#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 64 of 1
Z_3 x Z_3 has 9 elements
So if this group were cyclic, then there would exist some element such that if we add it to itself, we get all 9 elements
The explanation shows why no such element can exist
right but every time you add it to itself three times it equals the identity
which is not sufficient
wait
is that right
Right, because if we reach the identity before getting all 9 elements in the group, then we certainly can't hit all 9 elements in the group
ohhhh, okay
The explanation is saying that if we fix some g in Z_3 x Z_3, then the multiples of g are 0, g, and 2g, so there are at most 3 distinct multiples of g
oh ok thank you! that really helped
happy to help 
Hey!
Sure, so one thing you might observe is that two cyclic permutations of the product of the same factors are conjugate
im afraid i dont understand
Right, so we say that two elements x and y in a group are conjugate if there exists some g in G such that y = gxg^-1
Let's do this more specifically with three elements: we want to show that xyz has the same order as yzx
I claim that xyz and yzx are conjugate. Can you find an element g in G such that g(xyz)g^-1 = yzx
thank you for this explanation
let me break it down
and try to understand what you're saying
if i have a group G with nontrivial center, and an irreducible representation V of that group such that elements in the center of that group fix elements in V, how do i prove that V is the trivial representation?
is that even true?
if G is finite and V is finite-dimensional that is
what about S3×Z2 with center {e}×Z2 and the representation be
S3×Z2 → S3 → GL(2, R) std representation of S3
oh
How do I do this?
hey @rustic crown
so with 4
we are given that
a^mt = e = a^n
Let a be an element of order n in a group G. is given
what would be your first step in this
well you should tell me your thoughts >.<
i would just use the standard fact about orders
which is pretty much the question
Is the first iso theorem linked to this? (they didn't give it to us in the book but I googled it)
Is this theorem saying the union of sets aH for all a will form G?
yep, they partition G
ohhh and since all of them are the same magnitude the Kernal will divide G?
but how could that link the phi(G)?
almost... the phrasing is a little bit weird
it's linked to first iso thm, lagranges thm, etc
but if you haven't seen it, doing directly is also fine
ok ill try both ways
this is also lagrange
Ker phi is a normal subgroup which is why your left and right cosets are same
lagrange for normal subgroup 
ahh ok thanks
what is this saying exactly
list all the cyclic elements of S6 where we have a specific cycle?
f is a specific element in S_6. This exercise asks you to describe all of the elements in the subgroup generated by f, meaning all of the powers of this element
did it 🙂
it just asks u to prove by contradiction that its not cyclic
||what is the maximum cardinality of a cyclic group?||
right i just dont know how to go about it
This doesn’t follow the hint, but I think is one of the nicer ways to show it
I was gonna say it too
it has to be countable right
finite
wait no that's silly idk what im saying
i was gunna say
only finite groups can be cyclic
Not necessarily finite ($\bZ$ is cyclic)
Micose
Id just do that but the proof that R is not countable involves more stuff than just doing it the way of the hint
can u guys help me with the contradictory proof
By the time you’ve reached groups, you’ve probably seen a proof of that (esp as what they want you to do needs that ||there is a rational between every pair of reals||)
suppose k generates R*, now find a number x ||such that no n exists for x=k^n||
yea but its kinda like... using a T-90 to kill a mosquito
ngl guys
ive taken
topology
number theory
like i should be able to do this
WHATS WRONG WITH MNE
love ❤️
thank you everyone today who helped me
much appreciated
fwiw the multiplicative group of any finite field is cyclic
corollary: Zp^\times is cyclic
Bonkers…
And since R is a finite field,...
I mean fwiw the group of units of an infinite group is never cyclic, so we needn't use ordering or cardinality arguments to prove R^x is not cyclic
(Z/p^kZ)^\times is cyclic for all primes p and all k 😌 (2 is not prime)
k-2 albeit
Why do people teach cyclic group of order p to be denoted as Z_p rather than Z/pZ or Z/p
Idk it's a bit cringe doing Z_p
Z_p can also mean p adic integers
Because theyre lazy
My TA wrote C_p because "writing \mathbb{Z} takes too many strokes"
THIS
I’ve gotten to the point of just writing “n” for C_n now tbh
Dude people write things in real life
tbh I've never seen Z_p as a general cyclic group
only as a particularly useful example
Well idk about general, but writing that a group is isomorphic to Z_p to mean it's cyclic
Imo C_p should be reserved for an abstract cyclic group
Which is not the same as Z/pZ
Oh and n + m for C_n \times C_m and n:m for C_n semidirect C_m
Which has a chosen generator
I agree, but the problem is they’ll write Z_p instead of Z/pZ and also use Z_p for abstract cyclic
The based option is using the group of nth roots of unity as your epitomic cyclic group
This tbh
NO
That has a nontrivial galois action on it
Whereas Z/pZ has the trivial galois action
galois actions are not covered for a while in undergrad courses, so I can excuse it
The real issue is that most students have had at least some basic number theory but not much complex numbers
Ok well by that reasoning p-adics are generally not covered in undergrad, so Z_p is also excused?
If you mean \mathbb{Z} then no tbh
I meant bbZ yeah
I think it's fine if you specifically mean Z mod p, otherwise n o
unrelated, is there a name for whatever comes out when you do like, Z_6?
