#groups-rings-fields
1 messages ¡ Page 69 of 1
finding the degree of a specific element over Q
is the usual way just trying to play around it to find a minimal polynomial?
you have algos to do it, but for all practical purposes... you just play around
yea i meant like on an exam
yea cool
if not, take an irred factor
it will be cuz thats how exam problems are made hehe
Quick sanity check:
For prime p, a root of unity is a (unique) product of a root of unity of p-power order and a root of unity of order prime to p.
If ord(x)=n, write n as p^km with p\nmid m, then 1=ap^k+bm => x=x^{bm}\cdot x^{ap^k}, ord(x^{bm}) is a power of p and ord(x^{ap^k}) is coprime to p. Uniqueness holds because if xy=x'y' are two such decompositions, then y=(x^{-1}x')y' and the order of y would be the product of orders of x^{-1}x' and y' (the former a power of p), hence divisible by p (if x\neq x').
yoooo
if two extension fields are isomorphic as vec spaces
then they are the same XD?
No
Can i sinplify like this:
the question is: What is the order of rsr2srs3 in D12?
maybe even further simplified to just s^3 since r^12 doesnt do any rotation basically
.
If that's what you've calculated, then yes.
Thank you!
yo bad question
can someone walk me through the tower theorem argument
for proving Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) = Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))
right is subset of the left
Um, not sure why you'd use the tower theorem
iddk feels cooler
ok
so we know that Q(sqrt(2),sq3) : Q = Q(sqrt(3)+sqrt(2):Q * Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(2)):Q(sqrt(3)+sqrt(2)
right?
we also know that left side is 4
so i want to show that Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(2):Q(sqrt(3)+sqrt(2)) = 1?
that is enough right?
you need to also show that [Q(sq2 + sq3) : Q] = 4
this immediately implies Q(sq2 + sq3) = Q(sq2, sq3) though
if i show Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(2)):Q(sqrt(3)+sqrt(2) cant be 2 then im done
ye
ik sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) is in Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(2)) so if i can show this cant be a root of an irreducuible polynomial of deg 2 then im done?
Try finding its minimal polynomial
doesnt x^2-(5+2sqrt(6)) work tho?
it doesnt
sqrt(6) isnt in Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)) ig
right/
so im done?
Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)) = Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))...
yea lmao
brain fart nvm
okaay i am going to do it manually
suppose x^2+bx+c is a polynomial who has sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) as a root
this has to be reducible tho rihgt?
That's not a polynomial over Q.
its over Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))
Then that's not the minimal polynomial
the minimal polynomial of a over Q(a) is x - a.
yes but idk yet that Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) is Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))
like i have to prove that deg 2 wouldnt work
so ig manually should work
yeaa
i got it
another proof check:
K(u) = K(u^2) if K(u)|K is of odd degree
proof: K(u^2) is contained in K(u) --> by tower we have K(u):K(u^2) must be odd
but now consider x^2-u^2 in K(u^2)[x] , this has degree 2 so we know this extension atmost has degree 2 but its odd tho it must be 1 hence equal?
WHY DOES EVERYONE SAY THEIR QUESTIONS ARE DUMB/BAD STOP ITTTT
yea my bad I yell at people enough for doing that I should stop doing it myself
Here, A[m] means the m-torsion elements of A
it's just bad habit at this point
So that is to say, $A[m] = {a \in A\mid ma = 0}$.
Boytjie
The notation is really awful, I know
But it really is literally the definition of ker m
Yeah you are right I was just giving you more context
dope
tru
is this a correc tprof
I simply say that I am dumb to justify my bad questions :)
yea could I get a hint for this
any good online sources for group theory?
If you look up the name of any major textbook and "pdf" you'll probably find a copy
I'm partial to Fraleigh, and there seem to be pdf copies on google
like ok say C, D are abelian groups and I have some phi: C/mC -> D, I don't really know what the corresponding C -> D[m] should be
Fraleigh is nice; Humphrey is okay I think as well
Is there some way I can say G o F = F o G = id_Ab or something?
idk what id_Ab would even look like
or how composing functors really works
Nah, adjoints aren't usually inverses like that
it means something a bit different
I'm trying to think about what the correspondence would be
u do one then the other
well sure but like actually working with them
yeah so an adjunction basically means there's a bunch of bijections between whatever and whatever, in this case between Ab(A, A[m]) and Ab(A/mA, A), I believe
where these bijections obey some naturality law
I think maybe they stated these the wrong way around. I think it should be a correspondence Hom(C[m], D) <-> Hom(C, D/mD), which I think I can see.
I find this commutative diagram particularly enlightening 



hm yes this definitely clears things up 
ohhhhhh
I am asked to prove/disprove that if $G/H$ is Abelian, then $G$ is Abelian.
My counterexample is to take $G=D_3$ (known to be non-Abelian) and $H={\epsilon, R, R^2}$, which by having index 2 (in $G$) is normal. $G/H$ then has order 2, so it must be Abelian.
Is my logic correct on this?
that makes sense
JacobHofer
take any non abelian G and H = G
Oh huh, that works as well too I guess lol
but I think that example also works?
S_n/A_n, n > 3 also
Was my logic with D3 still correct tho?
yes
yea looks good to me
Yes
Awesome, thanks a ton! đ
Actually glad I used my D3 example, since the next one asks about G/H and H both being Abelian, and so my example works for both problems!
