#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 55 of 1
picking Z so that it works for every possible map
it would be easier to pick different Z for different V --> W
after all you know you can do it for every Z :3
okie
let g1, g2 be maps satisfying the "epic" part of this
so g1 \circ f = g2 \circ f implies g1 = g2
what then
oh so are we doing A -> B -> B/im(f)
that's this part right
which sends b to the coset containing b
yep, i like being lazy :3
0 is the + identity

but then is this the additive identity in B?
no right
it's the lone element of B/im(f) right
thank you for your patience btw 
wait so what are the two maps again
aww lol
i once remember watching this show and i slept while this guy was telling me "I'm a map"
then i woke up after a while
and it was still saying "I'm a map" but possibly a different episode
i was so confused

natural projection B -> B/im(f)

trivial map B -> B/im(f) sending everything to additive identity
they kinda have to agree right
i wa about to say the map f : A -> B has no effect on either g
but g maps to B/im(f) so it's literally defined based on f
yep it's literally defined so that A --> B --> B/im(f) becomes 0
under the natural projection
but we can say that since g1(f(x)) = g2(f(x)), it follows that g1(y) = g2(y)
He was saying “I’m the map”
wait really
yeah lol
woah
this might be silly to ask, but then how does this give us that all epimorphisms are surjective
this isn't enough right
i think im missing pointing out that B/im(f) is just one elt but idk which part that follows from
because that means the projection map, which is surjective has the same image as the trivial map
so V2/im(f) = 0
V2 = im(f)
surjective 
(typo at the end, should be V2)
i did not know that
that makes sense
wait im confused
are you saying that i'm on the right track, or doing it manually is the better way to go?
oh wait
i just need to map the generators
or it's just the generators rather?
im still confused as to why the number of automorphisms is the number of generators
because the specification is that we must map a generator a generator
but then there can be different maps for different generators
so say we have {1, 2, 3, 4} as generators for Z5
its cuz ur just counting the number of maps as i said
wait but there aren't 4 maps
wait but like 1 can map to 1
or 2
or 3
or 4
right
since those are generators
and a genereator must map to a generator
generator
try it out
let phi be an automorphism
if we let phi(1) =1
then the key here
is just to notice that
phi(l) is just l*phi(1)
so ||this will change the order|| which is ||bad|| and we might or might not want that
ohhh
right
so it just like
yeah all an isomorphism does is essentially rename the elements
but the properties are the same?
like i'm thinking in terms of a table
automorphism?
automorphisms are isomorphisms and yes it must preserve all the group structure
so like if we set phi(1) = 2
then we need to check whether 2 is a generator of Z5
but like
sorry im fucking lost lmao
oh wait
so every isomorphism is completely determined by phi(a) where a is a generator
and i literally proved that lol
so like
take 1 which is a genereator for Z5
oh you're working in Z_5
then phi(1) has 4 cohices, 1, 2, 3, 4
i mean <2> generates that anyway so
and then the rest is all decided by that i guess
or something
so that's why there are 4 automorphisms?
yeah
i guess i'm just confused about the technical definition of completely determined then: the book states, that given $\phi: G \mapsto G'$ and $\psi: G \mapsto G'$ are two isomorphisms such that $\phi(a) = \psi(a)$ then $\phi(x) = \psi(x)$ for all $x \in G$
okeyokay
this is not quite right for arbitrary groups
but idk
can you take a pic of the book
yeah well its for cyclic groups
right sorry
oh wait i thought i put that a is a generator
oops
apparently i didnt
but yeah
i'm still confused as to why
or how that is the technical meaning of completely determined
right, could you prove that?
so it's saying that there's only a unique mapping
or there's one mapping
after a generator gets mapped
I mean you could send it to any other generator
yeah but im too lazy lol
but notice the end result is still the same
on Z?
would it just be how many prime num bers there are?
which is infinite
I can tell you it'll be T(i) where T is euler's totient function (why?)
idk what that is
I think i nailed this one. I have shown H intersect K is a subgroup of G contained in H in a previous homework.
atta boy
thank you. crazy this makes sense to me but i cant show a function is surjective to save my life
how would i find a generator for a group under multiplication?
