#groups-rings-fields
1 messages ¡ Page 56 of 1
Sorry you're talkin about the elements of (Z/3Z)/S
correct
oh lol
I'm not sure this is relevant to their question
? I was just showing an example of dividing a group into equivalence classes for a quotient group since it seems to be what they are confused about.
oh well
As for this, are you asking why the last to lines say "subgroup" and not jut subset?
im wondering why do I need the fact that subgroups of abelian groups are abelian when comuting that the inverses of abelian towers are abelian
I only use the isomorphism theorems
But they are already having a hard time understanding Z/pZ, so I think quotienting Z/pZ would not help them
ok
Well, you have an abelian tower of G', and a morphism from G to G'
yes
Gi/Gi+1 is not isomorphic to G'i/G'i+1
because its not surjective?
not sure what you mean...
rather, it's isomorphic to a subgroup of G'i/G'i+1
no problem
also this
@hot lake @rustic crown i did my best to prove
also this alternative using ring isomorphism
so uh which part is the proof that "pZ is maximal => p is prime" and which part is the proof that "p is prime => pZ is maximal", or are you just doing a chain of equivalences
Chain of equivalence
In the starting i stated that if we can prove it is a finite commutative integral domain we can conclude that it's a field so pZ will be maximal
ah so you already know theorems like "I is maximal <=> R/I is a field" and "Zp is a field <=> p is prime" ?
Yes
then yeah the alternative one is the easiest
Also yeah I think i should have explicitly stated the theorems before using them
are you saying Zp and Z/pZ are literally equal
idk about your course but I probably wouldn't bother proving that Zp and Z/pZ are the same thing
I'm not even sure where you are taking your ring operations from in your isomorphism proof
Please elaborate
well normally you need to show that f(a+b) = f(a)+f(b) where + and + are the corresponding ring operations and same with x
so here your proof is just stating that it is the case
and usually you would have to go and use the definitions of + and +
so that we know you aren't making things up
you have to show that the addition in the equivalence class world is the same addition as the one in the remainders world
Since it's the set of integers i automatically used it without thinking. I'll define them from the next time
however that last one is defined
if your argument is f(a+b) = a+b = f(a)+f(b) without explaining why the definitions of additions make those true you aren't really bringing much to make a proof
though in this case uh
like I said I wouldn't bother trying to explain why Z/pZ and Zp are isomorphic
because when you look at the definitions it's just the same thing
and yeah the whole exercise reduces to pZ is maximal <=> Z/pZ is a field <=> p is prime
and pointing out that those two equivalences are theorems from the course
presumably you defined Zp as an example of a ring before defining ideals and quotient rings
Off topic, some seniors of mine has stated that i need to practice my proof writings more be it number theory or calc. But with only reading the book and teh internet i get a lot of things wrong. Can you recommend how do I know if my proofs are wrong or correct.
And processors are very very very unreliable
your proofs are very unclear logically speaking
so you proved the isomorphism
and then said "therefore pZ is maximal only when Z/pZ is a field"
here you made no mention of the theorem form the course saying I is maximal <=> R/I is a field
and "only when" is not the same thing as an equivalence
you are just saying "if pZ is maximal then Z/pZ is a field"
when you could be saying "pZ is maximal <=> Z/pZ is a field"
which by the way comes straight from the theorem in the course and has nothing to do with the isomorphism with Zp
so using "therefore" as if you needed the isomorphism there is wrong
then you go to the next step
and you write "<=> Z/pZ is a field only when Zp is a field"
so you copied your last sentence and replaced Z/pZ with Zp because they are isomorphic
however putting an "<=>" to introduce that step is super wrong
you already know the first sentence is true
you can just say "since I know Zp and Z/pZ is isomorphic, we now have : insert statement"
you have no businees saying "the first statement is true if and only if the second is true, oh and does anyone remember if it was true in the first place ?"
đ
then you go to the next step
now you are introducing the fact that Zp is a field <=> p is prime
taken straight from your course
can someone help me
and you are claiming that the statement in line 2 is equivalent to that fact from the course
and then after all that
you says "this implies that pZ is maximal <=> p is prime"
so yeah the collection of facts proves that
don't put <=> signs as if there were equivalences going on
may I ask you where these rings are contained?
yes that's perfect
oh I know what I did initially I literally wrote my whole thought process even though those only broke my proof
you should try and make it clear what comes from a theorem what comes from a definition, what comes from a computation
and then writing the logical steps is uh.. from practice
the way you put "therefore" and "<=>" carries some meaning
thank you so much for being patient with me! I will keep these tips in mind when solving my next problem
the ideals are in an arbitrary ring
say p is a prime in A. and show that A/p is a field 
to need to show that descending chain condition holds in A/p ?
pick an element a outside p, and see what happens to its powers 
yep, that's also a good idea.
but then what?
cause now you know that A/p has descending chain condition and is also an integral domain.
ok
if a is any non-zero element, can you find an inverse? (in A/p)
you know something about descending chains
we need to construct an descending chain right
okie :3
is it wrong
nope
kk but then what ideal to be I_2 ?

