#groups-rings-fields
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Okay that makes sense
and you wanna study this object
Naturally
a nice thing you can associate to a chain complex is it's (co)homology
which is the quotient of ker/im
at each degree
Hm
this is a nice invariant and you wanna study it
Oh so that measures failure of exactness
yep, you could say that
it's the entire reason i loved the server as soon as i joined 
you know everything uwu 
i don't have to say half the things :3
nice nice
okie so, to understand this weird object you make a weird definition
say you have two complex M* --> N*
Okay
and a map between them
which means you get a ladder of commutative squares
you say it's a quasi-isomorphism if it induces isomorphism at homologies
ooooh
so you're trying to understand which complexes have the same homological information
ah okay
one way i think about homology is this
if you have a complex M*, then you can compute H_i(M*)
but you can also put these together to form a complex again
ooooh
so H_i is the ker/im at each degree
yeep
i had some weird objects
i needed to connect them to get a complex
did the only obvious thing i could
gotcha
okie notice this now
if in a complex N*
if all maps are 0s
then what is H_i(N*)
yea, at the ith degree, it's ker(N_i --> N_{-1})/im(N_{i+1} --> N_i)
which is just N_i becuase maps are 0
but notice what we just did
we had M*
we formed a complex H*(M*)
with all maps 0
yea but the complex, i'm writing * when i want to mean the whole complex
and i when i want to talk about that particular object at the ith degree
so H*(H*(M*) = H*(M*)
exactly!!!
:o
so it's like homology projects all this information and think of it like a trivial complex
(from linear alg you probably recall that proejctions are idempotent p^2 = p)
i haven't seen an actual word for it 
homology complex of M?
idk :p
yee back to what i wanted to say
so say you had M* --> N*
and say it's a quasi-iso
which means at each H_i(M*) --> H_i(N*) this is an iso
and now notice what you defined as a free resolution
it was this weird thing
--> F2 --> F1 --> F0 --> 0 --> 0 --> ...
and you have the trivial complex of A
--> 0 --> 0 ---> A --> 0 --> 0 --> ...
the resolution also gave you a map F0 --> A
the exactness at then end, F1 --> F0 --> A --> 0
exactly tells you that this map F* --> A is a quasi-iso
so to understand the homological information of A
it's same as understanding homological information of F*
the sad part is the notion of quasi-isomorphism is very not uwu
:OOOO
like the name probably suggests that this would be an equivalence relation
if M* --> N* is a quasi-iso
then you might expect that there is N*--> M*
but that not true ๐ญ
but topology comes to rescue
there is a notion of homotopy equivalence of complexes!!
and this a slightly stronger relation than being a quasi-iso
but much more well-behaved
what is the topology on complexes o.O
weird righttt
that's what @coral spindle was talking about
that's so cool
F
So are chain homotopies the same as homotopies in topology
i tagged by mistake
๐๏ธ ๐ ๐๏ธ
yee, you abstract out the algebra from homotopies
and you get the corresponding notion for complexes
There's no topology involved, that's kinda the neat part
I think you could compare it to a (relative?) CW complex, but idk it's been too long
Why!
because if you look at a quasi-isomorphism between two projective complexes (which only have non-zero objects on the left)
then this q-iso is automatically a homotopy equivalence
!!