for instance C*, the group of nonzero complex numbers under multiplication
what's wrong with that
oh ok
cuz i'm trying to find the number of elements generated by the cyclic subgroup <i> of the group C* under multiplication
and i thought that you had to take some b in C* such that b = a^s where a is a generator of C*, and then take gcd(n, s) and then divide n/gcd(n, s) where n is the cardinality of C
so my reasoning was that i had to find the generator of C* first
oh ok lol
<i> has |i| elements
cuz after |i| u will just go back
wait im confused
|i| denotes the order of i right
oh wait
ur right
i can just count it
duh
thanks
yes
wait no i can't count it
well ig you can make the argument that it is countable
but manually i can't
wait no
i'm actuallys tupid
ignore that
yeah ur rigth
so it has 4 elements
nope
it has 6 elements
yeah
truly abstract algebra

can somebody explain to me how groupoperations work and how to understand them
I'm kinda confused
Like in which context are they useful? What are the meanings of orbit, stabiliser, normaliser and so on
groups can be used to study symmetries.
If somebody had an easy example, it woulf be nice too
some people will argue this was the entire point of defining groups
say you had a counting problem
well theres the orb-stab theorem
and the naive way would do lots of overcounting
you would wanna count the number of distinct stuff
which owuld be number of orbits
okie a simple example would be to count number of rotations of a cube
the cube has 6 faces, and you know the rotation group acts transitively, so orbit of a single face would be all 6 faces
and the stablizer of a face would be the rotations that don't move that face at all.
ooh this actually has a really nice conclusion
if you're forced to fix a face, then the rotation but be around a vector perpendicular to that face
and from there it's easy to there are 4 such things
so orbit stablizer tells you the size of the rotation group is 4 * 6 = 24
may I ask how you "visualize" the orbit?
just consider the group of permutations not very visual
but you can kind of just imagine a cube rotating no?
i have a cube in my head, and it's rotating, then i see that any face can go to any other face by rotations
Okay, so in this case, we have 6 elements in the orbit, as you said, because we have 6 faces and by applying all the rotations on a face we get 6 faces back
actullay it is
cause you permute all the faces
yee
the orbit of a face would be a subgroup of the rotation group of the cube
so I thought it wouldn't be too visual to imagine elements of that subgroup since they are permutations but oh well
so my cube is the disjoint union of all the orbits right? this means that It's just equal to one orbit(?), because alle orbits are the same in this case
yep, there is a single orbit
in fact they'd actually all be disjoint!

they're disjoint because that's the only set
what is then the stabiliser of a face? we get the identity for sure, but is it something else too?
I guess yes
the 4 rotaions around that face
imagine a line passing normally through the face
imagine the cube rotating around the vertical axis
and use that as the axis of rotation
thanks for the correction det
uwu
arent' there more rotations?
like the stabiliser is all the rotation who leave my face unchanged
it's basically the 4 rotations of square face we're fixing
now here's a really interesting fact
group of permutations acting on a cube is S_4
well isomorphic to
something stupid is gonna come
there's another really fun counting formula
so be ready

what is this then?
I can't categorize it
like this is just the composition of permutations right?
here you're moving that shaded face right
image the third drawing rotating about the vertical axis
so x would be the first face
do a 90degree rotation
jaaa
that's a stablizer element because the top face remains at the top
do you mean the vertical rotation?
yes I understood this fact
So if we fix a face the stabilizers has 4 elements, the orbit has 6 so we get that our set G of rotations has 24 right?
sow we have 24 possible rotations of the cube?
damn
yes sorry
say you wanna count the number of necklaces you can make with say 10 beads using beads of two colors. if you allow all positions of beads as different, then it would 2^10, but a lot of these are same under rotation.
so if you let Z/10Z act on the set of necklaces by rotation
then elements in the same orbit are to be considered the same
which means you want to find the number of distinct orbits
in general if G acts on the set X, then we want a nice formula for the number of orbits
det
now if you swap the sums
det
and the left most thing is calculating the number of orbits, because each element x contributes 1/|O_x| to the sum. so all elements in a single orbit would totally contribute 1 to the sum
this is called Burnside's counting formula
here X^g is the fixed point set, X^g = {x in X | gx = x}
I think it's this one here
like you get the formula you said before by using these counting formulas
This is nice though
the above formula counts the number of orbits
like you can easily see the connection between the things
btw you know you can prove fermat's little theorem using burnside's counting formula?
a^p = a mod p
say you wanna count number of necklaces with p beads of a colors. Z/pZ acts on this, so number of distinct such necklaces by the formula is 1/p(|X^0| + ...)
