#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 71 of 1
Oh but there are infinitely many generators here
Hmm this is a good question
I will think about it more
Charles F. Miller III
wow
yea, these things feel very weird to me and i dunno whats the correct way to think about them
Woah this is wild! Because this is true for abelian groups
Group presentations are hard

Free groups are wierd
Very hard
Because of “finitely presented => always finitely presented” for modules
A subgroup of a free group is free, but unfortunately even the free group with 2 generators contains a copy of the free group with infinitely many generators
Cursed fact
We just can't do the same things we would with Abelian groups in the general case 🤷
And the subgroup isn’t even that gross to write down
nani

yea consider the subgroup generated by {x^nyx^-n} in F(x,y)
Free group on 2 elements being so fricked is one way to get at Banach-Tarski I believe
@warm wyvern you'll love to read up later ^ 
I wanna consider the one generated by {y^nxy^-n} though 
oopsie >.<
its also true for commutative algebras right
Yes
This one is kinda hard to prove tho
Like, it’s not as simple
I think it’s cuz you’re combining generation as a ring with generation of the ideal, module
yea >.<
how do you remember these lol
i always feel i might forget one of these cute sounding facts and they turn out to be massively wrong :p
why is algebra:
- look at proof of cool fact, understand it
- forget proof, retain memory of cool fact
and sometimes skip 1 
I have brain problems
That's like, all of math
Oooh there's too much out there to memorise ooooooh so spoooooky
It makes me forget important stuff and remember little nuggets of things
But some of these are totally non-trivial to reconstruct proofs for 
Yes
but ig thats all of math when it gets hard
Also often I rmemebe these things because I went “hmm is X true?” Then I look it up and I go “oh wow!”
So I rmemebr it
my brain stops working if even slightest bit of atmosphere around me goes weird, like if my nose gets partially blocked i lose all thinking capabilities
.<
Ah so when you want to relax you can just plug your nose
and if you want to think again you can eat a curry
🧠
lol

No
You should think of projective space as affine space + bits at infinity
the 'top-down' definition that has it as a quotient of lines in the larger space is misleading in this way
Also this is the wrong channel
oh sorry
origin doesn't count as a line wut
hi do the rigid motions of a regular n-gon always leave at least one vertex fixed?
is this linear alg?
man imagine deleting 
This is geometry
oh ic
no, (non-trivial) rotations fix nothing
no?
do a line down the middle of a hexagon
that like doesnt touch any vertices
(
what a great explanation)
https://i.imgur.com/HUQlWPD.png
exactly so how can we possibly capture all reflections by labeling them s_k where k is the vertex that gets fixed
This works only in the odd case
well regardless, there are only k reflections of a regular k-gon
nvm, I think you are correct det
that any finite generating set yields a finite presentation
The idea is that if you have a finite presentation, then you can consider the corresponding presentation complex
wut about this
that has infinitely many generators
ooo.
The idea is that if you have a finite presentation, the corresponding presentation complex has finite 1- and 2-skeleton
skeletons. topology!? 
weird yeah the way the proof in my book is written sounds like it's saying that we can enumerate all possible reflections based on which vertex it fixes
then the 2-skeleton of the universal cover is a partial free resolution of Z over ZG
and then it's an application of the same trick you use for finitely presented modules over a ring
what is the best way to enumerate the reflections 
I think s_n := s_1r_n
or similar
r_1 being the identity
ok slightly terrible notation 
Right, because if you have some presentation with finitely many generators, then you can still consider the presentation complex. Again, the 2-skeleton of the universal cover yields a partial free resolution of Z over ZG, where the first term is finitely generated. But by Schanuel's lemma, the kernel of ZG^n -> Z is finitely generated
Here's something interesting that generalizes this to other algebraic theories
But I like my answer better
right
so given a subrepresentation U, we want to find a projector to U since the kernel of that projector will be a linear complement
but we want to make sure that this projector is a homomorphism of representations, as we want the kernel to be a subrepresentation
so the way we do that is, we start with any projector, then we apply the averaging idempotent to it
where "application" means the action of G on Hom(V,V)
being stabilized by this action is equivalent to being a homomorphism of representations
and then we know that the averaging idempotent applied to any vector in a representation of G is stabilized by G
therefore we have demonstrated a projector that is a homomorphism of representations, giving us a complement to our subrepresentation U, completing the proof
why are exact sequences? like I suppose they "appear naturally", but why?
what's so special about them? why not something else?
or is it just mere coincidence?
do u remember calc 3
a vector field is conservative iff its some F = del (f) for some function f?
