#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 72 of 1
exactly
what's the operation? Who knows, but it's the operation from G and that's all you need
ok yea yea we want to show x *y in C_a yes
so what does that mean, for x*y to be in C_a?
THAT x*y must commute with a
yea so axy = xya
or written in the second one, xya(xy)^-1 = a
what do we know from x and y being in C_a? What tools do we have
can you think how to use this
to show this
I don't think that'll get you anywhere
cause that's introducing two a's and we only want one a
ok start with axy and think about any substitutions you can make or whatever
axy = xay = xya
perfect
using the fact that ax = xa and ay = ya
thus, x, y being in C_a implies that x*y is in C_a
yay 🙂
try something similar for inverses now
if x is in C_a, show x^-1 is in C_a
do the same thing we did above.
write out the end goal
and write out what tools we have given the assumption
well
since a = xax-1
then x-1a = ax-1
since x-1 commutes with a
then x-1 must be in Ca
😄
YAY
bingo
prove (1) iff (2) and (2) iff (3) or (1) implies (2) implies (3) implies (1)
Or many such things lol
I mean (2) iff (3) should be immediate from what you said here
(I'm using the numbers to represent each statement here cause I'm too lazy to type it all out)
you have the map described in the problem right? Can you show it's injective for example?
i have the map G/K -> G/H
Oh wait no I'm dumb don't show it's injective
Ok do you know the first isomorphism theorem?
no
i may know it
In abstract algebra, the fundamental theorem on homomorphisms, also known as the fundamental homomorphism theorem, or the first isomorphism theorem, relates the structure of two objects between which a homomorphism is given, and of the kernel and image of the homomorphism.
The homomorphism theorem is used to prove the isomorphism theorems.
This
bet thank you
what would Cax and Cay look like here?
that im still confused af brotha
you just multiply everything in that from x or y on the right
let c be in C_a
then cx is in (C_a)x
can someone reference me to this or if its trivial explain
bro is that a lewis structure
i wish
uhh, aren't modules by definition abelian groups (with respect to their addition operation)
we call M an R-module if it is an abelian group and there is a map R x M -> M satisfying certain properties (1*m = m, (r+s)*m = r*m + s*m, r*(m+n) = rm + rn, (rs)m = r(sm))
yeah thats odd, i am sure they wanted to tell you the converse
that an abelian group is a Z-module
what they did here is very wierd
the proof is also wrong too then right
i have no idea what the properties they mention are
hmm i think they got some wires crossed here for sure
ill let you think about how to recover that an abelian group is a Z module from what they wrote
given an abelian group G, if M is a Z-module of G, then necessarily, for every n > 0 \in Z, m \in M we have n * m = (1 + ... + 1) * m = m + ... + m.
Similarly, for negative n we have n * m = (-m) + ... + (-m). Finally, 0m = (0 + 0)m = 0m + 0m so 0m = 0.
ok I see now
b -> (g(b), b - f(g(b)) is a group homomorphism B -> Im g (+) ker f and is bijective
oh theyre modules
just to clarify, in Example 39, for V <-> ⊕ kv_i to be an isomorphism, the decomposition must be unique, unlike the definition right after, right?
@pliant forge okay wait what I said isn’t quite true, I’m not 100% sure this is true lol
I imagine the isomorphism ⊕ kv_i -> V sends (k_1 v_1, ..., k_n, v_n) -> their sum, and if this is an isomorphism it must be injective, i.e., each v in V is written uniquely as a linear combination of the v_i
oh I was comparing this definition and the definition above, not example 39, but the point still holds
i know thats true
but not the other one
however my prof used the other for a proof
Yeah okay so look at this
R -> R^3 -> R
Inclusion into the first coordinate
Then projecting out the first coordinate
ker f = 0, im g = R
hmm
Or even R^2
Yeah this is absolutely false
no wonder i was trying to prove crankery
@warm shoal
another way is to use equivalent class, similar proof as in the proof for cosets @warm shoal
here, does multiplication in F refer to function composition?
guys, is there a neat visualization of Abelianization?
what is this prob asking to do?
asking if it's a homomorphism
it is just *
just multiplication
simple multiply
actually either case, the answer is false
no
it's literally multiplication
f(x)g(x)
good man that derp
okie
just did
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
for advanced channels imo saying whether something is correct is kind of almost giving out sols
oh ok yea
It's not like that single bit of information can be handed i as homework ...
is phi a homomorphism? true or false 
but imagine not having a "prove your claim" after that
If a=1, they're clearly different ...
but TROPO
isnn't that second set
(which yes is the same)
literally the set of all conjugates of a?
nah i prove it regardless
no
the set of all conjugates is of $a$ is $\left{ xax^{-1} \colon x \in G \right}$. Note this includes $xax^{-1} \neq a$
Spamakin🎷
are there infinitely many homomorphisms of $\mathbb{Z}$ into $\mathbb{Z}_2$?
okeyokay
As rings or groups or?
why?