Like that structure where it's not quite a group
How are you defining Z_6? Inverse limit of Z/6^nZ?
That is a group…..
The same way you do for Z/pZ under multiplication
Z/pZ is also not a group under multiplication
I must be thinking of something else
Im curious, what happens when you do this
You get Z_2 x Z_3
Oh
Hi class just started and my professor is introducing categories please help
This feels like something I've definitely asked about before
What class
Arrows!! That’s it
It's a seminar course mostly dealing with Type theory

Perhaps get off the internet and listen to the lecture instead?
That's what I'm doing!
Sorry, should have disabled the ping on that one.
All is forgiven haha
What does it actually mean for a homomorphism to be canonical?
Does it have a formal meaning, or is it merely a loose term meaning "natural" or "obvious" or something
hmm, I see
I don't know much about categories yet. How should I approach the term when I see it?
the basic idea is this... you say G --> G/N is a natural map, because the definition of the map doesn't fully depend on what G and N are... the same recipe of the map would work if you choose a different group and different normal subgroup.
"Natural" has a formal meaning (though it is often somewhat oversold in informal contexts), but I don't think "canonical" does?
they're used interchangeably i thought
I feel like my book uses them interchangably
Thanks, that makes sense!
Oh, if we're talking specifically about G --> G/N, then "the canonical homomorphism" does have a technical meaning. It's the particular homomorphism that the construction of G/N gives you, talking each element of G to the coset it's in.
So it's like, it's a homomorphism that arises simply from the structure itself
more precisely, it satisfies the following property. if f : G --> G' is a group homomorphism, and N, N' are normal subgroups such that f(N) is contained in N', then you have this nice square
det
the commutativity of this square is what makes the quotient map natural
I don't really see that
You're talking about G -> G/N here still?
I meant, I've never heard anyone speak of "canonical transformations" between functors ...
because I don't really understand how the right part of the diagram 'affects' G -> G/N
informally you can think of "natural" maps as something where you don't need to make arbitrary choices while defining that map. this way the same recipe/definition would work for any other object.
it severely restricts the options for maps G --> G/N such that any such diagram commutes.
ahh, I think I see
because you are enforcing the homomorphism condition both for G -> G' and G/N -> G'/N'
yep, changing your "objects" by a structure preserving map, shouldn't affect a natural map by a lot.
a standard non-canonical map is the isomorphism between a finite dimensional vector space and its dual
to define such an isomorphism, one first picks a basis and using this basis you define the required linear map.
but if you now replace this vector space with some other vector spaces, you would have to make a different choice of basis. and because of these arbitrary choices, a diagram "like" above won't commute.
aaa
I see the connection to category theory now
like, for a field like category theory where you study the structures itself, it would be quite important to have some notion of... well, "constantness" of your diagrams, i.e. independent on the specific properties of the objects chosen
thanks :)
i hear the word "transformation" itself quite rarely :p
but yea same never heard of "canonical transformation"
maybe canonical is just a less formal word used when you wanna talk about nice maps which are not exactly natural transformations, but idk
what is a canonical isomorphism
what does it mean here by "up to isomorphism"
There are an infinite number of groups of order 1
It means that isomorphic groups are not considered distinct while counting
gotcha
well interesting how
all the Zn where n is prime
there are no other examples listed
right
does that mean something?
you should prove this
that if n is prime then there is only one group of order n
up to isomorphism
in fact there are composite integers too that satisfy this property, and they are characterized in a paper by Keith Conrad
gotcha okay
ill try that
tho first question
in most cases is it obvious the order of a group?
like, to see how many elements in it
like if it's
a1 ... an
then obviously n elements
so |G| = n
or do you mostly have to find order of element and figure out order of whole group that way
I think you need to first see Lagrange's thm before doing that
Why assume that that they haven't already
hmm ok
it would be obvious then
I don't know about 'most'
it's down to how you decide to define it
that depends on context doesnt it?
ime "canonical" generally means kind of like,
"obvious"?
there might be several objects of a particular kind but one of them is constructible from the context and often has nicer properties than a general thing that just happens to exist in this case
like if you consider products, generally A x B and B x A will be isomorphic
there might be several possible isomorphisms, given for instance by automorphisms of A or B or more complex maps, but (for most kinds of product) there's always one very obvious one where you just swap them around and leave everything the same
and, like what often tends to happen, this obvious construction has very nice properties, for instance the swap map from A x B -> B x A and the swap map from B x A -> A x B are inverses of each other
when canonical is mentioned I would think about homomorphisms and more in general
1st iso theorem gives a canonical iso.
it's a canonical map that's invertible :trollshiro:
I think this notion is formalized in category
aren't the theorems of these the same?
like if GxH is cyclic then there exists some generator (a, b) of GxH
then there does of G and H
thus G and H are cyclic too
right @coral shale
? ❤️
@delicate orchid
why would they give
such similar proofs
i dont get it!
like literally copy paste right?
2 follows very quickly from 1, yes
I know this is gonna be random, but thx for helping me pass my exam guys🥰
You're the only one who took your exam. Be proud!
Swag, good job
does this proof suffice?
No.
You never prove that an arbitrary element of H can be generated by a^n, and in fact this is false in general
For example choose 2Z, and h = 4. Then 4 does not generate 2Z.
a is not in H in general.
so if every element h of H is in G, then why can't h be represented as a to some power
h can be represented as a to some power
if the same element can be expressed that way in G
h does not in general generate H.