yea turns out this shit nots always true
well failure of an complex being exact gives an invariant in some cases, so it's not like why exact sequence but when does it fail
u can have forms that are closed but not exact
a closed form is just a differential form which has derivative = 0
and an exact one is a differential form which is the derivative of some other form with less degree
are you talking to me?
uh I have no idea what you nor ryu are talking about, sorry
do u remember calc 3
I mean exact sequences as in 0 -> M -> M' -> M'' -> 0
yes
I never took calc
yes
okay
since the failure of said statement is measured in the failure of a certain sequence to be exact
let V be a vector space and S be some subspace
do you know about the orthogonal complement
no
yes
okay so let S be a subspace
S^(dagger) is defined to be { x in V | x dot s = 0 for all s in S }
think of it similar to the annihilator (dot product-wise lmfao )
I see
now sometimes you can write the whole vec space as the direct sum of a subspace and its orthogonal complement
like with R^n
do you see that
yeah
thats not always true
exact sequences tell us when this is
when this is not.
thats it
relaly
what would the sequence look like?
think of it
x dot s = 0 ...
kernel? idk
try to experiment with is
with it*
now
u can think of these things but with modules now
u do not have inner products over modules but the quotient structure isnt trivial
so you can htink of this "completing the missing parts" like u did with orthogonal complements
as quotients and shit
so an exact sequence would be when this quotient is exactly whats missing .. something like that
or not this quoteint
this submodule
so basically exact sequences are things that capture a certain situation
cohomology is something that measures how much a certain occurance fails
ur doing the dry version
homological algebra which is this with no motivation or intuition
I just needed to read on
the book wasn't claiming that any reflection s must fix a vertex - rather that we only need the reflections that fix at least one vertex to construct all elements of D_n
most of the time the motivation is geometric or topological ( i think? )
u would have learnt about those in AT or DG
but with a better understanding
Exact sequence
@rustic crown yo you free for a moment
remember when you proved that if a is in the intersection of all prime ideals then a is nilpotent using localizations
i read some stuff about them , can u rewrite it now
i proved (trivially ig) that S^-1 R collapses to 0 iff S has 0
is this enough
and i know how to localize wrt to an element and an ideal
can you re do it now
so i can do it on the exam if i see it XD
me dumb
no u smart
now that i know some langauge can u re do it
and teach me 😦
okie
so first it's clear that a nilpotent element will be inside every prime right
using zorn?
nah, def of prime
if a is nilpotent, then a^n = 0 in p, so a in p
yes
so we need to show that if s is not nilpotent, then it doesn't lie in some prime
yes
take S = {1, s, s^2, ...}
ok
so you have R --> R[s^-1]
which one
need to find an prime in R that doesn't contain s
and pullback of any prime of R[s^-1] can't contain s
oh me talking about the natural localization map
ye
ok ok
pl
ok*
there is a correspondonce
yep, so can we find a prime in R[s^-1]?
between prime ideals in S^-1R and ideals of R that do not intersect S
yep
hm?
when you can find prime ideals in a ring 
did we assume a is nonnilpotent
(say maximals :p)
yea yea
where is a
oh i think i wrote s, but okie
why cant we just preimage
nvm
ik this is local so there must exist atleast one
prime ideal
but idk which one but i dont really care ig
like we do not need to care right?
cuz this is zorn's lemma in disguise
?
ie every element is contained in some maximal (prime) ideal
right?
😠
okay but i think i got it
the whole point of localizing this is that a in R_a is now a unit
rihgt
yep
so a prime in R_a won't contain a
and hence it's preimage also won't contain a
yee so we only need to see why R_a has primes
and that's because it's not the zero ring
whut do you mean?
local as in local ring
no no
XD ok
localizing at primes give you local rings
if R is a ring and p a prime, then take S = stuff outside p
so you invert everything that is not in p
and so this new p now beccomes a unique maximal

ohh
by new p, i mean p(S^-1R)
this S^-1R is denoted R_p in this case to confuse everyone
yea
bad question
the localization is a field right?
oh
iff the S is the whole ring
-{0}
nvm
You'd need R to be integral domain for S to be closed in that case
yea

quick question
Indeed, D4, the dihedral group of order 8, has five
subgroups of order 2 and three of order 4.
this doesnt sound right to me
isnt it only 2 of order 4?