now X^0 is the fixed points under the identity, so X^0 = X and |X| = a^p. for any other i != 0, X^i would be fixed points under rotating by i, and since p is prime, this would only consist of necklaces where all the beads have the same color. so |X^i| = a
so we get the number of these are 1/p(a^p + (p-1)a) = a + (a^p - a)/p
this is an integer implies a^p = a mod p
okay wow that's really nice
If I have a proper subgroup H of G where G is finite. If I have to show that this is not the same as G, what is the best way to do so? I thought about defining a group actions, but somehow I got stuck
what's that notation? 
det
${}^ab$ is fairly common notation for $aba^{-1}$
Boytjie
oh okie, i wasn't aware >.<
so we wanna show that G is not the union of conjugates of H
since G is finite it suggests that you have to do some counting argument
and as soon as you say some conjugates, i have 3 actions in my mind
G acting on G by conjugation,
G acting of subgroups of G by conjugation
and G acting of G/H by left multiplication
the first one doesn't look that useful
only thing you know is that each conjugacy class is represented by some element of H, but i dont' see any nice thing from there
third one can be a bit useful
ig
because we wanna conclude something about the index
notice that the stablizer of aH would be all g such that g(aH) = aH, which is just aHa^-1
so we know every g fixes at least one element of G/H 
okie any counting here isn't nice because it's a transitive action
what if you just make a very bad bound 
like say number of conjugates of H is r, then |G| <= r * |H|
and we know r = [G:N(H)]
Oh
yea this does it
okie i won't say more >.<
this was weird
me got distracted by looking at actions 
Eso
it's probably (k, l) --> k - l
I feel like ive misinterpreted what direct sum means
yea that always creates some confusion at the start because of internal and external direct sums
i would just write K + L for the internal sum and K ⊕ L for external.
At least you showed your passion haha
Thx for explaining though 


Do you know how to 'calculate' the quantity of Homomorphisms of symmetric groups
Like S3->S4
two homomorphisms may have the same kernel but be different maps
take any two embeddings of S_3 into S_4 for example
So I have to know how many normal subgroups are in S3 for example
Id say the last isomorphism thm?
Or something thede
Or Lagrange
well for n > 4 the number of normal subgroups is well known, so just manually compute it for n <= 4
yes use the good words mr lads
To be honest
I have no idea how many are for n>4
well yeah you haven't worked it out yet 
You said that it's well known 😦
you know something about A_n for n >= 5?

(123) should be mapped to one of the 3-cycles in S_4 for example
and in general to find maps out of something, it's usually going to be best to find a nice presentation of that group
since S3 = D3, it reduces to finding elements of order dividing 3 and 2 respectively such that their product has order dividing 2
It's simple of index 2
So a 3-cycle and product of disjoint translations
Here I think it's just as well good to work with cycles
Wait a sec, is it right that Sn/An always has order 2
yep
So it's normal I guess
sgn : Sn --> {1, -1} is surjective
Or 1 for n = 1
uwu?
Wlog we can multiply by 4 and assume (123) maps to (123). If a 2-cycle gets mapped to something with a 4 then conjugation leads to contradiction
So this is 4 times the self-homomorphisms of S_3
Is it for real that the only normal subgroups in Sn are {I'd} and An
and Sn
Wait my bad. (123) can get mapped to 0
my geography is terrible
I'm rediscovering America
I'm refreshing all your minds haha
yea lmao 
I feel hopeless
Do you want to write the exam for me?

Okay so its either we go from (123) to (123) in S_3 multiplied by four, or (123) gets mapped to id in S_4, so we calculate Z/2Z to S_4
for the first one we can send a 2-cycle to any other 2-cycle because if you think in terms of D3, they're refelctions. can't send the 2-cycle to id as the product then would go to a 3-cycle.
In the former case we need 2-cycle to map to 2-cycle
so 3*4 + (1 + 6 + 3)
The latter is clear as we map 1 either to id, 2-cycle, or product of two 2-cycles
For the former, (123) = (13)(12) = (23)(13) = (12)(23)
wait a smol q, shouldn't you have a factor of 8 instead of 4?
Are the only ways you can write (123) as product of two 2-cycles
(123) going to a (123) and (132)
Yeah
Thx
there are only 4 3-cycles in S_3

you forgot the other 6

This should tell us what (12) and (13) can be mapped to, only 3 choices.
And ig we could write this for (132) as well
Forcing what translations get mapped to what translations
We can go home now
is this equivalent to saying that in this ring, all elements have a right and left inverse?
it's not. But so what is it? Is it a generalization of that?
and why all elements that commute with an element of the ring verify this
I think the important thing is how it behaves with flatness
i.e. every left module over this ring is flat
flat? never heard this word
Well it's something in (i guess mostly commutative?) algebra which comes up a lot and is v important
yeah exactly
Okay i misread
What does this mean?
