#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 63 of 1
that "why tho?" is like 90% of the work 
š”
map is natural as well :hesrightyouknow:
what is the technical definition of well defined agian
i should know this jesus christ
its okay
x = y => f(x) = f(y)
it's like backwards injectivity (which is f(x) = f(y) => x = y)
$\cong G^{op}$
okeyokay
I tried to signal I was memeing by the 3 so trues
like take some structure then this is the structure of all functions from the structure to itself
think vector spaces
and it's not it's the opposite group
and that's the dual space not the opposite category
there's no reason to explain it anyway I said it as a meme 
so why do you need to show that it's well defined?
because it's not a function if it's not well defined
i didnt know why would you say this for this context but turns out ur exactly right lmao
u want to prove its a bijective function
i thought it just suffices to prove injectivity and surjectivity
for a bijection
if it's not a function it can't be a bijection
all bijections are functions, and all functions are well defined
ah i see
so whenever you're constructing a function you want to show it's well defined first right
ye
yeah, it's usually automatic but not when you're dealing with cosets - have to be a bit more careful
huh ok i never did that ig i should just start doing that lol
okay cool
thanks a lot guys!
i have class rn but i'll be working on it later today but you guys helped a shit ton lol
really appreciate it
just to give you an example of a map that isn't well defined, before you go
okay sure
if you consider the map f(gH) = g
and two cosets gH = g'H but with g not equal to g'
then f(gH) isn't equal to f(g'H) but gH = g'H
ohhh okay i see
so it's not well defined
yeah because in my head like i was thinking x = y means that they are the same element
well yeah ig that's the case
but like physically
like as in 5 = 5
or something
but it's different for groups
yeah which is why it's usually automatic
yea man most of the time no 1 does it
cuz most of the time its easy to not think of ill-defined shit
if you're mapping objects that have a choice of representative you need to be careful (g, g' are the representatives here)
yea ^
but details details
cool thanks that really helps my understanding lol
its u have two things are the same but under some equivalence class
and the "function" would undo the equivalence class so they wont bee the same
thats lads example
this is page 2 of the introduction, how far did you even look?
I was trying to search with copying these symbols, but it found all sorts of other stuff also...
lems is brutal
he might have skipped it
happens
never claimed otherwise, but you still have to take the L 
lems is a cruel man
quack
could we rephrase this last paragraph as "two permutations have the same cycle type if and only if they share an orbit through the conjugation action of the permutation group on itself"?
ye
that's neato
yea it is
u can now count shit using orbit stab theorem
once u think of conjugation as the action
cool
oooh. yeah so we could actually count how many permutations of a given cycle type there are using the orbit stab theorem huh? that's super neato
yea prove the original claim
using orbit-stab
no tricks u can d it
do*
two permutations have the same cycle type if and only if they share an orbit through the conjugation action of the permutation group on itself"?
oh didnt read whole msg
u would need to count the elemnts in a conjugacy class
for that u need to actually count them
using the good part of math
combinatorics
Can I get some help finding the conjugacy classes of D8? Im not sure I understand the definition, [a] = {xax' | x in G}, so a is always in its conjugacy class, but how do i determine what other elements are also in the class?
I have the center of D8 in their respective conjugacy classes since they are in their own class by themselves
would it be kinda like, (a^3)(a)(a^3)' = (a^3)(a)(a) = a^5 = a
so then a^3 and a are in the same class
Yes thatās right
Wait no, sorry I misread
If you did xax^{-1} and got a^3 then a^3 would be in [a]
For some x
okay, so whatever i get after doing xax' for some x then goes into [a]?
Yeah youāre just seeing whatās in the set
does x have to be different than a
You can do a lot of the conjugation at once btw, for example a^n will commute with a^m for all n, m
No but think about what happens when x = a
Exactly
so a^2 being in the center, the claim is that x(a^2)x' will always give a^2
which is obvious since a^2 commutes with everyone
how do i know when to stop, like if i check ba(b)' = bab = a^3b^2 = a^3, then i know that [a] = {a, a^3}, is it necessary to check all the other 6 non identity elements in D8 to see what else goes in this set?
or is that an experience thing
or maybe just checking one other element and getting something already in the set is sufficient?
well you know that if ax = xa then you have xax^-1 = a
so all powers of a you can rule out pretty quickly (for conjugating a, you'd still have to check for b)
how would this apply to D8 then, I would not need to check a^3 after i check a^2 to see if its in a's class?
for injectivity would you just suppose phi(gH) = phi(g'H), so Hg^-1 = H'g^-1 so by the left cancellation law we see that H = H'?