I can only think of two ...
yea but why do you think there would be infinitely many? Worth exploring where the logic fails
ah gotcha i see.
because one homomorphism is $\phi(g) = g \text{ mod } 2$ is one, and same with $\phi(g) = 2g \text{ mod } 2$ is another, and you can keep on going along with $\phi(g) = 4g \text { mod } 2$
but would those all just be the trivial homomorphism
okeyokay
(Z is cyclic, so the only choice you have when making a homomorphism from it is where to send the generator).
^
why
ok so the generator is 1 right?
or well lets say g for ease of notation
ok
yea that too
which would explain your guys logic for 2
ok so like 2 = 2g right?
ye
phi(2g) = phi(g + g) = phi(g) + phi(g) = 2phi(g)
so phi(2g) is completely determined by phi(g)
Fix a prime $p \in \bZ$. Let $R$ denote the set of rational numbers whose denominator is not divisible by $p$. Show that $R$ is a discrete valuation ring with parameter $p$.
anamono for anamono
for some reason this is way harder than it feels like it should be
i assume the goal is to show that any prime in R is p
i'm having trouble understanding what you mean
would it help to prove that if G is a homomorphism with G' and G is cyclic, then G' is cyclic?
because by then maybe i could say that a homomorphism always has to send a generator of G into a generator of G'
of which there are two generators of Z, namely 1 and -1
and they both have to get sent to 1 in Z2
or am i lost here
but then there's also the trivial homomorphism
don't crucify me
Once you know what phi(g) is you know what phi(2g) is
It’s forced to be 2phi(g)
So phi(g) determines phi(2g)
This holds for any k, so you can see that any map out of Z/nZ is determined by what it does to 1
What’s your definition of a DVR
and/or do you know multiple
Let R be a PID with the property that, given any two prime elements p_1 and p_2, <p_1> = <p_2>, i.e., up to unit multiple, there is just one prime element.
This is such a Hurb definition lmfao
But sure
Do you see why it’s a PID
Also, do you know what localization is
is it a PID because, given a non-prime element q in R, it has a unique factorization as a product of primes; but there's only one prime, and so that ideal is principal?
i don't think that makes any sense
man that is a good question
also nah i dont know what a localization is
This doesn’t say anything about an arbitrary ideal
So I don’t see how you can possibly turn this into a proof
yea u right
Figure out why every ideal is principal, then do the following
Prove that the other condition is equivalent to saying R has one maximal ideal.
Let R be a ring with a single maximal ideal m. We say R [or (R,m) if we want to emphasize that m is the maximal ideal] is a local ring
Prove that (R,m) is a local ring is equivalent to showing that R\m is exclusively units
[not needed but bonus: same as saying the set of non invertible elements form an ideal. Also equivalent to saying this set is closed under units]
Once you’ve done this, you just have to show that the complement of (p) is formed of units, but this is obvious
homomorphism map subgroup to subgroup, so for Z2, there are two subgroups, Z2 and {e}, for Z->Z2, only one generator for Z2, so you have one homomorphism, for Z->{e}, you have one homomorphism, so totally 2 homomorphism
tbh i can't figure out why a DVR is PID; i'm not sure how to assign a value to an arbitrary element of an integral domain R (e.g., for Z you can compare size, for F[x] you can compare degree, etc)
oh i thought you were asking me to show that an ID that has that unique prime property was a PID
oops lmao
my bad
I meant to prove that this ring is a PID
ah okay
Then you can show it’s local separately
Although technically if you show it’s local and the maximal ideal is principal you can actually show it’s a PID from that so
Maybe do that first
This is very false btw
yea that's why i was getting really stuck lol
The easiest way to do it is to use localization which I guess you can describe concretely
we haven't defined localization nor local rings :(
So take rational functions over a field where the denominator is not in (x,y)
you can show that it’s local with maximal ideal (x,y)
Let $\mathfrak I$ be an ideal of $R$. Let $\alpha \in \mathfrak I$ be non-zero. Then $\alpha$ and $-\alpha \in \mathfrak I$, and one of them is positive. Thus $\mathfrak I$ contains strictly positive elements. Take $\beta \in \mathfrak I$. Write $\beta = \alpha q + r$, where $r = 0$ or $r < \alpha$. By definition, $\beta - \alpha q \in \mathfrak I$. Thus $r \in \mathfrak I$. If $r$ is non-zero, then contradiction to assumption that $\alpha \in \mathfrak I$ is minimal. Thus $\mathfrak I = \langle \alpha \rangle$.
anamono for anamono
I'm trying to mimic the proof for Z, but i'm pretty sure it doesn't hold since positive rationals aren't well ordered (?)
oh wait. take a/b in R. we have that gcd(b, p) = 1. if gcd(a,p) = 1, then (a/b)^{-1} = b/a is in R. furthermore, ba is not divisible by p, so (a/b)(b/a) = ab/ba is in R and is equal to 1. Thus a/b is a unit in R. Thus is not in any proper ideal of R.