OP is asking if this property is true, then does it mean x is invertible?
I think verify would conventionally be written satisfy here
no ik its not i want to know the significance of this property
but i don't think this is true
Or like commutative algebra would be too nice
Are you assuming that A satisfies the property?
And you want to show that this subring of A also does?
ah
right
i didnt read the question properly. yes
ok nvm then. SO what's the significance of the property again? Is it an abstract generalization of invertibleness?
Potato wrote earloer
But deleted the wikipedia link
In mathematics, a von Neumann regular ring is a ring R (associative, with 1, not necessarily commutative) such that for every element a in R there exists an x in R with a = axa. One may think of x as a "weak inverse" of the element a; in general x is not uniquely determined by a. Von Neumann regular rings are also called absolutely flat rings, ...
You can read about them here
If you’re proving this fact in an introductory ring theory course though
i wonder if it comes from operator algebra
i am
You should probably just think of this as “practice working with rings”
These kinds of rings do have applications but they are quite advanced
And so i think this is more just like, practice proving something about the center of a ring (that’s the set Z)
No it's okay i am not looking for a deep understanding, just naming things and understanding what i ma attempting to prove
so commutativity preserves weak invertibility, or taking the ring of commutators preserves that
“Commutator” isnt the right word
Z is called the center of the ring
x is not part of the definitoon of Z
Z is the set of all x which commute with everything in A
The definition does not depend on one single x
Np and gl
Guys
How do I directly show the existence of the inverse for the theorem m a maximal ideal iff R/m is a field
is any ring in which we can find for any 2 elements a gcd, a principal ring?
if not why not
Suppose x+m non-zero is such that (x+m)(y+m) = xy+m is not a unit for all y. Prove that (m, x) is a proper ideal
If 1 is in (m, x), then ...
(m, x) means ideal generated by m and x
Then x is in m so x+m = 0+m, contradiction
No
Such a ring (if it’s a domain) is called a “gcd domain”
The ring of algebraic integers is a counterexample
It satisfies the even stronger property that every finitely generated ideal is principal
But there are non-finitely generated ideals which are not principal
Ig also all UFDs are GCD domains, and certainly not all UFDs are PIDs e.g. Z[x]
@lethal dune is this you
?


Sus
whats lacking
i am going over the proof for why Z is principal
lets take an ideal I we take the smallest element call it a
Z[x] is a gcd domain
ok let me ask another question then, is any ring that we can do the euclidean division in a principle ring?\
okay
Just we replace "| |" for Z with our Euclidean function
|| ?
Well like
You pick the smallest element i.e. the element a minimising |a|
(One would probably say the smallest positive element a, but if we phrase it this way then it generalises)
But in a Euclidean domain, one replaces taking absolute values with applying the Euclidean function and the proof otherwise goes through in much the same way
To see this in action, compare the proof that Z is a PID with the proof that F[x] is a PID for F a field
Blitz' idea of N-embedded subgroups and their relation to semidirect products.
Starting a thread so as not to interrupt you :)
the euclidean function becomes the degree, okay got it thank you very much
thanks my dear, I got it
No problemo
owo
uwu
is it true that if 1 is in x then there exists b in R s.t. 1=b(x)+m ? Then it would follow that 1-b(x) is contained in m which implies that 1-b(x)=0 (?)
I am not so sure about the definition of (m,x). Is it (m,x)={am+b(x) | a,b in R}
x is an element of R
ig m + (x) is a more appropriate notation
Wdym my notation is pretty standard I think
don't fight over it
(m, x) = {a+bx : a in m, b in R}
me only saw that notation when all thingies are elements 
Not sure why brackets around x here
I meant it as a principle ideal
I saw it for (J_1, J_2, ..., x_1, x_2, ...) where J_i are ideals and x_i are elements
souka
Idk it feels like a good notation to me so I use it
you just wrote a in m because x*m for x in R is always in m right? (m is an ideal)
Yeah
I ask so many simple question, sorry for disturbing guys haha
it's just to make sure
To be clear, the sum on the left is different to the one inside the set
if a,b are ideals then we can define a + b as the ideal generated by (n.b.!) sums of elements in a and b
If 1 is in (x) then it'd mean R = (x)
Or in other words x itself is a unit
((n.b.!)?)
n.b.!