I mean, they actually are enlightening
I don't see how it's the wrong way around and even if it is I don't see the correspondence

anyway i also think your diagram is quite enlightening sebb
hehe i just think it's goofy that i can go to my friends and be like "look at this math" and show them a bunch of arrows
Itâs very useful for silly diagrams, like snake lemma or such
globular
the best thing about learning more math is that words start to sound more made up
Frobenius
dummit and foote probably came out alice in wonderland
Globular operad is a silly globular set
Globular is from globes tho
Ye
I do wonder whatâs missing from these contractible globular operad algebras to keep it from being opetope-y 
Hm I think part of my issue with this is when looking in my texts (Awodey, Rotman)
it's talking about natural transformations
and we have not covered this
yea lol

wait so was your question answered?
cause the definition of natural transformation isn't really hard lol
right
and two sets are bijective if and only if they have teh same rize
well we want more than bijection, we want isomorphism right?
but this is not enough for some pair of functors to give "point-wise" iso
they have to interact with each other in some way
dw about the isomorphism quite yet.
det 
as it is, an 'isomorphism of sets' is just a bijection
there are some additional conditions happening, but again, don't worry about it yet
so yea, just asking isomorhphism of two sets isn't a lot
I love stealing det's thunder nom nom nom delicious
like another example is like the order preserving bijection from nullstellensatz
knowing just the "bijection" exists isn't good enough
you want to see that actual nice bijection
anyway, until you see and properly understand the definition of natural transformations/isomorphism just think that you wanna define the iso Hom(F(C), D) = Hom(C, G(D)) without definining things which are very specific to C or D. a similar map should be possible to define if you replace C and D with other objects C', D'.
here you wanna give a simple bijection between
Hom(A/mA, B) = Hom(A, B[m])
hm ok
so do you see a "nice" bijection?
not immediately
Well I mean let's maybe not focus quite yet on getting a bijection
if I gave you a map f : A/mA -> B, and an element a of A, could you give me an element of B[m]?
I.e. can you think of a nice way of turning maps A/mA -> B into maps A -> B[m]
(or an intermediate map A --> B satisfying some properties)
honestly no. Not really sure how B[m] relates to A/mA
okie forget about B[m] for a minute
how do maps from A/mA --> B relate with maps from A --> B
(iso theorems are your friends
)
well I know I can turn a map A -> B into a map A/mA -> B
oh you can't do that always
That's not always true I'm afraid
But the reverse is certainly true (can you see why?)
Are we literally the same person
whoops yea
.<
yea so recall what's the condition when a map A --> B factors through A --> A/mA
wdym condition
okie we see that we have a nice function
Hom(A/mA, B) --> Hom(A, B)
given by precomposing with A --> A/mA
i'm asking you what is the image of this function
can you describe it using "m"?

yep 
Uh
oh wait
Is A a local ring
lol
Otherwise no
Lmfao
wait no I'm dumb
you only want mA to be in the kernel
yea
not exactly be the whole kernel
right right
chmonkey does so much ag 
ag >_<
right and mA being in the kernel is same as saying image of A --> B dies when you multiply by m
yea
which means A lands inside B[m] 
uh lemme parse that real quick
yee take your time :3
f : A -> B
f(ma) = 0
so...
cause individually that all makes sense but in the context of the problem
I don't necessarily see how mA being contained in kernel of A -> B is the same as saying the image of A -> B is contained in B[m]
it's right here it's right hereeeeee
Tadah you have a map from Hom(A/mA, B) -> Hom(A, B[m])
wtf is B[m]....
B[m] = {b in B | mb = 0}
@delicate orchid
Tor^Z_1(Z/mZ, B)
ah ok, now I get it đ
ok proving this is a bijection shouldn't be too bad
ok so now that we've done this, what are natural transformations and how does this relate (or is that too loaded)
I mean going off your definition you just need to show the hom-sets are iso
Bad wew
the map we defined is natural, since the same recipe can be used to define a map if you replace A, B with A', B' >.<
If youâre gonna do it you should go and prove the useful part
It shouldnât be hard regardless
come back to it later, when you read the actual def of a natural map
I know u need the funny \phi(G(u)\circ whatever) = whatever but u know what... I don't care
oh so natural is just a way of saying that it doesn't really matter what the actual set is?
Itâs a square commuting 
The wikipedia article is a fine introduction
It isnât hard to verify something is natural ChmonkaS
we can talk about the particular naturality condition later
what useful part?
but i think it takes some time to get used to "why no choices" and "cute square commuting" are related
just don't read the nlab page 
In one way yes but it says more
What are you showing are iso?
m-torsion and something else?
yee adjunction
original question
What two sets specifically
For any abelian groups A, B Hom(A/mA, B) iso Hom(A, B[m])
Well you've shown that, if you've shown there's a bijection
when you've read up on what a natural transformation is, the folks in #category-theory will be glad to help you understand adjunctions
the triangle laws my beloved
right
Okay spamakin given an isomorphism f:B -> Bâ then this induces an isomorphism Hom(A/mA, B) -> Hom(A/mA,Bâ) and also Hom(A,B[m]) -> Hom(A,Bâ[m]) right?
You literally just say âlol I append fâ
right
And now your maps to B (or B[m]) are maps to Bâ
You also have these isomorphisms âacrossâ
From like A/mA,B and A,B[m]
But you actually have two of these, one for B and one for Bâ
Cuz your proof makes a bijection for arbitrary B
the diagrams... can you hear them crying to be set free?
idk how to draw diagrams using tikz so they shall not be free
but you can draw them in your mind's eye right?
yea
the horizontal ones just chagne B to B'
mind's eye 
I think I see what's going on
I'm not sure anyone can, they just use https://tikzcd.yichuanshen.de/ surely
A simple visual editor for creating commutative diagrams.
and the vertical ones change the like A/mA to A and B to B[m]
so like
you might ask
is the isomorphism across the Hom-sets for B and B' "the same"
because the objects involved on both sides are "the same" (isomorphic)
https://q.uiver.app/ this is what I use
is this the set up boss?
yeah
so these vertical arrows are basically an isomorphism between the same objects
right cause of what we just showed
wew likes left to right notation
I do
saying that they "are the same" is just saying this diagram commutes
like if you invert one of these isomorphisms you get two ways to go from say, Hom(A,B[m]) -> Hom(A,B'[m])
these being equal is saying this diagram commutes
specifically, doing postcomposition by f first and then mapping through the isomorphism is equal to doing the isomorphism and then doing postcomposition
yup
so natural is just asking that this diagram always commutes
ok this is making a little more sense now
it says that you can replace B with B' and things will always work
because when you replace objects by isomorphic ones sometimes maps that you want to line up, don't
well there is more to the naturality here...
and do PREcomposition!! woah!!