and how woudl you denote this bijection
$\phi: gH \mapsto Hg$ for any $g \in G$?
okeyokay
like what is the symbol for the set of all left coset groups ig
im not entirely sure why other than using the hypothesis to cancel out H from both sides sto obtain g = g' but idk if tha tworks
gH = gāH implies that g = gāh for some h in H
oh wait can't you just take the identity in H
so like in particular ge = g'e
so g = g'
would that work
No because thatās absolutely not true and isnāt what I said 
are you being sarcastic
No
I didnāt say you could pick any h you want, Iām telling you there is some h such that g = gāh
how did you get to g = g'h
Sorry youāre right I should be clearer
gH = gāH implies that gā^-1gH = H if and only if gā^-1g is in H, say gā^-1g = h in H, then g = gāh
ah gotchu
oh wait
so then if gH = g'H
then g'hH = g'H
and since h in H
my b
im being stupid
i have no fucking clue how to do this
Hgā^-1 = H(gh)^-1 = Hh^-1g^-1 = Hg^-1
Iām guessing thatās what you were stuck on
What properties does an element of this algebra have?
how did you get to g'^-1 = (gh)^-1?
Boss
Oh ok, just move the apostrophe over w/e same deal
but g' = h^-1g so Hg'^-1 = H(h^-1g) which is not equal to (gh)^-1
Dude you literally just do the exact same thing except you do gH = gāH => H = g^-1gāH instead of gH = gāH => gā^-1gH = H
Iām very concerned that youāre not able to see the symmetry in the proof, weāre literally just swapping gā and g
Donāt mean to be insulting, Iām just saying maybe go back and revise certain things with cosets?
If $M$ is the $R-$module over a PID defined as $M = R/(p^2) \oplus R/(p)$ and $N$ is a submodule of $M$ such that $T(N) \subseteq N$ for any $T$ module automorphism. Is there a classification of $N$ ?
ru0xffian
(If you want an example of a non-abelian group of order p^3, consider the upper triangular matrices over Z/pZ)
heisenberg group my beloved
You can rewrite this as trying to show that conjugation by a commutator is trivial
More specifically, you have a map G -> Inn(G) sending an element to conjugation by that element. You want to show that the image of a commutator is the identity automorphism
But Inn(G) is isomorphic to G/Z(G). Now you can use something about the structure of p groups to reach your conclusion
xyzyx = yxzxy <=> x^-1y^-1xyzyxy^-1x^-1 = z <=> [x,y]z[x,y]^-1 = z
typo central today jesus
yeah nvm somethings not adding up here, walter could u pretty please write out the transformations explicitly
nvm I'm just double skill issuing, it works
I'm making sandwich
my excuse is I don't have my glasses on and discord is blurry 
~~of course you could always cheat and just classify the p-groups of order p^3 and then check this holds in all 5 of them
~~
Can someone link me to a decent reference that describes how to compute determinant using elementary row ops; I can't find any. In particular, can't quite remember which row op might change the det
you can write the elementary row ops as elementary matrices, so matrix A becomes EA let's say. Then you can see if it changes the determinant by seeing det(A)=det(EA)=det(E)det(A) forces det(E)=1
guh lazy 
half dead, why can't i find any online resources which describe this decently
any linear algebra book?
2.2
oof thats hefty. ty
i think mero did a decent job
elementary matrices have dead easy determinants to compute tbh lol
not as dead as me rn
it came up cus i was helping and almost gave wrong info
best introductory linear algebra book imo
when you're alive I expect you to describe what the elementary matrices look like for a,b,c @coral shale
glub glub glub

catching me in a moment of weakness 
can't say it's obvious to me why the last det is 1 other than it's a 'shear'
p-groups have non-trivial center
Right
If G has non-trivial center, then it has order p, p^2, or p^3, right?
Then G/Z(G) has order 1, p, or p^2, hence Inn(G) does as well
Groups of such order are necessarily abelian
Yes
And it follows that the map G -> Inn(G) sends commutators to the identity map
hence conjugation by a commutator is trivial
seems legit enough to me š
The map G -> Inn(G) sends g to \gamma_g, where \gamma_g(x) = gxg^-1
it doesn't really matter
because you can always just consider x^-1
that's why some people write commutators as xyx^-1y^-1 and others write x^-1y^-1xy
But hopefully that proof makes sense to you, it's a fun exercise
sure, I might make another sandwich but i'll respond when I get a chance
walter yellow, nice
I see
Yeah, for a finite group, an equivalent condition is that the order of G is a prime power
Tbh I forgot infinite p-groups are a thing lol
Happy to help 
Yeah, my first intuition when I read the problem was to rewrite the equality as a conjugation thing
Probably just because I've been working with conjugation stuff a lot šµāš«
I'll let you know if I think of another solution, but this is the most straightforward way I can see
mhm
The point is that the map G -> Inn(G) is a group homomorphism, right?