so this makes a full circle

we started with free resolution
alked about q-iso
Comparison theorem is the keyword if you want to look this up
ooooh
is there any time that you would care about a projective resolution vs caring about a free resolution
Well
Let's focus on modules here
free resolutions are easier to calculate in general
But when you look at homology, sometimes there's a gap that occurs, like there's a nonzero free module in your resolution that shouldn't be there
This happens when you calculate Ext modules, but let's not get into it
Basically for some rings, this 'gap' is reflecting the fact that there's a big difference between being projective and free
Huh, interesting
okei so one thing is you don't need to stick to the category of R-mods to do all of these
you can replace R-mod with any abelian category, and there it's not so obvious what a free object is... but you can define projective objects in the same way 
and these things naturally pop up
but if you look at projective resolutions, there are no gaps :) keywords: projective dimension, global dimension
for example the category of sheaves on topological spaces is abelian, but here it's not so obvioius to think of these as modules or something
^
it's also not necessarily even possible to construct a projective resolution
idk sheaves, but my understanding is that injective resolutions are the way to go with those
which is why you worry about injective objects and do the dual thing :3
i just gave you a brief overview of what you do in homological algebra at the start :3
hopefully you'll have a fun ride now 
That's so neat
Our alg prof says we will vote on what we do at the end of the semester
So we may choose homological algebra
But he also said that that's the driest option to teach in like two weeks lol
yea it can be very boring depending on how you do it
the way i said makes me the most happy
i'm lost as to how to show a subgroup is normal based on its order. the hint my prof gave is that |HK|=|H||K|/|H intersect K|, but i don't know how to use that
H cap K can be either 1 or 5
well K is a subgroup of H here, so it's 5
I don't think you should apply the hint to the given H and K
here are some not very well formed ideas: you might have seen the proof that index 2 subgroups are always normal, that means K is normal in H. If K is not normal in G, then there must be another subgroup K' of G of order 5 (why?). Maybe looking at KK' or HK' could be fruitful
oooh
also ||since K is normal KK' is a subgroup||
pls ignore this statement is wrong
we can say that H has a unique subgroup of order 5
not quite. K is normal in H, not in G, and K' won't be a subgroup of H.
ahhhh this is it! very clever

zeta is 17th root of unity, sigma is the automorphism that sends zeta to zeta^3 (3 is a primitive root modulo 17)
honestly, i have no idea why there must be another subgroup of order 5 
so I wanted to compute the minimal poly of zeta+zeta^{-1} over the field below it (above in the picture)
The galois group of that field extension has order 2 and is given by sigma^4, where sigma sends zeta to zeta^3 (3 is a primitive root modulo 17)
and 3^4=-4, so that the Galois conjugate of zeta+zeta^{-1} is zeta^4+zeta^{-4}. Multiplying this should give something in the base field
but you get x^3+x^5+x^12+x^14
x=zeta
???
(thats the norm)
ok nvm me
so you just have to do more work
lmao
G acts on its subgroups by conjugation. what does it mean for a subgroup to be normal, in that language?
if the way it acts doesn't change it? if you're talking about group actions, that's next chapter ๐
i'm not sure what G acting on a subgroup by conjugation means...
nevermind, ignore that then
for any g in G, gKg^(-1) is a subgroup of G
what can you say if K is not normal
then gKg^(-1) is not equal to K?
and that conjugation does not change the order, right?
yes
aha. so then conjugating a subgroup either gives you the original subgroup (if it's normal), or yields a different subgroup with the same order (if it's it not normal)?
yes
why can we write every function like this? isnt this what he is trying to prove?
prop 3.29
no
f is some given random function
g is some new function that he defines
he shows that f = g
he said let f be in the alternating functions k linear
he claims that f = sum(coefficints*alpha^i wedge ...)
isnt this saying that f is in the span of wedge(alpha^i)?
yes, and then he proves that
how
by showing that the function on the left and the function on the right are equal
the function on the right is a well-defined function in this same vector space
okaayy
so for each f
he assigned sum(f(e_j)*alpha wedge...))
and showed that they are equal as they agree on all basis elements ?
that's right
this is a piece of it
the exterior algebra would be the direct sum over all k
of \Lambda^k(v)
and with wedge product being the multiplication operatio nright?
yeah
I guess also it'd be the dual of the exterior algebra
so
the dual of the exterior algebra would be bigger than this
Well in each degree the dual at least
but its not the dual for me tho
okay that's fine
cuz idk what v wedge u would mean
ik what f wedge g would mean
for f and g being in A_k(V)
okay so the exterior algebra is the direct sum of these vec spaces
does it make sense to think about a basis
for
this
woudl it be just the direct sum of each basis for A_k(V)? as wev shown that they are the k wedge product of the dual basis?
so i used the hint to say that HK' must have an intersection with order>1. so then there is some non identity g^-1 kg in H. but i'm not sure that's the right path to go down searching for a contradiction.