so it's a little bit more we're asking, but let's only deal with B for now
(don't we also need to deal with arbitrary maps B --> B', or do looking at iso suffices? that might not be enough right?)
yes it isn't just isos
that's why I said here it says more
but I forgot to remove the iso part yeah
but it says that these isomorphisms you have of these Hom-sets also play nice with maps between the B
wew drew the general diagram 
and this is useful because it says you don't need to keep track of stuff as much
The classic example of a natural transformation, by the way, is the natural isomorphism between a group and its opposite
if we have a group G, we can define G^op by simply reversing the operation, but with the same underlying set.
So if a,b are in G^op, then the group operation a * b (in G^op) is defined as ba (the group operation in G)
This is a functor Grp -> Grp (one might call it an endofunctor)
and there is a homomorphism G -> G^op taking g to g^-1. This map is an isomorphism, and a natural map from the identity functor to the opposite group functor.
This is what people mean when they say "a group is naturally isomorphic to its opposite"
Right I've seen that before
Although with rings instead of groups but basically the same argument
Oh but rings are most certainly not naturally isomorphic to their opposite
I think you may have something else in mind
Ah, that would make more sense
Anyways the group example makes sense
So it's basically trying to formalize this notion of natural that comes up alot
There is also a classic example of an adjunction that may help you a bit
Let's denote by U : Grp -> Set the so-called 'forgetful functor'
this just forgets that we have a group, and gives us the set of group elements.
Now conversely, there is a nice way to take a set and get a group, namely the 'free functor' F : Set -> Grp
so this takes a set of symbols, as it were, and builds the group with no assumptions, generated by those symbols
(I'm being imprecise here but I'm hoping you've seen the free group before)
Anyway, this is an adjunction, because maps F(X) -> G correspond to a choice of generators, i.e. a map X -> U(G)
this turns out to be natural in the way we discussed above: Hom(F(X), G) <-> Hom(X, U(G)).
Provided the kind of algebraic structure you're looking at is 'nice' enough, there actually always exists such a 'free algebraic structure'
e.g. there is such a thing as a free Abelian group, or a free module
and this is uniquely defined by being adjoint to the forgetful functor
But unfortunately there is no such thing as a free field (huge sad I know)
you've gone quiet 
I hope I haven't overwhelmed you
is it possible to prove that if n is less than 3, then Sn is an abelian group? i.e. can we use the contrapositive here? i'm not going to use it because then it's basically trivial but it seems kinda like cheating if you can
Showing that S_n is abelian for n < 3 is not the contrapositive of this statement, this statement is completely logically independent of the problem in the image
The contrapositive would be that if S_n is abelian, n < 3
ah okay, thanks
Free complete lattice on 3 generators 
Nah nah you're fine I just got busy
I always forget the adjoint directions
can somebody check my proof? i gave an example just inc ase
Whatâs (12)(23) and (23)(12)
Why define sigma then tau
I don't see the relevant of 4 and I don't see why you defined sigma only to say tau = sigma in many more words
wait you can?
Yes
i didn't know that
Now take witness of non-abelian and pass it up
See above the example text
yea i know i was just doing an example for how you would construct a permutation for Sk+1
But yeah see it as bijections from the set of numbers to itself, then clearly you can send that to a bijection on the bigger sets by making it the identity elsewhere
oh ok but i didn't know that implied it was in S_n+1
regardless good to know, thanks
could we use Cayley's theorem in some possible way here?
like could we construct a group from A
because all that matters is we show that |H| = |A|
or is that a dumb idea
like for example
if A has n elements
could we just map each element in A to an element in Z_n
and so their cardinality would be the same
then we could do work using Z_n
like
Could we define $\tao: A \mapsto \mathbb{Z}_n$ such that $\tao(x_i) = i - 1 \text{ for } i = 1 \dots n$?
okeyokay
Could we define $\tao: A \mapsto \mathbb{Z}_n$ such that $\tao(x_i) = i - 1 \text{ for } i = 1 \dots n$?
```Compilation error:```! Undefined control sequence.
<recently read> \tao
l.57 Could we define $\tao
: A \mapsto \mathbb{Z}_n$ such that $\tao(x_i) = i...
The control sequence at the end of the top line
of your error message was never \def'ed. If you have
misspelled it (e.g., `\hobx'), type `I' and the correct
spelling (e.g., `I\hbox'). Otherwise just continue,
and I'll forget about whatever was undefined.```
For $x_i \in A$
okeyokay
basically can we rename the elements
Why not just number the finite elements of A
And then do the obvious thing of order n
Itâs a cyclic subgroup too
wdym
also if G is a cyclic group isomorphic to G', G' then cyclic?