:d
yee so what does the hypothesis tell you now
so now (a^n) = (a^n + k)
k is any integer
n is large enough
so we are looking for inveres to a
lets take k=1

nice
and finally integral-domainness
yep
thank you
do you think that is a common exam question?
or too easy/hard for exam?
i can only see this as a part of some larger question. don't think it would be asked independently
oh
how do you know if a polynomial is irreducible on a ring like F7
you can try using eisenstein
I think with x^3+x+1 I can't use it
Eisenstein is not going to be useful in a finite field
I don't know any clever tricks for checking if a particular polynomial over a finite field is irreducible, but the good thing is that you only need to check finitely many things
In particular, if your polynomial is of degree <= 3, then you can just check if it has a root, which involves just... substituting the finitely many field elements and checking lmao
you can look into quotients of F7[x]
Wym? If a nonlinear polynomial has a root, then evidently it is reducible
this is due to the division algorithm
yes exactly, but how do I argue the opposite
The opposite being...?
can I say that by proving that no elemnts of Fn is a root of my polinomial, then it has to be irreducible
Well that's not going to be sufficient in general
Let me think of an example, quickly
If we're working in F_2, then the polynomial x^2 + x + 1 is irreducible, since it is a degree 2 polynomial with no roots
I was thinking of the same example
but (x^2 + x + 1)^2 is not irreducible, despite having no roots
you beat me to it
Haha great minds đ§
that it is irreducible
OK, what's the polynomial you're looking at
this one exactly
Right
OK so if it is reducible, how is it going to reduce?
Think about the degrees of its factors
oh contradiction
I see
in two polynomials fg where if I call my polynomial p then deg(p)=deg(fg)
that's right
this means that either f or g have to have degree 3
Well yes, but in particular, if p is reducible then either f or g has to have degree 1!
Which means...
And what does that tell you about the roots of p
that I have to have at least one in F7 right?
That's exactly right
otherwise you can't decompose it
So if p is reducible, then it has a root
Now we just take the contrapositive of this statement
:)
N.b. this only worked because p was degree 3
I get it now, thank you for helping me 
No worries DG
does it always work if my degree is prime?
I'd say yes
by the same argument(?)
Anytime
Is it true that thst R[X] is a pid only if R is a field?
Yeah
is there a case where R[X] could be a field?
over the field with one element it is
it's the zero ring but as a field

1!=0 (?)
In mathematics, the field with one element is a suggestive name for an object that should behave similarly to a finite field with a single element, if such a field could exist. This object is denoted F1, or, in a FrenchâEnglish pun, Fun. The name "field with one element" and the notation F1 are only suggestive, as there is no field with one elem...
oh yeah? then why are sets F_1-vector spaces
GL_n(F_1) is iso to S_n... if it's not real then how am I spitting factoids
wait what how
I wrote them in a misleading way, it's more that the first statement implies the 2nd
this probably explains it better than I could
basically, field with one element = funny meme
there's some weird categorical construction that makes these ideas concrete but F_1 is definitely not a field
F1 IS A FIELD!!!!1!1!1!1 DON'T BELIEVE WHAT THE GOVERNMENT WANTS YOU TO THINK,,,,

whoa whoa whoa what the heck
What are the premises to this statement?
'Let R be a commutative ring with identity' ?
yes
It maybe looks more surprising than it is. The implications
R field => R[x] euclidean => R[x] PID
are standard (the first is polynomial long division, the second is a general fact about any commutative ring). The final implication
R[x] PID => R field
Is maybe the most surprising but ultimately not that deep; consider the ideal (r, x) for some r in R.
can somebody tell me how do I find this isomorphism, I know chinese remainder theorem, but I don't get how to use it in this case
I don't think this is about Chinese remainder theorem?

180 = 2^2 * 3^2 * 5 for example
so you can decompose C_180 as product of C_2^2, C_3^2 and C_5
and I'd do the same to 150, 70 etc.
oh well there is probably like a faster way to see this instead of writing it in this form
is this called something else in the group case? i call it CRT here as well :p
Idk. I refer to it only in ring case
yea that's a proper thing to do
but can't resist it if you use the Z/nZ notation instead of C_n
like if you look at factors of 2, you have C_4 x C_2 x C_2 x C_4 x C_4 here so 3 copies of C_4 and 2 copies of C_2
so d) looks plausible
c) too
okay they all have 3 copies of C_4 and 2 copies of C_2 
now maybe look at the prime 3
luckily you don't have to go beyond 7 
you have two C_9 and two C_3
so a) and b) still have this
but c) doesn't!
and d) doesn't either
so we know it must be a) or b)
and 1260 has a 7 in it so a) can't be good either
oh wait no
there's a factor of 7 in the original group anyway
you have 4 copies of C_5 in a)
but original group has two C_5 and one C_25
so they're not isomorphic
so its b)