And Inn(G) is abelian
Let's give our map a name, say f
Then for a commutator in G, we have f([x, y]) = f(xyx^-1y^-1) = f(x) f(y) f(x)^-1 f(y)^-1
Since Inn(G) is abelian, we can rearrange the terms and it all cancels out to the identity
The identity element in Inn(G) is the identity automorphism
By definition, f([x, y]) is an automorphism of G which sends z -> [x, y] z [x, y]^-1
But since f([x, y]) is equal to the identity map, this means [x, y] z [x, y]^-1 = id(z) = z for all z in G
Right, so conjugation by a commutator is trivial. In particular this means that [x^-1, y^-1] z [x^-1, y^-1]^-1 = z
[x^-1, y^-1]^-1 = [y^-1, x^-1]
oh wait
did i mess this up lol
is this what you're after walter?
ah ok
yeah it's just tracing back through that
is that the inverse of the commutator? i thought you just switch whatever you're commutating
well no don't guess - I think there is a problem
yeah I messed it up kek
[x, y]^-1 = (xyx^-1y^-1)^-1 = yxy^-1x^-1, which is the thing on the right hand side of the z
so no there isn't a problem
jesus why am I struggling so much with this
but on the left side you wrote [x, y] = x^-1 y^-1 x y
i'm devastated
so what we have is like
[x^-1, y^-1]z[x, y]^-1
that's right
very interesting
ok we can remedy this
can we bound the size of the commutator subgroup/say it's contained in the center?
J/I is just the set {j + I | j \in J} Yeh? J and I ideals
My memory is fuzzy and I don't have my notebook on hand atm
i can't think of anything else it would be
it's definitely a proper subgroup, as p-groups are solvable
right, so the commutator subgroup is abelian
not too useful here I don't think
we also have the abelianization is abelian 
Ok I got it. Recall that Z(G) is non-trivial. If |Z(G)| > p, then G is abelian and the result holds trivially. Otherwise, |Z(G)| = p, so G/Z(G) is abelian. In particular, [G, G] is a subgroup of Z(G), so every commutator is the unique element in its conjugacy class. But [x, y] is conjugate to [x^-1, y^-1] so they must be equal and our earlier solution holds
missed the chance to say "abelian by the 5/8ths theorem" walter, blunder
Prove that a group of order p^2 is abelian
If |Z(G)| = p^2 then G/Z(G) is cyclic. This implies that G is abelian (you should prove this if you haven't before)
actually wait nvm the centre doesn't have the needed density 
It's not difficult but it's a good exercise in understanding quotient
Wait, which part are you confused about?
Personally it makes more sense to me if we rearrange it as
x'y'zyx=y'x'zxy
Then it's exactly a statement about conjugation by any 2.elements commuting
'=^-1
Than to state it in terms of commutators
fair, i just wanted to adapt the earlier proof to work for this situation
Oh wait that makes it so much easier kek
Because we already showed Inn(G) is abelian
Exactly lol
So, I want to show that there is some n where x^5 - x + 1 is irreducible in Zn[x]
how might I go about that
It's not enough to show that it doesn't have any roots, as the degree is greater than 3
I need to somehow account for the case where we factor it as a degree 2 and degree 3 polynomial
mod 3
to prove that x^5-x+1 is irreducible mod 3?
