defined sqrt(R) to be the nilradical ¯_(ツ)_/¯
normally sqrt(I) for an ideal means the collection of elements such that a certain power of them lies in I.
yeah ik it's weird
we use sqrt(I) as you do, but sqrt(R) for some reason is the nilradical
okie det bacc
to show that right thing consists of units, use that unit+nilpotent is a unit and sum of nilpotents is nilpotent.
and it remains to show the hell direction
to show that these are all the units, ig one way is to take a prime p of your ring R, and then consider that unit in (R/p)[T]. since this new ring is an integral domain, so the units are constants and hence all the non-constant coefficients of a unit lie in every prime.
and you should have seen that intersection of all primes is exactly the nilradical

i wonder if we can avoid using AoC
God exists axiom --> AoC
i wonder if we can avoid using God
NoGod exists axiom --> AoC

Yes, that's right
but why they didn't claim this
They did - they say that it's a map G x X -> X
in particular, it takes (g, x) to some element in X which we denote gx
but that is the map for $*(g, x)=y, y\in X$
Witness
but we don't know how $*( , )$ is defined in details
Witness
Right, and we typically denote the image of *(g, x) by gx, which should invoke the idea that g is acting on x
ok, got it!