Thx for being patient with me, and helping me through everything, I'm really grateful 
okay so for any arbitrary 'h' in H, we know that there is some integer 'n' s.t. h = a^{n}. Can we say that a^{n} in H generates H?
or not quite
.
Hint: look for minimal numbers n
if h = a^{n} doesn't generate H in general then how can we even use a^{n} at all
See the hint
If i know that the characteristic of a commutative ring is prime, will the ring always be a field?
and if so how would you show that?
It will almost never be a field
oh okay
Try to find a single example for each prime p of a non-field with characteristic p
BIG hint: ||product ring||
i havnt learned about product rings yet i dont think
OK
I would've liked you to give it a shot before looking at the hint, oh well
i have been trying I only could think of integers mod p
okay yea im realizing product rings are good for thinking about if things always hold true
yo
F[x,y]/(y^2-x) is iso to F[x]
with this observation that y^2-x = 0 --> y^2=x
so F[x,y]/(y^2-x) = F[x,x^2]/(0) = F[x]
is this "formal" enough
i feel this is super fishy
can someone solidfy this
😦
that looks fine to me 
actually I'd say that F[x,y]/(y^2-x) is iso to F[y^2, y] but that's nitpicking
Use the first isomorphism theorem - map F[X, Y] into F[X] by X to X, Y to X^2 and it follows (using the generalisation of the factor theorem to find the kernel)
Hurb
Burb
writing his masters thesis and learning too much cat and top
Hey I'm not understanding something about adjoining elements, can someone help explain this to me?
maybe can't use CRT, or maybe no better way to think of it?
the above is quite concrete, you can think of it as various things like space of certain polynomial functions and stuff
but if you want, CRT still lets you embed this into a nice product
Z[x] --> Z[x]/(x^2+1) x Z[x]/(x^2-2)
the kernel is the intersection (x^2+1) n (x^2-2) which by UFD-ness of Z[x] is same as the ideal generated by (x^2+1)(x^2-2)
so your ring R has an injective map to Z[i] x Z[sqrt2]
usually for CRT you have that the ideal I and J are coprime, i.e. I + J = (1) which lets you prove that this map is surjective as well.
Okay thank you I saved this and will look back when I learn about product rings and what UFD is
No?
You are referring to the quotient ring right? It's not
Even if you're referring to what you're quotienting by - it's not.
yes im reffering to the quotient ring
why doens't this follow from third iso theorem?
Well I mean no - for starters the polynomial 1 is in the ring
and neither 2 or the cubic divide 1
oh alright
I don't follow
np
It asks you for all the ideals right
yes
the set of all polynomials that divide both 2 and x^3+1
How does this describe some ideals
What do you mean
so i need ideals that contain (2,x^3+1)
yes
the equivalence class that represents in the quotient is the identity
no
the ideals of the quotient ring is in correspondonce with ideals that contain (2,x^3+1)
so now everythings correct?
As far as I know, yes this is correct
And yes 3rd iso
so as far as i can understand, we assume that the possible numbers of subgroups are 16.
2^4, but where do the 5-1 elements come from?
i think we were trying to show a contradiction to show that a group of order 80 is not simple by counting the number of elements
i just don’t get the idea behind this counting process
so assume that this group was simple
and look at the sylow-5 subgroups
how many of them would be there?
it has to be 1 mod 5
and has to divide 16
which gives two possibilities
1 or 16
it can't be 1 since we assumed it's simple
(as that implies that the sylow subgroup is normal)
so 16
yes. i got to that point by myself
so we remove the non identity element
yep
wait
we remove the identity element*
it’s at this point i don’t understand any further
counting the number of elements of a specific order
yee
so each sylow 5 subgroup will give you (5-1) order 5 elements
that gives you the 64 elements of order 5
okay, so for the sylow 2 subgroup case, we have 5(2-1) elements of order 2?
the sylow 2-subgroup has order 16
oh yes 2^4
which is precisely the space left for one such subgroup
80-64 elements = 16 elements
hence this would be normal :3
how would i get those 16 elements using the same argument? 2^4(2-1)?
nah, that would be more complicated
because two sylow-2 subgroups can intersect non-trivially
but not here
because we have space for only one such subgroup left
the remaining non-order-5 elements has to be the ones in the sylow 2-subgroup

since we assumed they were distinct right?
or is it not even an assumption, they are distinct?
we assumed there were 16 sylow-5 thingies
so the sylow-5 subgroup has order 16
nuu
.<
sylow 5 has order 5
because that's the largest power of 5 dividing 80 :3
okay, yeah i can see that with the prime factorization
think about it for a while 
what we proved is that either you have a normal sylow-5 or normal sylow-2 subgroup
but we didn't prove which one it is
i’m still trying to understand the proof in the first place. i know that this is gonna lead me to a contradiction somewhere, where i have more elements than in the group. hence simple
but either way their is a normal nontrivial subgroup and so not simple
i get that. but getting there isn’t clicking
p-group has cardinality being power of p
so if Sylow-5-subgroup would have order 16
that couldn't be right
16 is not a power of 5
so is n_5 = 1 or 16 in this case, the number of these possible subgroups of order 5?
i got it (i hope). we have that there are 16 possible sylow 5 subgroups of order 5. since the order of an element divides the order of the group, we have that there are 4 elements of order 5 in each group, giving us 64 elements of order 5.
this is the right idea?