what is the order of the intersection, exactly?
in general, is it true that given an isomorphism phi, from G to G', for any a in G phi(a^-1) = phi^-1(a)? would this hold by the homomorphism property?
that statement just doesnt really make sense
phi(a^(-1)) is an element of G'
but phi^(-1) is a map from G' to G
so it doesnt make sense to say phi^(-1)(a)
do you mean phi^(a^(-1)) = [phi(a)]^(-1)?
that is true but doesn't require phi to be an isomorphism
okeyokay
oh because a in G right
phi inverse is the inverse of phi which is a function
you probably meant phi(a inverse) = ( phi(a) )inverse
oh yea i think i meant that
which is true
okeyokay
is correct right
it's true for any homomorphism phi
oh it has to be 5, right?
bad question ig hahaha
the basis of a sum of vector spaces is the union of the bases of the individual spaces
it's not a bad question, it just doesnt have an interesting answer, and there's nothing special about this context
so H has two subgroups of order 5. i saw det said earlier that H has a unique subgroup of order 5, which seems to be the contradiction. but i don't see why H can't have two subgroups of order 5?
how
would the number of automorphisms on $\mathbb{Z}_n$ be $n!$ ?
no
okeyokay
@white oxide no
oh wait
my reasoning was that permutations were automorphisms
but they're not
they're just functions right
automorphisms are isomoprhisms from the group to itself
right
and the book defined permutations to be bijective functions on a set A
but that's not the same as an isomorphism
so that's where i got confused
yea u need to preserve the structure aswell
does that notation denote the set of all automorphisms on Z_n
maybe you should think about that more then
that is indeed the contradiction
yes
thanks
mb didnt say that
all good
so im doing an exercise that's asking me to find the number of automorphisms for different values of n on Z_n
and so i'm taking Z_2
the hint is asking me what must be the image of a generator under an automorphism
so clearly an automorphism preserves structure
so it maps to a generator
so that leads me to thinking that maybe it's the number of generators in a cyclic group G?
or am i totally lost here
or maybe it would be m! where m is the number of generators in a cyclic group G
keep going
no ur not
try it out
with different values of n
so let's try Z_4 = {0, 1, 2, 3} where 1 and 3 are generators
so say we map 1 to 3 and 3 to 1
and every other element gets mapped to itself
so that should give an automorphism of Z_4 i believe
lol
I'm obviously missing something because i don't see it
and the only other option is mapping the set Z_4 to itself, but i'm not sure if that constitutes an isomorphism
it does
this right?
does this example work?
well i'm not sure because i'm trying to find some other automorphism, if i can find one more then that would be 3 > 2 which is the amount of generators in Z_4
if what ur saying is true
doesn't C5xC5 have two subgroups of order 5?
wait how
because Z_4 has 4 generators where n = 4
and in this case there are 2 generators
and 4 \neq 2
oh
should be automorphisms
m is the number of generators
in a cyclic group G
but this tho
oh
this was my final line
of logic
sorry
try it for Z_5
if this statement were to hold under my conjecture then Z_n would have n generators
which is not true
ok
so here there are 4 generators
1, 2, 3, 4
since gcd(a, 5) = 1 for a = 1, 2, 3, 4
so we have to have a generator map to a generator...
so 0 has to map to itself
therefore it is the number of permutations of the set {1, 2, 3, 4}
so m = 4 because there are 4 generators
yeah
and therefore there are 4!
automorphisms
ig i would have to prove it by means of induction
so ur saying that there are 24 automorphisms
yes
in Z_5
yeah
if ur mapping a generator to a generator
or wait lets do this like
manually
so u like see it better
wdym
lets look at a specific element in Aut(Z_n)
so in Z_n let x be a generator
or not x
think about 1
1 is always a generator right
yeah
so phi(1) must be a generator of Z_n aswell
but look here tho
what did u do here
explain this form e
for me*
used the fact that if a is a generator of G, then a^r is a generator of G where gcd(r, n) = 1 where n is the order of G
i forgot that you would have to account for the other permutations of the elements that are not generators
wait
is that right
yeah
so maybe it would be something like m!(n-m)! where n is the order of G and m is the number of generators of G?
