#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 59 of 1
ok so what do you think c is
Thanks now I understand better!
❤️
disclaimer that this material is still recent for me and i could say something wrong
so $c = x_1b_1 +x_2b_2$
ActiveChapter
i dont understand why x_1 and x_2 are coprime
go back to the definition of primes
You were already told! Write b_1 and b_2 as multiples of c
Plug that in to your equation
Divide by c
Or “cancel c from both sides” if you prefer
nobody gets angry at you here
we can write $b_1$ as multiple of because $b_1 \in (c)$ ?
but you gotta put forward your own effort too 
ActiveChapter
as helpful as people are here, there is no substitute for sitting down with a problem and tinkering with it yourself
talking helps but there are certain times when you just need to lock yourself in a room w/ pencil and paper
at least for me
this is correct?
make sure it has good lighting and ventilation. water, too
and preferably a standing desk
most normal moving setup
yes it's from twitter
lmfao
Don't see a cute plushie 
i sat on the ground and used the package of my mattress as desk for a bit
interesting
I like to write in a notepad to explain stuff
and then delete it
based chalkboards
my strongest fighting game era was when i was moving and i played sitting on the ground with my monitor on a bunch of boxes. it's empowering
i talk to empty classrooms (i fill the seats with the voices)
goated setup
this is something i actually do quite often tho, either actually explaining the stuff to someone else or imagining to do so
i tend to find gaps or mistakes like that
if x1 and x2 are prime in PID why are they coprime?
(x1, x2) = (d) and we want to show d is a unit basically
but im stuck after that
anyone know?
$x_1r_1 + x_2r_2 = d$
ActiveChapter
the minimalist lifestyle 😍
i dont really get it
maybe try bezout
look it up then
idk if it works tho
but this situation kinda looks like bezout idk
yes
so yeah already i know that $(x_1, x_2) = (d)$
ActiveChapter
that means that d is the gcd of x_1 and x_2
but x_1 and x_2 are primes / irreducibles
R[x] is a pid, so compute the GCD to write it as an ideal generated by a single polynomial
ok thank you
I think you could write this like this even in a general ring since the polynomials are monic?
Hi, I need some help with this question
Is it correct to conclude that the operation for this group is x * y = x^-1y?
Also, I think I'm supposed to show that $x^{-1}y \in H \implies xy \in H$ but I can't figure it out
trayan_b
No.
The operation for H is the operation for G, restricted to H.
This is what it means to be a subgroup.
what do you mean by restricted to H
I mean x * y = xy.
oh
but in this case
for G, x * y = xy but for H, x * y = x^-1y, so it's not closed under the same operation as G
so by this logic it's not a subgroup
I don't know how you're getting this idea that x * y = x^-1 y
I said already that this isn't right
That's only for the first division though. The reminders might not be Monic >.<
ah right
But (p(x), q(x)) is principal when p(x) and q(x) are monic, right
Not necessarily. Like what about (x, x+2) in Z[x]
I see
We are given that for H, xy = x^-1y, no?
For it to be a subgroup of G, it must be that for any x,y in G, xy =x^-1y also
No.
So the "closed under the same operation as G" property is already given?
@coral shale
We are given that if x and y are in H, then x^-1 y is in H too
Sorry mu I kinda trod on your toes there
u started helping dw
- G is a group, H is a non-empty subset
- forall x, y in H: x^{-1}y is in H
These are your 2 premises
The first step is to show the closure property; ie. xy in H (for all x, y in H)
Yeah
The first step is proably to show that H contains the identity!
forgot
Is that not one of the things you have to check?
Oh right
Yes.
Indeed, and it should be the first step
Hint: This is the place where you need the assumption that H is not empty.
what's with all the questions about the subgroup test recently?
i've seen so many over the past week
Perhaps we're in the part of the semester where such-and-such natural organization of an intro to algebra course reaches subgroups? Dunno.
This is why we should have a elementary group theory channel in early uni >:(
actually agree
if ur still stuck, take Tropo's hint. There is only one way to combine this with the other premise: x^{-1}y in H
yeah in the pre uni category
just like #elementary-number-theory
i understand the sentiment, but the lines between "elementary" group theory and group theory seem much more blurred than with NT idk
what are the arrows of that category
theres elementary group theory, then the rest of group theory and algebra
idk exactly what you mean by elementary though
anything in a first course could be considered elementary it seems
I did it but I used: xy = x^-1y
and i think earlier you said that was wrong?