Not really
There are finitely many irreducible polynomials of a given degree in Zn[x], so you can just check all the possibilities
That's a fact I'm not really familiar with
there are finitely many polynomials of a given degree in Z/nZ[x]
I also don't know the irreducible polynomials of degree 3 or 2 in Z3[x] off the top of my head
what I said is not the the best way to do that tho
So you know a quintic, if reducible, it either has roots or factors as a quadratic and a cubic
So first, show it has no roots
Done on the first count
Then, to show it doesn't factor as a quadratic and a cubic, pretend it factors as such, you obtain a system of equations, and hopefully you can derive some relations
If you wanted to do what I said, you just have to check divisibility by quadratics right
There are 9 monic quadratics (including reducible ones) in Z/3Z[x]
And you can easily derive a criterion for irreducibility of quadratics in general
so there are not that many
so you would have to do euclid division a few times if you decided to do that, but at least you see that the problem is 100% doable
this is made a lot easier by the fact that Z3 is a field innit
Because every non-zero element is a unit we can assume it factors as monics
your original polynomial is a monic
You can always assume the factors of a monic polynomial are monic, in a field or not
mmm, I'm not convinced in the case of a non-field
(assume an integral domain at least)
I'd have to play around with it
there's a trick you can do for Z/5Z since if r is a root so is r+k for k in {0,1,2,3,4}
then you can look at factoring it as a product of those roots and look at the coefficients, particularly the sum of roots
This is a way to discover I have no idea how to handle modular systems of equations
in cases like this, just do what you would do with a system of equations over Z or Q, or something like that
but when you see a 5 or something bigger than 5, reduce it
sorry should be 3 if you are doing modulo 3
but you see what Im saying
its not
Suppose $x^5-x+1=(x^2+ax+b)(x^3+cx^2+dx+e)$, multiply everything out. If you have two polynomials that are equal, then the coefficients must be equal
Croqueta
You get relations immediately
I did this in my exam out of desperation then realized there is an easier way. can't recommend 3/10
to elaborate on this, once you have $$x^5-x+1=\prod_{k=0}^4 (x-r-k)$$ then if you were to factor it, then you'd get some polynomial with coefficients on the second highest term as the sum of roots, with coefficient $ar+b$ with a in {1,2,3,4} but since r is not in Z/5Z, you have a contradiction
Merosity
Yeah 5 non-linear equations in 5 variables is not fun
that proves it's irreducible
start with f(x)=x^5-x+1 and show that if r is a root of f, then r+k is a root of f in Z/5Z
Iāll probably set this one aside and work on another problem
My other problem is figuring out the elements of Z2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)
you remove everything that is degree >= 2
-x^2 = x + 1
x^3 = x^2x = -(x + 1)x = -x^2 - x = -(x + 1) - x = -x - 1 - x = -1
wait
I messed up the -
there
Huh???
I guess that makes sense, but how do I prove that for all polynomials
for any monomial x^n with n >= 2 you have x^n = x^(n - 2)*x^2 = -x^(n - 2)(x + 1)
which is degree < n
then by induction everything with degree >= 2 turns into degree < 2
Fair enough
you can actually solve both problems the same way š write them as f(x)=x^p-x+a for a != 0 mod p
So my intuition was right, just not my method
lol who tex'd that
in the example, doesnāt sylows first theorem also give the existence of atleast one subgroup of order 3 and 3^2?
the devil
you should see the handouts my professor gives me lol
some of my profs are latex noobs too, so annoying
it depends on your definition of sylow's first lol
some versions of it only say maximal p subgroup
some say p subgroup of any multiplicity
i think this is any multiplicity
which means there would be atleast one of order 3 and 9
no
it says gcd(whatever) = 1
meaning that the multiplicity is maximal
oh okay i see that, thanks.
though there also exists a stronger statement of this
yeah i can infer that from what you alluded to
something tells me that it does
k >= 0 and p prime before anyone shouts at me

I'm having trouble with this
You can easily show that the right side divides the left, and that both sides have the same degree in each of the coordinates
So res(f,g) is a scalar multiple of the thing in the right
But how to show that that scalar must actually be 1?
Classic resultant of two polynomials
I dont understand what you mean here
Defined*
ah ok, so that
and the fundamental result is res(f,g)=0 if and only if f and g have common factors of positive degree (at least over a UFD)
So
One more problem
I have I = (p, x^2 + 1) as my idea
Ideal
I wanna show that Z[x]/ I is isomorphic to Zp[x]/ (x^2 + [1]p)
I think this is just about choosing the right J and using an isomorphism theorem
Specifically J = pZ[x]?
by [1]p you mean 1 mod p ?
This is just one of the isomorphism theorems, no need to do anything fancy
Z[x]/p is Zp[x], and now you quotient (x^2+1) in Zp[x]
Yep
so you obtain Zp[x]/(x^2+1)
if p = 1 mod 4, then x^2+1 has roots in Z/pZ, and so Zp[x]/(x^2+1)=Zp
Not the exact idea I had in mind
Iām using the one that goes
R/I ā R/J/I/J
Sorry for the notation
Are you saying this? Because its what I said
In mathematics, specifically abstract algebra, the isomorphism theorems (also known as Noether's isomorphism theorems) are theorems that describe the relationship between quotients, homomorphisms, and subobjects. Versions of the theorems exist for groups, rings, vector spaces, modules, Lie algebras, and various other algebraic structures. In u...