R_90 and R_270
is there a third im missing 
which ones of order 4 do you have
you want subgroups of order 4, not elements of order 4
what's that times cbrt2 - 1
id have to write it out i cant do that in my head lol hang on
but by times cbrt2-1 whered that even come from
i get -1
that thing being the 1+cubrt2+cbrt4
how do you see that
it's just a very specific thingy
we wanted to compute [Q(that thing):Q]
and it's clear that Q(that thing) is a subfield of Q(cbrt2)
so this degree [Q(that thing):Q] divides 3
now if you can ensure that thing is not rational, you're done
so it must be 1 or 3
but are the minimal polynomials identical for the two splitting fields
or i mean Q adjoing
minimal poly are not the same
but the degree of the extensions are
cause like they're the same thing lol
(hi mniip
)
is it the case that if $N \lhd G$ then $<Ind>\nolimits^G_N V = (\text{permutation rep of $G/N$}) \otimes V$?
mniip
this is true when V is the identity representation, so it must be true in general! 
induction
what I mean is normality of N "untangles" the induced rep
yeah, characters are the same - it's true
infact, I don't even think you need N to be normal
wdym
that iso holds even without N being normal if you just take G/N to be the set of cosets with natural G-action
but then it's not \otimes V
The prime ideals in $F[X]/I$ are the ideals the corresponding to the ideals in $F[X]$ generated by the prime factors of $f$ where $I = (f(x))$ ?
ru0xffian
are you sure? I'm no longer sure the question even makes sense
if V is an N-rep you can't quite make a G-rep out of it
I'm pretty convinced both those reps have the same character when G is normal
I was thinking something more along the lines of upgrading G/N-reps to G-reps
but G/N is not a subgroup of G unless direct product in which case trivial
right that sounds more like lifting than inducing
it's not induction if there isn't a coil of wire
I'm checking le book to make sure
ah I think what I really have here is a semidirect product
you can probably formulate something relating lift from (H \ltimes N)/N with induction from H
for this secon patt
part
do I write it as
$(1+\theta)(1+\theta+\theta^2)^{-1}$
MyMathYourMath
then find that inverse
cause I'm seeing we have the induced character for an arbitrary subgroup is [\text{Ind}N^G \chi(g) = \frac1N\sum{h \in G} \chi'(y^{-1}gy)] where [\chi'(g) = \begin{cases} \chi(g) & g \in N \ 0 & g \not \in N \end{cases}]
If this is equal to the product of the permutation character of $G/N$ with $\chi$ the corresponding $\bC G$-modules will be isomorphic.
Wew Lads Tbh
the permutation character of G/N is obviously [\sigma(g) = \begin{cases} |G/N| & g \in N \ 0 & g \not \in N\end{cases}]
Wew Lads Tbh
hmmm ok now I'm not quite seeing how they multiply to give the same thing
ok I have an easy counterexample at hand
I just covered inducing S_5 reps from A_5 reps
nothing involving tensor products and module isomorphisms is easy 
and it doesn't match up
yeah my gut reaction was surprisingly.... wrong!!!!?!?!
permutation rep of S_n/A_n is gonna be U+U' (trivial + sign)
Hello ! If M is a semi-simple R-module, why do we have that for every submodule N of M, M isomorphic to the direct sum N+M/N ? I don't know how to prove this
A semi-simple R-module is such that for every sub module N, there exist P such that it is the direct sur of N and P
hint, each submodule and quotient of a semi-simple module is semi-simple
gonna take this opportunity to elaborate a bit on my hint, consider the natural surjection from M -> M/N as well
If I restrict this surjection to the "supplementary" of N I have to show that this is an isomorphism right ?
you mean the submodule that sums with N to make M?
Yes
yes, you would
But I don't know how to use your first hint sorry
don't worry too much about it
you seemed to know it already
it was to lead you to this realisation (if it was affective or not is up for debate)
I don't know how I am supposed to use that
im currently struggling on proving the following claim:
let G be a finite group and U, W representations of G, with dim U = 1. I want to show that W is an irreducible representation if and only if U (x) W is
I'm telling you to just ignore it, lol
Oh lol I misread it
Oh sorry !!
I thought you meant (M + N)/N lol
no worries boss, sorry for the confusion
Oh lol this was hw for me
Basically to get you started, suppose you have a proper subrep of W. Can you concoct a corresponding subrep of U tensor W?
You can then do a similar thing in reverse
this question is so much easier with characters
why do they make you people work with modules...
like I cannot see why ||U \cong CG as 1 dim => W (x) U \cong W|| - this is almost certainly wrong
Kinda funny tho that they do general theory kinda painstakingly and then all applications we had were using C
What
Why does the first thing hold
Lol
it's a dim 1 free module over CG? see this is what I mean
Hm why would it be CG
_ _
Isn't that saying all 1 dim irreps r the same
ye which is not what we're interested in right lol
also like
CG isn't even a dim 1 representation right unless # G = 1
Bruh
yeah this is why I just don't think of them as modules, ever
module theorists need pick some rules and stick to them
Does this works ? I have the short exact sequence : 0->N->M->M/N->0 and 0->N->N+P->(N+P)/N->0 , maybe I have to show that P/N is isomorphic to M/N ? I'm getting tired so maybe this is bullshit
And P/N is isomorphic to P right ?