I'll tell you what i wrote
Let our group G be integers under addition. Let H be the even numbers.
2, 4 are in H. Inverse of 4 is -4.
You are claiming 2 + 4 = 2 + -4
We know that H is non-empty. Suppose that H has exactly one element, say x.
Then since for all x,y in H, x^-1y in H, it must be that x^-1x is in H and x^-1x = e, so the identity is in H.
its great - tiny nitpick: you dont need to suppose H has exactly one element
nor do u want to
You just want to say 'Let x be in H' and this is justified by it being non empty
xde
yeah makes sense, i see why its unnecessary now
I did
ok then closure and you're done right?
in this particular case the proof needed it yes
(which is why u were stuck at the beginning)
In general, there isn't necessarily an order, sometimes there is.
maybe its just me but group theory is much harder than I expected it to be
early on it comes down to writing down or pulling up the definitions relevant to the question
and applying them in the only way possible
later on there will be more thinking / more things u could apply as more theorems are developed
theres no question; elaborate
exactly 5 is a generator of Z_12 but the question is to know if it really is a generator, I did that check
So given that you did that check, do you think 5 is a generator of Z/12Z?
yepi
Ok so there is no question
There is a shortcut
You want to show 5n is not a multiple of 12 for n an integer from 1 to 11
5n = 12m
5 and 12 are coprime, ie gcd(5, 12) = 1
See if you can finish the rest of the proof
I understand, it's good to know first where things come out in order to understand what you're saying
does anyone have any good, free additional resources to study up on some abstract algebra?
dummit and foote is nice i guess?
ive just been looking at my old exams and homework assignments and then redoing them to brush up on my next part of the class
hmm ok noteed
Keith Conrad's notes are good for reviewing various topics
okay thank you
appreciate it
Hey, is this boxed fact true? I don't think it is tbh -- my understanding is:
"if all elements are their own inverse, the group is abelian" is true, but I don't believe you can say it is true the other way around".
This is for a finite abelian group
what is the context
just proving that performing your operation on all elements of an abelian group^2 equals the identity element
Z/3Z is an Abelian group, and none of its elements are of order 2
Hint for a correct version of this proof: try pairing elements up with their inverses. What if a^-1 = a?
awesome - ty. Yeah that makes sense and thats pretty much what I am thinking but just wanted to make sure I wasn't crazy
Also if the boxed fact were true, then you could immediately conclude that the first term is e anyway
Proofs by diagram chasing are fun and feel like cheating lol
profound argument. no cheat.
well yea
why do you only need to prove that ab^-1 is in the subgroup to prove that it is indeed a subgroup?
and nonempty!!!
it needs to be nonempty!!!!!!!
yeah and that
what about the empty group
i meant only as in how does it imply closure and inverse closure
aint a subgroup
three lines:
if it contains some element z, then it contains zz^-1 = e. if it contains x, then it contains ex^-1 = x^-1. if it contains x and y, then it containts x(y^-1)^-1 = xy
Sounds sus
ah u could do zz^-1
(I am joking if it wasn't clear)
i'm reaching, i was just waiting for a chance to post it again
Ok but nonempty is actually important

so many subgroup test questions
all of the group theory courses in the world are doing the same thing right now
but im different
im self studing so it aint count
i'm starting to see the point of an extra channel in early university
It's usually easier to check closure properties individually anyways
i personally think it's absolutely useless
I think letting students prove the equivalence of the condition as an exercise is nice
But not more than that
if someone is struggling with proving something is a subgroup by the definition and someone suggests the subgroup test, i don't think they're going to get any further with that than they did trying to use the definition
what extra channel?
same
great exercise
i see it happen too much here
it aint even a exercies its like two words
Oh absolutely, I think understanding why it's true is good for getting the noggin jogging if nothing more than to practice abstract symbol pushing
That's silly
Another aa channel in early university
yeah i was wondering why it wasnt up there
makes sense but then would #real-complex-analysis also get moved there?