Thus, given a proper ideal J of R, every element in J is a fraction a/b, where a is divisible by p. write a = (p^i)c, where i is a natural number. Thus each value of i generates a principal ideal in R?
can i think of it this way? to satisfy the homomorphism property, we have to have $\phi(ab) = \phi(a)\phi(b)$ where $\phi(a)\phi(b) \in \mathbb{Z}_2$. But the only elements $\phi(a)\phi(b)$ can be are 0 and 1, so one is the trivial homomorphism, but i'm not so sure how you would define the one which sends things to one
okeyokay
idk if i'm on the right track
no
i'm still struggling to see how this shows that there are exactly two homomorphisms
Let G be a group, f:Z -> G and g:Z -> G homomorphisms. Show that if f(1) = g(1) then f = g
this shows you have at most two possible maps
show both of them constitute actually homomorphisms
to determine the number of homomorphism, it is like to specify the initial value, after the initial value is settled, all other values are settled, the f(ab)=f(a)f(b) is like the algorithm to compute other values, like a domino, but you need to specify where you trigger it
@white oxide
LMFAO thanks for the domino image
ohh okay
that makes sense
i should probably prove 46 to gain a rigorous intuition tho
there are also overkill ways to do it like with first iso
oh is that the fundamental homomorphism theorem or smt
eh sure
the kernel of the homomorphism is a normal subgroup so
how many normal subgroups of Z do you have
ok theres a lot whoops
$f(n)=f(n1)=nf(1)=ng(1)=g(n1)=g(n)$
Witness
noooo please don't spoil :(
Z->Z_2
| /
v /
Z/ker phi
well this assumes phi is surjective
you can always use the trivial homomorphism
the one that just sends everything to the identity
is this Pi-homomorphism unique?
yes, I know it is natural, but I am curious if this is unique one
I am thinking maybe not unique, because you can do a permutation
i mean sure but
the cosets are an equivalence relation
so
it probably doesn't matter too much
so long your pi still remains a homomorphism
what I propose is , for example, H is the kernal, $xH={x, y}$, can we define phi as $\Phi(x)=yH$ ?
here, would i be allowed to prove the contrapositive? Namely, assuming $\phi \neq \mu$ and then trying to prove that $\phi(a_i) \neq \mu(a_i)$ for all $a_i \in G$
okeyokay
you can always prove the contraposition so long you negated it correctly
but will your permutation preserve the homomorphism
Witness
right, so the imaged object is the same coset
I think it's fine because of how cosets work
but didnt check whether your permutation is a homomorphism
but yeah it should
what about this: $\phi(x)=x^{-1}H$
Witness
fine too but these are really the same map
because you're still mapping it to the same coset
and can homomorphisms be extended to more than two elements, i.e. if $a_1, a_2, \dots a_n \in G$ and we have a homomorphism $\phi: G \mapsto G'$, is it true that $\phi(a_1a_2\dotsa_n) = \phi(a_1)\phi(a_2)\dots\phi(a_n)$
okeyokay
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actually this is by definition
to see this consider 3 elements
f(xyz) = f(x(yz)) = f(x)f(yz)
yeah yeah
the understanding here is that the "yz" is a single element in G anyway
because that multiplication is closed
alternatively we can also use proof by contradicting obviousness: man it would suck if that wasn't true
wait, $\phi(x)=xH$ and $\phi(x)=x^{-1}H$ they are mapping to different coset
Witness
right
LMFAO

$xx\inv = e \in H$
I would recommend a quick refresher on the properties of cosets
recall that homomorphisms preserve the group operation
no, $x~_Ry$ iff $xy^{-1}\in H$
to prove that $\phi = \mu$, would it suffice to take some arbitrary $a \in G$ (which is of the form of a finite product of integral powers of the $a_i$) and show that $\phi = \mu$? or would this be a priori reasoning
let y = x
okeyokay
oh ok
Witness
oh whoops i remembered that one wrong
you're right my mistake
but anyway
its easier to see its the same if we do something like this
pretend G/N is just some group
with elements a b c d etc..
