#groups-rings-fields
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Let K/F be an extension and α1, α2 be algebraic over F in K with minimal polynomials over F f_1, f_2 respectively such that
(I) f_1 splits over K
(ii) for every zero α_1' of f_1 in K, the minimal polynomial of α_2 over F(α_1') splits over K
Does f_2 necessarily split over K?
oop
Yes
So what are you trying to prove?
That it's cyclic?
yeah i didnt finish bc i didnt wanna interrupt lol
but we need to find some element of that form that generates cR/aR then
in other words some b, such that br = cr + aR right?
ohh wait
we know that since c | a, cb = a
so can we write cr+aR as cr + cbR
idk how useful that might be tho lol
You want a b in cR/aR st every element of cr + aR of cR/aR, is br' for some r'
or if you'll allow a slightly different notation, $\bar{cr} = b r$, where $x \mapsto \bar{x}$ is the quotient map from $cR$ to $cR/aR$
which is an R-module homomorphism
Raghuram
is the kernel of that map useful 
Later, perhaps
Right now you're trying to prove cR/aR is cyclic, so you need to find the b to use as a generator
i suspect a/c but cant prove it 
It is not
OK, another way of saying a module is cyclic is that it's generated by a single element
Also, if f:A -> B is a module homomorphism, then if S is a generating set for A, then f(S) is a generating set for f(A)
And the quotient map from cR to cR/aR is a surjective R-module homomorphism
so if c generates cR
f(c) will generate cR/aR
so it's really a question of defining that homomorphism
Almost. f(c) generates f(cR), and if f is surjective from cR to cR/aR then f(cR) = cR/aR
Cool
One idea (which is in fact how I came up with the problem) is that K “has enough roots” that there are “as many as possible” F-homomorphisms from F(α_1, α_2) to K.
Specifically, in general there are at most sepdeg(f_1) F-homs from F(α_1) to an extension of F, with equality iff f_1 splits; and then for any such F-hom φ, there are at most sepdeg(min poly of α_2 over F(α_1)) extensions to F(α_1, α_2) with equality iff φ(the min poly) splits.
So there are at most sepdeg(f_1)*sepdeg(min poly of α_2 over F(α_1)) F-homs of F(α_1, α_2) into a field extension of F, with equality iff conditions (i) and (ii) hold.
In particular, we can do the same thing with α_2 first, and get that the number of F-homs is something iff f_2 splits and something else, which would force f_2 to split.
But to do that I need to show that sepdeg(f_1) sepdeg(min poly of α_2 over F(α_1)) remains the same when we interchange α_1, α_2, ie that the separable degree is well-defined for a finite extension.
(I'm trying to use this to prove that separability is transitive, set of separable elements forms an intermediate subfielde etc. so I can't just use those here.)
It would also be nice if it turned out that for any conjugate γ of α_2 in an appropriate field extension (probably the normal closure of F(α_1, α_2)), there is an automorphism sending α_2 to γ and fixing at least one of the conjugates β of α_1. Then α_2, γ would be algebraically indistinguishable over F(β), hence forcing γ to be in K because minimal polynomial of α_2 over F(β) splits.
sorry i cant really comment on wht you're working on 
but i took a quick break, am back and i think this defines the homomorphism!
c maps to c(r + b)?
though im not sure sure how that would work, b is fixed but i dont think r is
You don't know what b (a generator of cR/aR) is, though
The point of doing it this way and constructing a surjective homomorphism from cR to cR/aR was to avoid going looking for it, and instead get it automatically as f(c)
There's a much more obvious surjective homomorphism – the quotient map.
To the coset cr + aR, yes
and then this generates cR/aR right
i was way overcomplicating this
sorry if im being a bit slow too, i appreciate the patience 
rather, any element in that coset/equivalence class generats cR/aR
Yes. That is, f(c) generates f(cR), where f is defined by f(cr) = cr + aR (which we know is a surjective module hom from theory about quotients of modules); and since f is surjective, f(cR) is the full codomain cR/aR, so f(c) generates cR/aR; and f(c) = c + aR.
So c + aR generates cR/aR.
No, the coset itself is an element of cR/aR, which generates it.
Although IMO, you shouldn't think of the elements of a quotient of an algebraic structure as sets
(even if they technically are in the usual construction of the quotient)
yeah equivalence classes are themselves elements
grappled with that a while ago thankfully
that I is probably the annihilator
One of the easiest ways to show X/Y \iso Z is to find a surjective homomorphism from X to Z whose kernel is Y
yeah kernel of that surjective homomorphism comes in handy now right
Here, both sides are quotients, so you could try either way:
(i) find a homomorphism from cR to R/I with kernel aR
(ii) find a homomorphism from R to cR/aR with kernel I
But since I has been left unspecified, the second way is easier, because you can just define I to be the kernel and skip having to prove that
Yep, in a way the point of quotients is being able to use First Isomorphism Theorem with them
(and if you do need to know I, you can compute it as the kernel of the homomorphism instead of having to guess)
i have this proof from before too
Well, then you're done since you already showed cR/aR is cyclic 

In the last paragraph, {r | rm = 0} is Ann_R(m) by definition, right? Not Ann_R(M)
Oh, R is a commutative ring so they're equal (though not by definition)
my only concern then is that the divisibility thing never came into play
You need the divisibility condition for aR to be a subset of cR
Got it—we can pick a big field extension (where all the minimal polynomials over F split) so that all the conditions hold whichever order you take, so all the expressions are equal (to the number of homomomsrphisms into this big field). Then we can use the equality.