Essentially, the point is that the order in which you kill stuff doesn't matter
Ok so I think the point is that the monomial ((-1)^nx1...xn)^m is the product of the diagonal, and that's the only place it appears. Since the coefficient is one, and it also appears in the right hand side, the coefficient must also be one

i think i' should be the map taking x to (i(x),0) but i cannot figure out a map pi' which makes this SES work
i dont think projecting onto N works for pi' since we need the kernel of pi' to be im(i) x 0
(I think that does work)
yea
ig im not seeing why?
it feels like the kernel of pi' would be larger than the image of i'
Well the trick is to prove that thatās not the case :P
(btw are you cat minded?
)
Ok i gotta go, det you can take it from here
kernels in a pull-back square are isomorphic :3
and since you're pulling-back an epimorphism, it stays an epimorphism
which is how most people think about your question :p
but yee, we'll do it with elements now
can you write down your thoughts so we see where it goes weird?
yea, so if i take y = (i(x),0), then projecting gets me to 0 so we're in the kernel of pi'
yee
thank you det : )

(btw you also need to verify a few more things)
like why pi' is surjective
but i'm sure you can do that
and also that i' in injective
Question
P2 = {empty set, {x}, {y}, {x, y}}
are Z4 and P2 isomorphic? I think not, but I'm not sure how to show it.
I showed an additive counterexample:
f(2) = f(1+1) = f(1) + f(1) = {x} + {x}, which isn't even in P2
Therefore f isn't bijective, so Z4 and P2 cannot be isomorphic
Right?
how do you define adding two sets?
I'm not sure ={
only reasonable operation is the symmetric difference
but then it's iso to Z/2ZāZ/2Z
see the exercise C on how you define the operation
A + B = (A-B) U (B-A)
try proving this
f(2) = f(1+1)=f(1)+f(1)={x}+{x} = empty set
= f(0)
therefore f is not bijective
so Z4 is not isomorphic to P2
š
?
yep
awesome š
now we proving things are NOT isomorphic
is additive operation
always a good one to try?
just one thing
yes
you don't know f(1) = {x}
i don't?
if you wanna do this argument, you'll have to say this generally
but since A Delta A = empty
it follows
f(2) = f(1+1) = (f(1) \ f(1)) u (f(1) \ f(1)) = empty
\ is the set minus
f(1) = A can be anything
it has 4 options right
why did you directly assume it was {x}
well now im confused because
f(2) could be empty right?
so what does that show
@rustic crown
okie so how much group theory do you know?
if you just know the definitions, then the way you're is the nicest way
but you should elaborate why you know stuff
we know the definitions
and don't need to elaborate much from here
but okay, we showed (f2) = empty
yep
but you're saying that could be valid?
and teh same logic shows that f(0) is also empty
like what if f(2) actually maps to empty
f(2) = f(1 + 1) = f(1) Ī f(1) = {}
f(0) = f(0 + 0) = f(0) Ī f(0) = {}
so such a homomorphism f can never be injective
ah yes brilliant š
now @rustic crown
for Z4 and V
they seem pretty isomorphic upon first inspection lol
HOWEVER
proving isomorphism seems hard
any tips for this?
cause thus far we've just been finding counterexamples
define an explicit map
Z/4Z --> V
and use properties of exponents to argue this is a homomorphism
this would be nice and bijective
so will be an iso :3
can u elaborate on this?
try thinking about the function
we don't let about homomorphims until chapter 14
we're on chapter 9 my good brother ā¤ļø
here we go!
but first you need to come up with a nice function
if f satisfies the identity 3, it's called a homomorphism
ahhh gotcha
okay
alright
time to first make an educated guess
let's use the additive operation
does that sound good?
@rustic crown
hey it's all good
@rustic crown also can i just say that
any two groups
of a fixed order
than are also cylic
are isomorphic?
yep
i mean that alr works
if G,H are cyclic
and have the same order
they are isomorphic lol
V denotes the group of the four complex numbers {i, āi, 1, ā1} with respect to multiplication.
Z4 = {1, 2, 3, 4}
Z4 is obviously cyclic
Though I must show that V is too
Any ideas?
what does it mean for a group to be cyclic? start from the definition and see if any aspects of your set satisfy that definition
Considering it's a small set, you could kind of get away by just computing the order of each element if you can't just see which one generates the group
computing the order of each element u say
Each element of V
okay guys
this is all new to me
so im taking everything your saying into account
- every group of order four is isomorphic to Z4 or Z2 Ć Z2 = V4.
OOPS
yee
so we have this right
so i just need to prove that
V is cyclic
and that the order of some element of G
is some finite number
correct?