How do I compute for the cardinality of $(\mathbb{Z}/100\mathbb{Z})^\times$
emphatic_wax
yeep
Do you know the Euler Totient function?
Otherwise, inclusion exclusion
(Or the general formula derivable from that)
not really
/but I can look it up. but if not using that. what do you mean by inclusion exclusion? like try some numbers
Do you know what the inclusion exclusion principle is?
If not, we can use it informally
The events you want the Union of are “divisible by 2” and “divisible by 5” (then you want the complement of that set)
Yes
A number is not coprime with 100 = 2^3 * 5^2 iff it is divisible by 2 or 5
so, for example if I replace 100 with 900, I will do 2, 3, 5?
Yes
Gotcha! Thank you!
the proofs of the impossibility of trisecting the angle, doubling the cube, and (given in a black box the transcendence of \pi) squaring the circle are...suprising easy? like i would have thought they'd require a fuckton of Galois theory, but they actually require only some basic field extension stuff (first 5 pages of the first section of the algebraic extensions part of Lang's Algebra for the stuff + some knowledge of the polynomial facts required to understand those 5 pages + the short proofs on wikipedia)
like, this feels like cheating
You need a lot of machinery for them to be easy
And I don’t mean Galois
maybe i have more machinery than i think?
I mean all the abstract algebra to get to that point
but like, isn't it just some polynomial stuff + some basic field stuff that honestly feels just like linear algebra
to be fair everything is obvious and simple after knowing it
and an obstruse edifice of unknown stuff before knowing it
Everything is trivial after you understand it.
does anybody know where i can find a good proof on the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? my book chooses to omit it
most books do that
is it just too hard to understand
because there is a classification theorem of finitely generated modules over a pid
or out of the scope of an abstract algebra one semester course
an introduction course rather
wish i knew what that meant
so just redoing the proof for Z-modules = abelian groups doesn't make too much sense
oh so R-modules are like vector spaces, but the scalars come from a ring instead of a field
wish i knew what a ring meant LOL
you can add and multiply uwu
okie
and that's fun 
modules are trying to understand these things using their actions on abelian groups
if the ring is Z
then the action is uniquely determined
Uh uh, R-modules are generalizations of vector spaces
because what can 3 * m mean? you're forced to define it as m+m+m
It's like a group, but also works with multiplication. Formally speaking, a ring is a structure (R,+,×) such that 1. It is a group under +, and 2. It is a monoid under ×
what is a monoid
Uhhhh
ah i see
Lemme dig thru my notes
so this is just a special case of a little more general theorem which works for certain nice class of rings called PIDs. and the ring of integers Z is one such thing, so people just prove this theorem while doing modules instead of working thorugh the proof with abelian groups
Ok it's a group that doesnt require inverses
herstein has one
wait what i thought by definition groups had to have inverses
oh ok i see
No no groups do need inverses but monoids dont
so why is it a group
it isn't
But they have the other structures associated with groups
They arent groups per se
But they have some structure of groups
Like possessing an identity element and being associative under a binary map
as in they're isomorphic to some groups?
you are making this too complicated to yourself
No no no they just have some properties groups have but are not the same on the nose
ah i see
a monoid is just a set with a binary operation that misses one axiom of a group (one about inverses)
Only groups can be isomorphic to other groups, you dummy
Now that he's on the topic tho
Is there a map that makes a group lose structure that maps it to a monoid?
I believe that's what those in the business call "forgetful functors"
not sure if it applies to this specific situation but it should?
Yeah, every group is also automatically a monoid.
And the concept of forgetful functor does apply here.
It's a fairly nice forgetful functor too; it has a left adjoint that is actually a left inverse.
Noice indeed
just to be clear i can think of n being the sum of how many generators there are for each Z_d where d divides n
that is indeed what you are being asked to prove
what's the question?
then its order should be equal to the number of positive generators of Z_10 + number of positive generators of Z_5 + number of positive generators of Z_2 + number of positive generators of Z
no, 10 equals the order of Z_10 + Z_5 + Z_2 + Z_1
.
n=10
phi(Z_10) = order of Z_10 since the integers less than ten that are also coprime to 10 have multiplicative inverse mod 10
wait what
isn't the order of Z_10 10
order of Z_5 5
so, i assumed you meant under multiplication
oh nah my bad
(i do usually see "Z_n" as the additive version, but appear to have assumed you meant otherwise and then i ran with it)
generators for (Z_n,+) are the same as elements of (Z^(×)_n, *) which is what i use to denote the modular integers mod n that are multiplicatively invertible mod n
due to both having the coprime requirement
but if i understood you correctly, you have only said true statements
Let R be a ring 💍
If ab=1, then ba=1?
false
false
left inverse does not imply existence of right inverse
sorry i should provide an example
A counterexample could be the ring of linear operators on a sequence space, with a and b be the shift-left and shift-right operators.
wow this was surprisingly hard to come up eith
differentiation and integration (integral from 0 to x) of polynomials
this example feels thematically similar to mine
does this question have something to do with a partition of G?