Can someone proof this lemma, or make an example, because I didn't get it
why do we say that a free module is "on" a set X
When you have to count the size of a subset of AxB you can sort the elements horizontally and sum for each row the number of elements in the row or you can sort vertically and sum for each column the number of elements in the column
Are you asking why we use "on" instead of another conjunction
So I wanted to show that the map defined by $(x \colon y) \mapsto (x^3 \colon xy^2-x^3 \colon y^3-x^2y)$ only has one point in the image with two distinct preimages.
So suppose that $(x^3, xy^2-x^3, y^3-x^2y)=\lambda(z^3, zw^2-z^3, w^3-z^2w)$. From the first equation, it follows that $x=\varepsilon \lambda^{1/3}z$ where $\varepsilon^3=1$. With this and the second equation, it follows that $y=\pm \lambda^{1/3}\varepsilon w$, and substituting both expressions into the last equation, we obtain
[
\pm(w^3-z^2w)=w^3-z^2w
]
kinda?
like what's the point of the set X i guess
If the sign in the last expression is positive, then that relation is trivial
Is like a basis for a vector space
idk how to show that, unless I missed something
i understand that a free module is one that admits a basis
Croqueta
And more generally, free objects on a set
this is the defn im given
Is saying you build the object as freely as possible from that set
is X just an index set?
Yes
Yes
otherwise it wouldnt have a basis(?)
It maybe would
But that would be too big
You want your free object on X to be generated by X
Ah infinite product instead of an infinite direct sum would have some elements not generated by X
ok got it 
And in your definition
You get a canonical inclusion
Of X into R^X
So you can abuse language and talk about X as a subset of R^X
map each element to the basis element at each index?
Map each element to the sequence that is 0 everywhere except on that element where it is 1
(okie one tiny thing... this is non-standard notation >.< most people would use R^{⊕X} or R^{(X)} for this. And R^X would be the product without requiring finite support)
Ah yeah I didn't notice they use the same notation as the infinite product
That's awkward lol
i have this thm
why is that second part necessary
doesnt the basis already necessarily span?
so "adding" basis elements shouldnt matter
we already have a spanning set
It's only given to contain the first n-m elements of the existing basis.
w_1, …, w_m has been added after removing v_{n-m+1}, …, v_n.
How advanced is the Riemann Roch theorem? What is the background?
this is a bad start isnt it
can i literally just say "if any r_i is not = 0, it is clear that the triple will have a nonzero index and therefore not be equal to (0,0,0)"
also idk why i wrote x_i

What does it mean for a projection to be minimal? In particular, what does it mean if i say x is a minimal projection on a finite dimensional matrix algebra?
if x - p is a positive operator for any non zero projection p then x = p
are these 2 examples the same? I am thinking that invertible linear maps on itself is the automorhpisms on the category of Vect (P.S. i dont know category theory that much)
det 
the category would be Vect(k) and yep, the first is a special case of the second :3
aight lets go
Express the projective plane curve V(x^2z-xy^2+xz^2-2xyz-x^2z-2yz^2) with respect to the reference system {(1 : 1 : -1), (1 : 0 : -2), (1 : 0 : 0), (0 : 1 : 0)} What does this mean?
projective plane smells of alg topology
projective plane smells projective stuff
i just learned what Riemann Roch is, so don't have a good intuition with it... but the proof wasn't so hard given enough time. once you have developed sheaf cohomology, defined line bundles, kahler differentials and computed cohomology of projective space, it should be pretty accessible.
what's S
a letter



it's just checking two sets are the basis
of Q^3
and that that matrix at the bottom is the change of basis matrix
the last part is the only one im uncertain about
there is still something to be done
the argument you give doesn't work over Z
so what you have used is that if the dimension is 3, a linearly independent set of size 3 is automatically a spanning set
the linear independence check looks correct
dimension is used only over fields
rank for more general rings
if the ring is commutative that is
all rings are commutative
because R^{⊕X} = R^{⊕Y} would imply |X| = |Y|
over Z, you're not sure if any element of Z^3 can be written as a Z-linear combination of g1, g2, g3. you know it can be always written as a Q-linear combi from vector space theory
like simplest example would be consider the Z-module Z
and g = 2 gives you a linearly independent set of size 1
but it doesn't span
over Q everything works like you expect
but if it's a basis in Q3
consisting of integers
maybe im thinking too simply about it idk
is the matrix at the bottom right tho
yeah i kinda just multiplied shit together lol
why is the zero ring not an integral domain
because it is not
why
gamma is homomorphism $Hom_R(R^m, R^n) \to Mat_{m \times n}(R)$
why do you want it to be lmao
sebbb
so that the ring itself is a prime ideal
but you want to be able to take field of fractions of integral domains
it feels stupid to me that the extension of an ideal in Z to Q is not prime
well because Q hardly has any ideals
det what am i missing 
is it not a basis of Z?
i do not understand this diagram
lang
like okay? what does it mean
how do you define the change of basis matrix?
yes
sage: A, det(A)
(
[3 1 0]
[1 3 1]
[1 1 1], 6
)
sage: B, det(B)
(
[1 0 1]
[2 1 0]
[0 2 1], 5
)
he has a book on every topic under the sun it seems
doesn't look like bases to me.