Is this Latin
yeah, just means nota bene, i.e. note well
Ah makes sense
do you have an eays example for two ideals which are not proper?
cause for proper ideals it makes sense i guess
2Z in Z
And 3Z in Z
2Z+3Z = Z
2Z = (2) and 3Z = (3) and 2Z+3Z = (2, 3) = Z
Note how we also sometimes write (n, m) for gcd of n and m
for vi: H/G' is a subgroup of G/G', so because G/G' is abelian then H/G' is a normal subgroup. so by the third isomorphism theorem, H is a normal subgroup of G?
I did a proof yesterday about this and I guess it's because aZ+bZ=gcd(a, b)Z
The same goes when you have aZ intersected bZ=lcm(a, b) Z
Or something like this
Does this hold generally for faktorial rings?
aR+bR needn't even be principal in general
hold what?
You are saying if aR+bR=gcd(a,b)R
but aR+bR need not be principal
for example, 2Z[x]+xZ[x] is not a principal ideal, and Z[x] is factorial
Z is a special kind of ring
Idk exactly how this all works because it gets confusing at this point
But it should be true that (a, b) is gcd in some sense when your ring is good enough
when is R[x] a pid? I know that R field <=> R[x] euclidean => R[x] pid, but is there a stronger implication?
can R[x] be a PID if R is not a field?
I feel like no, take a a non-unit (different from zero) and consider the ideal (a,x)
so R[x] is PID iff R is a field I think
not entirely sure
so we have R[x] euclidean <=> R[x] pid?
if what I said is true, yeah
because you can do usual polynomial division
and the euclidean function is the degree of the polynomial
I don't quite understand your argument
Suppose R is not a field, let n!=0 be a non-unit. Consider the ideal generated by n and x in R[x], (n,x). This is not principal
ah, so we're showing R not field => R[x] not pid
contrapositive of R[x] pid => R field
all the same
yeah ok looking it up
it's true
epic
R field <=> R[x] euclidean <=> R[x] pid
interesting
as far as I know it holds that if R is a ring euclidean => pid=>factorial
Yeah
but the other direction do not have to hold
They're talking about R[x] though!
So pid and Euclidean should be the same for polynomial rings
yeah
something that helped me when I first learned about those things was KEHFIR
Körper
Euklidischer Ring
Hauptidealring
Faktorieller Ring
Integritätsring
Ring
YEAH I SWEAR SAME
LOL DID YOUR PROF TEACH YOU THAT TOO?
Factorial ring isn't the same as unique factorization domain I think 
I thought factorial was the same as UFD
LOL
faktorieller ring is the german translation of ufd
I think it doesn't have to be unique in factorial ring
In mathematics, a unique factorization domain (UFD) (also sometimes called a factorial ring following the terminology of Bourbaki) is a ring in which a statement analogous to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds
I read a definition like this somewhere
wikipedia
In mathematics, a unique factorization domain (UFD) (also sometimes called a factorial ring following the terminology of Bourbaki) is a ring in which a statement analogous to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds. Specifically, a UFD is an integral domain (a nontrivial commutative ring in which the product of any two non-zero elements is n...
Here they say unique too
if you just want factorization into irreducibles, I guess thats kind of like noetherian
I'm almost sure there was a book which differed between factorial rings and UFD's
this is giving me 0 is not in N vibes
measure theory?
mass theory 
YEAH DAMN
0 is a natural number
thats because natural numbers are the finite cardinal numbers
that's what the government wants you to believe
proof that 0 isn't in N: we have that Z = N u -N. because 0 isn't in Z, it's not in N either
you cannot justify 0 being a natural number with set theory
I just did 
tbh now I'm wondering where it was from. If you want I can try to search for it
0 is a natural number because it's prettier when the natural numbers are a monoid wrt to addition and multiplication, rather than just multiplication
QED
and Neukirch also uses factorial I think
these are the only places where I have encountered that terminology
0 
Hi
Hi
I have a question that may be stupid:
I head that for an extension to be Galois, the degree of the extension equals the order of the Galois Group. I’m trying to use this logic for an nth cyclotomic extension, but I can’t tell if it applies or not.
The degree of an nth cyclotomic extension is phi(n)=n-1, for all n being prime.
If my calculations are correct, the Galois Group of Q(zeta_n) over Q has order n. But n obv doesn’t equal n-1, so why is it Galois?
in general we have that the order of the galois group is equal to the degree of the extension iff the extension is separable (and of course finite)
why should the galois group of Q(zeta_n)/Q have order n?