like is Z_n partitioned into subgroups Z_d such that d|n
or is that just not true
oh wait there was a bijective map defined from a coset to a subgroup H
and we know cosets partition a group
so it must be true then
or am i trippin
or in order to have a partition do you need to define an equivalence relation
partitions and equivalence relations can induce each otjer
it is useful to glue (get it! because equivalence relation!) the two in your head, as in to think of the two as two things attached with some glue and duct tape
ye
think about this for a little
partitions must have disjoint sets
the identity but an identity must be unique right
oh wait
i'm stupid
yeah you're right
but 0 isn't a generator
no worries
i was once again thinking of the multiplicative group by mistake
oh yeah ur good
i think that's because of the totient function. i automatically think multiplicative modular Numbers
this still surely is false
subgroup isomorphic to Z_2, subgroup isomorphic Z_4, both living inside Z_8
oh right
i have utterly no clue how to do this then, or how to show that Z_n of order n is equal to the sum of the number of positive generators in each Z_d such that d|n
yea no worries
(i remember proving the result of this exercise...but before i knew any abstract algebra)
i kinda just shuffled around with the prime factorizations
there was this math contest with a round for longer harder proof based stuff and there was a year with a series of questions about this, then the mobius function and square free numbers
...i immediately forgot them...i don't know number theory, and couldn't tell you what the mobius function was except that it somehow had a pretty relationship with the property of being squarefree
(a special case of the mobius inversion formula is what i think it was. i remember it because it was one of the first times i did that kind of discovery)
oh wait no it's not that
would this be a stupid idea
anyways this is a tangent
could we take phi of both sides
yeah ur good
but like im not sure what any of what you're talking about is lol
like what a mobius function is and square free
but it sounds cool
my intuition was to try to use the generators to say something about the prime factorization
totient of both sides seems messy
abstract algebra made me like number theory more. considering also that afaik number theory has abstract algebra as a core part
wait...
isn't this just a linearization thing
sorry if im butchering math terms
but like
say n = 18
wait no
i'm stupid
nvm
jesus
i think the course of using partitions may work
8 = generators of
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 + generators of
0 2 4 6 + generators of
0 4 + generators of 0
sorry could you explain this
wouldn't it be 7 = generators of Z_7 + generators of Z_1
oh i just expanded out the formula for Z_8
counting is hard
LOL no worries
wait how is that a partition though cuz they're not disjoint
would it have to do with taking the union or smt
but let's see the generators:
1,3,5,7
2,6
4
0
OHH
so: if we have an element that generates Z_d1, we want to prove it doesn't generate Z_d2
aha!!
d1 divides n
if you don't share any common factors with d1
then you must share a factor with d2
because if you don't share any common factors with d1
but d2 | (n/d1) = [Z_n : Z_d1]. a generator of d1 creates a cyclic subgroup of Z_n with the order of Z_d1 (uhh duh, that cyclic subgroup is literally Z_d1)
okay
wait
yeah
sorry im just trying to get there on my own and if i get stuck ill look
i am not actually there though...
wait is it true that if you have some a in Z_n and gcd(a, n) > 1 then a is not a generator right
yes, because that's what "not coprime" means
d1 | n. d2 | n. say your generator is coprime with d1. however: a generator of Z_d1 must have an order that divides n by Lagrange's theorem. in fact n/d1 is the first element in Z_d1 after 0.
n/d1 has the same order as the generator, since n/d1 is also a generator (all generators in a cyclic group have the same order).
an element a in Z_n is a generator of Z_n iff gcd(a,n)=1
(effectively, turn the case of any generator into the case for the first generator).
so the order of your generator equals n/d1. but we know n/d1 is coprime with d1. so d2 divides n/d1. so n/d1=(the generator we are trying to show isn't a generator of Z_d2) is not coprime with d2
therefore we have disjointness
part 2 is that we need to prove we cover Z_10.
that's more obvious: if the number (say, m) is coprime to n, we are done as it generates Z_n. Otherwise, take the gcd and look at Z_(n/gcd(n,m)).
obviously m is coprime to (n/gcd(n,m))
furthermore it is similarly clearly less than (n/gcd(n,m))
so now we have a partition
so bob's your uncle, and now that sum from earlier works
i'm not?
i feel bad because like you did all the heavy lifting
i'll accept "smart". ill even accept the praise of "very smart". but in my mind, genius's simply are not me.
ok very smart person
so, i accidentally did the heavy lifting?
mostly i got carried away
remember that i've done this before
albeit proven differently, what i just did feels vaguely what i did back in...early 9th grade?
but this time it's better
lmfao
because group theory
i was doing geometry in 9th grade
there's a central concept here: the example
i thought "they can't possibly be disjoint, lemme come up with the obvious counterexamp...oh shit"
then, i thought "ok, maybe they are disjoint, lemme try to prove it"
then i thought "ok, that means a generator of Z_d1 must not generate Z_d2"
then i just gradually inserted in "coprime" and "divides n" and came up with that
and then the cleaned up two paragraphs (1. for disjointness 2. for covering) was hopefully straightforward
i knew from the start that there would be some sort of partition of the factors.
i did not know that there'd literally just be a partition of Z_n. i only started trying that after seeing you say it and being unable to prove you wrong
is this post mortem helpful or am i beating a dead horse without a medical student to carefully notes, instead just splattering blood over the student while the student stares at me in horror?