hahaha det typing "det"

this is the previous part
if they were basis, it would have had det +-1
but idk how this diagram depicts what is written here where did the isomorhpisms come from
I had this exact same question a few years ago trying to read lang. I don’t think it’s anything deep. Just an occasionally useful shift in perspective
but i do not understand the shift at all
Maybe someone else has more wisdom on the matter tho
it's saying that if 0 -> G' -> G -> G'' -> 0 is exact then G' is isomorphic to ker g and G'' to G/ker g = G/im f (= coker f)
the map f : G' -> G in the sequence gives an isomrophism G' -> ker g by restricting the image
coker?
if A and B are these matrices, then we want B^(-1)A right?
sorry, cokernel is another thing
how in the hell is G' iso ker g
the exactness says that ker f = im (the map from 0 to G') = 0 and im f = ker g
so f is injective
and its image is ker g
so if you define f' : G' -> ker g by f'(x) = f(x)
then f' is an isomorphism
also, by "shift in perspective" i mean for example that most reasonable statements about one converts to equivalent statements about the other exact sequence
by 0 you mean {e} in grp?
yeah, in an exact sequence, a 0 means the trivial group
there is only one possible group morphism from 0 into G, and also from G into 0
so those maps are also called 0
and when we say im f = 0 or ker g = 0
we mean they are {e}
aahhh its starting to make some sense
oops i think i misunderstood when you asked
like okay? what does it mean
to get an isomorphism from G'' to G/ker g, for a given x in G'', g is surjective so you pick y in G with g(y) =x, then you map x to the projection of y modulo ker g
i was responding to the book
yea, but by "what does it mean" i thought you were asking why we care more philosophically speaking
or rather you just map x to g-1({x}) since that's an element of G/ker g
technically
so any short exact sequence 0 -> G' -> G -> G'' -> 0 is "isomorphic" to a short exact sequence 0 -> H -> G -> G/H -> 0
ah so for any exact sequence 0 -> G' -f> G -g> G'' -> 0 it is the same (isomorphically) as 0 -> ker f -> G -> G/ker f -> 0
yeah
yeah i was writing that
we wrote the same thing at the same time lol
det gave you background for the big huge complicated Riemman–Roch theorem. The basic version (that Riemann and Roch actually proved) doesn't have much background. If you know what a plane projective curve and a riemann surface is, you're halfway there. Kirwan's book covers everything.
you mean that I should ask in #algebraic-geometry next time or that I should be aware that its alg geo (because I know its alg geo, but I usually ask here so I just asked here lul)
The people who hang around there are just more likely to be able to answer
👍
oh there are multiple riemann rochs?
and also something something this channel is overburdened something something
well one is a generalisation of the other
But the original formulation didn't use sheaves, for example

quick question, i'm trying to show that $f$ is a homomorphism
Assume $G = (\mathbb{Z}, +)$ and $H = (\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}, +)$.
I define my Homomorphism $f: G \to H; 3n+x \mapsto x$ where $x \in {0,1,2}$
Now i can easily show that $0_G = 3 \cdot 0 + 0 \Rightarrow f(0_G) = 0_H$
But how would I go to show that $f(x +_G y) = f(x) +_H f(y)$
Or perhaps I should say they didn't realise it used sheaves
We cannot answer this question without more information, achilles
Like Gauss and Euler didn't realize their work was really an aplication of ZFC.
What you've written didn't make sense
defining f : Z -> Z by 3n + x goes to x? This is not well-defined.
Right, so this is in fact a quotient Z/3Z not the set exclusion Z\3Z
yes i wanted to shorten 3n+0 -> 0, 3n+1->1, 3n+2->2
yes it was updated to include the quotient
sorry I meant Z/3z
achilles199703
So you are defining Z/3Z to be simply the set {0, 1, 2}
instead of the usual definition of a quotient group?
i am actually not sure on the notation but i thought using 0,1,2 is acceptable as they are representatives
Do you know what a quotient group is or is this just notation you've been told?
I just need a yes or no answer here
hmm, i'd say yes
OK
So your map is actually sending x to x + 3Z
after which the proof is trivial: f(x + y) = (x + y) + 3Z = (x + 3Z) + (y + 3Z), both equalities being by definition
the qutient group Z/3Z = {3n+0, 3n+1, 3n+2}
oh, yeah that makes sense
i knew i was making a stupid mistake thank you
Notice how choosing representatives made this more complicated!
@hidden haven any particular meaning to that emoji I should know?
Expecting a yes or no answer to an X or Y question 
Lol, good point
Born a logician 😌
what's an example of an ideal whose image under some ring homomorphism (from one ring to a different one) is also an ideal
0
The whole ring, and the identity
If ring homomorphism is surjective this is true for any ideal
the identity homomorphism 
from one ring to a different one
if it's not surjective it may not be closed under multiplication by scalars
Give it a different name, must be different 

But fr
If I have a *-isomorphism f : M_n -> M_n that maps x to yxy^{-1} (i.e., the conjugate given by y in GL_n). Is it true that y* = y^{-1}? (so is it true that y in U_n as well?)
apply any automorphism
$f: G \to H \quad x \mapsto \begin{cases}[0] &\text{if}x=3n\ [1] &\text{if}x=3n+1\ [2] &\text{else}\\end{cases}$
cases
Can you tell me what a *-isomorphism is?
bijective *-homomorphism
achilles199703
So if I would want to use representatives it would be better to do it like this, or am i wrong
and what is a *-homomorphism?
the extension of nZ from Z to Z[i] is nZ[i]?
a ring homomorphism, is linear, and has the property that f(y*)=f(y)* for all y
i am not familiar with this notation, what does Z[i] represent
And what does that notation * mean
gaussian integers
is that conjugate transpose?