Idk
This makes no sense
Sorry
With what action?
I mean tbh we already have a pretty great description of what happens in this case
I can't remember what theorem in Isaacs, maybe 6.16 is the one?
You should take a complement to N and work with that
Say M = N (+) P
You have to show that N (+) P is isomorphic to what
thank u stack exchange very cool
N + M/N
I'm talking about Isaacs' character theory of finite groups
yeah I've found it now dw
To show N (+) P iso to N (+) M/N
P iso to M/N
Yup
But really kinda easiest to just eliminate M entirely
so P iso to (N (+) P)/N
Have a go at that
Exactly
6.16 was indeed it 😎
shame I cannot decipher it
So true
Oh nice ! And all the isomorphism I consider are isomorphism of modules @south patrol ?
Ye
the proof I can follow perfectly but the statement of the theorem might as well be Spanish 
Nice thank you so much guys !
well maybe this special case is more comprehensible
Theorem 6.16 is quite general
It is an incredible book
Why does this "1 ≠ 0 and if x is any element of R, then x or 1 − x is a unit" imply that R is a local ring?
Well if R is a local ring then you have a definite description of what the maximal ideal looks like ig
So try doing that and see what u get
Not sure how to say other than give it away
But maybe you want it given away lol
All the non units right?
Yes
But then what
show that forms an ideal
Ofc a boring way to do this is just to use known facts on the jacobson radical i think
So you're basically just reproving essentially that
In a special case
If you've seen that
what are the known facts about jacobson radicals lol
Idk anything about Jacobson radicals so might be better to avoid that
Ye dw
oh you mean that thing
Yh
j in J if something something 1 - rj is a unit for every r
i see 
from there you would need to then show this is the maximal ideal of the local ring... i.e. every proper ideal is contained in this.
If I let m be the set of all non units (i.e. elements of the form 1-x for x a unit) then as long as m is an ideal, it will be maximal (because it contains any other proper ideal since proper ideals cannot contain units)
right
but need to be a bit careful with what you wrote in the first parentheses
if 1-x is a unit, then that doesn't mean x is not a unit
can somone help understand what's happening here pls
i know this is just linear algebra
but still
oh wait you've phrased it a little differently..
we start with a matrix representing a submodule of a free module and row reduce it to arrive at a nice basis for that submodule?
what i mean is, x non-unit implies 1-x is a unit. but the other way is not true. x unit need not imply 1-x is a non-unit
oh yea
good point thanks
i promise this isnt a lot 
yea it isnt' 
okie lets do that in fields first
say you start with some weird matrix and then i ask you do to do row and column operations
if i just allowed you to do row operations, then you would be left with the reduced row echelon form
but if i allow you to do both, you can make that matrix look really nice
it will be a diagonal matrix with 1s and 0s and there are exact rank(M) many 1s
okie even before that... the question is why would you want to do this weird thing
you can think of a m x n matrix over R as a linear map R^n --> R^m right
if you allow yourself to change basis on both sides, can you make this linear map look really nice?
if R was a field, you can pick basis (x1, ..., xn) and (y1, ..., ym) such that the map is x_i --> y_i for i = 1, 2, ..., r and other x to 0
where r is the rank of your matrix
if R is not a field, then this becomes a little more interesting, since we can't easily kill of an entry of the matrix
over pids, you still can convert this matrix into a nice form using row and column operations
and they have illustrated this Z
so you started with a map Z^2 --> Z^3
the image is the subgroup generated by two weird vectors
when you do a row operation, it's actually multiplying your matrix on the left by an elementary matrix, which in particular is invertible
similarly, when you do a column operation, you're multiplying the matrix on the right with an elementary matrix

and multiplying by invertible matrices is same as changing basis (on either the source or target)
wdym change basis on both sides
like multiplying a matrix on the right is same as precomposing your map Z^2 --> Z^3 with a nice isomorphism Z^2 --> Z^2
but we're thinking about this the opposite way right? like a submodule M of a free module R^n must(?) be the image of some linear transformation like this from a basis of the submodule to the whole module?
yea if you assume that the submodule is also free
is it enough to assume it's finitely generated?
yep, then you get its image of some R^large enough thingy
and if you don't assume that you can just surject it by R^(size of your submodule)
anyway
the point is that if you wanna undersand stuff like (co)kernel or (co)image of this map, you can first convert this matrix to a nicer map and then be happy
this is the motivation we get at the beginnning
say you started with the matrix A : R^n --> R^m and then did operations which ends you with B = P^-1 A Q.
where Q : R^n --> R^n and P : R^m --> R^m are nice invertible matrices.