I'm popping off to eat
no, if y=x, then it is just xRx
yeah I said I made a mistake already
what I am saying is $\phi(x)=xH$ and $\phi(x)=x^{-1}H$, they are different cosets
Witness
in general
I am saying I will go and eat lunch
sorry I didn't see it, too many messages
thank you derpz
np
I am a bit confused to how to get the unit element based on this description. Can anyone nudge me i nthe right direction?
the homomorphism onto G/Ker phi may not be
but the problem is , if define $\pi(x)=x^{-1} H$, then $\pi(xy)=\pi(y)\pi(x)$ this is not homomorphism anymore, unless it is abellian @tender wharf
well yeah then that won't work
Witness
but is that true the selection for $\pi$ is unique?
Witness
if f is the transformation x \mapsto Ax + a, then we want a transformation e(x) = Bx + b such that
e(f(x)) = f(e(x)) = f(x)
though the + b is throwing me off. is b fixed?
but I'm quite sure any homomorphism onto G/N will work
like if you replace it with gamma, gamma!=pi and gamma is a homomorphism yeah I think itll work
think
Yes
fixed
The matrix describes rotation, scaling, and reflection
But affine transformations also have a component which is just a shift
b describes that
Ah I see thanks

oh
f = Ax + a
Probably not by that reasoning
e = Bx + b
i see
Let $x \rightarrow Ax+b \in Aff_2$ for some invertible two by two matrix $A$ and $b \in \R^2$.
We know that $x \rightarrow A'x+b'$ is the unit element, where $A = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 \ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$ and $b = \begin{bmatrix}0 \ 0 \end{bmatrix}$.
The inverse is $A''x+b''$, where $A''$ is the inverse of $A$ and $b''=-A''b$.
FrankF
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This is what I have currently
Do you have a guess at what it should be?
how is gamma defined?
your A and b look good for an identity
any homomorphism that isnt the natural one
chmonkey you can take it from here
Do you know what the group operation is in this group?
No I have to sleep 
me too 
got it, and is there a formal definition for "natural" ?
So try showing your guy is the identity
Hint: what you’ve written down becomes the map x -> x. Try showing this is the identity in this group
now I really should eat
great, thank you!
yes
probably a stupid question, but how do we know that C is not properly contained in any other field? like there isn't another field extension or something. or is it actually?
does anyone know any good visualizations for homomorphisms that i can possibly find online?
go eat
let me take a screenshot one sec
It’s contained in C(t)
There’s no algebraic (which also means finite) extension because C is algebraically closed
what is t?
oh rational functions with complex coefficients i see. yeah that makes sense
source is contemporary abstract algebra (gallian)
i'm working through fraleigh rn, do you think it would be a good idea to go through gallian once i finished fraleigh
like is it more rigorous
I'll look into this because it seems to be what I'm looking for. thank you once again for schooling me in algebra, @next obsidian 🙂
pic is beautiful, shit cannot be beautiful
but shit is beautiful
good man for that
nice pic, imo, the key to understand homomorphism is to understand not-injective
I mean you can have injective homomorphisms
you can inject an entire group into a group bigger than it
yes, but that's not interesting, right?
what does it exactly mean for a homomorphism to be completely determined? does it mean that mapping one element in a group G by a homomorphism phi implicitly assigns a value to all other values in G?
and if so, how?
non-injective means we regroup them into blocks which as the elements in the imaged group
tbh the only uninteresting homomorphism is f(x) = e
completely determined means if we know the value of f(x) for some x in G, then we know the value of f(y) for all y in G
in particular, this is a property that cyclic groups have
huh ok
i guess that makes sense
because if you take the generator = x in G then all other y in g are in the form x^n for some integer n
you can think that domino example
if this is rhgt
recall the defining property of a homomorphism
how do you determine a solution to a diff eq? initial values or boundary conditions
if G = <x> is cyclic and f: G -> H is a homomorphism, and you know f(x)
do you know f(g) for any g in G?
well it would just be f(x)f(x)....f(x) however many times that g is a power of x right
ahhh i see
thank you!!
ur goated
that's what it means to be "completely determined"
you know the ENTIRE homomorphic image of G because you know the image of the generator
not really lol
yes ur my savior
DerpZ is goat
ur birded
ohhh ok that makes so much sense
a tip is to get another abstract algebra book
yeah you can cross reference
oops dummit
good way to remember that LOL
i spend my free time working through steven roman now that i know some algebra lol
very very slowly
Trying to get an idea of the projective special linear group, for example PSL(2,9). Is there an intuitive way to represent an element of this group, and to see how they act on each other? Are they just special "representative" matrices in SL(2,9)?
You want to think about projective space
The action of SL factors through PSL
On projective space
I see. I don't know about projective space and was looking for a workaround 😅 I guess I go learn about projective space.