Note that g here is specifically the generator of G, so it's not just some arbitrary element of G
gotcha okay
well V = {i, -i, 1, -1} w/ respect to multiplication
and I want to show that it's cyclic, aka generated by a single element g
but im not sure how to show that
So V has 4 elements and we want to show that one of them actually generates the entire group
Ok so recall that $\langle g \rangle = {g^n : n \in \mathbb{Z}}$
Tubular Cat
is it true that if H is a subgroup of a finite group G, and the cardinality of H equals the cardinality of G, then H = G?
i don't see how it couldn't be the case, but i can't prove it
Forget groups, thatās true for subsets of finite sets too
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
Iām guessing g has order 8
^
So you have V is cyclic and a generator of order 4, so you can apply your theorem to conclude
Or 4, or 2!! But probably 8
What is an intuitive understanding of the "order" of an element of a group?
srry, this is all very new to me
g in G has order n if n is the minimal positive integer such that g^n = 1
very intuitive
the number of times you need to operate the element with itself to get the identity
now, how does the generator have order 4
Has order n if g^n = 1 and there isnāt a m < n where g^m = 1
here's our definition of generator my good brother
Alternatively itās the size of <g>
here g is i, no?
You should have been able to see that i^2= -1, i^3=-i, and i^4=1
I just finished single var calc
I'm used to having 2d and 3d graphs for intuition
: )
but i^0 = 1
Yes hence minimum positive integer
i^4=1ā¦
Quite literally in the definition that itās the smallest number
āLeast positive integerā
0 is the smallest number
i^0 = 1
right?
0 is not positive
Rip -1
xd
And rip 1 in the wrong way ordering
No youāre just new itās fine
We were all in your position at some point
bless ā¤ļø
now i gotta check if Z2 x Z2 is isomorphic to P2
P2 = {empty set, {x}, {y}, {x, y}}
true
well
to show that Z4 and P2 are NOT isomorphic, we used the symmetric difference operation as an example
I guess the most intuitive way you can think about this (which only really works for cyclic groups) is say ord(g) = n, then each time you multiply g to itself you (start at some point 1 and) move some angle the way around a circle and n is the smallest number of iterations to return to where you began
so perhaps i should go the same route?
though that is all the instruction that the problem has
what should i do about that?
See chapter 3 exercise C 
all it says is the symmetric difference
like with set addition
A+B = (A-B) U (B-A)
Ah ok yes that makes sense
Lemme think
yup, see if you can figure out why theyāre not isomorphic though
Thereās a property (relating to the order of elements!) that Z4 does have but P2 doesnāt
something to do with being abelian or cyclic?
*note that isomorphisms preserve the order of elements
This
okay
let me try to find the orders
of each of them
but that's only if
the groups are cyclic
so i first gotta show that is what you're alluding to?
You can talk about order of elements even if the group is not cyclic
This might also be a good exercise
bet okay
we're talking
Z2 x Z2
and P2 rn
@summer path and @delicate orchid
Yes itās Z2xZ2
Because every element in P2 (that isnāt the identity) is order 2, but thereās an element in Z4 with order 4, so they canāt be isomorphic!
by Z4 do u mean Z2 x Z2?
no
No I mean Z4
oh
I was referring back to this
these are not isomorphic
correct i agree
I thought you were trying to show it wasnt isomorphic to Z4 as opposed to showing it was isomorphic to Z2xZ2, apologises
oh I got confused too my bad
oooo well wait
(in fact any group of order 4 is isomorphic to Z2 x Z2 or Z/4Z)
p2 iso Z4
Z4 not iso z2 x z2
ah nvm
i am trying to show that
z2 x z2 and P2
are not isomorphic
But they are isomorphic
oh shoot
okay im sorry
so what's the best way of showing that they are indeed isomorphic
there just seem like so many options
this is crazy
This is a good exercise, also G_1 iso to G_2 <=> G_2 iso to G_1
it seems to me that you are having a hard tiem keeping track of which ones are/aren't isomorphic: it might help to write down the 4 groups in considering in a kind of rectangle shape and draw arrows between them to indicate whether you have shown they are/aren't isomorphic, just as way to keep track of what you have done/need to do
Construct an isomorphism between them, at your stage thatās basically the only way
So find a bijection f from P2 to Z2xZ2 (or the other way around if you prefer) such that f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
It might be useful to write out the Cayley tables of both the groups (if you know what a Cayley table is
, donāt worry if you donāt)
damn this is tough
i remember writing out an 8x8 Cayley table before, it was not a fun time 
Iām guessing D_8?