det
so with the isomorphism P, you can identify the image of A and image of B easily
and it also induces an isomorphism between the cokernels of A and B
only difference being that the matrix B looks wayyyyy nicer than A
Upside down comm diagram

hoomans are so weird
when drawing graphs right and up are the natural choices
but everywhere else, right and down looks natural
ok but back to the row reduction for a moment
we just row reduce to get a basis for a submodule
okie
yea in that example row reduction was enough to get you to a nice final matrix
but in general you'll also have to use column operations
and that happens because the matrix encodes the image of Z^2 -> Z^3
which is itself the submodule we’re talking about
weirdly phrased, but yea something like that
anyway, so if M is a finitely presented module, i.e. you have finitely many generators, and the relations are also then finitely generated then this thing can help you understand M nicely
first use the generators to get a surjection R^m --> M
and then the kernel of this it eh relations among the generators
which we assume is finitely generated as well
so you surject that by R^n --> R^m --> M
so image of the first map is exactly the kernel of the second map
so finitely presented modules are exactly the cokernels of matrices R^n --> R^m
if you assume R is noetherian, then a finitely generated module is automatically finitely presented
and pid's are noetherian :3
so if you wanna classify finitely presented modules, a good start is to trouble m x n matrices
if you can classify how they look like up to equivalence, then you're really close to classifying finitely presented modules
I here’s my classification

{R^n/M | M is a fg submodule, and n is a natural number}
you understand some math, and then you get more math that you don't understand
and it keeps on piling up
uwu
bruh isn't this problem my professor posted for the practice midterm kinda like obvious for the <-- direction
I mean
many iff things have one direction way easier than the other
So yeah shouldn't be too surprising overall
This is a typo actually lmao
Should be H subset K or K subset H, of course
im confused by the application of the orthogonality of characters here to complete this character table
orthogonality of characters states that (X_U, X_V) = 1 if U and V are isomorphic, 0 otherwise, where U and V are irreducible
This is row orthogonality, column orthogonality is a little different
how does column orthogonality work?
and can row orthogonality also be used to complete character tables?
both orthogonality can be used to complete character tables
on this topic, does anyone know a good reference for developing some intuition on character theory
how could row-orthogonality be used to complete the above character table?
do we essentially get a system of linear equations?
Yes
ok, that makes sense more or less
im a bit confused about the second-to-last line here
I understand why that identity is true; namely, the irreducible representations appear as direct summands in the regular representation FG, with multiplicities equal to their dimension
however, how does that identity actually help us to compute the character of a last unknown irreducible?
we would need to know what the character of the regular representation of FG is, but how do we even compute that?
The regular representation is immaculately well behaved
It’s |G| on the identity and 0 everywhere else
Sorry, regular character
My guy said immaculately
You can see this as the regular rep is the permutation representation of G on itself, which only has any fixed points when the identity is acting on G, in which case it has |G| fixed points
Yeah like Jesus
That was a well-conceived joke
Unlike the rest of the stuff I post 
ahhhh right thats perfect
Lol
the character of g is the number of points in G fixed by g
and e fixes every point, while every other element fixes no points
Yus
right? nah left regular representation 
Yur
so beautiful
another note
when computing the derived subgroup of a group
does it suffice to demonstrate some subset of that derived subgroup
then to show that the quotient by that sub-subgroup is abelian?
so i've seen \leq used to denote subspaces/subgroups/subrings. does it also work for subfields? just want to confirm
How do we know that G_\alpha is a group?
Try proving it. This occurs because the lower groups form a chain of subgroups
From transfinite induction
they happen to contain the predecessors?
as a subgroup
The problem is I dont see the explicit construction, where is it?
Of what
oh wait its the next line
for non-limit ordinals
I get it now thanks
to find all the generators of a group (e.g. Z20), can i just list all the order of each element and conclude that those with order 20 (the same order as Z20), are the generators of the group?
oh yes, my bad for the confusion
what u said
thank you
element with order equal to order of group is a cyclic generator
how do i find all the distinct subgroups of a cyclic group?
in the case of Z20 (under + mod 20), i know |Z20| = 20. And the positive divisors of 20 are 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20.
thus,
<20/1> = <20> = {0}
<20/2> = <10> = {0, 10}
<20/4> = <5> = {0, 5, 10, 15}
<20/5> = <4> = {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}
<20/10> = <2> = {0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18}
<20/20> = <1> = {0, 1, 2, ..., 17, 18, 19} = Z20
however, with the answer key that our professor provided us, {0, 5} and {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} are said to be subgroups as well. how is that the case?