I'm trying to do some work with the automorphisms of each finite simple group, and PSL is next on the chopping block
yes
Any good beginner's abstract algebra recommendations guys?
or resources in general
our class uses Artin's Algebra, but I find the explanations a bit poor at times
R^+ usually refers to the positive reals, same for Z
yeah
The convention is just to denote the group using the same symbol as the set
what book do you use for abs. alg?
he doesnt write G^* to mean G under * elsewhere, so this is inconsistent.
I didn't use any, don't have a recc
u can try #book-recommendations
and also #books-old #books is a list i think
from what i hear artin is good at fields/rings if thats what you're doing atm
although i cannot attest to that
our class used jacobson for group theory, and continues to use it through fields/rings/modules
i think jacobson is nice, but takes a while to get used to and its probably better if you have someone going through the book with you in a course (ie not the best for self-study)
Herstein was good for group theory, but he doesn't do group actions iirc, which were a major part of our course
you'll also need to read it with a mirror since it does function composition backwards
our notation is more compact, and bad.
Not covering group actions = bad
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
this is for proving cayley's theorem
that all finite groups G are isomorphic to a subgroup of S_n
Why is $\sigma_x(i)=i \forall i$ needed? I thought that an injective homomorphism meant mapping the identity to the identity
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
all homomorphisms have to map the identity to the identity
WKABC
I was wondering if we have a quiver $Q\colon 1 \to_a 2 \to_b 3$ and a representation of $Q$, given as $k \to_0 k \to_0 k$ where $k$ field, would the projectives be given as $kQe_1 \colon k \to_1 k \to_1 k$, $kQe_2 \colon 0 \to k \to_1 k$, $kQe_3 \colon 0 \to 0 \to k$
Eso
anyways the main point is for me to figure out the projective cover of M: k \to_0 k \to_0 k
I'd assume in this case $M/rad(M) \cong M$ as $rad(M) \colon 0 \to_{f_a|k} Im(f_a) \to{f_b|_k} Im(f_b) = 0 \to 0 \to 0$
Eso
the arrows are just confusing me tbh
we have a result that if $f:P \to M$ is an epi and $\bar{f}: P/rad(P) \cong M/rad(M) \implies f$ essential epi, and since P here should be projective it's also a projective cover
Eso
i can only imagine that there are relations making this true
Given a quadratic space $(V,q)$, what exactly does the ideal generated by elements of the form $v \otimes v +q(v)$ look like?
The algebra considered is the tensor algebra.
SK2099
does it matter if I define a set of conjugates like xax^-1 OR x^-1ax?
No, because you'll have both once you conjugate by an element and it's inverse
right, thank u mr walter.
It matters in the sense that xax^-1 makes conjugation a left action on the group by itself, whereas x^-1ax gives a right action, which is notationally less convenient.
ahhhhh interesting, okay.
Now for #5 here, I proved injectivitiy, but now trying to prove surjectivity.
Wonderful. Apparently your book switches between conventions paragraph-for-paragraph.
ik for f:X-->Y is surjective if for all y/Y there exists x/X s.t. g(x) = y
yes so annoying!
lots of typos
and my friends have diff ones too.
though how would u go about proving surjectivity here, like, can i just say that for every conjugate there exists a coset?
Without thinking it completely through: won't that just be the coset that contains that conjugate?
Every group element is in some coset.
can someone help me out with understanding this?
i get stuck when they do ab^(-1)
how can they expand it to theta(ab^-1) to theta(a)[theta(b)]^-1 ?
if they applied the homomorphism definition for that arent they assuming both groups have the same binary operation in tht case?
no, homomorphisms don't require the binary relations to be somehow equal to each other
that's just using the definition plus that inverses map to inverses
yeah the binary operations arent required to be equal but in the example above they are assuming its equal right?
since they arent separating the operations
it's just that we denote different operations by the same thing
it's abuse of notation
are they using the same operation symbol in both cases even if its supposed to be different?
they're using different operation, but they denote in the same way
ahhh ok, and since b is in H1 this implies b is in G1so we can do theta(ab^-1)
but how do they get that ab^-1 is an element of H1 in the end?
the way they are trying to prove ab^-1 is an element of H1 is confusing for me
phi(ab^-1) is in H2. Then read the definition of H1
so i could lowkey just say this ahahah right?
oh wait.. is it phi(ab^-1) = phi(a)phi(b^-1) therefore b^-1 is an element of H1? (since phi(b^-1) is an element of H2?)
why did they rewrite phy(b^-1) as [phi(b)]^-1?
and why would phi(b^-1) be an element of H2? it could be an element of G2 without being in H2
im assuming by the definition of H1?
You don't know phi(b^-1) is in H2 immediately. You do know that phi(b) is in H2, since b is in H1. Then you note that H2 is a group, and thus closed under inversion. So [phi(b)]^-1 is in H2.