This channel is kind of a catch-all at the moment. Another algebra channel was at least momentarily discussed
That was another point of discussion
cause we do have #advanced-analysis
so I guess analogously #adv-algebra makes sense
i think we should just get rid of all of the channels
We have a button for that, it's called the "leave server" button
just one channel, #math
im waiting for my advanced-anime channel
you have NO idea
#advanced-chill
i am incredibly stuck on this one problem 😭
Suppose the group $R*$, find elements $a$ and $b$ such that $|a| = \infty, |b| = \infty$ and $|ab| = 2$
blanket
ok for starters, what infinite groups do u know
$\bR^*$? that typically means the non-zero reals (not just non-negative) equipped with multiplication...
ТТерра
The positive reals with multiplication don't have order 2 elements, you should try and see why this is true
To add to what was said above
I have found that the group elements are $e, \sigma, \sigma^2, \sigma^3, \tau, \tau \sigma, \tau \sigma^2, \tau \sigma^3$ but how would i prove them? do i just say since they are finite its trivial?
Jester
or maybe try proving first that $\sigma^n \neq \tau \sigma^m$ for all m, n integers
Jester
oh nvm its trivial really
are the groups Z4 x Z18 x Z15 and Z3 x Z36 x Z10 isomorphic
I think they are cause they have the same order
is that enough or do I need to show more?
what order are each of the groups?
are you sure the first group is order 1080?
ok
now I believe you that they're the same order
see if you can construct an isomorphism
no, a bijective homomorphism
or use some other method of determining if two products of cyclic groups are isomorphic, if you know any
this is almost always insufficient
for example S_n and Z_n! have the same order and are most definitely not isomorphic for quite a lot of values
infinitely many of them
Z2 x Z2 and Z4 have the same order; non-isomorphic
what is V_t, is it just a part of the representation?
Basically if groups of the same size were isomorphic then finite group theory would just become counting
finite group theory is just counting with a little bit of spice
missed my cue for
Finite group theory is counting
better resolution ?
well im sure wew can make it out when he sees it
I don't really have many thoughts on how to start.
but otherwise I got nothing really
H = Hom(Z,A)/im(m*) = coker(m*)
say q is the quotient map.
im(m*) = ker q so it’s exact at Hom(Z,A) (the one furthest to the right)
trivially exact at H since q is surjective
@barren sierra
Oh that's much more simple than what I was thinking
yea make the image "zero" which solves everything
im not really sure how i would explain how i got this answer
that’s a good point.
i was just thinking about natural maps out of Hom(Z,A)
it kind of reflects the symmetry of the original SES
where we were mapping Z —> coker(m) = Z/mZ
yea
I saw that in the original one but didn't make the connection
I literally went "Z / mZ is Z quotiented with the image of m"
and did not make the very small next leap
cokernals are strange
I do not have intuition for them outside of some concrete examples
although that probably stems from my lack of intuition about certain category theoretical objects
i don’t have a lot of intuition for them either yet
cokernals, equalizers / coequalizers, pullbacks, not much intuition yet
category theory i feel like takes a lot of time to develop intuition for
same
yea it sure feels like it
slowly
probably need more exposure
yea, more examples and such
It would be nice if my alg geo class was any good
so that I could maybe look at examples relating to that area
but my prof is absolutely awful and I've kinda given up on the class
profs can really make or break a class
it's totally broken this class lol
dropped my alg top class because my prof really just didn’t want to be there
my algebra prof this sem tho is amazing
same
really really enjoying that course
what school do u go to?
See I'd do that but then I'd only be doing 1 math class and 2 CS classes
UIUC
was gonna say lol. i’m at umich
i do not
damn
he was one of my math profs my first semester here, now he's at UMich
he's super cool
idk if i’m doing anything in logic but i’ll def keep an eye out if he’s teaching any interesting courses
So, projective modules are summands of free modules; what's the corresponding statement for injective modules?
Every module is a submodule of some injective module
oh alright
hm, how is that a dual notion though?
I don't see how that's related to projective modules being summands of free modules
are there cofree modules or smth lol
There is none
Welcome to the horror of injective modules

I thought injective modules were just projective modules with the arrows flipped though
Why can't you just flip all the arrows on that statement
I think these are actually isomorphic
They are not
Think about the order of each element in Z2 × Z2 and the order of each element in Z4
ℤ_m × ℤ_n is isomorphic to ℤ_mn iff gcd(m,n)=1
Introduction to group theory and abstract algebra (from Judson)
Question about Algebra 1. How many proof/theory questions should I do (there are roughly 20-25 in each exercise) and how many computation questions should I do (there are roughly 20-25 questions). I'm reading Fraglieh.
i think in general when self-studying and doing exercises, i'd say to look to do a couple computation problems and maybe a few proof problems until you feel comfortable and then move on to the next section and then come back and do more if you feel like you needed more practice
but that's just me personally; also fraleigh was pretty nice to read
How does one show that the center of a group of order 105 cannot have order 7?
thanks, is it ok to continue if I can't do the last 3-4 questions?