uh lmao
yeah that's helpful
thank you but yeah i see your point
it means a lot
i'm still a bit confused on disjointness
oh! gotcha
uhh, wait, which part?
the rephrasing is that if you are coprime with divisor 1, you must not be coprime with divisor 2.
the reasoning is that the order of your generator equals n/d1
i'm a little bit confused as to why n/d1 is a generator - is it because it's coprime to d1? how would we prove that?
i thought of this by first thinking only of the first generator.
or is that just a fact of number theory that i haven't encountered yet
or is it just trivial and i'm dumb lmao
so, i thought like this:
0 4. 4 generates this. 4 = 8/2
0 2 4 6. 2 generated this. 2 =8/4
wait are you thinking multiplicatively again
...i don't think so?
wait cuz they're not disjoint
but they are?
wait but 4 is in both
4 doesn't generate the second
oh we're talking about generators
sorry my brain is fried
i've been on this problem for 2 hours
don't know if that's normal or not
but regardless okay i see your point
mine's less good than it normally is
shieeeet ok
definitely is
okay that's good to know
i come from the realm of computational math
so this is sort of new
honestly better to break up the 2 hours
it'll feel like little time for me, because if i'm stuck and really stuck and don't know what to do and google doesn't help/i don't want to google, then i just come back to it in the morning/checking the mail/waiting in line/something else
can't think anymore even though you did all the thinking lol
ohhh ok fair
if i get somewhere, it may take 2 hours
where every so often i make progress
it may also take 2 hours to understand a single sentence in a textbook
hopefully you enjoy it.
the great thing about it though, is regardless of how long you spend on a problem, once you get it then it becomes trivial 😂
for me, it makes the early algebra stuff less boring, because for me, algebra starts with a bunch of things i personally don't care as much about.
well, it starts with a bunch of stuff i do (like proving grade school algebra properties! proving anything! also groups, so cool and deep!)
ah that makes sense, given the seemingly limitless stream of pedantic and condescending assholes I’ve encountered in this channel LOL
i havnt encountered anyone like that
like instantly after being confused by this problem i feel like it's super obvious
and i’m in here quite a lot now
math is a cycle of going "what the actual fucking fuck fuck this makes no sense and is meaningless and there are a million things required to understand this of which i know -5 truth is fake and reality is an illusion" to "huh, ok, that makes sense, oh my god it makes sense it's the most beautiful thing in the entire universe i'm now religious and pray to this theorem and chant euler's name in cathedrals shaped like platonic solids!" to "Proof: Trivial - go ask a nearby 5-year old."
LOLLL
Proof trivial
from what I’ve seen so far that’s been true
Well regardless thank you so much for your help
It really means a lot!!
why thank you. but it is weird that my late night rambles are called the most helpful
could i get a hint on how to show that a group G of order 2p^n where is an odd prime is not simple?
Do you know Sylow's Theorem?
for a Dihedral group, what does it mean that the rotations "don't reverse order?"
Well do you know the geometric interpretation of D_n? If you draw the polygon and check the vertices in clockwise order, that order will be the same before and after rotation, it just starts at some other point
flip sign of permutation, likely
ok I thought so too
Can someone please give me an intuitive way of understanding what a subgroup is?
a group in a group...?
So for e.g. here
Are they all subgroups?
The notation Cn, Dn, Sn represent the Cyclic, Dihedral, and Symmetric groups respectively
Whats the issue
I am currently interpreting this something like
"if H is a group, it is also a subgroup"
If a subset is a group under the same operation, then its a subgroup
Thank you
The 'closed' is redundant
How so?
Take n vertices equally spaced on a circle.
- The group of permutations is isomorphic to Sn
- The group of reflection and rotations is isomorphic to Dn
- The group of rotations is isomorphic to Cn
Have not gotten to that part yet : )
maybe next part of the lecture
will keep watchign
Its fairly easy to see the set containments, you just need to justify they are groups
im replying to what that screenshot says
equal
'is isomorphic to' essentially means equal
in the sense that 2 groups have the same structure
They are the same except we have relabelled some elements
I see, thank you!
Took me forever to digest
I thought ∅ denotes the empty set?
Does it make sense to write H = ∅?
H is a group and ∅ is a set
it does
its an abuse of notation used everywhere
Where G is a group, in writing G can denote either the group or underlying set depending on context
Besides, you are already using \in set containment symbol for elements 'in' a group
Well it doesn't make sense to write that a group is equal to \varnothing since groups are non empty
I think that's what they meant
Apriori H is not a group
it is a set.
In order for set H to be a group, it must be non empty
Sure. I'm not sure what their issue here is, but you're right about the abuse of notation. But if H is a group it would not make sense to say H=\varnothing not because one's a group and one's a set but because groups are non empty.
'for set H to be a group' <- already, the abuse of notation thinking comes in
Its part of the proof to show H is a group 
I don't know what they're proving
I was responding to this
As youve pointed out, H being non empty is a necessary condition to be a group
I think I missed some context
Well I mean yes, inherently H = phi is always false for group H
"Does it make sense to write H=\varnothing if H is a group...?"
by definition
If it makes 'sense' to write H \neq phi, then it also makes 'sense' to write equality too
Yeah yeah I thought their question was specifically about equating a group with the empty set, not sets in general

What does it mean for a function to "respect" a (group/binary) operation?