well let's see with like
Z_4
nah
doesnt work
rip
np
but there is something
that you know
about generators in Z_n
that will make this easier for you
did it have to do with
this?
yea
i mean
would it just be m! where m is the number of elements in G that are relatively prime to n where n is the order of G?
lets not try to count it just yet
lets just use what we already know
and build up from there
if we like obtain something
then this will lead this naturally to the correct answer
what must a generator , call it a, in Z_n satisify
all elements g in Z_n can be written as a^n for some integer n right
yes thats what it means for a to be a generator
but you know that |a^k| = n/gcd(n,k) tho right
and if an element has order n then its a what
then it's the identity correct
how did you get this
its a well known proposition and u can prove it by yourself
just consider a^k^(n/gcd(n,k))
and argue why this is the least integer such that its the identity
does it make sense
ye imma just return to this later my brain is not functioning rn
no ur doing great
lets take this for granted
do u know that if |a^k| is the same as the order of the group then its a generator?
if so then u can reach the conclusion that every generator must satisify gcd(n,k) = 1
so now we know the number of generators is the number of elements satisfying this
we gucci?
now the main problem with what your saying is
that you keep forgetting that u need structure preserving maps
ur trying to count how many permutations between the generators
u will be able to count how many automoprhisms
when u try to actually do it manually ie grab one and see where it maps something and so on
and u can do it generally for any n cuz for all n ,1 is a generator in Z_n
could someone explain why the stated map from K[alpha] to sigma(K)[beta] an isomorphism?
thanks
If you understand why itโs defined, it is sort of clear
Surjectivity: beta is in the image, K maps iso morphically to sigma(K)
Injectivity: maybe the easiest way to see this is that theyโre the same dimension over K (note sigma(K) is isomorphic to K). Follows because we added a single root of an irreducible polynomial of the same degree, so theyโre of dimension that degree
Note that once you have the same rank and surjective, rank-nullity says itโs injevtive
Try to fill in any details that arenโt clear
can someone please explain why a group of order 10 can't have two distinct subgroups of order 5? wouldn't C5xC5 have that?
same rank?
Dimension, whatever
For modules we say rank
If it did, that subgroup cannot be normal (Syllow). But it is normal as index 2
So I just said rank
C5 x C5 doesn't have order 10...
im dumb
Also cuz Sylow
Idk why ryu sama said what they did. Sylow says the number of Sylow-5s is 1 mod 5
2 is not 1 mod 5
Yeah but why mention this
i checked and sylow's first mentioned three chapters ahead of this question... it seems like there's probably a different way to go about it
A different one literally says it canโt be 2
K is normal in H because it has index 2
Sorry, I didnโt see there was other context for this problem, if I saw what you were doing I wouldnโt have suggested Sylow
just do the same thing you have been doing
you have one tool here, use it haha
KK' is a subset of H; what can its order be
that too lol
doesn't it have to be 10?
does 10 divide 25?
no, 5 then. but sorry why are we looking at 25 when |H|=10?
the order of KK'
using the one formula that you have
about orders of products of subgroups lol
oh yeah |KK'|=|K||K'|/|K intersect K'|=25/|K intersect K'|
what's the justification for the last "why?"
followup to this
but what did you show about the intersection of K and K' from earlier
|K intersect K'| has to be strictly less than 5 doesn't it? since we assumed K != K', the intersection must have an order smaller than the lowest order of the pair.
it has to be 1
because it's a subgroup of K
or, it doesnt even matter, because as you said earlier KK' has to be all of H
which has order 10
so you have 10 = |KK'| = |K||K'| / |K cap K'|
which is impossible
im goign to bed now btw
gl
there we go now it makes sense.
thank you for all your help
subfields of complex numbers with [L:K] < infty
so finite field extensions
well if it has n conjugates in total then K[alpha + abeta] = K[x]/(f) (where f is the minimal polynomial of alpha + abeta) is a degree n extension of K, and L is also a degree n extension of K
that'd mean K[alpha + a*beta] = L i suppose
makes sense?
of conjugates = degree of extension (in characteristic 0)
Itโs less than [L:K] by assumption
and two extensions of the same degree are isomorphic as K-vector spaces right?
or as fields?