If Z(G) has order 7, then G/Z(G) has order 15 which implies it's cyclic. This implies that G is abelian
The conclusion about order 15 groups, does it come from a theorem stating that a group whose order is the product of two primes is cyclic?
I'm not saying this is actually a theorem, I am yet to come across such a statement.
i think that's really just up to you tbh; i'd just be comfortable enough with the material in each section to continue
if you want to do all the problems, you can do that too; if you feel like you need some hints, there's probably people who would be willing to help out here (and elsewhere as well)
you need additional hypotheses; S_3 has order 6 = 2x3 and is not cyclic
Ok thanks for the help
or at least that's kinda how i approach self-studying; i do know other people who like to work through all the exercises in every section when they read a textbook
Right, that example was in mind
Nice, so since 3 does not divide 5-1, any group of order 15 is cyclic
And from this, the solution to my problem follows immediately.
Thanks guys
Give an example to show that if H and K are subgroups of a group G the set HK = {hk | h ∈ H, k ∈ K} need not be a subgroup of G.
im blankin on this

It will be a subgroup if G is abelian, so you'll need to look to non-abelian groups for examples.
do you have any good ideas for non abelian groups?
any suggestions ive gotten were with $S_n$ which we havent covered yet
blanket
all i really got are $D_n, \mathbb Z_n$
blanket
Pity, that's the simplest non-abelian groups. How about matrix groups?
blanket
and $SL(n, \mathbb R)$
blanket
D_n works
Hm yes it does, and D_{2·3} is even the same as S_3.
ok ill take a look at D_2 and 3
tysm!
(I meant the dihedral group with 6 elements).
some people write the dihedral group of order n as D_{2n} and some write it as D_{n}
ohh i see
though i believe D_{2n} is used more commonly in algebra settings (i may be wrong on this)
Why is the yellow part true?
what's phi_x
you can construct an explicit isomorphism by sending one generator to another
(a) By Rice's theorem. (b) By Rice's theorem. (c) By Rice's theorem. (d) By Rice's theorem. (e) by Rice's theorem. (f) By Rice's theorem. (g) By Rice's theorem.
Computability is mostly #foundations, tough we also get some questions in #discrete-math.
what does sending one generator to anther mean?
nvm I think I undertand now
That's more of an ad-hoc diagonalization proof -- which is perfectly fine and probably the general style you're supposed to attack the other ones in.
Rice's theorem (google it!) gives a generic construction that happens to settle all these cases in one fell swoop.
It's too late in the night for me to check details with any confidence, sorry.
why does the relation [A,BC] = B[A,C]+[A,B]C hold for eleemtns of sl(2)
where sl(2) is a vector space $V$ with a triple of operators $E,F,H$ such that HE-EH=2E, HF-FH=-2F, EF-FE=H$
JustKeepRunning
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I don't see how taht relationship comes directly from these defining properties (for those of u who have worked with it before, this is just the special linear lie algebra on 2 elemetns)
that's not sl(2). that's a representation of the lie algebra sl(2).
sl(2) is the sub-lie-algebra of 2x2 matrices over C with trace 0
and the lie bracket is [A, B] = AB-BA
so you just have to plug in this definition and verify this works [A,BC] = B[A,C]+[A,B]C
Why does the statement bE subset A hold?