dun cri 

if I have Z[X]/(3,X^2+X+1) what is the best way to prove if this is a field or not? I thought about writing it as (Z/3Z[X])/(X^2+X+1) I mean, I know that Z/3Z[X] is a ring and my Ideal is contained there, so it would be enough to prove that my polynomial is irreducible right?
over Z/3Z
which is not I guess
what exactly?
hauptidealring = principal ideal domain = pid
so it's not a field right?
haupt = principal? 
jaa

wait what do you then call principal ideal ring
yeah I asked my self the same
yee your reasoning is all good because Z/3Z is a field.
another way to see that is by noticing directly that
(3, x^2 + x + 1) = (3, x^2 - 2x + 1) = (3, (x-1)^2)
:p
but ofc what you did is nicer 
dumb question incoming, be ready

I can do that because it's generated by 3 as well right?
so -3x is also contained in my ideal
damn
this is crazy
If I pass this exam, it's all because of you guys
eh
hauptidealbereich = pid
hauptidealring = pir
technically speaking
but usually you just say hauptidealring for pid
oh so like the main train-station is hauptbahnhof 
yeee
principal station 
bahn = train
bist ja gar nicht so schlecht
hof = station

it's also an orbit in algebra
ok this is intriguing, could you explain
.
if a prof allows PIRs we call PID Hauptidealbereich and PIR Hauptidealring
bad
cope harder

but there's a terminology clash 
It's just that bahn has different meanings as illu said, it's like a path(?)
det is learning more german words 
do you know what an hof also ist
it has like 10 different meanings

it's also like courtyard, schoolyard,court, farm and so on
but it's like the collection of something
you say bahnhof because it's where all bahnen meet(?)
it's so stupid somehow ahha
i found it strange that hospital in german was krankenhaus
like you expect some words to be more or less similar in all languages right
I mean, you can say Spital
ooh
mfw the only german word I know is zahlen
but I don't know if it's just swissgerman
i know that too :3
yes
reminds me of Z(G)
oh is that why we use Z(G) and not C(G)?
It exactly is what we call it haha

i used to always call it zenter while learning group theory lol
i have never heard someone call it that
let Z(G) be the zenter of G
i propose we use this notation