1 is not a primitive nth root of unity
Smh don't call it the galois group in that case
jk conventions differ
lol if only
before we did galois in my algebruh class
we called that set the
uhh
"galois set"
Yeah nah we called them galois groups even when not galois too
and used the notation $\on{Hom}_\bK(\bL, \bar{\bK})$
lol
they really aut to start...
If you have 2 matrices M1, M2 and perform polar decompositions M1 = O1P1, M2=O2P2 is there anything we can say about the polar decomposition of the matrix M=M1M2 in terms of O1,O2 and P1,P2? In other words if M=O3P3 is there any way to relate O3 or P3 to O1,O2,P1,P2? (O_i - orthogonal, P_i - positive semi-definite, real matrices).
Sure, I'll ask there, thanks.
So in class we’ve just learned about cyclotomic polynomials and Eisenstein’s criterion, my question is, put crassly, “who cares?”. Or more properly “what applications do these have and where do we go from here?”
cyclotomic polynomials generate cyclotomic extensions Q(\zeta_n) of Q and these have all sorts of nice properties
Innnnnteresting
Right now about the only thing I know is the p-th ones are irreducible in Z[x]
We haven’t proved it for general n
for example the Kronecker-Weber theorem classifies all Abelian extensions of Q in terms of these cyclotomic extensions
namely every Abelian extension of Q (if the extension is Galois this means one with Abelian Galois group) is contained in some cyclotomic field Q(\zeta_n)
I’m sure I’ll understand this soon 😅
how did i do on these two?
you don't need to say "let <g> be a cyclic subgroup of G" when g is already given to you
you just need to say (and justify?) that it is a subgroup of order k
the rest of that one is fine
the second one is similar
okay, thank you
is every finite group of order p, where p is a prime, abelian?
8 isn’t a prime though
oh hurb
sorry for some reason I thought you said p-group
which is order a power of p
every prime order group is abelian, yes
i’ve proven that every prime order group is cyclic, would that help me show what i’m trying to show?
are cyclic groups abelian?
that would do it for me, let me think about it
i think i’ve proven that on my last test
well try to prove it right now
'it isn't very hard
what's your definition of cyclic?
there you go
dumb mistake with my integers but i did it right for the most part
so i’m done then, nice
sometimes i just need to talk about things
rubber duck
In software engineering, rubber duck debugging (or rubberducking) is a method of debugging code by articulating a problem in spoken or written natural language. The name is a reference to a story in the book The Pragmatic Programmer in which a programmer would carry around a rubber duck and debug their code by forcing themselves to explain it, l...
that’s exactly how i debug code, didn’t know it had a name
when a problem says to show
($\prod_{k=1}^n(x-k)$) $- 1$ is irreducible over z for all positive integers n
MyMathYourMath
are the x values pulled from z?
cause you could argue by contradiction that ($\prod_{k=1}^n(x-k)$) $- 1$=$ab$ where $a,b$ are non units.
MyMathYourMath
cause for integers $k$ with $1 \leq k \leq n$ wed have $a(k)b(k)=-1$ forcing one to be 1 one to be -1 ?
MyMathYourMath
i learned recently that a group can be observed as a category with a single element
is this done by just taking a single object (call it x) and taking the group action of G on it as the morphisms
so is this actually a characterization of any group?
WDYM characterization?
sure
but like
there's nothing really deep here, it's literally the same definition
the category of one object groupoids and groups are equivalent
so like in some formal sense they are the same
(this uses the convention that all categories are locally small kekw)
this is a useful perspective since you can talk about functors to/from a "group" in this sense
this is uses to generalize rep theory right?
ok taking a step back
you say "fuck it, functor from BG"
how can there be more than one morphism in a category with one object?