I don’t see how it’s connected to bB’=0 or any of the previous statement
I think I’m supposed to use exactness in the middle somehow but I don’t see it
i didn't read the whole thing, but that should simply follow from that fact that image of bE under E --> B is zero
so by exactness, it should lie in the image of A --> E
Why is the image of bE 0?
because image is bB
yep
Oh duh
say that map E --> B is called p, then p(b * e) = b * p(e) in bB = 0
hehe np
ah i see thx u
ima bit stuck on this problem part (h) involving the casimir operator does anyone get how i can finish this
btw the V_{lambda} are defined as this:
I managed to show that the action of C on V is an operator with one eigenvalue, and that this eigenvalue is the scalar that its act on some irreducible subrepresentation of V
are all irreducible subrepresentations V_{lambda} for some lambda or smth? cuz then the problem would immediately follow
but ima not sure how i can show that
Do you have any information about what E, F, and H are?
yea, take v to be the highest weight vector.
if V is some f.d. irreducible representation, then take v to be the an eigenvector of H with largest (real part of) eigenvalue. since you're working over alg closed field this should be nice. then the submodule generated by this v looks like V_lambda
was this not one of the problems above?
like seeing that this lambda which maybe apriori a weird complex number turns out to be a nice integer
huh
wdym one fo the problems aboe
the notion is first introduced from problem f) so idt its part of a prev problem?
oh yea this
in f) you showed that any finite dimensional irreducible representation was a V lambda
isnt a representation though
not a subrepresentation
am i missing smth obvious
subrepresentations are representations too ?
iirc the idea here was that E(F^kv) = (some nice polynomial in k and lambda) * F^{k-1}v. and you use this for the smallest k such that F^kv = 0 which gives you that dim V = lambda + 1
so every f.d. irred rep does look like V_lambda
wait rlly
i thoguth subrepresentatins were just subspaces closed under the action of a representation
just like how a subgroup of a group, ... is a group too
That makes them (or rather the representation restricted to them) representations too, doesn't it?
another way to think about this if you know about modules, representations are just modules over the group ring (e.g. if G is a finite group then k-linear representations of G are the same as modules over the ring k[G], or if g is a Lie algebra then k-linear representations of g are the same as modules over the universal enveloping algebra U(g)...)
submodules of modules are still modules
My turn
So to recap basic construction
Chamber system C over an index set I, means each element i in I forms a partition of C
So then, for i in I, we say two thing are i-adjecent if they're in same part of the partition corresponding to i
And if J is a subset of I, then J-connectivity means you find a path (or formally a "gallery") where any two elements are connected by some element of J (the element can differ within the path)
Residues are connected components
Morphism C->D for two chamber systems over the same index set is a function such that if c is i-adjacent to c', then phi(c) is i-adjacent to phi(c')
Actually I'll just link these notes
Key point is, if R is a type J residue and S is a type K residue
Then we say S is a face of R if S contains R and K contains J
Now, let's say R is a residue of cotype J (meaning type I\J)
For each K subset J, R has a unique face of cotype K. This is important, if you imagine a simplex with vertices {v_1,...,v_n}, well excluding a vertex defines a unique face, excluding something in that a unique codim 2 simplex, etc
So if we have a chamber system
How do we get its geometric realization?
Well, residues of cotype {i} are vertices
Now, given a residue of cotype {i,j}, it should have a unique face of cotype {i} and a unique face of cotype {j}. So that's two vertices, glue along an edge
Given a residue of cotype {i,j,k}, has a unique face of cotype {i,j}, cotype {i,k}, and {j,k}. 3 edges, glue a triangle in. Keep going
gg
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
And yeah an r-flag has as its codim 1 faces just "exclude one of the r elements of the flag"
I'm getting the idea a bit
Embarrassingly slowly but still
may I ask what course might cover what you're talking about rn?
I linked the notes earlier. For me it's not a class I'm "taking" exactly but
I'm learning the material off a course
About Bruhat-Tits buildings
Sloth King Daminark
thanks, seems way out of my scope of understanding but interesting
Okay why am I blanking now?
I need to wake up
So
Vertices of cotype {2}
Well, we take one non-zero vector, then another that's not in its subspace
Divided by q^2
err no
what does an element of a direct sum look like
in my notes it says that it can expressed as a sum?
its just a linear combination of the elements in each of the parts of the sum
so an element of $V_1\oplus V_2$ is just an element $k_1v_1+k_2v_2$
JustKeepRunning
where, $k_1, k_2$ are scalars in the field
JustKeepRunning
yea i thought about this wrong too before
JustKeepRunning
and then another type of product to be careful not to get confused with is the tensor product
which sorta looks like a "tilted" direct sum sign
tensor product of $V_1$ and $V_2$ is denoted as $V_1\otimes V_2$
JustKeepRunning
and note that all the $V_i$ here are vector spaces
JustKeepRunning

not there yet but soon
so what is the relationship between direct product and sum
i know the categorical defn of like flipping the arrows
but that doesnt do much for me
this is what a direct sum is
i'm talking modules
but shouldnt they also be analogues
the point is that every element in your direct sum can be expressed as sum of elements of the components embedded into your product
idk i think my def is right for vector spaces?