I disagree with your professor
they arent. probably typo
then, if i could add, the ones I listed are all the distinct subgroups?
yes
Just want to confirm something. To proof two modules M and N are Jordan-Holder isomorphic is it enough to proof that a chain in M and in N are isomorphic? Or do I need to proof that every possible chain is isomorphic?
A way to see whether that's all of them is to see that <a> = <gcd(a, 20)>, and the values gcd(a,20) can take are exactly the divisors of 20
Is that only for Z_n? how about other cyclic groups, like U(18)?
Z_n are the cyclic groups
not sure what you mean by U(18)
a cyclic group is one that is generated by a single element, so a cyclic subgroup of G is generated by a single element of G
oh
my bad, i mean this: U(n) is defined as the set of integers in the range [1, n-1] that are coprime to n, under the operation of multiplication modulo n
or, U(18) = {1,5,7,11,13,17}
(Z/18Z)^\times
that's not always cyclic is it
It is in this case
But no not always
It’s only cyclic when n is 2, 4, some power of an odd prime, or two times some power of an odd prime
oh what
right so in this case U(18) is isomorphic to C_6
Ok, U(18) is always cyclic, but U(n) in general may not be.
i'm still not in isomorphism, unfortunately. it's just that U(18) was under the list of cyclic groups in our module.
oh ok
Ignored once more
Two groups are isomorphic means you can think of them as being “the same”
oh apologies
You’re just changing what the elements are called
i'm not sure i get this
It's true but didn't really need a response, did it?
I'm irked by the use of an "always" quantifier on a statement without free variables
Maybe just a thank u…

oh ok, so basically U(18) is cyclic since 2 multiplied by 8?
thank u ^ ^
2*9 but yeah
i was absorbing all the information i am forgetting to reply lol
APologies, but it looked like Lowell was about to get himself confused by your "not always".
this is hard
U(18) is cyclic because it is generated by 5
the theorem Wew cited might be a little too advanced here
Yeah, you won’t be told to prove U(n) is cyclic unless it actually is lol
And you prove things are cyclic by finding a generator
It looks like you're not being expected to get any deep insight into U(...) in general right now.
U(18) is just an example of a group where it is not obvious that it's cyclic when you look at its definition, but it turns out it is anyway.
anyway my turn especially now that wew is here
Sorry guys I have to go water my plants….
why are all reps of an odd order group complex (except the trivial one)
this is in context of the formula for $\frac{1}{|G|} \sum_g \chi(g^2)$ for real, complex, quaternionic reps
mniip
I think it has something to do with the correspondence between conjugacy classes that square to themselves and real-valued characters
Like if there’s a conjugacy class in an odd order group that squares to itself then it has to just be {e}, but I can’t remember the details
If you want to use the frobby-schur indicator uhhh
ah I see, when the group is odd order $\sum_{g \in G} \chi(g^2) = \sum_{g \in G} \chi(g)$ as the map g -> g^2 is an automorphism of G I think
Wew Lads Tbh
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Whatever u get the point
huh
Maybe not an automorphism it’s definitely a bijection though which is the main thing
I'm thinking you can look at like \chi(g) = \chi(g^-1) and then use orthogonality to say something
Then $\sum_{g \in G} \chi(g) = \langle 1, \chi \rangle$ which is 0 unless chi is trivial
Wew Lads Tbh
And 0 implies the character isn’t real valued right?
a group of odd order has no elements of order 2?
Lagrange
How can they character be real when no odd roots of unity in R?!? Exactly….
You mean all irreducible reps here?
I presume so, the regular rep is always integer valued
yes ofc
caring about non-irreducibles
that's when the pain begins
also u can just take any irreducible and add it to it's conjugate - what fun!!
tally ho!
If we let G = <a> and |a| = 24, how do i list all the generators for the subgroup of order 8?
i already listed down a^3
since <a^3> = {a^3, a^6, a^9, a^12, a^15, a^18, a^21, a^24} or |a^3| = 8
but how do i know the other ones? do i just manually check each element from a to a^24?
you're missing the identity in <a^3>
a^24 is the identity element
oh yeah, duh
I quite literally cannot count 
anyway - checking each one won't be too bad if you remember tricks like "a is a generator => a^-1 is a generator"
but after a few you might spot a pattern
oh
ok then, i'll just check each manually, hoping there's a pattern to it
thanks
look at the orders 
from this
how was this implied? Because Z24 is a cyclic group of order 24 generated by 1, there is a unique subgroup of order 8, which is < 3 · 1> = <3>
what other subgroups of order 8 could there possibly be, really
trying to think of how to explain it without just sylow-theorem bashing it
assume there was another group of order 8, as it's a subgroup of a cyclic group it is itself cyclic - it must be generated by an element x of order 8, but all elements of order 8 are in <3> already, so <x> = <3>, thus there is only one subgroup of order 8
alternatively C_24 isn't iso to C_8^3 so there's only one sylow 2-subgroup 
this is quite literally the same question
you have even+even=-1, is that a typo or I'm missing something?