this isn't obvious to me just yet, do you have an example
the category group
what
you can have lots of maps from G to G
that endomorphisms can give us a distinct maps from an object to itself
??????
take literally any object that has nontrivial automorphisms
an endomorphism is by definition a map from something to itself
oh
in your favorite category
you can have many of these
But I mean agian you can literally just say
so under this definition every group is an automorphism group in some 1 object category
Let Dumb Cat be the category with an object *
and with Hom(*,*) = {
,
,
, fuck you, 3}
btw 3 is the identity
and I mean you ahve to say how they compose I guess
but like, you can be as stupid and arbitrary as you want
can we pin that
A composition law is literally just a monoid structure on this and OEIS says there's 228 on a set with 5 elements so there's 228 ways to make Dumb Cat into a category
fuck you -> 
3 ->
-> 
is there any insight as to why the first simple group has order 60
i was learning about it on monday and he told me that the first one appeared at order 60 and the second at 168… the numbers seem so arbitrary
so I mean finite simple groups have been classified, these are the smallest ones, they are very particular concrete groups (A_5 and PSL_2(F_7) respectively)
other than the fact that they’re highly composite numbers, but like 36 and other numbers are also highly composite
there are some kinda tedious arguments to show that groups of smaller order can't be simple
but this is through a lot of case by case analysis
or by classifying groups of small order
idk if there is a very satisfying reason for why these groups in particular
he said i should go through all of them under 100 and show which can and can’t be simple
i think we already knocked out all the prime cases
but that’s not even a dent
right yeah, you'll be able to knock out most of the cases with Sylow theorems but it's kinda like
idk a lot of the structure in this regime is coincidences with small numbers and just exhaustively enumerating all the possibilities
so there’s nothing special about 60, just happens to be the magic number
well so here's a quick argument
other than the cyclic groups of prime order which are simple
he mentioned sylow theorems, so maybe i will learn about them tomorrow
if a group has order pq with p and q prime then it can't be simple
so the next case to check is order pqr
smallest case is 2*3*5=30 but this can't be simple
is r prime
yes
yeah he was like writing down all the possibilities to multiply 3 primes to be less than 100
next case is 2*3*7=42 but Sylow says you have a normal subgroup of order 7 so this doesn't work
so you just keep checking cases like this until you get one that works
why can’t a group with the order of the product of 2 primes be simple
and does this generalize to n primes
Sylow tells you it has a cyclic normal subgroup
and no this doesn't generalize
otherwise there wouldn't be many simple groups lol
https://www.quora.com/Is-there-a-proof-showing-that-any-group-with-an-order-less-than-60-is-solvable?share=1
here's the tedious argument
but yeah all the arguments involve a lot of casework, it's not particularly enlightening
gotcha okay
seems tedious to show
like knocking out the primes is nice but there’s still a lot left
yeah this is pretty typical of a lot of proofs in finite group theory
the pq argument would get a lot more
like once you have the Sylow theorems you can classify groups of certain orders
and depending on the order this involves a lot of cases
e.g. order p^2 * q is a common exercise
long and tedious
Burnside might be helpful for ruling out non abelians
but it's not "basic group theory" statement
unlike those nG mentioned
I mentioned the classification of finite simple groups, that is not a basic group theory statement either
why are the sporadic groups there, what do they mean 
That god hates us
ok kind of a stupid question but say a generates a cyclic subgroup of order 2. Then would a be included as one of those two elements?
to see this just recall how generators are defined
because they proved that there's only one group of two elements up to isomorphism
well yes
but also e can't generate
theres only one group of p elements up to isomorphism
any group other than the trivial group
what book is it
yeah seems very very gentle
what would be something more rigorous if i wanted to self study over summer?
dunnitt and foote?
rudin?
oh
yeah d&f is classic but dry
I use gallian
has a ton of examples
although if you use it beware of the typos
I'm thinking of collecting all the typos and sending an email to him after finishing the book
yeah examples are great
last textbook i worked through was axler ladr
had so many examples
was very helpful
how would i find the number of generators of Z_n for some reasonably large n? this question i feel like would border more on number theory, since it's essentially asking how many numbers 1...n-1 are coprime to n
if i'm understanding correctly
why are these two isomorphic?
also this one
like do I have to dream these isomorphisms?
In general, (R/I)[x] is isomorphic to R[x]/IR[x]. This follows from the first isomorphism theorem. Can you think of the surjection R[x] -> R[x]/IR[x] that induces this isomorphism?
well IR[x] is an ideal right?
so these are just restclasse modulo IR[X]
It's something like this right? we only did this for groups, but I guess, as I already discussed it once, I can also use it for Z-rings
f -> f+If (?)
Maybe it's the early hour, but I'm blanking at this: if R is contained in a field K, why should K contain a unique copy of the field of fractions of R? That it contains one is clear, it's just uniqueness I'm not getting.
I imagine the point is that the map R -> K extends uniquely to a map out of the field of fractions right?
Or like, inverses are unique
Yeah, that gives a copy of Q(R) in K, but why should it be the only one?