We have that f(x * y) = f(x) * f(y)
For all x, y
is that interpretable intuitively
i.e. in the case of group homomorphism from group G to H
whatever action * you had before is the same as whatever action you have after applying the homomorphism f
though im not sure what you mean by intuitively here
this reminds me of how i didn't see commutative diagrams in my group theory class, but the other section had commutative diagrams everywhere lol
You can describe “respecting the group operation” as a commutative square if you really want 
why is the projection map's operation additive
See if you can prove it yourself, it’s not too difficult
if you are unable to, try to write out your thought process and we can go from there
because they want to prove group homomorphism under modular addition?
since after the map, a+b (mod n) = a modn + bmodn
you misuse the notation for modular arithmetic
That's something CS students would write
5 + 8 === 1 (mod 12)
This is how its written (equiv sign)
the mod 12 indicates we consider the equation mod 12
like everything - we're working 'mod 12'
Tubular Cat
this is what the professor wrote
I think she's just trying to show why this projection map is a homomorphism
informally
i think your prof is trying to emphasize that p(k) is in Z/nZ
yes
a, b, a+b these are classes
formally its sometimes written [a] or a with a bar over
to make this explicit
[a] would then mean 'the set of all numbers in the same class as a'
So in Z_12
[13] = {13, 1, 25, -11, 37, ...} = {13 + 12n : n in Z}
Why can't the group operation(s) here be multiplicative?
you mean notation wise?
it can be, itd just be confusing
we're used to denoting addition this way
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
when the group operation is addition you generally stick to + symbol. It would cause confusion down the line in stuff like Rings (they have 2 operations, 'addition' and 'multiplication')
considering the definition for homomorphism that I was given as "a function that maps one group to another, respecting the binary/group operation," why can't the group operation refer to a group multiplication
rather than the addition
used here
There is truly no multiplication or addition
There is one operation
,,\phi(ab) = \phi(a)\phi(b)
we omit the operation and use the above multiplicative notation when it is clear from context
But in the case of specific groups like Z, Z_n, you don't want to do this
Because we are already have usual multiplication as well, and it would be confusing
Its a matter of notation that avoids confusion
===
When you get to rings - they have 2 operations; addition and multiplication.
Their homomorphism satisfies
Z and Z_n is also a ring under the usual addition and multiplication
So it would be confusing to use the multiplication notation for the addition operation within the context of groups
$$\phi (a *{\text{dom}\phi} b) = \phi (a) *{\text{cod}\phi} \phi (b)$$
Eso
Oh and yes, they are different *
in general, in Z mod n, you don't necessarily have inverses when it comes to multiplication
even stronger, you can use any n, as long as you only keep coprime elements
but yeah if you look at 2 in Z_6 for example, 2 * 0 = 0, 2 * 1 = 1, 2 * 2 = 4, 2 * 3 = 0, 2 * 4 = 8 (= 2), and 2 * 5 = 10 (= 4). Hence 2 is not really invertible
well
for e.g. groups of order 4
it means that all groups of order 4 are isomorphic to either C_4 or C_2 x C_2
Every group of order 1 is isomorphic to C1
Every group of order 2 is isomorphic to C2
Every group of order 3 is isomorphic to C3
Every group of order 4 is isomorphic to either C4 or C2 x C2
where Cn is the cyclic group of order n (i think they have been using Z_n notation)
Raph
Any hints?
use tensor and duals
the left side is iso to (CX)^v ⊗ (CY) and the right is iso to (CX) ⊗(CY)
since X is a basis of CX, you can define the isomorphism CX --> (CX)^v sending a basis element to the corresponding dual basis thing
How do I show every k in K stabilizes all elements of G
we know that every element of K stabillizes x
Think about what it means to be in the kernel of the action
use latex
you can just omit * everywhere
let $K \subseteq of G_x$ for some $x \in X$. $K \text{is normal in} G$.
now $\forall k \in K$
$k \cdot x = x$
As $k \in K$, $gkg^{-1} \in K \forall g \in G$
$\implies gkg^{-1} \cdot x = x \implies g \cdot ( k \cdot ( g^{-1} \cdot x)) = x \implies k \cdot (g^{-1} \cdot x) = g^-1 \cdot x$
So, $k \in G_{g^{-1} \cdot x} \forall g \in G$
$\implies K \subseteq G_{g^{-1} \cdot x} \forall g \in G$
Now the action $\cdot$ is transitive, hence $O_x = X \forall x \in X$
hence $g^{-1} \cdot x \in X \forall g \in G$
So, $K \subseteq G_y \forall y \in X$
Hence, any k in K fixes any y in X.
hence, $K \subseteq Ker \Psi$, where $Psi$ is the associated homomorphism of the action $\cdot$.
rikusp2002
is this ok?
You could shorten this considerably by simply recalling that:
Boytjie
ohhhh shit I forgot about that
Try using this fact to shorten your proof
But it should be said that your proof is perfectly good
rikusp2002
$\implies gKg^{-1} \subseteq gG_xg^{-1}$
rikusp2002
rikusp2002
yeah got it
I guess I understand what the set is but is there any better way to think about it?