Or
I mean
No need to do any weird isomorphisms
You just need one permutation on A of order |A|
oops you're right
well ig at least with my method i don't have to show that it's cyclic
or supply a generator
these seem pretty simple. i just wanna make sure iâm not overlooking anything small in these proofs if thatâs fine
Easiest way is to just give an explicit one tbh
well i wrote a proof but it's a bit hand wavy and i don't know if it's correct
but yeah i'll probably do the problem a third time that way
If you want my proof, Iâd just enumerate the elements of A, then (a1 a2... an) an n-cycle in A
what does this sentence mean, why turn over and can rotate another 4 position?
if you take an n-gon, you can flip it over first and then rotate it
e.g. take a square paper napkin or something similar and flip it over then rotate it
yeah
even I flip respect with the diagonal line, then rotate, it gives the same 4 positions as flip with the middle line
Im working too hard on these right? The center is abelian, and every subgroup of an abelian group is abelian, and every subgroup of an abelian group is normal. Hence every subgroup of the center is normal?
Similar argument for the third one
yep
really you don't need to do too much because it follows by definition of center
for which?
for all of them
actually, why didn't you first prove that every subgroup of the center is normal
then if G is abelian, Z(G) = G
so every subgroup of an abelian group being normal follows as a corollary
I have done this
ah okay then yeah
I mean the proof looks fine to me
(unfortunately the lighting made it difficult to read so I only skimmed it)
The first proof is fine, and the argument i typed for the other two is probably better right?
congrats, you discovered normal subgroups
"typed"
yeah, the arguments are all fine, although slightly long winded
ill get there I hope, albeit very slowly
for the third proof, notice that Z(G) is a subgroup of Z(G) so you don't have to do anything.
really that's a corollary needing no proof
true yeah
Is 5 first part 2? Since the minimal polynomial has degree 2
MyMathYourMath
ah, I haven't learned that part yet, but I will remember this term first @tender wharf
Are you taking algebra rn
I am learning it now, self learning đ
Ahh
this is my solution đ
Let p and q be primes with p > q. Prove that a group of order pq has at most one subgroup of order p.
need help w this
Lagrange thm, if there is a subgroup H of G ,then, |H| divides pq
if |H|=p, then since p is prime, and p>2, it means H is cyclic
Why RA is left ideal? (A is a subset of R)
sylow
@chilly ocean @torn warren lagrange doesn't help here
right, it can't exclude another subgroup with the same order p
but that's where I learned so far đ
still far away from Sylow
ye but it doesn't really help
What's the textbook
Help this plz
{ra|r and a respectively elements of R and A }
not quite
R has 1
$RA = \left{ \sum_{i \in I} r_i a_i | r_i \in R,~ a_i \in A \right}$
Spamakinđˇ
it's sums
not just single ra's
this should make it easier to see why it's a left ideal
finite sums btw
if we let V_i denote the vector space associated to a vertex V in a path algebra for an indexing set I
and we let V denote the vector space of a representation of the path algebra itself
then is V = direct sum of all the V_i?
Can somebody give me a hint for the forward direction of this proof?
If (1, 1) is a generator of $\mathbb{Z}_n \text{ x } \mathbb{Z}_m$, then the number of summands that gives the identity is $mn$ if and only if $gcd(m, n) = 1$
okeyokay
so i initially assumed for contradiction that gcd(m, n) = d > 1
so there exist integers r and s such that mr + ns = d
so m/d and n/d are coprime
and i kinda need a hint from there
oh wait i'm stupid
then we can just take mn/d
ok ignore everything
Didnât you recently do a problem about |ab|=|a||b| kinda thing?
Ok it was someone else then oop
can someone help me understand the proof to this?
I don't exactly understand how it works
Trivially, $N=\bigcup_{n\in N}c(n)$ as $c(n)\subseteq N$ for all $n\in N$.
Timwestlund
this means nothing
A normal subgroup is defined as a subgroup that is closed under conjugation, hence the conjugacy class of any element in N is contained in N.
why does it need to be contained in N?
can you show me an example? Like if we're working in S4, why is it that if we only have a few elements in a conjugacy class, it can't be normal
The conjugacy class of n is ${gng^{-1},g\in G}$, for any $n\in N$ we have that $gng^{-1}\in N$.
Timwestlund
List all cyclic subgroups of D5 and D6. Argue that you have found all cyclic subgroups
how do i solve this?
so I know for d5 = {e, r, ..., r^4, s, sr, .. sr^4} where r is rotation and s is reflection
so <e> = {e}
<r> = {e, r, ..., r^4}
<r^2> = {e, r^2, r^4}
<r^3> = {e, r^3}
<r^4> = {e, r^4}
<sr> = {e, sr} (and similar thing for sr^2, sr^3, sr^4)
<s> = {e, s}
would the answer be there are 9 cyclic subgroups?
but idk what to conclude from this
is it that r^3, r^4 and all reflections are cyclic subgroups?
If we work in $S_3$ we have $c((1,2,3))={p(1,2,3)p^{-1},p\in S_3}={(1,2,3),(1,3,2)}$. This is a subset of $A_3$, which is the only normal subgroup of $S_3$, which is expected as $(1,2,3)\in A_3$. I don't understand the second part of your question.
Timwestlund
Does anyone know if the group correspondence theorem is in Lang algebra
<r^2>=<r> actually; since r^5=e, r^6=r, and so <r^2> contains r.
In fact this is true for all r^n (in D5)
So:
â if you got one rotation, you got them all
â if you got one symmetry*rotation (sr or sr^n), you got them all (similar argument)
That makes 4 cyclic subgroups: {e}, <r>, <sr>, <s>.
right, i have to fix the sets as i have multiple mistakes now that i think about it
For D6, i'll let you work it on your own, but note that <r^3> is not equal to <r> in D6.
so with either of r^2, r^3 ,...i can generate the whole set?
(for D5)
why dont we consider <r^2> a cyclic group as well for example?
oh nvm we just choose the smallest which is r.
for D6 is it {e}, <r>, <r^2>, <r^3>, <s>, <sr>?