equivalently Z[x]/(x^2 + 1)
it's an involution. since it's in a matrix algebra M_n, i guess you could take it to mean conjugate transpose
ok but i use [0] as represantative for the class 3Z+0
oh sorry my bad
In the sense of "the smallest ideal of Z[i] that contains nZ"? If so, yes.
it's the ideal generated by the image of nZ (which is just nZ)
so yeah
ok thanks
Does anyone know what's going on with that Z_2 part of the automorphism group of A_6? I'm trying to get an intuition for how it got there
How do you compute discriminants of polynomials quickly? If A is your polynomial, would you use the characterization of the discriminant of A in terms of the resultant of A and A' ?
can't you also express it in terms of its roots
yeah
mmh actually
Res_x(A,A') is a (2n)x(2n) determinant, where the entries are like the coefficients of A, so I guess its easier than just calculating roots and multiplying their differences lol
but idk if there are other methods for calculating the discriminant
last question what law or definition is used for the second equality, it feels like a distributive property, but i am uncertain why exactly this works, even though i see why it works
It is simply defined
That's how we define the operation in the quotient group
Are you sure you're familiar with quotient groups? Maybe you should look back at your book/notes.
thats what im doing right now, thanks
its literally in my notes, but as (aN)(bN)=(ab)N but as we use + in Z/nZ the implicit * can be replaced with +, thanks again
This may be a silly question but where does the fact that $dim(R[\lambda]/(f(\lambda)) = degf(\lambda)$ come from?
Modeka
So if I have G=(Z,+) and H=(Z/3Z,+) and my Homomorphism f:G->H, then ker(f)=3Z, if I understand this right. As ker(f) is a normal subgroup of G, i can now build the qutient group G/ker(f) which in this example would be Z/3Z if i made no mistake which in turn is again H. As far as I understand G/ker(f) is isomorphic to f(G), but must not necessarily be identical. So my question is, has anyone a better example where G/ker(f) and f(G) are only isomorphic and not exactly the same?
what do you mean same if not isomorphic?
as sets? you can get plenty of examples like say Z_4 and <i>
surely most examples will have them being not the same
i meant literally identical or the exact same and not only isomorphicly identical
The point being you start with some surjective homomorphism phi: G -> H for some G and H
The only case where G/ker(phi) coincides with H
is if you chose H = G/ker(phi) and phi = pi
in the first place
maybe equal as sets or equal more strongly in the sense that both their underlying set and underlying structure is identical
does anyone know how to prove part d?
Basically I have found f1,f2,f3 which correspond exact to the minors of the matrix in part e
You haven't shown us what R_4 is
sorry
so i know that (f1,f2,f3) is a subset of ker(phi)
but i have no idea how to prove that ker(phi) is a subset of (f1,f2,f3)
$f_{1}=x_{2}x_{4}-x_{3}^{2}\ \ \ \ \ f_{2}=x_{1}x_{4}-x_{2}x_{3}\ \ \ \ \ \ f_{3}=x_{1}x_{3}-x_{2}^{2}$
Bradley
Maybe you should try to reformulate your question because it is all over the place
you can type normally and just put the dollar signs around the math. you don't need to put dollar signs around the entire message and then do some weird text stuff
it was like not sending when I tried to do it normally
its suppsoed to say "such that ker(phi) = (f1,f2,f3)"
in the last picture but its cut off for some reason
man i dont even know latex i just want to ask a question 🥲
@rustic crown you were right
I emailed the prof for what text she used and it was hungerfords undergrad algebra
and guess what an euclidean norm is there
uwuwuwuw :3
d : R\ {0} --> N
oh right
uwuuwu
stop ruining my joke
^_^
gomen 
<_>
you mean \nu for naluation
lol
^w^
iibui
Your homomorphism is being decomposed into two maps p and j
so like
p is subjective (Why?)
f is uniquely determined by p and f?
why are we doing this
is there a bijection between multiplicatively closed subsets S in a ring R and prime ideals P given by P to R\P=S?
No
Take {1,f,f^2,…}
There’s a bijection between sets of primes and saturated multiplicative sets though
Google around about what a saturated multiplicative set and you should be able to find a statement
How does one go about proving that an element is not in an ideal?
If it is generated by multiple elements
do you have a specific example in head?
you could try to show it's non-zero in the quotient
but dunno what else you could do in general
An ideal of R is a submodule of the R-module R, so one way is via linear algebra. For example, to show that 2 is in the ideal (3,5) (in Z) you would have to show that 2 is a Z-linear combination of 3 and 5, that is, to find integers x,y such that 3x+5y=2
to show that G is finite, could you use the fact that the only subgroups of G are the trivial subgroup and the improper subgroup or G itself, and then the order of G must divide the order of G so G is finite?
nu
No, since that's a priori assuming the order is finite
To clarify, to use Lagrange's theorem in the formulation of "order of subgroup divides order of group" you need to know that your group is finite to begin with
Since otherwise "divides" is meaningless (well it has meaning with cardinal arithmetic but that's irrelevant to this formulation really)
given an element can you construct a subgroup using that? 
but the only subgroups of G are the trivial subgroup and the improper subgroup right
since there are no nontrivial proper subgroups
are you saying that i can use some element to construct G itself?
yep, so if you can build a subgroup out of some element, then that hypothesis would ell you a lot about your group!