i guess I should replace Q3 for Q2 in the linear combination
?
fuck it that exercise is kinda dumb anyway
yeah both coordinates are coprime so I can believe they span everything, if you can show it
its supposed to create some insight on how you would obtain the points I think in the first place, but meh
notice anything about those ...
well I suppose since it says so
theyre coprime
if k generates a subgroup and n is coprime to k then n generates the same subgroup
oh, that's neat
There are many ways to check this
fundamental theorem of cyclic groups is probably the most accessible
You could also coset it
a separate (but maybe related) question, given 𝑈(18) = {1, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17} under mult. mod 18. how do i find the number of distinct subgroups of this group? is there a formula
- {1}, the trivial subgroup consisting only of the identity element.
- {1, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17}, the subgroup generated by 5, which has order 2.
- {1, 7, 13}, the subgroup generated by 7, which has order 3.
- {1, 11}, the subgroup generated by 11, which has order 6
this was what i came up with, but how do i know if there's more
do we mean distinct up to isomorphism or literally every single one
i think the latter, since we haven't reached isomorphism yet
you could always just google what an isomorphism
anyway there's one subgroup for each factor of 18
for 1, 2, 3, 6, 9?
and 18
they don't know what an isomorphism is of course they don't
Actually you don't need that
sigh
Do it by hand then
there's only 6 elements to check
actually i though i understood the diagram but
if we select G' G and G''
as H G G/H respectively
obvioslu they are isomorphic
and the diagram doesnt tell nothing more than that the lower row is exact
the statement only says that there exists a diagram
and not that for all exact sequence G' G G"
.
uh yeah ?
that works for any short exact sequence
if 0 -> G' -f-> G -g-> G'' -> 0 is exact then G' is isomorphic to ker g and G'' is isomorphic to G/ker g, and they give an isomorphism of short exact sequences
yeah but diagram doesnt say for any such exact sequence but rather that there exists such groups
what's at the bottom of the previous page
"for example to say that 0 -> G' -> G -> G'' -> 0 is exact ..."
they are considering any exact sequence
so whatever they say next works for all of them
yeah okay now it makes better sense
cool thanks
someday ill be able to read diagrams like these
DraK
Well because if this is true and I understand correctly,you can describe all finite fields via multivariate polynomials in a sense
That's a significantly stronger statement than what I expected
This is a fine proof, but you can simply observe that F is now a K-vector space, hence has order p^n where n = dim_K F.
(this is me saying that your proof is very overcomplicated)
Well it is very easy to prove :)
In fact I might remind you that it is part of the definition of the degree F:K
Is the order p^n because you can construct an isomorphism from a K-vector space of dim n to K^n?
And K^n will have p^n elements
Yes
Ok,I definitely overthought this
Is proving this easy?
It’s not too bad actually
You can prove it by showing that the group of units of a field is cyclic
That proof is a bit tricky but it’s, well, not too bad lol
N.b. this only applies to finite fields. The general statement is that any finite subgroup of a group of units of a field is cyclic.
When I first heard this saying, I didn't understand it, but now I'm used to it.
In a group ring R[G], I don't understand what the trivial units are? Are they the units in R or are they the units in G?
The units in R
At least, this is the terminology I'm used to
You should double check with the text you're reading.
Okay thanks
Context!!!
It does say the units in R but something someone said to me confused me because they seemed to suggest it was G
Never mind then haha
So in Z[C_3] the trivial units are {1,-1} ?
If that's the definition then yes
I'm sure you can see why someone might be inclined to call the elements of G multiplied by the units of R "trivial units"
Oh yes I've heard that as a definition too, that's what I meant
The "tensor power"
One defines it analogously to normal products
like $v^{\otimes n} = v \otimes \dots \otimes v$ n times
potato
I mean seriously
I mean that is the name lol
The [...]th/st/rd tensor power of the vector (or vector space or whatever according to context)
s $v^{\otimes n} = v \otimes \dots \otimes v$ n fois
Oui
Baba
exactement
🥖
I didn’t want to step on potato’s toes 😊
I don't have toes
potatoes
AYY
I didn’t want to step on any part of you 
thank
ok thank you
because im french
Just to be sure
If I have
$v^{\otimes 2}$
Baba
$v^{\otimes 2} = v \otimes v$ ?
Baba
Baba
why would we define it to be the second one
n terms so the former
tensor product which must appear n times
yes but why in god's name would we define it to be this?? We'd keep it consistent with regular multiplication
yup
Ok thank you!