Lang says that if $H,K$ are subgroups of $G$ and $H$ is in the normalizer of $K$ then $H \cap K$ is normal in $H.$ This is easily verifiable since if $x=hk$ where $k \in H \cap K,$ then $\exists k_1 \in H \cap K$ such that $x=k_1h$ because you have $k_1=hkh^{-1} \in H \implies \in H \cap K.$
He then says that $f: H \to HK/K$ defined by $f(h)=hK$ is a homomorphism with kernel $H \cap K$ which implies that $H/(H \cap K) \cong HK/K.$ What was the point of writing that $H \cap K$ is normal in $H$ when it is the kernel of the homomorphism he described which automatically implies it is normal? Is this a triviality or is there some finer detail that I am missing...?
Hello1
sorry for formatting 
If there’s two copies then there would exist an r in R that has two different inverses in K (one in each copy of Frac(R)), I think
someone know the approach to this?
I tried to start by trying to prove isomorphism from Z/pZ to Z_p and then later tell that Z_p is field only when p is prime then pZ will turn out to be maximal
but this is wrong, since both these sets do not have same number of elements
also it would be tough to proof the converse
now I am stuck
but I cant say that Z/pZ and Zp is ring isomorphic isnt it?
the number of elements they contain are hugely different
how do you define Z_p?
i define Zp as the remainder classes of the integers divided by p
(most people would define that by the quotient Z/pZ)
why do you say so 
so ig you see that Z_p has p elements
yes
what about Z/pZ
oh that's just pZ
it's not the quotient Z/pZ
element of the latter are {0+pZ, 1+pZ, ..., (p-1)+pZ}
oh wait then Z/pZ is {a + pZ | a from Z}
actually this is where its not clear to me
pZ already has infinite many elements
and we add infinite many more withe ach elements of pZ
so a+pZ is the set of elements, which give the remainder of a on division by p
yes thats how i define the homomorphism
but it's a single element in the ring Z/pZ
you can use a different notation if that helps
say [a] = a+pZ
okay
and Z/pZ = {[0], [1], ..., [p-1]}
even though each equivalence class is infinite, the number of such is only p right
yes okay
yes
in this way is it legal in ring theory to conclude that Z/pZ = Zp
?
you'll have to produce an isomorphism between the two to be able to say that
so far we only saw both have p elements
ookayy
wait i know this question might be wrong but..
Zp doesnt really have only p elements in total right?
if we count all those numbers inside the equivalence classes Zpactually too has infinite elements?
sorry if i am asking a very bad question. I am pretty new to this
what even is Zp
Z_p my bad
wait, i'm a little confused... it feels like you're literally saying Z_p := Z/pZ
yeah
earlier i thought you meant Z_p = {0, 1, 2, ..., p-1} and Z/pZ = {[0], [1], ..., [p-1]}
Z_n has n elements alright
do you have a definition for Z_n
and we can present the elements in Z/pZ like with that [] notation to say there also exist p-1 elements
set of remainders when divided by n
is -17 a remainder when divided by 9
no..
so it looks like you're saying Z_n is {0; 1; 2; ... n-1} ?
$\mathbb{Z}_n$
TumAro
it contains all the remainders of integer divided by n right...?
what are the remainders of integer dividd by n
0,1,2,...n-1
that where i am finding trouble to understand if it has p elements and Z/pZ = {[0], [1], ..., [p-1]} actually contains much more than p though we have represented it like it has p elements, can we show bijectivity?
bump, also why is subgroups relavent here?
[0] is the set of all integers that are 0 mod 3
so [0] = {0;3;-3;6;-6;...}
that's ONE set containing many elements
but it's still ONE set
and Z/3Z = {[0];[1];[2]}
= {{0;-3;3;-6;6;...} ; {1;-2;4;-5;7;...}; {2;-1;5;-4;8;...}}
it is three sets
it's only three objects
even though each object can be opened up and has infinitely many items inside
but we don't necessarily care about that
i didnt know that we actually divide the whole thing into distinct sets/objects when defining a quotient group/ring
when we count the number of things in a set we don't open the things inside
and if you do set theory you define integers as sets of sets of sets of sets ....
alright ill try and complete the proof now and see if this time I get it right
quotient groups are the set of cosets of a group wrt the subgroup
so in the case Z/3Z the only subgroup is {0,+}
call this S
the elements of (Z/3Z)/S are {0S,1S,2S}
which are
{{0,1,2},{1,2,0},{2,0,1}}
but these are all the same
@shell agate what?