or use the fact that if G is cyclic so then it's of prime order
that's not true >.<... but its converse is
right my b
so how do you show a group of prime order is cyclic?
so nvm
first you have to identify a generator right
and then for any g in G you have to show that if a is a generator then g = a^n for some integer n
yep, and how do you pick this generator?
well it can't be the identity
and how does order being prime help
so let it be some element a
oops
i don't know why my messages didn't send
anyways
maybe you could use the fact that the order of an element of a finite group divides the order of the group
and set up a contradiction of some sort
yep, that's the idea.
but do you recall how you proved that?
lagrange's theorem says that order of a subgroup divides order of the group
order of an element is the same as the order of the cyclic subgroup generated by that element
so it follows immediately from lagrange's theorem
now 🙈
not quite, it can still be an infinite cyclic group
but do you see why that would be a problem?
tbh i'm not sure where the contradiction is in that
besides the fact that the order of it must be divided by the order of itself right since it is it's own subgroup
but that was what i suggested before and apparently it doesnt work
OH WAIT
is it because it is of finite order
bercause a^m = e for some positive integer m
or something
no i mean
Z does have non-trivial subgroups
so it can't be infinite cyclic
the argument you gave was that if a is any non-identity element then <a> must be the whole group
so every non-identity element generates your group
that's not the case for Z
since <2> = 2Z
ah
true
no fucking clue then
oh
Z has nontrivial proper subgroups
so that's the contradiction i suppose
because if G was of infinite order then it would be isomorphic to Z which has nontrivial proper subgroups
my bad didn't see that
wut is a nilpotent homomorphism
i have an intutiive guess as to wut it is but i couldn't find it explicitly defined anywhere so i just wanted to confirm
What’s the context
what do you think it means
phi_s composed n times, for some postiive integer n, is the 0 map?
i have question sry if im interrupting. i understand b) but not a)
Yep
can someone help me understand the abelianization of a group?
this is just the quoteint of a group by a commutator subgroup
so essentially wut u can think of it is like
if we denote the commutator subgroup by [G,G]
then the abelinization of G is the group G/[G,G]
and we define the quotient by the relaiotn xy=yx
which is where it gets it name "abelinization" from
im just having a little trouble visualizing what happens when you mod out by the commutator
so you're saying a is related to b if and only if aba^-1b^-1 = e ?
do u know the def of a commutator subgroup
u might also know this or see this in texts as a derived subgroup
thats another name for it
i probably couldn't recite it
basically yes
are u familiar with rings?
somewhat
okay no i don't know that much
u can essentailly think of this as setting all the elements in the ideal equal to 0
oh ok
well u don't need to understand rings
essentially the commutator subgroup is just generated by all eelmetns of the xyx^-1y^-1 (which matches the form u wrote)
and wut "modding out" means is just setting all the thing sin the set ur modding out by to the identity
whch here is e
so basically ur just setting everything of the form xyx^-1y^-1=e
aka xy=yx (which is where it gets it name from)
so yes wut ur thinking of is correct
so a is related to b in that sense if aba^-1b^-1 = e
thus G/[G,G] forms a partition of G
in this new abelinzation of the group?
is this wut ur asking
no im just trying to understand the concept of abelianization in general
okay, but then using the tool of abelianization to solve a problem is a different story
like i think i understand the definition but i need more time to really let it sink in
thank you
yea just leanring math in general u need time to get used to the defs and use them in problmes
ima sure it'll come natural to u after doing a couple problems
gl
okay one last question lol
how do i know if a subgroup containing all commutators is the smallest one that contains all commutators
remember that the commutator subgroup is defined as the group generated by the elements
"generated" by def means its the smallest one
hmm, can you speak on why that is? or is that just truly implicit in the definition of generated ?
this is just the definitino of the set being generated
its the smallest one that contains it and satisfies all the conditions
for a group to be solvable, do we need the derived series to reach the trivial subgroup in a finite number of steps? is it even possible for the derived series to reach the trivial subgroup in an infinite number of steps?
Doesn’t make sense really
It has to be finite
(You could do it “infinitely” by intersecting all of them and this could theoretically be trivial even if it isn’t at any finite step, but this is not the definition of solvable)
so i’m trying to go through all the groups of order less than 102 and show that they are either cyclic or not simple (excluding 60)
i’ve knocked out most of them. i still need to use some of sylows theorems to see if i can knock out a few more
but my question is, which orders will i have to look at individually, if any?
i feel like the highly composite numbers will be the difficult ones, like 24 and 36, unless i can get those using a sylow theorem
I mean this depends entirely on what classes of groups you manage to systematically show aren’t simple
If you manage to prove burnside’s theorem you automatically handle everything with at most 2 prime factors
But you aren’t going to be proving burnside’s theorem
I think it’s reasonable to get pqr, and p^aq^b where a,b are <= 2 (and p-groups lol)
Maybe p^2q^2 might be hard
he gave me a few that would be helpful, i will be proving them in the coming days but i’ve went ahead and knocked out the orders that they would get rid of
and i got sylows theorems today so they are included as well but not listed
i’ve proven lemma 1, and he did lemma 3 at some point during lecture for me
how does lemma 6 help me?
I know I did a monke calculation, but I think this should be correct enough to check that given statement is false?
For nZ to have that many (23) maximal ideals, it should be this large, correct?
yep, but you're going for a much sharper lower bound.
you don't need to do a monke calc to see that this statement is false
if nZ is contained in exactly 23 maximal ideals, then so is n^100Z
does someone know a good way to decide if a matrix is non singular or not?
what ive been doing is computing its homomorphism and then deciding if its bijective
compute det 
so you over a field or comm-ring or int-domain?
det = 0 if and only if singular then
oh
over a comm-ring, the map is an isomorphism if and only if det is a unit.