I think it's a Suisse thingy
u overlay the same 4 arrows
$Z(\Xi)$
ha
how would you notate the centraliser then
Zentralisator
this is giving me tranquilizing a dinosaur vibes 
Is every Dedekind domain D finitely generated as a Z-algebra (D ~ Z[x_1, ... , x_n]/I for some ideal I in Z[x_1, ... , x_n]) ring isomorphic to a number field K? I've been thinking about this and I'm not sure if such a counterexample exists.
is this only the identity?
conjugations just swap elements {3, 5, 2, 4} in that cycle
so there is as much elements conjugate to a as there is 4-cycles formed from 3, 5, 2, 4
you can get a 1 too
and if you try to conjugate the identity you get the identity
so you can't conjugate something nontrivial and get the identity
if that was your question
is k[[x]] f.g. as a Z-alg?
so all 4-cycles in S_5
is it true that conjugate means a*Ď= Ď where sigma is in S5
the a should be up
like aĎa^-1=Ď
aĎa^-1 this is a conjugate of Ď
when you conjugate cycles by permutation, the formula is nice
I agree on this
$\tau(a_1...a_n)\tau^{-1} = (\tau(a_1)...\tau(a_n))$
Blitz
yes you can just operate the permutation on the single element
exactly
so in this case
when are two elements conjugate?
and thats the point - we can get every 4-cycle from a
okay
in S_n?
yes, like you just have to operate sigma on it?
when they have the same type of decomposition as disjoint cycles
the the amount of m-cycles are the same in each decomposition for each m
what do you get here?
all possible 4-cycles
for the first question
this is given by some Stirling number
oh apply this formula
by the way it's formulated meand that tau is (2 3) right?
(2534)
okay yes thank you
yes
(23) is a function which swaps 2 and 3
so conjugating a by (23) just swaps 2 and 3
Iâm not parsing that correctly. What is that notation?
In mathematics, especially in combinatorics, Stirling numbers of the first kind arise in the study of permutations. In particular, the Stirling numbers of the first kind count permutations according to their number of cycles (counting fixed points as cycles of length one).
The Stirling numbers of the first and second kind can be understood as i...
oh it's the ring of power series over the field k. you wanted a dedekind domain, so i started by thinking about PIDs first
ohhh, I didnt have this yes in the lecture
combi is so hard
well, I'm just mentioning that there is probably some way of doing it more using Stirling numbers
I like to mention a result or two like that sometimes when talking about related thing
I'm gonna read it, sounds interesting
It's better for me to understand things, so thank you!!
first focus on your exams and stuff
Ahhhhh okay I figured it was the ring of power series đ alright weâre on the same page now
so first you choose 4 elements from 5 so you get 5 possibilities
and then you get how many 4-cycles you can get from 1, 2, 3 and 4
so won't a finite type Z-alg be countable?
which should be 3! = 6 (we can assume the cycle looks like (1abc) then 3! choices for a, b, c
so to get a counter example. find an uncountable PID
Yes
Oh hmmmm I didnât think of that!
It's the best way to show that an ideal is maximal, showing that the factorring is a field?
can anyone give me a good book or any source to understand field extensions?
in english or french
It probably depends on the context, there's probably some tricks as with everything too... but for me, yeah ig
Or directly from definition... probably even easier
could i get a root, a, where F(a) = F(a^2) but minimal polynomial of a is even
root a of what?
ah so F is a field
yeah just any example
jesus, I thought F was a function
I mean an example where its the case that F(a) = F(a^2) for some root a, but [F(a):F] = 2n for some n \in N
so this is equivalent to a = p(a^2) for some polynomial p(x)
why specify even - whats your odd example?
oh nvm i see it 
the converse is true for whenever [F(a):F] = odd
oh I guess I'm assuming a has finite order or whatever its called
does picking a field where a = a^2 work
mod 2 then
hm?
oh you mean Z/2Z
x^2 + x + 1
Roots of this are the 2 cyclotomic cube roots of unity? Done?
i have no idea what you just said
whats cube root of unity
x^3 = 1
o
the solutions to this
ignoring 1
,w expand (x^2+x+1)(x-1)
yh so i think this fits what u want
x and x^2 are complex conjugates
my intuition tells me this is true
ok so
we need gcd(|a|, 2) = 1
5th cyclotomic polynomial works, doesn't it
yeah even 3rd one works
@coral shale is right
very nice edit right there
totally didnt see anything
shhhhhh
each prime p you can take that cyclotomic polynomial too to get infinitely many examples
is it possible to get all n, not just when n=(p-1)/2
any cyclotomic for n > 2 works (assuming gcd is 1)
because phi is even for any n > 2 (or 3? I forgor)
yeah true I guess since the kth cyclotomic polynomial has degree phi(k) then I should really be asking when we have [F(a):F]=2n != phi(k)
thx btw
first several cases to start looking at if I didn't do it wrong are: 14, 26, 34, 38, 50, 62, 68, 74, 76, 86, 90, 94, 98
but for even numbers isn't a^2 not a generator?
wdym, in the x^2+x+1 example both a and a^2 generate the same extension of Q
yeah but that's 3
I don't follow, it's degree 2
yip
and n > 2
and all n that satisfy those conditions work cuz phi is always even for n > 2
I guess constructing a degree 14 irreducible polynomial where the roots a and a^2 both generate the extension is tough
the obvious first thing to try of x^{2n} - p won't work
probably that's what motivated OP's question in the first place looking at eisenstein polynomials
what other irreducibility tests are out there to try to use
reduction mod p maybe, but I'm not sure that would help here
what's the context
zx calculus doesnât state why
?
I mean, it's easy to see they're isomorphic as graphs
you just move the heart box left
oh and flip the other one over, I suppose
unless there's some difference between a left and a right connection
i donât see it they have different connections on the boxes
and different labels for the boxes
even if you move them around
who cares about labels? that's the point of an isomorphism
but no the connections are the same, that part is important
I think they're trying to say if you have 2x=6 then 2x and 6 don't look the same but you can do "algebra" on them to solve for x basically by adding boxes etc I guess
again, I'm assuming these are graphs - if you're treating them as braids or something then idk
that makes sense
iâll try to color code what i see on mobile and walking so be a sec
if I draw them like this is it more obvious why they're the same?
to me these aren't the same, but since the labels on the vertices are different, then it's possible that you can have the same net effect on two inputs with one output
i dont
yes, they're iso as directed graphs illuminator - but if labels matter then I agree with merosity
and as I said before
can you link it
i see the blue lining up
the red lining up
but the green and purple
are on different sides of the box
are all of the operators involved commutative?
i dunno because this is first few pages of the book doesnât give any machinery of whatâs valid
just says theyâre equal
so wondered if there is some underlying set of moves that would make them equal if we assumed certain things are valid
it looks valid to me if you can move the wire from green position to purple position and vice versa
and make the respective move for the black wire?
I agree with you yeah
k maybe iâll just skip this part of the book since it doesnât give any valid operations
and maybe itâs what @delicate bloom said here
it is indeed
k
it looks like itâs 2 inputs 1 output for one box and 1 box with just an output and no inputs ?
for both diagrams
they're saying that you can manipulate equations a bit like the usual algebraic equations
that is IF the first equation between diagrams is correct
then you can add boxes and stuff to get other equations
ok that makes sense
tyall
yeah this is from something called zx calculus. i think they later define some sort of algebra on the string diagrams
maybe this is the new standard for string diagrams
my professor showed me his atlas of finite groups today, and i can tell you that iâve never seen a bigger book in my life