As K-vector spaces
later in the proof, how do you show that the denominator is non-zero?
If tau(beta) = sigma(beta) then we know
Sigma(alpha) + a sigma(beta) = sigma(alpha + abeta) = tau(alpha + abeta) = tau(alpha) + atau(beta)
Middle equality cuz they send alpha + abeta to the same element
Conclusion, sigma(alpha) = sigma(beta), but then sigma = tau because alpha and beta generate K[alpha,beta]
thank you!!
Wait this should say sigma(alpha) = tau(alpha) lol
is there a parallel between annihilators of a module and stabilizers of a group action
Chmonkey
If you think of a module as like a ring actuon (good analogy)
Theyโre kinda similar a little bit

ive been kinda seeing that thoo
it's the only way it makes sense
the other analogy i see everywhere is a more general vector space
does this mean there's some equivalent of the class equation for modules?
perhaps this is a basic question
pretty standard proof but can someone check this pls
asking bc i feel like i tripped up somewhere towards the end
also still curious about this 
bc if annihilators seem to be kinda dual to stabilizers
then torsion is similar to an orbit for a group action
also is there anything interesting in considering a "module action"
like say we have a module and think of it as a "ring acting on group", is there any use to then asking how that group acts on a set?
that could be very faulty logic feel free to sully me
,ti
The current time for stฮผโdying is 02:34 AM (EST) on Mon, 06/02/2023.
any automorphism must send a root of an irred to another root of the same irred poly
looks fine just some typos also, don't write ฯ (rx)=ฯ (r) ฯ (x)
hereโs a relevant thought, maybe motivating modules as ring actions, and maybe a reason why we donโt bother giving a special definition for module actions.
Iโm not sure what definition youโve seen for group actions, but you can see them either as a function G x X -> X satisfying some axioms, or a group homomorphism G -> Perm(X), where Perm(X) is the permutation group on X. This second way is what I want to talk about.
This is the way I like to think about actionsโyou have some algebraic structure and some object with symmetries (eg a set with permutations), and you look at homs from the structure to the symmetries. Beyond actions on sets, you can also talk about linear actions on vector spaces, which are given by group homomorphisms
G -> GL(V),
where GL(V) are the invertible linear maps on V. So this is maybe more interesting than a group action on a set, because more structure is involved.
So youโve seen group actions, linear group actions (also called representations), now you might be interested in other kinds of actions.
We want to respect structure, so for a โring actionโ, you would want to do something like a homomorphism from R to some object, whose symmetries form a ring (so we get ring homs instead of just group homs). We get this situation if we try acting on an abelian group G, because the set of endomorphisms (ie group homs G->G) form a ring (with composition as multiplication). Therefore, you might be interested in ring homs
R -> End(G).
An exercise is to prove that these ring homs correspond exactly with R module structures on G.
Now, to talk about module actions, where M is an R-module, you would be interested in an object which has an R-module for its symmetries. There are objects which have this, but at this point I think we start shying away from the โactionโ terminology, and just write down homomorphisms from M to the symmetries on your object
hey guys, which isomorphismtheorem implies that the second equality holds?
is it this one?
can I also use the theorems for groups?
Cause we didn't go through the ones of rings in the lecture
just wanting to check, are you considering these things as groups or as rings? either way there is indeed an isomorphism theorem like the one you quoted
I donโt think thereโll be a class equation here. The problem is that while in group theory, your orbits are disjoint, in ring/module theory, your orbits very often overlap. This makes counting arguments not work very easily.
For example, the integers Z are a Z-module by left multiplication. Then, the โorbitโ of 2 is none other than the ideal generated by 2, itโs 2Z. This definitely intersects the ideal generated by 1, which is Z. So we have distinct orbits that intersect nontrivially. It wonโt always be inclusion either, for example k[x,y] as a module over itself has orbits (x) and (y) which intersect (eg at xy), but donโt contain each other
Modules have plenty of helpful structure though. If you are concerned about classifying modules, you might be interested in the structure theorem for finitely generated modules over PIDs. Itโs a very nice theorem that generalizes the structure theorem for fin gen abelian groups.