(idk how singular is defined really for general comm-rings)
in a comm ring does a matrix corresspond to homomorphism still ?
only in certain comm rings right
like noetherian
Compute @rustic crown 
a matrix is just a data of a bunch of maps
so in any category with finite products and coproducts
a map coprod(A_i) --> prod(B_j) is given by a matrix of maps A_i --> B_j
so even if R is non-commutative the category R-mod is additive which means products and coproducts agree. and a map R --> R is determined by where it sends 1, so you write a map R^n --> R^m as a matrix in M_{m x n}(R).
but det only works nicely with commutative rings >.<
so yea this can be generalized quite a bit :p
lol
Apologies for this simple question and I'm not sure if it's in the right place. I did a search for quaternions and this channel came up as where it was discussed previously.
I have a body which has a rotation q_H with a position P_H, with another point P_L. I want to translate the vector P_H -> P_L such that the body has no rotation. To do this I got the inverse of the rotation q_H^-1 and transformed the vector P_H -> P_L by this inverse.
To transform, I multiply the inversed rotation by a new quaternion created from P_H -> P_L with no real component then multiplied the result by the conjugate of the inverse. I then take the vector part of the resulting quaternion as the transformed vector where there is no rotation (q_0).
When I have another rotation, I can transform the vector by performing the same operation as before but without inversing the rotation.
The idea is that some time in the future where I have some rotation, I can then transform this vector by another rotation to get the position of P_L.
I there something I am doing wrong or are there any shortcuts I could take?
any idea how to solve this?
if B had finite elements then i know how to do it
so essentially B is a finite dimensional vector space over k and int domain => B is a field itself
if we fix an $r \neq 0$ and make the map $x \mapsto rx$
ActiveChapter
why is it surjective ?
It’s an injective linear map on a vector space
but i need surjectivity too right
By linear algebra, an injective linear map of a vector space into itself is surjective
oh
finite dimensionality is the key :3
thanks guys
Yeah
Finite dim vector space
Oh I see, thanks
whats the difference between vector space and linear vector space?
for example Q vector space and Q-linear vector space
nothing
why is it that radM + kerf = M where f: M \to N when f(m) != 0 for some m \in radM
so Q vector space = Q-linear vector space?
yeah
okay
$m \in \text{rad}(M) \iff f(m) = 0, \forall f \in \text{Hom}_R(M,S)$ for any simple $S$. Then apparently, if $g:M \to N$: $g(\text{rad}(M)) \subseteq \text{rad}(N)$ follows immediately. Why is that so?
Eso
say f : N --> S for S simple. and m in rad(M). need to show that g(m) dies under f. (do you see what that's true?)
what's the context here? what if i take f = id_M?
idk i didnt understand the hint so i proved it with some other way
cant see it 
Well, so we need to show (fg)(m)=0, and fg is a map to a simple, so would kill the radical
me no understand it either. How do you define small?
A \subset B is small in B if A+X = B implies X = B for every submodule X of B
And sowwy, one last thing... Whats the definition of rad that you're using?
For me that statement was a definition
intersection of maximal modules
Hmm I see
So I think the hint is specifically for f:M-->S
And not any arbitrary M --> N
yes i know
Oh I got confused a little by that
oh shoot my bad
So if radM does die under f:M-->S
Then the image of it would be a submodule
Which means it's all of S
Image is (rad M+ker f)/ker f
And it's preimage is rad M + ker f
Which must be all of M
Since the image was all of S
Now if you know rad M is small then, it says ker f = M right?
Which is a contradiction
Since we assumed rad M doesn't die under f = 0
ye ic thx
could someone explain what is meant here by the last line?
this is algebraic topology
" \beta_h is simply conjugation by [h]"
what does that mean?
oh so conjugation by [h] of some [x] is basically just [h][x][h]^-1
but im still confused
lol im slow but just figured out that since the composition would also be a hom fg from M to S this would imply fg(m) = 0 as m in radical of the domain of fg. Thus if g(m) != 0 then f(g(m)) = 0 <=> g(m) \in rad(N)
about what?
would that imply maybe [h][x][h]^-1 = [x]?
do u know what's being talked about or should i define stuff?
this is prob a dumb q but how do we know that
and how does that imply [h] is central
like we wanna show [h][x] = [x][h] right
yes
oh so just right-multiply by h inverse
my professor also told me this yesterday, if a map from a finite set to a finite set is injective then surjective comes for free, why?
wouldn’t the sets have to be the same size?
yea they need to have the same size
that's referred to as the pigeon hole principle
but here we're using some other finiteness result
which is rank-nullity
oh, yeah i’ve learned about it but never thought about it that way
i can believe it though now that i realize they have to be the same size
yea, that's usually stated a little differently, if X and Y are finite sets with |X| > |Y| then a function X --> Y can never be injective.
ig that's the most usual statement but ofc this can be converted to the above easily
yeah i can see that, thank you
if f : V --> W is a linear map between vector spaces of same finite dimension, then injectivity and surjectivity are equivalent
because rank f + null f = dim V
surjective iff rank f = dim V and injective iff null f = 0
is that one of the matrix equivalences
what's that 
idk what it’s most known by
but like the list of 20 or so equivalence’s for a matrix to be invertible
rank nullity is just another version of first-isomorphism theorem
because you get an isomorphism V/ker f --> im f
if you take dimensions, it gives dim V - null f = rank f
yea ig you can say that
just trying to make connections
Is there something like an inverse for quotient groups? Like if G/H is a simple group and H is a known normal subgroup of G, can I "multiply" G/H by H to get G back?.