If itās Q_8 I will cry
okay
with z2 x z2 and P2
any tips?
which set should I make the domain?
which operation should I try?
just seems like a black box to the boy rn
What do the elements of Z2xZ2 look like
You may see the connection now?
P2 = {{}, {x}, {y}, {x,y}}
So whatās your idea for the map between them?
i want the simplest little thing like
last time with P2 we used symmetric difference
which works well with the sets
and since these look so similar
maybe try that
and also since they're so similar
The actions on the sets are fixed we canāt change that
If we change the action we might get a different group
Like Iām literally just talking about a function, f(a,b) = something in P2
I donāt think youāre really understanding
so Iāll help you out a little
f(0, 1) = {x}
Functions can only have one output
right
thatās automatic
I literally just did
so
but u said find a bijection
like do i literally just write
try and figure out what f(1,0) should be
f(0, 0) = empty set, f(1, 0) = {x}, etc.
Yes! f(0,0) has to be the empty set as the identity has to be mapped to the identity by a group homomorphism
so thatās 2 out of 4
It should be easy to see this is surjective and injective
So now we just need to check that f(ab) = f(a)f(b) for all a, b in Z2xZ2
Ah youāve already started
lol
do we need to check each case?
that seems a little redundant right
also we didn't define an operation
i just said *
isn't that too ambiguous
cause a function needs an operation, no?
We did define an operation on both groups, standard multiplication in Z2xZ2 and symmetric difference in P2
so now i j check all the cases?
righttttttttttt
Yeah so for example
f(0, 1)+f(1, 0) = {x}+{y} = {x, y} = f(1, 1) = f((0,1)+(1, 0))
gotcha okay š
Good luck 
yay did it
thank you š
now Z2 x Z2 and V
i should just go about it same way yeah?
tho
these dont seem isomorphic!
or i could do
P2 and V
im tryna get to where i have enough isomorphisms to start making the connections u know
I thought youād already shown Z4 was iso to V
yes
And Z2xZ2 isnāt iso to Z4⦠so
Yup
cause if Z2xZ2 was iso to V, since V is iso to Z4, that would imply that Z2xZ2 is iso to Z4 - a contradiction!
iāll wait
No worries, Iām going to bed now cause itās 2:30am 
oh trust me you wanna do more math until 3
anyways, if iām applying sylows theorem on a group of order 100, we have 2^2 * 5^2 for the prime factorization, and so there exist atleast one subgroup of order 2^2, and 5^2.
but then the p-subgroups are denoted n_p, and so we would denote them by n_2 and n_5
even though the existence of atleast one subgroups are of order 4 and 25? i guess because those arenāt prime so we denote it by the prime that gives us these orders?
gotcha, thanks
dream about some algebra for me
also, is the only way to show a group of order n is not simple by sylows theorem, to produce exactly one p-subgroup?
You can also find some nontrivial normal subgroup
how would i go about that?
"term induction"? i have not heard of that and can't find a source on google. if your statement is about general sets and elements and functions, it looks false, but it sounds like you do mean something else
ahh, thank you
say that i'm trying to prove that a finite cyclic group of order n has exactly one subgroup of each order d dividing n. would this be sufficient?
Let X and Y be subgroups of a finite cyclic group G with the same order d that divides n. Since X and Y are cyclic, they each have generators, say x in X and y in Y. Then x^d = e = y^d, so x = y and hence X and Y are the same subgroup
well, the meat of the statement is not uniqueness. its existence
no
why not
Then x^d = e = y^d, so x = y
this just doesn't follow
and for existence can't we just take the trivial subgroup {e} which has order 1 which clearly divides n
why not
wait no that's not right
for example, in the klein four group (Z/2 x Z/2), there is x != y such that x^2 = y^2 = e
oh ok
yeah, that only proves the d=1 case
as a hint, you'll want to make sure you are actually using cyclic-ness
so like for example, would i have to prove in the case of n = 10 that a finite cyclic group of order 10 has exactly one subgroup of each order d dividing 10
so like there's only one subgroup of order 1, one subgroup of order 2, and the same for 5 and 10
yes
ok
would induction be useful here or nah
nah
aighty
wait how would you even prove existence other than subgroups of order 1 and n lmfao
because n has to be positive
oh wait
maybe it has to do something with n being prime
and maybe i could make use of the fact that every group of prime order is cyclic or smt
idfk
like for example, {0, 2, 4, 6, 8} \subset Z/10 is a subgroup of order 5
{0, 5} \subset Z/10 is a subgroup of order 2
so since i proved d = 1 and d = n
could i just let 1 < d < n
and then try to prove it for that
ye i see that
i'm too stupid to see the pattern though let me think on it
oh could we just say that it's isomorphic to Zn since it's a finite cyclic group
and then use properties that we know about Zn
if that helps you then sure
more precisely that if G is a cyclic group with n elements generated by a, and b in G and b = a^s, then b generates a cyclic subgroup of H containing n/d elements
from which existence immediately follows
what is s?