Then, since phi is a group homomorphism, you can take the inverse inside to say phi(b^-1) = [phi(b)]^-1. Thus phi(b^-1) is in H2
Then you can probably complete/follow their argument.
ahh ok and from phi(b^-1) we can deduce that b^-1 is in H1 right?
so ab^-1 is in H1
Yes
Well
Yes on the first not really on the second
You haven't shown H1 is closed under multiplication yet really. What you want to say is that phi(ab^-1) is in H2, and thus ab^-1 is in H1
That shows closure under multiplication
And inversion
Just a and b^-1 being in H1 is not enough to conclude ab^-1 is in H1, until you know H1 is closed under multiplication. Which is what you are trying to show
This is the one step proof of subgroup, if you are familiar. Instead of showing closure under multiplication and inversion separately, you can do both at once by showing ab \in H1 \implies ab^-1 \in H1
yes i am familiar with it, it was to show the set isnt empty and if a, b is in H1 then ab^-1 is in H1
i think im am getting it, need a minute to process it😂
Ping me if something is unclear
ok but to show this do they individually show that phi(a) and phi(b)^-1 are in H2 and then conclude that φ(ab−1) is in H2?
because of φ(ab−1) = φ(a)[φ(b)]−1
so because its a group we can multiply them both and we still know its in the group since a group is implied to be closed
For #6, do I have to define a bijection?
If so - what is the intuition behind doing so?
did i get this right? if so I understood it thank you very much!
alright thanks for ur time 😄
Can someone help the boy 🙏
second sentence
second sentence is lagrange's
right
from 1) we know Ca is a subgroup
so does that tell us that the set of all conjugates of a is a subgroup as well?
like we're using lagrange
but we want to show that the set of all conjugates of a is a subgroup as well, no?
the logic you want is as follows:
C_a is subgp of G (1). So [G:C_a] divides |G|, by lagranges.
In (4) you showed that there is a one-to-one correspondence between set of conjugates of a, and set of cosets of C_a. But [G:C_a] counts the number of cosets of C_a in G (definition). Thus, |{conjugates of a}| = [G:C_a]
And [G:C_a] divides |G|, so |{conjugates of a}| divides |G|
lol
well what does f(x, -x) map to
sure seems like it's in the kernel to me
but my question is
it says f(x, y)
is that implying that
x and y must be distinct values?
well i guess x and -x are distinct
nevermind :)_
no?
why would it be implying that
it's mapping from RxR not RxR \{(x,x) : x in R)}
alternatively, f(x, y) = 0 <=> x+y = 0 <=> y = -x so ker(f) = {(x, -x) : x in R}
\ not / 
yeah I couldn't get it to work
Eh same thing
discord kept making it go invisible
commutative
no not the same thing lmfao
write double \ or just write -
than u ❤️
ah, ty
The function $f:_\mathbb R \times _\mathbb R \to _\mathbb R$
potato
lollll
but also the \bR look blurry. included graphic??
yeah it looks like bad typesetting
alright - this is what i always get confused by - for f:R* --> R+ defnd by f(x)=|x|, what am I to infer the operation is?
multiplication?
what?
you forgot to put a \bR subscript under f
R* is a group under multiplication, R is a group under addition
Lol
okay
but then when proving that f is homomorphic
i wanna say like
f(a) = |a| and f(b) = |b|
then f(ab) = |ab| = |a||b| = f(a)f(b)
or do I do addition?
That is correct
Well is it true for addition
The group operation on R^x and R>0 are both given by multiplication
Addition really doesn’t seem right there too, since it’s hard to have an additive inverse without a negative
it's also just not a homomorphism
And |ab| usually isn’t |a|+|b| yeah
word okay
whyre yall adding
so they both multiplication
maffs innit
define |ab| to be |a|+|b|
did yall get baited into trying to endow R^+ with an additive group structure
POP QUIZ: find a homomorphism from $(\bR^+, \times)$ to $(\bR, +)$
Wew Lads Tbh
you have 12 minutes
ahahah ❤️
cartesian product 
easy. ||Trivial homomorphism||
and since these groups are both multiplicative (R* and R+), I reckon I am to assume that the identity element is 1 (the multiplicative identity)
or has my poor intuition failed me again.
so impressive how u guys know all this stuff
I'm not being rude but knowing 1 times anything is that thing isn't that impressive
haha
wew moment
what do ppl call the elements of generating sets?
generators?