<r^4> = <r^2> and <r^5>=<r>
oh its {e, sr^2, r^4, s, r^2, sr^4}?
and yeah that would be different from sr
and after that by argue they want me to prove?
or is the expansion of all enough? (like stating the sets generated by r, r^2, ...., sr, sr^2, ..
Yes, if you list all the possible generators and show that they are accounted for
alright thanks!
ActiveChapter
So M = Ry1 + Ker(v)
i dont understand why the sum is direct (uniquely sum-able)
the last line
I understand that they show that Ry1 cap ker(v) = {0}
Is there a nice way to prove that X^3 - 9 is irreducible in Q[X] that isnât just unique factorisation of integers?
suppose that it was, then one factor must be linear, which implies that it has a rational root, which is false
The way to prove the last bit is unique factorisation
I suppose Eisenstein ish method does boil down to unique factorisation in the end, even though itâs closer to what I want
what do you mean?
you have the rational roots theorem
can just check that \pm 1, 3, 9 are not roots
Why didnât I check the x + 1 shift?
Iâm sure I did
But it does work
Wait
No
I donât think it works
But theses similar ideas that might
In any case itâs degree 3 so maybe move to Z then to Z/p and check all cases for some random primes
Like x^3-9 is irreducible in Q iff irreducible in Z, then itâs not irreducible in Z if itâs not irreducible in Z/p for some p
So idk try p =2,3,5,7,.. your computer can find a p that verifies itâs not irreducible mod that prime and that proves it
Since irreducible iff has a root since degree is 3
I think that works
It is irreducible
But itâs not irreducible mod 2
It just has to be irreducible mod some p
2 doesnât work, maybe 3 or 5 or 7
But once u reduce thereâs only finitely many things to check
Because u just check for roots
None of those work
given f:X to Y and g: Y to X such that gf = id_X, then we know Y = Im f + Ker g (direct sum). I feel very blind atm but is it the case that Y \cong Ker f + Im g?
so i am trying to understand how symetric groups work and try to calculate the cayley table however, my symetric group ends up abelian because i am probably using cycle notation wrong. So for me (12)(23) = (23)(12). As the symetric group S3 is isomorphic to the dihedreal group D3 of order 3 i tried to do the same there and i understand that the reflections remain fixed in space. However i dont see how this works with cycle notation. What am I missing?
These are some stacked questions...
why does this require unique factorization? @quiet pelican
I don't think 2 is a cubic residue mod 7?
Oh yeah
Brain not working
(12)(23) sends 1 to 2; (23)(12) sends 1 to 3, so no they are not equal
are two rings isomorphic iff their prime spectrums are homeomorphic?
I know the => direction is true
but what about the other one
weird i think thats wrong, double transpositions should be the same as 3 cycles, so now i get (12)(23) = (123) and (23)(12) = (132)
and yes i know they are not equal but my question was probably poorly phrased
i don't really know but i feel like this isn't true
If you want to show s3 and d3 are isomorphic, you can do it via cayley table as you mentioned or you can kind of just look at the definition of Dn and try to write down a group homomorphism to Sn
maybe look at local rings
probably better phrasing would be, i try to look at the group D3 and if i draw a triangle with numbers denoting each point starting at the top going clockwise. if i do (123)(12) i get the same result as if i would do (12)(123), however as the reflections axis are fixed in space i can't just label the reflection between 1 and 2 just (12) cause after a clockwise rotation it would just transpose (13)-
ah nvm my argument wouldn't work
no i dont want to show that these groups are isomorphic, I actually want to show that the word problem for S3 can be calculated by a circuit, however i don't know how to encode it properly because i heavily rely on my drawn picture right now, and don't see a way to currently encode this, without making it accidentaly an abelian group
this would only "make sense"
because otherwise we wouldn't be able to like
go back from geometry to algebra
since you'd get two point spectra and there could be different topologies
Im not sure what a circuit is
not important but its kind of like a program using only boolean gates
I see
Well you can generate S3 (or D3) by elements (12) and (123) noting that (12)^2 = e and (123)^3 = e, and (12)(123)(12) = (132) = (123)^{-1}, I'm not sure if this helps you though
answer is no. timo showed me a counterexample in dms
I'm gonna put this here in case i'm wrong for someone to correct me: Fields all have spectra that consist of one point, those should be homeo but not all fields are iso as rings
ah yeah this definition is the one that started this whole mess :), i dont know why i just think i maybe misunderstood one singular thing which has spiraled down the line, and i just can't figure out my real problem
I also don't think Eisenstein will work here at least not of shift ax+b
ok maybe i can formulate my problem clearly this time. if you have (12)(123) = (123)^{-1}(12)^{-1} you can then multiply both sides with (12), (12)(123)(12) = (123)^{-1}, till here i understand it but now i should be able to multiply again with (123) resulting in (12)(123)(12)(123) = e, so i dont know where the error is now plugging in 1 i get (1->2->1->2->1) so 1 -> 1
plugging in 2 (2->3->1) so 2 -> 1 which is obviously wrong, and 3 (3->1->2->3) so 3->3 is alright. so where is the error. (123)(132) = e should be correct. so multiplying by (132)^{-1} definitly is (123) = (132)^{-1} so i am probably doing a simple mistake.