$v^{2\otimes} = v\otimes v \otimes v$ troll face
anamono for anamono
dumb question, but if two conditions are "equivalent" that means one if and only if the other right?
yeah
okay thank you
what part are you confused about
the isomorphism with C
I don't get what you mean by "add an element"
just like in R[x]/(x^2) we have x^2 = 0 and thus only linear polynomials
yes
now do minus one
and you get x^2 = -1
so every time x^2 appears, you can "replace" it with -1
which is equivalent to i, the imaginary unit
yeah
because anything with x^2 will turn into a linear term
thus by induction blabla only linear terms
this all checks out
but is there a general way to make this precise
like the notes I'm reading just dropped this on me
Yes
this was the ring theory explanation
I personally prefer the field theory one
it goes along the lines of
modding a field out by a polynomial is like taking its splitting field over that field
i.e. you add all roots of your polynomial to the field (minimal field that contains the base field and the roots of the polynomial)
the roots of x^2 + 1 in the algebraic closure of R (which is C) are precisely \pm i
so R[x]/(x^2 + 1) = R(i) = C
another way to see this is that [C : R] = 2, and C being algebraically closed. though this might mean nothing to you
R(i) means minimal field over R that contains i
hm idk any field theory probably a good time to learn some
I just picked up some comm alg notes so I could understand tensor product over modules
I'm gonna take a bath now, maybe someone else will be able to help you in the meantime while I'm gone
thanks for the help
np 
dumb question but why does 0 = 1 imply a ring is trivial
because you can muliply both sides by any element of the ring
If 0 = 1 in a ring R, and x \in R is not equal to 0 (and thus or 1), then x = x * 1 = x * 0 = 0.
nice
I am trying to find the cosets of H
Aren't they just H+0, H+1..., H+4 ?
I know there are 5 because |G|/|H| = 5
Do I have to say anything about left and right cosets?
In this case it's all the same right?
In this case the left and right cosets are the same, yes
Should I state that 🙂 ?
They are. You should try and prove these are all of them, which is to say that you should try showing that they are all distinct.
If the question asked you just to 'find the cosets' it is likely that the asker was already aware that they are the same.
oh gotcha
how do I prove they are distinct?
I got all the elements of each
and they encompass all the elements of Z15
and I know H+0 = H+5 = H+10
So if you've done this, then you're done.
It is true that there is a ring isomorphism between R[x]/(x^2 + 1) and C, but since multiplicative inverses exist in C, shouldn't they exist in the first ring too?
but like, while 3 + 4i has inverse (3 - 4i) / 25, the polynomial 3 + 4x in the first ring doesn't have an inverse
I guess this logic is faulty then
Multiplicative inverses do exist in R[x]/(x^2 + 1). Try describing them.
You've confused the element 3 + 4x of R[x] with the element 3 + 4x + (x^2 + 1) in R[x]/(x^2+1).
oh they have to multiply to x^2 + 1
No that's not true
x^2 + 1 = 0 in the quotient ring
(x^2 + 1) = {f(x) * (x^2 + 1) where f(x) \in R[x]}
R[x]/(x^2 + 1) = {g(x) + (x^2 + 1) where g(x) \in R[x]}
in this quotient ring, the multiplicative identity is 1 + (x^2 + 1)
so to find the inverse of the coset (3x + 4) + (x^2 + 1), I need to find an f(x) \in R[x] so that
f(x)*(3x+4) + (x^2 + 1) = 1 + (x^2 + 1)
set I = (x^2+1)
seems so.
Hint: use the (extended) Euclidean algorithm
beat me to it
x^2 + 2 = (3x + 4) * (1/3x + 1/2) - 17/6x
(3x + 4) = (-17/6x)(-18/17) + 4
-17/6x = 4(-17/24x) + 0
am i doing something wrong
I suggest you think a bit more about why the hint is useful
yeah I'm suppose to get a 1 in the last two equations so then I can back substitute
ok scratch that those are just details, if R is isomorphic to S as a ring, and S also has a field structure, then R should also admit the same field structure and thus be isomorphic to S as a field?
Yes
well assuming the field structure S admits is identical to its ring structure + defining inverses, versus some completely different thing
well I guess R could also admit the "completely different" ring structure since they're already isomorphic as rings
is it possible to construct a group presentation of Z^3 with only 2 relations? so an abelian group of 3 generators, where the commutativity is given with only 2 relations?
Any insight would be greatly appreciated
what are the conditions to be a subgroup of G?
for all x, y in H, x*y must be in H (for H being a subgroup of G)
cool
and for all x in H, inverse x must be in H
ok so let x, y be in C_a
as I just learned 🙂