I thought so too, but then what about what they taught at the start of group theory
"A generator is an element that has the same order as the group. If such an element exists, the group is 'cyclic'"
or something like that
idk. Just seen it a few times recently and was confused when I see questions like 'find all generators of ???'
that's specifically something that can generate the cyclic group, which is a group with one generator
There's usually a few different possible choices of generators, but in the case of cyclic groups thats finding the ones with order the size of the group?
this is only for cyclic groups
elements of a generating set are called generators
Generators being elements of a generating set is the usual meaning
think basis of a vector space
"find all generators of ..." only really makes sense when you're in a cyclic group tbh
or a spanning set in general, though that's not minimal
because otherwise your generating sets aren't one-element sets
I mean I get all this, and it's clear when you think about it for a moment
but idk - it just feels very odd.
that's because the name they used for cyclics is weird
Such questions would be better phrased as 'find all generating sets of G which have 1 element', but then the ppl answering them havent seen the definition of a generating set yet...
I think "find all generators of a cyclic group" is fine
"Find all elements of order |G|"
but anyways, I was asking because seeing such misled me into thinking I might be calling them wrong here
I see your point but this is kinda standard way of referring to this
A fun problem in elementary group theory, for those interested:
Suppose G is a FINITE group, and that Aut(G) acts transitively on G\{1} via the natural action. Classify all such groups G. Hints for doing so: (1) ||Use Cauchy's theorem to show that all elements have the same order.|| (2) ||Recall that the centre of a group is a characteristic subgroup.||
Another problem is to classify all groups such that Aut(G) acts simply transitively (aka sharply transitively). Hint for doing so: ||Count the size of Aut(G) by seeing G as a vector space||
this is fun
You can't make me!!!
Give me a moment and I'll come up with a hint to help
Well I haven't spotted why yet
But notice that it suffices to show that (x+y)^2 = x^2 + y^2.
this seems to be a variation on "Boolean rings are commutative"
the challenge for me would be unravelling the definitions alone
Haha yes well that is part of what's interesting about it
the "||characteristic subgroup||" part is a BIG hint
wait, I'm not sure your first hint is true boytjie
oh nevermind, same order under the action is what I think you mean
true tbh but you still have to USE that hint
||automorphisms certainly preserve the order of an element in the group, i.e. the size of <g>||
||ok then I have absolutely no idea what you meant, there are characteristically free groups with elements of different order - take any finite non-abelian simple group||
Oh whoops clearly I should have specified finite!
I have not thought about the infinite case
Oh wait no
Sorry Wew, you are mistaken
I can tell you for sure that the example you give does not have Aut(G) act transitively on G\{1}
are all abelian groups also free abelian?
so only countable infinite order?
~~yes since you don't have to pay
~~
Z/2Z
can be any infinite cardinal
Is 0 actually free abelian lol p sure it isn't
I thought they can be infinite or finite cardinal
with 0 generators, sure
I think you mean orders of abelian groups
An example of an infinite Abelian group which is not free is Q. It's actually quite easy to show that it is not free. Try it!
N.b. it is also torsion-free :)
oh wait nvm, im dum
groupprops agrees with me
I think you have maybe misunderstood the question. Can you link the groupprops page which you think contradicts what I'm saying?
Nota bene
uhh how do I spoiler a link
||https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Characteristically_simple_group|| in the examples section
Nota bene literally means "note well"
||"and the characteristically simple non-abelian groups are precisely the direct powers of the simple non-abelian groups."||
(yee det was right)
...
I'm not sure why you think this contradicts what I was saying lol
what am I missing here
A_5
is characteristically simple
and there are elements with different orders in it
The automorphism group of A_5 does not act transitively on A_5\{1}
Idk what else to say
ok now I'm very very confused
You seem to think that an equivalent property is that G is characteristically simple, and this is just not true
this was cute

Yes, this implies characteristically simple, but it is not equivalent.
ah I see now
It should be immediately obvious that Aut(A_5) does not act transitively on A_5\{1}, because ||there are elements of distinct order in A_5 !||
i kinda forgot that ||if all elements have order p, then it's a p-group :p||
Hey if I put too many hints in, then it'd be too easy 
There's another theorem on that kind of group that you have to use for the 2nd hint to apply
||
||
math is so lit
like i struggle and dread doing this
but when i do it
lowkey fun sometimes
like this a wild little vibe
it is fun! 
So i've shown that f^-1(J) subgroup of G
but for the kerf part, im stuck
so i know that f(eg)=eh
...
eg in f^-1(J)
and eg obviously in kerf
but do i need to do a whole new subgroup test?
x in kerf if f(x)=e where e in codomain
So it’s everything such that f(x)=e
yes
oh i see
and f(e)^-1 = x
and f(e)^-1 is obviously in f(J)^-1
thus ker(f) subgroup
@topaz solar
Does anyone have a copy of the book 'A First Course in Module Theory' by Keating?
Witness
$G'$ is the codomain, $\phi[G]$ is the range, which should be inside codomain, right?
Witness
That’s odd to intersect
right, this is from the textbook
would Ker($\phi$) just be $4\mathbb{Z}$ x $4\mathbb{Z}$?
okeyokay

so for #4, what is the correct way to write ? $K'$ is a subgroup of $\phi[G]$? or $K'$ is a subgroup of $G'$ ?