Hello, how can I start proving that the algebraic closure of Q is countable ?
Read about SkolemâLĂśwenheim đ¤ˇ
in general the algebraic closure of a non finite field has the same cardinality as the field
the set of polynomials in rational coefficients is countable, and each one has finitely many roots
are these like
category theory string diagrams
yes i believe so
cool
Okay thanks guys đ
let me introduce you to 0
You'd think I would've internalised this by now after taking Galois theory
"but what about the empty set"

allow me to correct - all units in rings are invertible 
shuri, they asked if some number is a unit in some field
idc
Yes, some number is always in a unit in some field
can someone explain why k[x_1, x_2, ,\cdots, x_n] is a graded algebra
and wut ppl mean when they say its "graded by degree"
ima learning about algebras for the first time so its kinda hard ofr me to wrap my head aroudn
algebra = vector space + ring
you say it's graded if you can write it as a direct sum â_{n in Z} A_n such that A_n * A_m lies inside A_{n+m}
you say k[x1, ..., xn] is graded by degree since you can decompose it like above where A_d = homogeneous polynomials of degree d
because you can write L = K(alpha)^{ân} where n = [L:K(alpha)].
And the characteristic polynomial of m_a on K(a) is exactly the minimal polynomial
Did I steal your line det
yee pretty much >.<
Sorry!
someone send me the paramedic

Cardano 
ig if you really wanna avoid calculations using roots, you can use the formula for discriminant in terms of the resultant, which then can be computed via det of a 5x5 sylvester matrix 
WTF why is det in a 5x5 Sylvester matrix????
LMFAO
I thought det was in đŠđŞ
đŠđŞ
yep
another question
wait lemme double check my calculation
is x^4 - 2x + 2 irreducible over Z
Yes
what was your calculation
like, high-level not nitty-gritty details
which reduced down to x^4-2x+2
It becomes this?
chmonkey knows why I asked haha
Cool
Mero was asking how you showed this is irr
this combined with what det said
so first of all, to establish that this is tru
true
do you agree that $\alpha$ satisfies the \emph{characteristic} polynomial of $m_\alpha$
Not ShiN
I mistyped my bad
so how do we show x^4-2x+2 is irreducible
Eisenstein's criteria
now what happens if you plug in 1 to this equation
how does m_a act on the element 1
ahh
yea
its field of fractions right
so you get that alpha satisfies the char poly
now in the case K(a)/K, what is the degree of the char poly
right
and what's the degree of the min poly
so does this work
to showing x^4-2x+2 is irreducible
by einsteins criteria 2 divides both -2 and 2
but 4 does not divide 2
so its irr over Q
and by Gauss lemma
its irr over Z
exactly!
ok so we established that for K(a)/K, the min poly and the char poly coincide
does einstein crieteria work over z too
And if itâs irr over Q itâs irr over Z, you donât need Gaussâs lemma for that
i didnt know that
Gaussâs lemma says irr over Z gets it for you over Q as well
now, do you see why L/K can be written as [L:K(a)] disjoint copies of K(a)?
Eisenstein holds for polynomials over any UFD
oh thats right
and primitive
sorry new to this portion of alg
ok, so this basically immediately follows from how you prove the tower law for degrees
take some basis $\beta_1,\ldots,\beta_n$ of $K(\alpha)/K$, and take some basis $\gamma_1,\ldots,\gamma_k$ of $L/K(\alpha)$. You surely know that ${\beta_i\gamma_j}_{i,j}$ is a basis of $L/K$. Now, note that $\operatorname{span}(\beta_1\gamma_j,\ldots,\beta_n\gamma_j)\cong K(\alpha)$ as $K$-Vector spaces for all $ 1\leq j \leq k$. Does this make sense so far?
Not ShiN
alright cool, so this shows us that $L$ as a $K$-vector space is a direct sum of these spans, each of which are isomorphic to $K(\alpha)$, and there are $[L:K(\alpha)]$ copies in total. Now, how does $m_\alpha$ act on each of these subspaces? (In terms of its action on $K(\alpha)$)
Not ShiN
to make it a bit more explicit, we've written $\ L=K(\alpha)\gamma_1\oplus\cdots\oplus K(\alpha)\gamma_k$ and we are now examining the action of $m_\alpha$ on $L$ by examining the action on each of these subspaces
Not ShiN
yes
every element in $K(\alpha)\gamma_j$ is just something of the form $\xi\gamma_j$ for $\xi\in K(\alpha)$ right, so $m_\alpha(\xi\gamma_j) = \alpha\xi\gamma_j = m_\alpha(\xi)\gamma_j$. The point is that $m_\alpha$ acts on each of these subspaces exactly the same way
Not ShiN
That is, if we were to write $M=[m_\alpha]{\beta}$, the matrix representation of $m\alpha:K(\alpha)\to K(\alpha)$ according to the basis $\beta = (\beta_1,\ldots,\beta_n)$, then the matrix representation of $m_\alpha$ on $L$ would just be a diagonal of these $M$s
Not ShiN
no problem!
yea from here it's just using the properties of the determinant of a block-diagonal matrix and our initial result that we established
it's definitely not trivial though imo
like idk if 'recall' here is like "figure it out" or if you were actually supposed to know this
ahh ok
fair enough
lmao wow
Very based
What are some examples of a commutator ideal of a lie algebra?
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
ok maybe at least #proofs-and-logic
nah not really
i think that #proofs-and-logic is appropriate
If $A$ is a $k$-algebra with generators $x_1,\dots,x_r$, why is $A$ infinitely generated? am I misunderstanding something?
Tubular Cat
Infinity generated as modules
is it correct to say that A is finitely generated as a k-algebra (by {x_1,\dots,x_r}) but infinitely generated as a module (by a bunch of various degree monomials in x_1,..,x_r)?
I mean itâs still possible that itâs finitely generated as a module by those elements
So I dislike how theyâve worded it
Itâs just possible that A is not finitely generated as a module
Take k[x] over k as an example
But then k[x]/(x^2) is an example where itâs still finitely generated as a module
i think i am confused by the wording lol
This is correct but the thing is you might not need every monomial
yeah ok
Like in the k[x]/(x^2) example
You donât need anything beyond x
Because the crap just ends up as 0
In general you can say that if youâre generated as an algebra by finitely many elements x1,âŚ,xn all of which satisfy monic polynomials over k, then the thing is finite as a k-module
i guess i understand the intention of writing the fact that A can be infinitely generated, but it need not be
Yes
thanks!