tahts wut my mentor told me so like...
the finitely many non zero condition makes the sum finite
idk correct me if ima wrong ig
so that it makes sense
so it's just a way of representing it?
your definition is related to two subspaces
of the same vector space
because if you take arbitrary families of R-Modules (which K-vectorspaces are a special case of) you can't make sense of addition like that
yes, you can't add elements from arbitrary families of modules
your definition is something slightly different
probably too general but does this mean we can say like, (..., 3, 4 ,5 , ....) is represented as 3 + 4 + 5?
there is the external direct sum and the internal direct sum
that cant be right but i think i need an example if you have one
the external direct sum can be constructed for arbitrary families and the internal one only makes sense for subspaces of the same module
so wut i was doing was internal direct sum?
no internal
i thought u said mine only made sense if they were subspaces of teh same module
yea
its internal
nvm 
external is what we are doing rn sebb
scalar is from the same field

like k_1, k_2\in K
you can even leave the scalars out of it
since k*v1 is in your subspace again anyway
okay where were we
sure, take R^n
for R-modules, \oplus is both a product and a coproduct
only in the finite case no?
yeah
in the infinite case there's an annoying difference between the product and direct product
this is the n-fold direct sum of R
so think R being embedded in R^n as (R,0,0,0,0...)
and that for every component
now you can think of every element in R^n as a sum of Elements in R after embedding them like that
and the condition that finitely many entries are non zero ensures that this makes sense even for infinite index sets
such that your sums are still finite
but unless it is infinite it is indeed just a normal product
and nG will tell you the rest/correct me because i gotta go eat something 
iirc in general the direct sum is a coproduct, the direct product is a product; the direct sum is smaller because of this condition of finite support, and you have a canonical morphism from the direct sum to the direct product that is an isomorphism in the finite case

i can see this, what confuses me is the sum
also since when is timo honorable
since a while lol

it's called a sum because of what i said
you can't do this for a product
take Z^N for example
i guess i should be explicit then, for the R^n example, does that mean we have some kind of map from \oplus R_i -> R
yes the projection
lemme just post my notes hold on
ignoring the actual proof
the sum part in the first bit
it's saying what you're saying obv
but doesnt that give us multiple elements that might map to the same sum?
if N a normal subgroup of G, for any a in G, show that (Na)^(gcd(ord(a)),ord(Na))=N
any hints?
i'm not sure what you mean here
(..., 1 , 2, ....) = (...., 2, 1, ...) = 2+1 no?
even though those would be two diff elt's
no those are different components
you embed your m_i first and then take the sum
and 2+1 does not make sense in your setting
you're still working with tuples
and this is part of the categorical defn right
i think im close but not there yet
sorry to keep running circles around this
i'm working explicitly rn not in categorical slang
take R^3 would you say that (1,2,3)=1+2+3
no right
let's stick to R^3 for now
and think of it as 3 fold direct sum of R
that's what im confused about! like that's what sounds correct but doesnt seem like it is
that didnt make sense but still
now we have \iota_1(r) = (r,0,0)
we embed the first component into our direct sum
same for the other two
and now (a,b,c) is equal to (a,0,0)+(0,b,0)+(0,0,c)
by just embedding a from the first copy of the real numbers, b from the second copy and c from the third copy
you're probably overthinking this
i most certainly am
you're still in R^3
how would 3+2+1 make sense in R^3
in the infinite case it's just a sum of (0, ..., R, ... 0) finitely many times
yeah
because finitely many terms of the element you're trying to represent are non zero
i got it 
Are ideals different in algebraic geometry and abstract algebra?
so it also becomes obvious why prod and direct sum are the same in the finite case
if we have a finite product of things of course we can just express it as a sum
right?