Witness
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
It would be $K'$ is a subgroup of $G'$ since K' is in G' so you want the inverse image of K' and that would be a subset of G
brah wtf is that a typo or something
Wait i dont know how to read
weird, what book is that?
fraleigh
mine doesn't have that for some reason
the presentation my abstract algebra teacher made is just like this
"si" is if and "entonces" is then
Fraleigh, 7ed
So this is the correct picture?
MasakaBakana
Spamakin🎷
how do I get the isomorphism
and the table
is the only way to get the isomorphism via the proof of Wedderburn Artin? That seems quite complicated
how do we define the binary operation on a group $\mathbb{Z}_m$ x $\mathbb{Z}_n$? if $m, n$ are not coprime would it just be addition modulo $min(m, n)$?
and what if they are coprime?
okeyokay
like for instance, in $\mathbb{Z}_2$ x $\mathbb{Z}_4$ would we add components modulo 2?
okeyokay
Same as for any other product of groups.
$$ (a,b) *{G_1\times G_2} (c,d) = (a *{G_1} c, b *_{G_2} d) $$
Troposphere
ohh okay, thank you!
So add the left components modulo 2 and the right compoments modulo 4.
Tbh in practice I would find the character and then that lets you deduce the decomposition
ok how do I find the character then lol
I should preface that I've never done group representations before
they didn't come up in my undergraduate level algebra class nor my first graduate algebra class
they're coming up rn as an application of Wedderburn Artin
Is this pic correct?
and my prof just gave me a handout with these character tables for S4 and A4 but I want to actually understand how to find them
oh I think I found a youtube video

for 43 would no such homomorphism exist, since it would essentially require you to "cut" out 4 in the domain of any permutation in S3, and that would violate the homomorphism property? (i'm about to prove this rigorously if that's the case, which i think it is, but it definitely has something to do with permutation multiplication?)
since we know the operation in S4 is permutation multiplication
and same with S3
and S3 is defined to act on the set {1, 2, 3}
and S4 {1, 2, 3, 4}
sorry shouldn't be act
but have permutations with domain of 1, 2, 3
nvm video doesn't make sense but that's because I think I'm missing some baseline knowledge of representations so I'll try to figure all that out
would exercise 47 rely on the results of 44 and 45?
yes
44 and 45 follow directly from those lol
doesn't rely on the result of 44 or 45, so you can solve 47 independently without using the conclusion of 44 and 45
Example 4.4.2 The free group on one element a denoted by F({a}) is iso-
morphic with Z
is it because i can map empty word to 0, a to 1, aa to 2, ... (and vice versa/inverse would work as well)?
but this would just show its bijective, i would still need to prove homomorphism
There are many ways to prove it; this is acceptable.
but is it complete?
i only showed its bijective
does Z_17 have any non trivial sub group ?
Z_17 is a non trivial subgroup of Z_17
It does not have any non-trivial propper subgroup, which is trivially true for any $\mathbb{Z}_p$ as any non-zero element has a multiplicative inverse mod $p$ hence, any non-trivial subgroup has to contain 1 and thus it has to be the entire group, as $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is generated by 1.
Timwestlund
your message is phrased poorly. the permutation (12345) can be broken down into 2 cycles like you showed
I think they were asking about it under addition
but yes still true
I answered for the additive group, but multiplication is just repeated addition, hence the existence of a multiplicative inverse is equivalent to that the group generated by that element contains 1. In mod 5 we have that 2*3=1, hence the group generated by 2 contains 1=2+2+2.
I mean Z_p is a finite field anyway so
also like, lagrange lol
don't overcomplicate things
to make it even simpler we note that cyclic groups have subgroups for each divisor of the order
Fair point
ah true
I hope you weren't planning on manually typing out the entire gH lol
Hold on
just write a quick python script or smth
why is H wrong
recall aH = H iff a in H
yeah but how can 18 be part of H
yeah
so what is H
just Z_55?
also just gH?
just Z_55 I meant
cool
gH = H = G?
wtf
just write a python script
to do what
just use python to write the list
python3 -c 'print(",".join(list(map(str, range(55)))))'
ugh
it's literally wrong
i typed it afterwards lol
it included 55 lmao
my python solution is superior
where do you go next with this question?
$|K\cap H| \vert 18$ and $|K\cap H| \vert 24$ from Lagrange's Theorem
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
this is all you will need actually
I have not done a number theory class
just find all common divisors of 18 and 24
yeah
find their gcd first
uh huh
then every common divisor of 18 and 24 certainly must be a divisor of the gcd
gcd is the product in the poset category :3
oh lol