The name does not inspire confidence
More specifically, I'm asking this in the context of constructing a group from a composition series
I'm given simple groups, and the question asks me to construct a group from these simple groups with composition factors isomorphic to the simple groups
you can always take direct products to get one example
but classifying all such is not an easy task
As mentioned earlier, the first half has been settled, although the complexity of the work
leading to its solution justifies some skepticism concerning the absolute correctness of the proof.
The status of the second half is, as far as I know, (even) murkier.
this was one of the footnotes when i was learning this material...
here by first half of the classification problem, he means classifying all simple groups. and second half refers to understanding how to put together these simples to get all finite groups
interesting
given groups N and H, you wanna classify all exact sequences
1 --> N --> G --> H --> 1
there is a special case when you can easily classfy these
which is when G --> H admits a section
that is, if G is a group with a normal subgroup N and another subgroup H such that HN = G and H n N = 1 then G is a semi-direct product of N and H
ig in the abelian situation this has a very satisfactory answer as well... by stuff called Ext-functors
.<
did you want to hear something else?
Thanks for explaining :) I was mostly asking to solve this problem (and was trying to do that right now)
I have to admit, that I'm still not getting any further though. More concretely, the question is this: Let $G_1, G_2, G_3$ be simple groups. Construct $G$ with composition factors isomorphic to $G_1, G_2, G_3$, i.e. construct $G$ such that ${e} = B_0 \trianglelefteq B_1 \trianglelefteq B_2 \trianglelefteq B_3 = G$, where $B_i / B_{i - 1} \cong G_i$ for all i.
MatrixMaker
I think I understand the question, but I don't see how I get get B_2
try direct product
Hmm, that makes sense, but why does it work?
yo
in a PID every element that is not a unit can be written as a product of irreducibles proof:
suppose a is not a unit
and a =xy , if both are irreudicbles then we are done now say x is not irreduicible --> x=fg for f,g. if both are irreducibles then we are done but then if not then say f is reduibcle ... and so on
but know for every like step we have an ideal containment
so for examplee a =xy --> a in (x)
(x) in (f)
(f) in (...)
by inclusion this is an ascending chain that has a maximal element (the union of such ideals) therefore this process terminates by zorn's lemma
and thats it? we are done
??#@
this part here is a bit off
yea i figured
notice that you didn't use the fact that your ring is a PID anywhere
yea so thats why it terminates
this element has to be contained somewhere
yea yea
and you get a contradiction
dunno
(the union of such ideals is an ideal , since this is a pid this is generated by one element hence we can keep reducing untill we get to this element? lmfao)
idk what you mean
you assume your element cannot be written as a product of irreducibles, you get a strictly ascending ideal chain, take the union, this union is generated by one element, this element has to be contained in one of the ideals and that's a contradiction to it being strictly contained in the next one
if you want to show that every PID is factorial you can then use that prime and irreducible coincide in a PID and get the uniqueness of your factorization
yea
yea so the union of these ideals is an ideal generated by one elment
but by containments this one element must be contained in atleast one of the ideals
which is a contradiction
is this correct
cuz (a) is just the union
can somebody help me on how to start this problem?
i wrote down my givens:
there are two left cosets of H, and letting H have order m and G having order n, 2 - n/m
other than that i'm stuck
it seems equivalent to proving G is abelian
just write it down
like try an example
u know that this has index 2
which means that the set of cosets of H in G just has 2 elements
write that down
also remember that u have 1 coset which is the identity
which is just H
so ur left with one
wouldn't this just be the set of left cosets
we only have 2 cosets
1 of them is H
so not coset(s)
just 1 coset
but now is it left or right
how do you know this, isn't the index of a subgroup H defined to be the number of left cosets of H in G
the identity times H = H is always a coset
^
oh ok
H is a left coset
and that is a left coset
okay so we have 1 more
left
so now
you know how cosets look like
we have two choices
for example lets consider aH
if a is in H then we know this is just H
right?
how
what does aH mean
all elements ah for a fixed a in G right and h in H
oh wait
wait no
yeah i still dont see how it's H
because a is not the identity
yeah
now say a is in H
now H is a subgroup
and we know its closed
so literally a wont act on elements on H other than likee just shifting
like it wont go out of H
cuz H is closed
yeah but for a counterexample you can take H = {0, 3} which is a subgroup of Z_6 and then say the left coset 2 + {0, 3} = {2, 5} which is not equal to H
oh
what do u get
ok i see
ok
but what's stopping you from choosing some a not in H
nothing
we are going to do that rn
suppose a is not in H
then we know that aH is not H
right
yeah
so whats aH then
here is a hint
what even is the point of cosets
like say we have a group G
and we say A is the set of cosets of G
what does that mean like
what does that do to G lmfao
just a partition of G right
yes
exactly
but bro we only have two
partitions
no
sorry
two cosets
and one of them is H
so the second one must be what
so that the union of both would be G?