but the finiteness of the indices in the direct sum guarantees we can do it anytime
thank you timo 
you're welcome
GL(3,q) acts on the space of 2-dim subspaces of F_q^3
no, ideals specifically refer to the substructure of rings
definitions are the same
Top left 2x2 bit should be some invertible 2x2 matrix
@bleak abyss is this related to what this guy studies? https://lsa.umich.edu/math/people/faculty/smdbackr.html
Yeah
thats awesome
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
And I'm pausing to eat so
inb4 dami gets interrupted by a subgroup test question
wait so just to make sure
any subrepresentation of a vector space is ALSO a representation of that same vector space?
is that wut u guys were saying
like basically wut this is saying?
why would we call it a subrepresentation if it wasn't a representation
subbasis moment
JustKeepRunning careful
"sub" means subpsace
Not subgroup
So you have a representation of G on V, well is W invariant? If so then you can get a representation of G on W. That's a subrep
how would i go about showing that the two groups z4 x z18 x z15 and z3 x z36 x z10 are isomorphic
i know i have to find an isomorphism between the two somehow or show that there cannot be an isomorphism
could i maybe just do a counterexample?
How would there be a counterexample
But yeah generally hint: Chinese remainder theorem
for checking these things
Maybe stupid question, but want to clarify something about functions being vectors.
For the most part this makes sense. The thing that is tripping me up is my understanding is that 1) functions do not always have to have their range be the real numbers and 2) it is a requirement that vectors map onto the real numbers.
Wouldn't this mean that you can only say functions are vectors if you know your function maps onto the reals. Asking because I am using (f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) for some subgroup problems
if S is a set and V is any vector space, then the set of functions from S to V becomes a vector space with the operations you expect
- functions do not always have to have their range be the real numbers
then you can clarify "real-valued functions" or "functions into R" or whatever as you write
- it is a requirement that vectors map onto the real numbers.
this phrasing makes me think you're saying all vectors are in some way functions to the reals, which is just false
I think for part 2 I misinterpreted what I read as it said "A vector maps {1,2,3} onto R"
but thats only for that example / you can map some set of n integers to what I conventionally think of with a vector of that size
ty
Is Daminark clinically insane?
notation
If R and S are fields
thanks

isn't this just like the degree of a field extension
ic
Perhaps
inconceivable
i can see that both xH and Hx are subsets of f^-1(f(x)) but how are they equal?
also its saying rewrite like its so very obvious but isnt H a set how are you able to just use them like normal group elements is it notation abuse or are the group elements with subgroups form a group or sth like that?
like i wouldnt know if (xH)x^-1 = x(Hx^-1) from the first sight
if y is in the preimage, then f(y) = f(x), which implies that x^{-1}y is in H or y = x(x^{-1}y) is in xH
oh yeah that makes sense
xHx^-1 dont even feel stable
shouldnt |xHx^-1| >= |H|
and for appropriate x, >
?
conjugation is a bijection
conjugation?
g -> xgx^-1
well yeah but thats not the same as xHx^-1
since its accumulating
xHx^-1 is the image of H under this
like H = {e} then xHx^-1 would be {e, x, x^-1}
no
when x!=e
that is not xHx^-1
its not?
ohh its not
yeah it aint accumulating the cardinality keeps same trhought
yeah okay since |H| = |xH| = |xHx^-1| ofc there is a bijection
Thanks
Is there an Engineering channel here or no?
No, this is a math server
wrong channel
oh okay
why isnt 'engineering' censored in here 
engin**r
Wrong server*
Mentions of it don't usually lead to toxic discussion. ¯_(ツ)_/¯
check out the servers in #old-network , cheers
just a quick check my verification that $N_S$ is a subgroup:
$$\forall x, y: xy^{-1} S (xy^{-1})^{-1} = xy^{-1} S y{x^-1} = x S x^{-1} = S$$
right?