Yes, in fact this isn't how I'd define it
$\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ has multiplication and addition (defined in the normal way). Some of the elements $[a]$ have multiplicative inverses (elements $[b]$ such that $[a][b]=[1]$). Such elements are called units. If you then go and compute what these are, you'll see the units form that set above (indeed, the U stands for unit)
potato
that makes more sense
So for example U_9 = {[1], [2], [4], [5], [7], [8]} right?
I'm asked to find out the order of each element of a few of these unit sets
I started doing: x = 2 (mod 9) so x^6 = 2^6 = 1 (mod 9) so ord([2]) = 6
but it quickly becomes difficult (and long) to do it that way
what do you think is the intended method?
If R is a local ring with maximal ideal m, how can I prove that a ring homomorphism f:M_n(R) --> M_n(R/m) is surjective on units? I.e. for a unit A in M_n(R/m) there exists a unit A' in M_n(R) such that f(A')=A
I asked in the help channels but no one seems to be able to help with my questions as of recent
Also if a is a unit in a local ring, and b is a non unit, when why is a+b a unit?
I think that is the intended method it’s just there’s an easier way to do it
Instead of doing x^6 and then mod 9 you can mod 9 at each step, so 2*2 = 4 mod 9, 4*2 = 8 mod 9, 8*2 = 7 mod 9, 7*2 = 5 mod 9, and 5*2 = 1 mod 9 - 5 steps so 2*2^5 = 2^6 = 1 mod 9
Not particularly needed for x = 2 but for larger x it’s useful to keep the calculations nice and small
oh wow that sounds so much quicker
each day i learn something new about modular arithmetic
If you want there is a way you can skip right to the orders of everything from just that sequence as well - note how every element of U_9 appeared at some point in that sequence
i dont see how it shows the order of each element
||2 is a generator for U_9|| I may have assumed you knew more about cyclic groups than you do, sorry
alright, thanks a lot
one way is since you showed U_9 has 6 elements you know by Lagrange's theorem the order of an element must divide 6. Good thing is, that means you just need to check if they square or cube to 1 mod 9, since if they don't - then they must be order 6.
I guess cubing anything gets you +1 or -1 so maybe that's just the way to go lol
I don't see why the checking that this defines a ring relies on the ring properties of S. It seems to me that it instead relies on the ring properties of R, no?
alcithoe
We need that S is a ring to ensure that the kernel I is an ideal, which let's us define the quotient structure
Oh so that’s what a fibre is
It's analogous to how normal subgroups are precisely the subgroups that arise as kernels of group homomorphisms
I see that they're about to introduce ideals, so I guess I might understand better if I read on a bit.
Oh yeah, once you read that all will be elucidated
It seems a bit backwards you’re doing quotient rings before ideals
Just to answer your question explicitly at this point, to verify that the multiplication is, say well-defined, we require that if $r_1 + I = r_2 + I$, then $r_1 s + I = r_2 s + I$. To show this, we have $r_1 - r_2 = x$ for some $x \in I$. Then $r_1 s - r_2 s = xs$ which lies in $I$. The last part follows because $\varphi(xs) = \varphi(x) \varphi(s) = 0$ in $S$
So here we are actually using the ring structure of S (alongside the fact that we can only define a ring homomorphism if the codomain is in fact a ring)
walter
is there an easy way to ascertain whether a representation of a group is irreducible from just looking at the properties of the matrix representations of the generators?
for example, if i have a 2-D representation in R2, and i see that the matrices of the generators only have complex eigenvalues, i can ascertain that the representation is irreducible because no vector is going to be sent to its own R-span
Euclidean algorithms is correct in that example ? :
a = 898754 b = -15654 898754 = -15654 x -57 + 6476 -15654 = 6476 x -2 + -2702 6476 = -2702 x -2 + 1072 -2702 = 1072 x -2 + -558 1072 = -558 x -1 + 514 -558 = 514 x -1 + -44 514 = -44 x -11 + 30 -44 = 30 x -1 + -14 30 = -14 x -2 + 2
looks about right to me
i add a new test tell me again ...
a = -156588884
b = -898754
-898754 = -156588884 x 0 + -898754 -156588884 = -898754 x 174 + -205688 -898754 = -205688 x 4 + -76002 -205688 = -76002 x 2 + -53684 -76002 = -53684 x 1 + -22318 -53684 = -22318 x 2 + -9048 -22318 = -9048 x 2 + -4222 -9048 = -4222 x 2 + -604 -4222 = -604 x 6 + -598 -604 = -598 x 1 + -6 -598 = -6 x 99 + -4 -6 = -4 x 1 + -2
-156588884 % -898754 is negative ? Are you sure
a mod by 2 numbers can be negative ?
This should go in #elementary-number-theory
yes sorry
Here's a question:
When we have an ideal that's a subring of a ring of algebraic integers of some number field, can we pick an element of the ideal that doesn't generate it?
This might be a simple q
yeah it's allowed
The reason why I'm asking is because I don't know what happens if r=1 in this proof
nvm I've realised that any such ideal has an integer in it
^
ok my understanding of checking irreducibility in general over C is
lets say you have a representation V of G
if you have the character table of G
then u take the inner product of the characters of V with the character table
to get the multiplicities of each of the irreducible repns in V
and if u get a multiplicity of 1 for one of them
and 0 for all the others
then your representation is irreducible
is this what the point of character theory is?