Probably important: if presented (12)(123) i first calculate (123) then (12) as those are to my understanding just permutations so if f=(12) and g=(123) i would calculate f dot g.
you forgot to apply the last (12) to 2
thanks
start at 2, apply (123), you get 3, apply (12), you get 3, apply (123), you get 1, apply (12), you get 2
and it is such an obvious mistake, crying
well... there are two types of "obvious"
there are some problems that you can just look at and you immediately know the solution, it's obvious how to solve it
there are some problems where if you're told the solution, it's easy to check that it's correct
i told you exactly what the mistake was and you can easily see that i'm right, but that doesn't necessarily make it easy to find it in the first place
i know, but its literally like calculating 1+2+3 and your wondering why it is 5 because you calculated 2+3 and forget to add 1 in the end
i mean aren't all mistakes like that? anything you can do that's incorrect is eventually just "you lost track of something and didn't do a step you should have"
true, in a sense
it's not really the same as 1+2+3 because, these aren't numbers, they're permutations of 3 things
if you have more experience with numbers, like most people do, then permutations are harder to deal with
...and there is also just more steps here, which makes it easier to do one of them incorrectly
its just a lazy mistake, i now realize i just shouold have checked with either one-line or two-line notation, which would have been clearer i guess
but thanks for cheering me up đ
:)
and now my other notation also makes sense if i define D3 = <r,s | r^3 = e, s^2 = e, srsr = e>, then rs = sr^2 should be correct. I don't know how to confidently calculate it yet but if thats right i have the right direction
I got stuck with this problem in my book. I saw this and straight away my brain decided to not understand anything. Is there someone here who could explain to me how to approach a question like this?
seems to like the question is incomplete, assuming m,n are intergers (her is missing the set m,n belong to) what would d = (m, n) represent? if d were just a normal tuple the set at the bottom seems strange as why would n dash be included? Further in the set definition what does a in m mean. if the assumption m is integer was correct this would be a semantic error. I don't know what /n should refer to so no clue.
Typically if you want to show that a set A is a true subset of B, you would first show A is subset B or rather forall x in A follows x in B, and then you would pick an Element in B, which is not in A showing inequality of the given sets
Thank you so much. So it is not my fault that I am very confused. I am gonna see if I missed something somewhere in this chapter that could give some more information
Well I could be wrong, cause I don't know either but out of context this just looks wrong so, maybe in some prior chapters there were made some definitions like, "from here on we will refer to gcd(m,n) as (m,n) for simplicities sake", however i find that unlikely, but in the given Context as it is taking about groups and subgroups i would think that they may be talking about subgroups of (Z/nZ^{x}, *) i'm not sure on the notation here but meaning all invertible classes under multiplication maybe. So all in all this question strikes me as very odd. But as i implied before I am just learning this stuff myself. So good luck to you.
Thank you!
Given D3 = <r,s | r^3 = e, s^2 = e, srsr = e> as the dihedral group of order 3, rs = sr^2, i now have a calculation which i think works, but would there be a better way then
rs = rs(e) = rs(srsr) = r(ss)rsr = rrsr = rrs(e)r = rrs(srsr)r = rr(ss)rsrr = r^3sr^2 = (e)sr^2 = sr^2
what book is this from? it should be prove not proof
That's my fault, i translated it to English. đ
it should also be "Prove that .... is a subgroup" i think
I searched a bit through the chapter, and I am guessing that this is what they meant.
is that a proper subset
Why does A/H=B/H -> A=B
I think they are isomorphic, not equal
oh
idk
Rank is defined as the maximum length of a linearly independent list of elements
if $rx + b0 = 0 = rx =0$ since x is torsion r non zero exists such that rx = 0, so not linearly independent
simple as that right?
hmm in this context i would have assumed "your set" <= Z/nZ my books use U <= G to denote subgroups, it is strange as your set only contains multiplicative inverse integers under mod multiplication, so all elements in your set would be regular integers, however the elements in Z/nZ are not integers but themself sets of integegers better known as congruence classes
ActiveChapter
isomorphism theorem
can you check my proof?
how to prove without
im using this to prove the isomorphism theorem
where is it?
.
.
and any x from TorM, there is non zero r such that rx = 0
so not 1 element can be linearly independant
so rank 0 for TorM
then for next part
rank(M) = rank(M/TorM)
if M has n length linearly independant list, then its also L.I in M / TorM (no elements of that list can be in TorM)
and M/TorM cant have any larger rank, if M/TorM has rank m > n, then that list is also L.I in M
so basically sps that {s_i} is L.I in M/TorM
then sum{a_is_i} = 0 implies that a_i is 0
in M/TorM that means that a_i is in TorM
so translated to M that is, sum{a_is_i} = x where a_i are torsion and x is torsion
so multiply by ring elements to make it = 0
and see its L.I in M
@formal ermine makes sense ?
This is from is syllabus written by my lecturer. I think that is why some things just don't make sense
below im computing the radical of the representation of the given quiver.
its not k^2 i suppose because the of the relations its quotiented by?
I want to show that for some m the functor F: Ab -> Ab mapping A to A/mA preserves coequalizers. That's is what I have but I'm stuck tbh
Can I say that square involving B and C commutes, then get a map Q -> Z
Then project that down to a map Q/mQ to Z?
I don't think so right?
do we not have a map from Q to Z by universal prop of the coequaliser?
pi_c \circ h induces the map no?
Can I get that h o pi_c o f = h o pi_c o g?
main thing is if you have a commutative diagram and shove the entire thing through a functor the result is commutative by functoriality - that would be the route I'd go
Can I do that? I thought I'd need to start with C/mC to Z, not like C/mC to Z/mZ which is what I'd get from throwing the diagram into the functor
I think so, this diagram commutes for all Z by assumption
I write my compositions backwards to you btw
apologies
we're assume (Q, q) is the coequaliser of B, C yeah?
Yea
ok then this diagram commutes by the universal property 
How do we get this from that
right so we can't assume it's the coequaliser? I'm confused
That dotted arrow you drew exists if h o pi_c o f = h o pi_c o g
But we don't necessarily have that, we start with h o F(f) = h o F(g)
I guess what I'm asking is does the square here commute
I see I see ok
If it does then I believe you
Why is the bottom thing true ??