If G is a group of order 8 I know that there are elements of g with the order 1,2,4,8. Let now g in G be the element with order 4, then I define N:= <g>, and I know that N is normal in G. If I take an x in G\N why is x^2N=N? I somehow don't see the direct connection, cause I'd have (xN)(xN). Is xNx=N because x is the inverse of x?
There isnât necessarily an element of order 4
And if there is x^2N = N is just lagrangeâs theorem applied to G/N
(Counterexample to the first: C2 x C2 x C2)
I know that there might be one
Then see the second part
I'm actually trying to find groups of order 8 up to isomoprhism
I somehow don't see the argumentation
G/N has magnitude 8/4 = 2
So by Lagrange, (xN)^2 = eN so x^2 N = eN
pff okay that was easy hahahaha
sorry, somehow didn't see it
thank youuu
CAYLEYTABLESCAYLEYTABLESCAYLEYTABLESCAYLEYTABLESCAYLEYTABLESCAYLEYTABLESCAYLEYTABLES
we didn't do it yet đ
That sounds like pain for order 8
now do it for order 40
my prof doesn't like it I guess
yeah my prof didn't talk about them either
it's just like
a multiplication table
Sylow deals with this quite quickly ||every one is the semi direct product of some G of order 8 with C5||
woosh
I recognised the joke
It just wasnât funny
yeah gruppentafel is cayley table
how would you write Z[X]/(X^2+X+1) as a set
is this like the set of polynomial of degree one?
and also is it true that a prime ideal in R is maximal if R is a pid?
Yes
And yes
I don't see why though, is there like a proposition or a theorem(?)
does this only hold in pid's?
The way I would think of it is that you can âget ridâ of any terms of degree > 1 using x^2 = -x - 1
I wouldnât think so
so if my ideal (...) is a polynomial of degree n then Z/(...)[X] is always the set of polynomials of degrees n-1(?)
Yes
I'm asking this, because I was trying to see if (3,x^2+x+1) is maximal or prime in Z[X]
I think that it is not maximal
but it still could be prime right?
Z[X] is not a pid
I don't see why though
x^2 + x - 2 = (x-1)(x + 2) is in the ideal
Yes
I got it, thank you for helping me
were we wrong(?)
like this is reducible mod 3 or am I tripping(?)
I mean, this is a factorisation with neither factor in the ideal
Anything in the ideal of degree less than 2 is divisible by 3
in my opinion the answer above is wrong
Actually maybe not
Actually it will be
I was thinking if we could cancel down terms using a multiple of 3 and of the poly, but we canât (just get a multiple of 3)
how do you know if this is irreducible or not?
could check for zeros
probably the best thing to check first if you are given a polynomial of stupidly high degree
isn't there a better way
is this an Altklausur from 2016 by any chance
it was taken in January 2016 yes haha
Probably not here
brute force is rapid?
its almost always brute force for small char
profs at my uni do that as well
include the year in some exponent or something