Jester
i see you're trying to do the subgroup test
yeah
sure its correct
although y^-1Sy is not super straightforward but it comes from ySy^-1 = S of course
x, y are supposed to be in N btw
yeah
yeah i just remembered it as Sy = yS
just picking on details
what's the point of using a direct sum in this question
like isnt it the same as a product
if you wrote a product, i could ask you what the point of using the product as opposed to the direct sum is
true
why am i even here typing away silly little symbols at my silly little mac with my silly little brain
Direct sum better
why
the only good argument
Lol
w regards to the actual question, we can say M and N are isomorphic right
going by this def'n
no, because we don't know that sigma o pi = 1_M
honorable walter 
true tho yeah i realized that at the same time i sent it
well deserved honorable
now to get a walter emoji
,av walter
i love this dog
what might the iso look like then
im trying to just define it explicitly
if m \in ker(\pi) map it to (m, 0)
but i dont think saying if m isn't in the kernel just map it to pi(m) is enough
right
I'm trying to think of how I want to explain it
I guess my intuition comes from vector spaces
The way I'm thinking of it is that pi is projecting M onto N and then sigma is a section of pi so that sigma(n) is in pi^-1(n)
And this condition on sigma comes from the fact that pi o sigma = 1_N
So now if I have an element m in M, I can project it to N via pi and then look at what representative it maps to under sigma, namely sigma o pi(m)
I'm explaining this terribly because I'm hungry
it's better to write \oplus instead of \times if you really have a direct sum, since it's good to remember that you have universal arrows going in both directions
although for instance if you have an argument which ONLY uses the universal property of being a product, then it's fine to write \times to emphasize this
but it's definitely abusive to write \times and then be like "oh btw this is also a coproduct haha"
Right, but now the idea is that both m and sigma o pi(m) will map to pi(m). And this is easy to check since we have that pi o sigma o pi(m) = pi(m)
And in particular, this means that m - sigma o pi(m) is in the kernel of pi
so this is how you sort of break an element of M down into a part that lies in the kernel of pi and a part that lies in N
I probably could've texed it too but again, i'm hungry
all good, i still appreciate 
steal one
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
(See page 7 of notes for visuals)
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Back
$s_i(e_j) = e_j + 2\cos(\theta)e_i = (2\cos(\theta)\sin(\theta), 1- 2\cos^2(\theta)) = (\sin(2\theta),-\cos(2\theta))$
Sloth King Daminark
Now, $(1,0) = a e_i + b e_j = (a\sin(\theta), b-a\cos(\theta))$, so $a = \csc(\theta)$ and $b = \cot(\theta)$
Jesus
Eh frick
Forgot to put \ in front of a theta
nbd
holazach why'd you make me do all that work smh
I think you’ve went insane
no u
'went'
I'm mostly being a bitch lol this is ez
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
Sloth King Daminark
im having a bit of trouble understanding this notation
i understand that <a> is the cyclic subgroup, but what does <a, b> mean? does it mean the numbers produced by ab?
<a,b> is the set of elements generated by a and b
blanket
not quite
or rather
it's basically the set of all combinations of "multiplying" a's and b's
ohh
i see
is there any notation
to describe it succinctly?
i think i get it instinctively but it helps if i can attach notation to it in my head
if not its okay
oh
i don't think so? im not sure though
yeah that's nice in the case where your binary operation commutes :)
hehe yep
but so say for matrices, then its different to have, say matrices A,B and the subgroup <A, B>
that would be like, A, B, AB, BA, ABB, AAB,...
not necessarily commutative?
yeah
ok tysm
thank you
im writing notes up rn and i just wanted to like, clarify that for myself later on lolol

I think you meant a^n b^m?
yeah sorry
also
i dont get why this is true
oh gallian
yeah
is this a typo?
nope
bcs im not understanding why the order of an element is equal to the order of the cyclic subgroup
woah you just got active
I mean
think about it for a moment
wait
I feel you
you have a bad pdf lol
oh no
lovin it
open your dms
o
i have a better copy
omg thank you
ive been seeing so many typos and its bad
i usually correct it when i speak to my professor but damn
wait holy shit
the quality on this pdf is so much better than the one i was using
im crying now
i feel cheated.
lol
it's almost like
I got it from an access code

the 9th edition might have fewer typos
feel free to like dm or @ me if you find something that you think is a typo
honestly, sometimes it's nice to have a couple typos in proofs so that i can check my understanding
but if there's typos in definitions and theorems, then it's pretty yikes
jesus
is it true that, if there exist a G-set for a group G, such that G is not faithful on the G-set, and not every element of G act as an identity on the G-set, then G is not simple
exists a homomorphism from G with non-trivial/proper kernel <=> G has non trivial/proper normal subgroup <=> G not simple
What you describe results in a non-trivial/proper kernel, I believe.
yeah idk, it seems like a direct application of the theorem
but i don't think i understand the theorem enough to know if it is the "right" application of it