But I don't think it necessarily does?
well C/mC is a quotient of C isn't it? can we do something with that
no, you can't - it's H/N not G/N
talking to me?
im finding elements in G such that [g]=[h] for some h in H right?
if g wasn't in H then gN would contain e*g = g, which cannot be in a coset of H (as g isn't in H)
so the set can be at most H
why not
the cosets in H/N form a partition of H, i.e. they are all properly contained within H
oh right they are disjoint
ye
We have the canonical projection pi_c but idk what else we can do.
Do I have F(f) o pi_B = pi_C o f?
ughghugguhg there's an adjoint as well if I remember your previous question
main question is wtf is F(f)
is it just f -> f+mC lol
so lets say if X is a normal subgroup and A and B are two not-nessecarily normal subgroups containing X, then A/X =B/X implies A=B since if y is in A but not B, then y is in [y] but is not in any coset of B/X which is a contradiction.
is this proof correct
I think
ok then just check this lol
like, see if it sends the same element in B to the same thing in C/mC
I think it's true but idk if I'm doing something dumb. seems to be true 
I'm pretty sure it's true as well
Ok ok then I think I can try to go from here
Cause then universal property kicks in
And I get more stuff to play with
omg we're idiots
I may be but you aren't
there's a diagonal map induced by the universal property of the quotient
which is unique
and thus equal to every possible composition

B -> B/mB -> C specifically
Yea
maybe we could, Wew Lads... maybe we could
wew?

I think that looks ok??
ty
Wait but I can't necessarily turn a map Q -> Z into a map Q/mQ to Z
That was my other question cause of that square commuted then I knew we could get a map Q -> Z but that's not what I want at the end
So you have another funny commutative square on the right
Not sure why I replied to that diagram oh well
Which then commutes in a way completely analogous to the square on the left
Oh
And then, induced map to Z from Q being the co equaliser (I will not let this one go) and induced map from Q/mQ to Z make a little commutative triangle I think
Not let what go lol
U keep denying the existence of the funny map Q -> Z
You wrote at the top âq is the coequaliser of B, Câ 
Funny map exists if these compositions exists are equal
So showing those compositions are equal reduced to remembering that square at the top left commutes
It exists regardless ^ it might just not play nice
is a path algebra the direct sum of the vector spaces of each of its vertices
No
As a vector space, it has a basis given by the paths (including the trivial paths), not the vertices
But this ignores the algebra structure
Can someone give me a counterexample when G is infinite
G = ⤠and S = â
So, a vector space is a field equipped with a scalar multiplication, which seems similar to a module as I understand them, is there a relationship here?
a module is a vector space but over a ring (you can't divide by scalars)
so every vector space is a module
but not every module is a vector space
A vector space isn't a field equipped with a scalar multiplication, no. A vector space is an Abelian group with scalar multiplication from some field.
When we talk about vector spaces, typically we fix a field. After that they are Abelian groups with scalar multiplication from the field that we've chosen.
Hm
Iâm a bit confused now
So itâs a module over an Abelian group and a field?
No!
Fix a ring R. An R-module is an Abelian group with multiplication from R.
A vector space is a k-module where k is a field.
Is this clearer?
What's your favourite Abelian group?
the trivial one
Letâs go with Z_5
OK
Z_5 is a Z-module
The multiplication from Z is just repeated addition.
I will denote the elements of Z_5 as [0], [1] etc
Then 2[1] = [1]+[1] = [2]
This is the Z-module structure of Z_5.
I see
So we take the elements of the group, and then âapplyâ multiplication from our favorite ring
Yes
There are certain rules for the scalar multiplication; look up the definition of a module to see them.
Not sure why I'm getting comments from the peanut gallery; Z-modules are the simplest possible example of a module.
since Cauchys Theorem guaranteed an element of order p that divides G, does that also guarantee a subgroup of order p, namely the cyclic one generated by said element?
Yes
lol
I mean I was just amused by
"give me your favorite abelian group"
responds with Z module
Hey, they don't know that Abelian groups are just Z-modules yet đ
why are the irreducibel representations of a path algebra just the one dimensioanl representations
i've been trying to prove this claim for quite a bit of time
ima like 90% sure its true
clearly 1 dim --> irreducible
but the otehr direction i can't seem to get
the first line should be $\forall a\in S$, the last line should be $a^{p-1}\in S$
Witness
Consider the map G â G; x ⌠aᾢx
I meant to write⌠Suppose a in S
What's the method you guys use for calculating the characteristic polynomial of a matrix?
By hand I mean
depends on the size
thereâs a formula. although itâs probably just as much work as the standard way to get it
actually
3x3 is okay by just Leibniz formula, 4x4 I never do lol
Idk why you'd ever need to do a 4x4 by hand unless it's a special case or you have sadistic teachers

Leibniz is sadistic tho?
unless you mean rule of sarrus
I've had to take
of 4x4 matrix for an ode exam before, the numbers weren't very nice either but at least they were integers I guess
oh like calculating 4x4 determinants I have done in exams, but just integer type determinants, no transcendental x's involved (which is just doing Gauss-Jordan)
for 3x3 characteristic polynomial, you have two coefficients, already, which are the trace and the determinant
the other coefficient Im not sure how to obtain it from the original matrix in a straightforward procedure (it is related with minors and so on)
i think a (-1)^k might be missing there
Ill go to sleep
will work on this tomorrow, calculating characteristic polynomials is no joke
but this is equivalent to the author's hint, right?
I didn't get the hint either
Isn't rule of sarrus longer lol
Idk the poitn of rule of sarrus
Oh sorry
I meant Laplace expansion
Ah ok yeh
The map is bijective
hm
I think it's useful occasionally for conceptual things i guess?