indeed
Are you one of those ppl that need to be reminded after new year because they write it wrong on postcards etc
Looks like it might come from considering forward differences
i think that's the (n+1)th derivative is 0. where by derivative i mean (Îf)(x) = (f(x) - f(x-1))/(x - (x-1)) = f(x) - f(x-1)
interesting, why should this be true anyway?
also where does this discrete notion of derivative show up?
i've only seen it in some combi stuff
In your problem, apparently :p
because Î(x^n) = poly of degree n-1, so iterating it will kill the whole thing. Î satisfies all the nice properties you want it to :3
Î = Id - shift might be also a good thing to notice, together with binomial theorem
that's pretty smart
which shift hmm
shift(f)(x) = f(x-1)
is what I mean
this formula they wrote is basically using binomial theorem for Î^(n+1) = (Id-shift)^(n+1)
that's quite nice Blitz 
and that Î^(n+1) f(x) = 0 for polynomials of degree <= n for degree reasons as det already been saying
(i.e. deg(Îf) = deg(f) - 1 when deg(f) > 0, Î is degree decreasing)
this seems believable, i.e., that putting triangle^{n+1}(f(x)) = 0 would produce the equation
idk what u mean by binomial theorem here
you have operators on the ring R[x]
consider the two operators Id and shift
Id(f) = f, shift(f) is the polynomial which satisfies shift(f)(x) = f(x-1)
Binomial theorem is a pretty general formula
it holds in any commutative ring tbh
here you have... a ring of operators on polynomials
multiplication being composition, and addition being pointwise addition
I mean
sure this might not be a commutative ring but whatever
Id and shift commute is important part
so you have
Blitz
that's too good
Blitz
my mind is blown today
never used binomial theorem on operators except when i was really doing functional analysis lol
thanks a lot!!!
Let 0 \to X \to Y \to Z \to 0 be a SES where X and Z are noetherian R-modules. How can we deduce that Y must also be noetherian?
You can use that quotients of noetherian modules are noetherian again and the fact that the SES and Y being noetherian implies that X and Z are noeth.
Take a bunch of quotients and construct new sequences
Maybe thereâs a better way
Since X, Z noetherian any set of submodules will have a maximal element. So let Y_0 \subset Y_1 \subset \dots be an ascending chain of submodules of Y.
Then we have the sets S_x := {X \cap Y_i | Y_i in ascending chain of submodules in Y} and S_y := {p(Y_i) | p map from Y to Z in SES}
uhh..
we need to show middle is noetherian right 
Yes I mean that you use that fact in the new sequences you construct
Ah wait
I might be talking BS one sec
S_x would have a maximal element so any other Y_i for some large i would still be the maximal right
similarly for S_y
then we might induce SES from this such that 0 \to Y_{i+1}/Y_i \to 0
so Y_i+1 = Y_i
yea the idea is correct
common timo L
Can someone help me to prove the underlined statement?
If I argue by contradiction no idea how to make progress
I guess I don't see why they necessarily need to be unique and you cannot have something like (4 2 3 3 4), when 4 is your a_1
think its bijection idea
so suppose sigma^n=sigma^k and wlog suppose n ⼠m
then sigma^(n-k)=x
Let R be a ring, p a maximal prime ideal of R and M a finitely generated R-module. If pM=M does it follow that M=0 ?
but oh no's, n-k < m, now done
But that only guarantees the a_1 = a_m right and not the uniqueness for the elements in between
i'm assuming sigma is invertible
oh nvm I think I get it
the argument i gave shows that the sigma^i (x) must be distinct. i don't actually have any clue what context this is in, nor what the sigmas are because i haven't read most of that
Thanks for the inspiration
this reminds me of the proof stuff used in e.g. Lagrange's theorem or other order stuffs
in that i used the exact same reasoning
Quick check: this should work verbatim for infinite splitting fields as well, right?
Baumslag-Solitar Group
How can one have an infinite-degree splitting field?
Perhaps I'm misunderstanding
Splitting fields are obtained by adjoining finitely many algebraic elements
consider infinitely many polynomials
It's not about infinite degrees, it's about infinite families of polynomials. For the relevant definition see e.g. Lang.
Ah ok
Bit confused. There is a dutch and english version of a book for class and one defines a representation of G of K (G a finite group and K a field) as a group homomorphism from G to GL(n, K) for n >= 0 and the other as a group homomorphism from G to Aut_K(G). Are these the same thing or is there a difference?
the first one is what you would typically call a matrix representation
a (more "general") rep is a group hom from the group to invertible operators on Kn
a rep can be made into a matrix rep by picking a basis
That should Aut_K(V) for some finite dimension vs tho
Ohhh okay I think I might get it
Is there someone who can help me with basic quaternion multiplication