huh. i don't see where s is coming from though. you are given d dividing n. you want to find an element of G that generates a subgroup of order d
idk i just wrote down the theorem
isn't it just saying that b can be expressed as some integer power of the generator
which makes sense since a generates the group
wait i thought we had to prove the existence of a subgroup of order d dividing n
yeah, that's what you need to do. to do that it suffices to find an element which generates a subgroup of order d dividing n
it's universal algebra stuff
(i see that now)
(and is why i confirmed that i didn't know what i was talking about before not answering)
well by the theorem we know that there is a cyclic subgroup H that has order n/d
and clearly n/d divides n
here let me copy and paste the theorem
hi toucan 
yea, so this is telling you the order of a subgroup generated by a^s where G = <a>
so you can think of your problem as finding the right s
nice, and np
@thorn delta check ya DM my boy
if x is an element in a field of characteristic p such that x^{p^k} = 1 for some k >=1, is x = 1?
hm well that fact makes it obvious
Yeah
but how does one prove that fact
Prove it just for p
say, knowing that (x-1)^p = x^p - 1
inductively, assume that x^{p^k} - 1 = (x - 1)^{p^k}
S3 is just a symmetric group of 6 elements right?
Write down noncommutjng elements
does that proof work outside of Z/pZ?
works on F_p²
Are u asking me or pdk
anybody
Yes it works
maybe I'm misunderstanding the idea in mind
i just verified it yeah
I mean in char p
Frobenius is additive
Then if (x-1)^{p^k} = 0 cuz field
This says x -1 = 0
So x = 1
ok I see, I misunderstood what you meant by induction earlier
for other char, the poly becomes separable
I meant induct to show that you can do p^k
For showing this breaks across sums
Like u want
I have this matrix which is an element of SO(4)
So when I take the logarithm, I should expect to get a traceless skew-symmetric matrix (it's Lie algebra) right?
But when I compute it I get this
Which does not seem to be correct because the diagonal should be all zeros
Those numbers are all pi/2, right?
Yes i*pi/2
I diagonalize the first matrix (call it U). So U = PDP^-1
Then I take the logarithm of D
Since U is unitary, the diagonal is just e^itheta
So taking the diagonal gives diag{i * theta_1, ..., i * theta_n}
And then log(U) is just P diag{i * theta_1, ..., i * theta_n} P^-1
Hmm, guessing wildly here, but if you use piĀ·i as the logarithm of one of the -1 eigenvalues and -piĀ·i for the other, it feels like you ought to at least get "traceless" back after the dust settles.
I think traceless is implied because you expect your matrix to have zero along the diagonal
It would be skew-Hermitian and traceless though.
Well U is actually SO(n) so you can get a smaller subgroup than skew Hermitian
Which puts it in $\mathfrak{su}(4)$ rather than $\mathfrak{so}(4)$.
Troposphere
Why canāt it be in so(4) again?
I'll admit I'm not exactly sure.
My guess: You have a 2-dimensional eigenspace with eigenvalue -1. You can change the basis for that space without ruining the diagonalization before you take the two different logarithms of the -1s, and I suspect that if you choose that basis just right, you might be lucky enough to get a purely real logarithm out of it -- which would then be in so(4).
Hmm Iāll see what I can do
Something like using ½(i,i,-i,-i) and ½(i,-i,i,-i) as the eigenvectors for -1 might work. (No, that won't do.)
What is your definition of "Z6"? And of "order"?
Yeah, but this is very much a "follow the definitions" problem, so Circle has to actually look at the definitions in his book.
Ah I see youāre trying to motivate the answer
im a bit confused by the conclusion of the comment here
why can we conclude that the representation has a fixed point?
I'm guessing since an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1 is unchanged
can somebody help me understand why if there was a generator of Z_3 x Z_3 that generator added to itself successively could only give the identity after nine summands?
im a bit confused because i suppose i'm trying to supply a generator of Z_3 x Z_3 to see this but if there's no generator idk how i can see it in my head
By definition, if a group G is cyclic then there exists some element g in G such that if we repeatedly add g to itself, we eventually get every element in the group, right?