Like you can prove that det is multiplicative using it
And lol, Stickelberger theorem
Problem: given 1000 cows of positive weight, prove that you can always remove one cow so that the remaining 999 cows cannot be split into two groups of total equal weight
Tf
xD
No idk
hm
But I had fun when I solved it
so yes xd
I'll have a think cause I feel like i've seen this before but never actually tried
And you use leibniz
Yeah
hm interesting
You have some weird system of linear equations
So det should be nonzero
For n even yes
For n odd not necessarily true
Ah okay thanks
Okay tbf you have nerd sniped me cause i have hw iminently due 
but thanks for the problem
does anyone get this
or know a better place i can ask this question
yes, it is bijective, then how is related to the S and the inversed element ?
If it is bijective, in particular it is surjective and e is an element of the image
anyone here can help with logarithims?
yes, but how to conclude the inverse is in S ?
if $a\in S$, and $a\neq e$, we can find $x\in G, ax=e$, but how to show $x\in S$ ?
Witness
it needs to show this map is bijective from $S\rightarrow S$, then it is done, but right now we only have $G\rightarrow G$, which is not enough
Witness
since S is finite, to show it is bijective, we only need to show it is one-to-one
so it is done
$\forall x,y\in S, ax=ay\rightarrow x=y$
Witness
You also need that the image of S is S
S is finite, so one-to-one implies onto, right?
Which you have because S is closed by the product operation
But you don't know that S -> S
You only know S -> G
Perhaps S could be mapped to a different set of the same cardinality
But this
but to prove it is onto, it needs the condition that the inverse is in S
so we get a logic loop
No
First, we have $f(S) \subset S$ because $S$ is closed. Then, we use that $f$ is injective to show that $|f(S)| = |S|$. It follows that $f(S) = S$
dáľ
is there a way to directly prove it is onto?
yes, such people do exist. whether they want to help you is a different question
now tske yourself to #prealg-and-algebra
I guess if you have the definition of f?
this is the op, the f is defined as for a fixed $a\in S, f(x)=ax$
Witness
wait, what if we remove the given condition that $e\in S$, is this hint method still working?
Witness
without $e\in S$, the cyclic group method still works
you can observe it behaves a little like a left coset
Witness
yes, similar
say we let $H = {h \in \mathbb{Z} \mid r_i | h \text{ for } i = 1 \dots n}$where the $r_i \in \mathbb{Z}^+$.
okeyokay
would the members of H be multiples of r_1r_2....r_n?
why is the generator of that group the least common multiple of all of the r_i
because my idea was that
since the subgroups of Z are precisely nZ for n in Z
this subgroup has to be of the form nZ
so my thought was that each member of this subgroup are of the form r_1r_2....r_n(k)
so it's equal to r_1r_2....r_nZ
but the thing is i don't know if that's true
i don't see why this is true
Do you agree that by definition your H contains exactly all the common multiples of the ri's?
yes
And have you proved that a nontrivial subgroup of Z is always generated by its smallest positive element?
I would assume that is what "our work on cyclic groups" refers to.
Guys, could someone explain this theorem to me with an example? , pls
something more basic please
Indeed there is an embedding F_{p^m} into F_{p^n} iff m|n
So yes
Oh sorry was dumb
Yes in your case
Lol
Basically you can take the set of roots of x^9 = x in any field of order 81
And that'll be isomorphic to F
If you look at the construction of finite fields of order p^n then you'll see whether this comes from
Np!
You can also go the other way: Find an element c of F_n that is not a square (they can't all be squares except in characteristic 2), and adjoin a square root of that. Then you have a field with n^2 elements.
Oh yeah true here lol, good point
Yes sorry sure so this is actually almost a definition basically
Let me give an example for Z/nZ
Well, it's basically the general case
The "(n,k)" must mean gcd(n,k).
it should mention cyclic group @vagrant zinc
But note that the order of k mod n is simply the smaller positive a such that ak is divisible by n. For such a, ak is the lcm of n and m. So a is lcm(n,m)/k, which can be seen to be equal to n/gcd(n,m) if you look at prime factorisation, for example
Though there will be more
Why?
This only depends on the subgroup generated by a
Which is always cyclic and order n by hypothesis
Maybe you read it as saying G has order n rather than a?
it says G has order n, didn't say G=<a>
No, it says a in G has order n
So a has order n
Arguably not the best writing, but yeah
Ok I was taking the example of Z_4 under the operation sum and then I didn't understand, I know you are talking about the order of the generator of the group or subgroup but in this case I am taking it as the group, but then one I don't understand
as it would be the comparative with respect to the gcd(n,m)
I don't know, if what I said is wrong, sorry for being wrong.
Concrete example, perhaps?
2 has order 39 in Z/78Z.
Its 6th power is 12, which has order 13 in Z/78Z. And 13 happens to be 39/gcd(39,6) = 39/3.
you can first prove <a^k>=<a^d>, d=gcd(n,k) @vagrant zinc
for <a^d>, its order is n/d
so as the order for <a^k>
Consider a cyclic group $G$ of order $10$ . Suppose it's generated by an element $a$, so we have that the order of $a$ is $10$. Let's consider $a^2$. We have that $\frac{10}{\gcd(2, 10)} = \frac{10}{2} = 5$ and indeed we have $\left(a^2\right)^5 = a^10 = e$. Also note that for all $m < 5$ we have $\left(a^2\right)^m \neq e$ so indeed the order of $a^2$ in $G$ is 5.
Spamakinđˇ
oh shit someone already was helping >_>
yea it's awful notation that's quite popular
(x, y) for gcd and [x, y] for lcm


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