I think I have to consider them as groups, cause we didn't do any isomorphism theorems for rings
just the one that has to do with ideals
hmm Iโm not exactly sure how to help. Maybe I need more context to make sure I have the right goal in mind?
There are multiple versions of the isomorphism theorems (versions for groups, versions for rings without 1, etc), and definitely they are applicable, depending if you want to prove if this is just a group isomorphism or more strongly a ring isomorphism.
if you just need to prove group isomorphism, this theorem is applicable
but keep in mind that wikipedia has written this with โmultiplicationโ as the group operation, instead of addition
so to apply the theorem, you should change all the multiplication you see for this theorem statement into addition
and youโll get something very similar to the theorem statement you posted about rings
I can show you the solution I was looking at
so ggt is the gcd and the kgv is the lcm in this case
so they were trying to prove the equality given by using the isomorphism theorem
and I was trying to figure it out, because they use the isomorphism theorem for groups here
I assume that it is possible to use because all those rings are additive groups
so as you said, I assume that we use the isomorphism theorems by changing the multiplication to an addition
won't say that's changing multiplication to addition
more like forgetting multiplication existed
so im doing analysis rn
but I've heard of archimedian fields, so in the case of general fields, do you have something analogous to N? I was about to say "if we view R as a ring, then N would be some subring" but then remembered N is a semi-ring 
you can talk about the submonoid generated by 1 inside any field
might as well look at the subring generated by 1 lol
i.e. image of the canonical map Z --> F, where F is your field
one equivalent definition of archimedean (for normed fields) is that the image of this map is unbounded.

What we staring at boss
how's it going wew, long time no wew
Initial object moment

C
si?
is archimediean
oh 
idk spelling
okay then that's not true
Surely it would just be iso to some subfield of C, no?
ig R and C are the only two
every archimedean field is isomorphic to a subfield of R
if you put extra stuff like completeness
Actually yeah it canโt be C lol C isnโt ordered
does D&F have all this stuff on fields?
oh we talking about ordered fields? (i had normed fields in head)
Donโt you need an ordering for a field to be Archimedean?
yes you do
norm is enough
and the ordering needs to play nice with field axioms no?
you define it as Z being unbounded
i.e ordered field
i see
that's a nicer definition because the p-adics aren't ordered
I can easily see the definition being expanded to fit a norm tbf
but they're still complete normed fields
and here Z is bounded
so they non-archimedean
ur a PhD student, im a lowly undergrad 
I think no, I would check Isaacs (chapter: Artin-Schreier theorem) and Clark's field theory notes (towards the end)
Lang does have a chapter
lang... 
okay
โnx > y -> ||nx|| > ||y||โ
Thanks discord
\||y||
Yeah if you hide ur numbers itโll work for more fields
oh right ofc
I simply refuse to work with non-finite spaces so I donโt write norms down ever
Easiest solution imo

okay im gonna go back to analysis thanks guys 

Hi there, my math teacher told me that every object in math is a set. (for instance a function is a set of sets with two elements). So a class in math is also a set but with particular properties (like groups, structures, etc.) or am I wrong? And can someone explain me how classes resolve the Russel's paradox?