this emote xd
Before starting, am I right to say that multiplying a vector from a n-dimension to a vector from a (n-1)-dimension will give a vector from the n-dimension
There is no notion of vector multiplication that I know of which gives you something like that
Ok then, how is this guy multiplying a non-pure quaternion with a 3D vector and having as a result a 3D vector
The quarternion describes a rotation of 3d space. The 'multiplication' is best thought of more like an application of this rotation to a vector.
N.b. you are not multiplying together two vectors, you are multiplying a quarternion and a vector. If someone goes "um ackshually quarternions form an R-vector space" I will become the joker
Ok well how should I process
Have you considered that quaternions form an R vector space
𤥠hi guys do u like my new makeup
bruuuuuuuuuuuuuuh
you're cute uwu 
If D is a Dedekind domain and F its field of fractions, what could Jacobson mean by F(D)? Do you think it's a typo and he means E(D) (although that doesn't really change things)?
oh
F^(1/q) is the subfield of Fbar of elements v such that v^q in F.
Also
D^(1/q) is the subring of Fbar of elements v such that v^q in D.
should have written "(respectively)" somewhere... thats really confusing
Oh crap, I hadn't realised that's what he meant!
Thanks @oblique river and @rustic crown.
might be * is overloaded and it's implemented as something like q * p = qpp^-1
Good catch
I'm blanking, why I'^{q-1}J'^{q}\subset J'?
Could anyone help me w this?
It should just be a direct computation
like see how ĎaĎ^-1 acts on Ď(a_i) and stuff not in the image of Ď
i dont understand that tho
like
pi is a permutation
like (1, 2, 3, 4) (top row)
(4, 3, 2, 1) (bottom row)
How can I get the subgroups out of the Cayley table?
My problem is
Z_3ĂZ_3
I have to take out all the subgroups of these
and a is some cycle
like (xyz)
what does pi(ai) even mean
like that matrix (....)(x) ?
@south patrol
I mean we can use lagrange here
no
pi(a_i) is what happens when you use pi on a_i
like say pi = (123)
and a_i = 2
then it just sends 2 to 3
I have not read about it
yeah pi(2)=3
I hardly go in subgroups
Let $G$ be a finite group of order $2^{6} \cdot 3^{3}$ and suppose by way of contradiction that its number of Sylow $2$-subgroups is equal to $9$. Denote by $S$ its set of Sylow $2$-subgroups. Then the second Sylow theorem guarantess us that the action:
$$
\Psi : G \rightarrow \text{Perm}(S)
$$
given by $g \mapsto \Psi_{g}$ where:
$$
\psi_{g}(H) = gHg^{-1}
$$
Is well defined and transitive. Notice that a fixed point of this action corresponds precisely to a normal Sylow $2$-subgroup of $G$.
\bigbreak
We assure that this action has at least one fixed point. Indeed, if it didn't, then $\Psi$ would correspond to a free and transitive action of $G$ on $S$, thus implying that $2^{6} \cdot 3^{3} \neq G| = |S| = 9 $, which is a contradiction. This then implies the existence of a fixed point of the action $\Psi$, thus of a normal Sylow $2$-subgroup of $G$. This is again a contradiction, since this would imply that $G$ has a unique Sylow $2$-Subgroup, since maximal $2$-subgroups are unique, contradicting our hypothesis.
\bigbreak
We conclude then that $G$ can't have exactly $9$ Sylow $2$-subgroups.
MisterSystem
Could someone verify if this particular argument is valid???
I am pretty sure there's a mistake somewhere
But I can't find it
oh
I fucked up the definition of free action

that's the mistake
ye
you should get |G/N(H)| =|S|
also like your argument works for all group then all syllow groups are normal
So C[G] is isomorphic to the product of irreducible representations right
Is there a similar statement for R[G]
Where R is the reals
Is Z[X] a PID?
What do u think
I mean Z is Euclidean, so I'd say yes
Where the Euclidean norm is the absolute value
What facts do you know about PIDs
Thatâs not true
Okay but that doesnât help here
If youâre trying to ascertain if Z[x] is a PID (unless you want to try and prove itâs Euclidean)
I know the definition of PID, which is that every ideal is proper
I donât think thatâs what you meant to type
What do you mean?
Well, no ring has the property that every ideal is proper
Because the ring itself is an ideal
Oh wait you say principal in English
Yeah, proper means âis not the entire setâ
So a PID is an integral domain where every ideal is principal
Okay, but do you know any other properties? You can disprove that Z[x] is a PID easier if you know some other properties of PIDs, but you can also just prove it directly
Not in any fashion that doesnât just solve the problem
Just find an ideal that canât possible be principal
I say âjustâ to mean that thereâs nothing fancy you have to do
Yes I got it, thank you đ¤


this has absolutely nothing to do with abstract algebra whatsoever
@chilly ocean Thank you for pointing me in the right direction
You could use that R[x] is pid iff R is a field if you know where it comes from
where can I find a proof of the cardinality result mentioned here? $V$ is a finite subset of $\mathbb{Z}^d$ and $\Delta$ is the lattice laplacian
Bilboswaggins
Let $R$ be a commutative ring and $I$, $J$, $K$ be three ideals in $R$. Then show that if $I \subseteq J\cup K$, then $I \subseteq J$ or $I \subseteq K$.