H union (what) = G
given H is a subgroup ( H is subset )
so two subgroups H make up G right
and we have one being H itself
i have no clue dude maybe the coset which is disjoint from H itself
H is a subgroup of G and a coset is an element of G/H, which are represented by [a subset of] elements of G, but are usually denoted aH, bH, etc
H union what is G
{4}
oh wait
it's just exhaustive
so yeah it would have to be what's disjoint from H
still tryna see how that's a right coset though
oh wait
yeah nvm
no clue
bc the index of a subgroup is defined to be the number of left cosets of H
so idfk how i can get from there to a left coset being a right coset
what is G-H
elements in G that are not in H
this
oh you mean G/H
no
its an algebra course bro
u cant do that
like no way relative complemeent is this way
in your algebra course
idk what that means
but ok i'll trust you
okay anyways
are you trying to get that it just leaves one subset with one element
forget about algebra
if ur doing set theory
the relative complement of B wrt to A is just elements in A that are not in B
this is denoted sometimes either by A-B or A/B in some textbooks
but in algebra ur going to deal with quotients soon
which are alwaays written with / notation
quotients are not relative complements
(lmfao ig)
so thats what i meant
so now
can u decompose G into right cosets @white oxide
just like as we did with left cosets
i have never seen it denoted A/B it's usually the other slash A \ B
yes thats what i meant mb
how would you know that there are two right cosets?? i thought the index of a subgroup refers to how many left cosets there are, so for all we know there could be much more than 2 right cosets or just one
i'm so fucking lost jesus
is it just like a question you assume that a not equal b and you try to prove a equal b or some shit
no
you just know that these cosets partition your group
thats all u need to know
now
u are right to be lost
and what ur saying makes 100% sense
but
let me like
finish it up for you
forget all this shit
let G be a group
define f(g) = g^-1
now with this we can natural project this hsit and induce the map aH--> Ha^-1
i want you to prove that this is a bijection
hence the number of left cosets is the same as the right
first tho
take this for granted
and then do ur problem
then comeback and do this
oh you're right
ig it is true that the number of left cosets is the same as the numbe rof right cosets
so i had to prove that before i did this problem
ok thanks
great
yea makes sense
im kind of lost on this, can someone explain to me what the difference between a composition and principal series are? For a principal series, if the factor groups must be simple, then H_i must be normal in H_{i+1} and thus be a subnormal series with simple factor groups, which means its a composition series. Am I missing something?
but doesnt the criteria of factor groups being simple mean that the normal series has to also be a subnormal series?
the opposite may not be true
does a subnormal series have to be a normal series?
Yes... unless im tripping
monkeman
shouldnt it be the other way arround?
A subnormal series only requires each group in the series to be normal in the next one, a normal series requires that and each group be normal in G
if I remember rightly
no, because as you said here, all normal series are subnormal series, but you never showed/stated if all subnormal series are normal series (because they aren't)
could you define $\phi(ag) = (ag)^{-1}$
okeyokay
which would be equal to g^-1a^-1
A subnormal series is a series of subgroups of G such that H_i is normal in H_{i+1} right?
wait no i'm stupid asf
nope this is the right idea
but you want to work with elements of H, if that is unclear
yes, but a normal series also requires each H_i to be normal in G
it's got an extra condition on it
right but then wouldn't aH not be equal to Ha^-1
sorry
wrong phrasing
like
it would be insufficient to prove that the number of them is the same
because don't we have to prove aH and Ha
have the same number or smt
every element of a group (i.e. H) has an inverse
not aH and Ha^-1
doesn't matter, find an inverse map, it's a bijection
then the sets are the same size
ah I assumed that H_i being a subgroup of H_{i+1} which is normal in G implied H_{i} is normal in G
no, and this is unfortunate tbh but this is not true
to show injectivity would you take $\phi(ax)$ and $\phi(ay)$ for some $x, y \in H$
okeyokay
the simplest counterexample is that G is a normal subgroup of itself, but any subgroup H which is not normal is a subgroup of a normal subgroup of G (which is G itself lmao), but H is not normal
ok
I wouldn't bother with injectivity/subjectivity, just find a well-defined inverse to phi
Also I thought the criteria for normal series is just that H_i < H_{i+1} and not necessarily normal to H_{i+1}
well a normal series has to be subnormal
it might be true that if a subgroup H' of a normal subgroup H is normal to G, then it is also normal in H, but i have to verify this
this seems true, so the book's definition is correct, but it is slightly confusing. it might have been clearer if they stated that a normal series is subnormal but maybe that's an exercise, who knows
yeah
also wouldn't this just be showing that the number of elements in a left coset and right coset are teh same, not that the number of left cosets and right cosets are equal
What does Aluffi mean by the negation symbol and this arrowhead that are present in some exercises? I couldn't find him mentioning them in the first pages of the book.
It's algebra chatper 0
I thought that's what you were doing
wouldn't this prove that the number of elements in a given left coset are the same as the number of elements in a right coset and not that the number of right and left cosets are the same
oh right the index two thing
probably some weird indication of problem importance/difficulty... check the beginning of the textbook
ig you could define it from the set of left coset groups to the set of right coset groups but we haven't gone over coset groups yet
so i have no fucking clue
either difficulty or its going to be referenceed soon
referenced*
Thanks!
let g not be in H, then the set of left cosets is {H, gH} since it's index two, consider the right coset Hg - this is either equal to H or gH, can you see why that's true?
yeah
ok, see if you reason why Hg cannot be equal to H, and therefore must be equal to gH
No yeah I got that part
It makes sense now
I’m just trying to prove why the number of left courts and right closets are the same
Oops autocorrect
Lmfao
show that f(gH) = Hg^-1 is a bijection
let me do 1 part for u