there was this one question on my exam which no one was able to figure out
let R be a commutative ring and I an ideal with R\I having only units
then I is the only maximal ideal
how do you do this

Take any ideal that contains I
It's either I or strictly contains it
What happens if it strictly contains it
Nvm Iโll let shin do it ๐
is that really the best place to send them
better than here
||isnt foundations a scary place no one sane ventures in||
deep in the depths of advanced
If you can figure that out, try and see how the same argument lets you show that no other maximal ideals exist
Alright
If you give up: ||Any ideal strictly containing I contains an element of R\I, hence has a unit, so it has to be all of R, hence I is maximal. Similarly, any other maximal ideal is neither contained in nor contains I, since they are both different maximal ideals, so it also contains an element of R\I, i.e. a unit, so it's all of R, so there are no other maximal ideals.||
If ||M is an ideal not contained within I then M contains a unit thus is R, hence I is maximal and unique|| 
Sometimes it's better to break down a solution to better understand it
^ cope
Ok
I actually solved this more than a year ago
but I knew I had to use arithmetical functions and transformations lul
I'd be inclined to use properties of cyclotomic polynomials e.g. do you know what \Phi_{p^m r} is in terms of \Phi_{pr} where (p,r)=1 but I think this can be done most easily by chopping up into smaller extensions too, which is cute (using trans. of trace)
I thought about using transitivity of trace, but didnt really try
I would just say that 0 = 1+z+...+z^(n-1) = sum for d|n of the trace of z^d
one of my top 3 favourite properties of gauss sums right there
that is some arithmetical convolution, right?
yeah
same thing as saying R/I is a field
so I is a maximal ideal
They want to prove that I is the only maximal ideal
Not just that I is maximal
Another maximal ideal would have to contain an element not in I. What then?
how do you know which numbers are prime in a set like Z[i]
I know that in a factorial ring irreducible iff prime
and generally if R is an integral domain then every prime number is reducible
I understood that in an euclidean domain it's enough to prove the fact that if p=ab, then N(p)=N(a)*N(b), where N is the euclidian function, and if N(a) and N(b) are not in Z, then p has to be irreducible and so prime (euclidean ->factorial)
but what do I do, when I am not in an euclidean domain
do I have to go through the definition? Or is there another way
wait but there could be still multiple maximal ideals?
you cry
If you know primes are maximal, you can try to compute the quotient, and see if you obtain a field
maximal ideals are always prime, so you can always try that I guess
The ring Z has infinitely many maximal ideals.
then his question doesnt make sense?
Yes it doesโฆ..
There is an additional conditionโฆ..
The ideal (2) in Z does not satisfy the property that โeverything outside of the ideal is a unitโ
3 is not in (2) and is not a unit
i dont see that in the original question
you should always get a domain if you are quotiening by a prime, no matter where you are
but R/I also contains 0
im doing this wrong arent i
it looks close
I would really use the fact that M has a basis at some point, makes it easier
don't think you need basis for this
I can't explain what I want to without just giving it away 


||m โ T(M) then โ nonzero r s.t. rm=0 or r'rm=r'0=0 => m=0|| where basis
it's spoilered it's fine
spoilered
Im sure the person asking for homework help will respect the spoiker
||M free => M is torsion-free|| is what I was going for
yeah, actually, it could be - especially since you don't tend to learn about torsion at the same time vector spaces get introduced
why not Torยน_k(V, _)=0
No it absolutely is not lmao
and what I cited is a pretty basic fact about torsion
it's like claiming using the fact that euclidean domains are PIDs is some outlandish specialist knowledge
at least not first course of module theory
It is, if the problem is to โuse the euclidean algorithm to prove that for any integers a, b there are integers x, y such that gcd(a,b) = ax + byโ
I just don't agree that this is a "basic question about vector spaces", sorry
Youre right, its a basic question about modules
yes, torsion specifically
The question doesnt even use the phrase โvector spaceโ
and one of the first things I learnt about torsion was the inclusion ||Free > Projective > Torsion-Free|| (for integral domains, anyway)
And i wouldnt be surprised if the facts โmodules over a field are vector spacesโ and โall vector spaces have a basisโ have even been pointed out in class yet. (Well probably the first one has)
Ok you are clearly trolling if you say that one of the first things you learned about torsion involves projective modules lmao
no it really did
this was the same course that introduced the tensor product via a universal property 
That is how it should be introduced right
how else do you introduce it
explicit construction is unhandy
I do agree with you looking back it was the best way to introduce it but when we didn't really know what a universal property was it was very confusing
sounds like an introduction to category theory course in schools would do wonders
I agree 
but yeah, they then phrased projective and free modules using the same thing and my brain just kinda picked up on "le triangle" so it was fine from then on
Let R be a ring, I, J ideals of R. In what cases do we have [R : IJ]=[R : I][R : J] ?
If I,J are coprime, then multiplicativity follows from CRT
I think so?
somehow i cant find a proof of the impossibility of squaring the circle, can anyone point me to a textbook where i could reference it?
dummit and foote galois chapters
i got stuck at second line
how did he go from second to third
i understand it from there
this is problem 3.8
so i had sum(sgn(phi) * phi(sum(a_j^1 * y^j) * sum(a_j^2y^j) * ..... *))
^ this is for problem 3.7
and i got stuck
so ur saying these sums can be written as one sum with this index notation
and this is the same as saying = sum(a_phi(j)^1*y^phi(j))
over all phi in S_n
i am explaining how the sum over distinct i_1, ..., i_k from 1, ..., k is the same as a sum over elements of S_k in your first picture
yea so this works too right?
both of these problems use what u said so im trying to understand them both

Let $G$ be a group. Call $H\subseteq G$ a $N$-embedded subgroup if for any normal subgroup $K\subseteq H$ of $H$ there is a normal subgroup $K_0\subseteq G$ of $G$ with $K = K_0\cap H$. What is known about $N$-embedded subgroups?
Blitz
@coral spindle ?
Looking now!
btw I made the name up
So in particular, H is normal, right?
yeah
this came up because I was wondering when subgroups of quotients are the same as quotients of subgroups
so in general the two shouldn't be the same
but I think that a quotient of an N-embedded subgroup is a subgroup of a quotient
is there a subgroup of S3 that's not N-embedded
OK, so if we have a normal subgroup K of H, then G acts on K/H = (K' n H)/H. I'd love to apply a theorem here...
I'm wondering if we can follow around the action of G on K/H by following G/K'
I'm writing K' for K_0 because I'm just writing text
besides the ones that aren't normal?
well
if I pick H = {1, (12)}
it has 2 normal subgroups
{1}
which is the intersection of {1} with H and {1} is normal in G
and H
I think I might have wrote the definition in an unclear way
Let $G$ be a group. Call $H\subseteq G$ a $N$-embedded subgroup if for any normal subgroup $K\subseteq H$ of $H$ there is a normal subgroup $K_0\subseteq G$ of $G$ with $K = K_0\cap H$. What is known about $N$-embedded subgroups?
Blitz
this is what I meant
I'm not sure what's the difference
the subgroups K have to be normal in H as opposed to being normal in G
A normal subgroup of a normal subgroup is not necessarily going to be normal
OK
S_3 is a bad example
because it's too small
It seemed to me (and evidently to Blitz) that there was some confusion about the definition, not about H
idk I'm just showing a counter example to your claim that H has to be normal in G ?
Ah I see what you're saying
oh!
Yeah good point, I did get that wrong
So ok, we could continue with this definition? I think there are interesting things to say about it
(probably)
I think there might be some minimal subgroup G' of G such that H still has the property in G'
That might be useful
Lmao that's just K, nvm
I'm trying to get to a position where the map (normal subgroups of G) -> (normal subgroups of H) is not only surjective but injective
Blitz
that way we would have that subgroups of quotients are the same as quotients of N-embedded subgroups
K+H_0 should be KH_0, sorry
Also I suggest modifications of this concept to characteristic and fully characteristic subgroups
Maybe call those C-embedded and FC-embedded
Maybe studying the latter two could be related to extension properties of homomorphisms
For instance if we can extend endomorphisms in H then it should be FC-embedded
And similarly if we can extend automorphisms then it should be C-embedded
Maybe discord is too small for thoughts like this
Can anyone give me a reminder on how to show a function is surjective. I know I should take an element out of the pre-image and show that there exists an element in the image that maps to it. Im just not sure how to do it for this problem.
using the words pre-image and image isn't nice... use domain and co-domain
image by definition is all the elements you get from something in the domain
ive heard it called both pairs but was never sure of the difference, thanks
surjective means that any element in the domain has a preimage
you should be able to check that directly
yes like for all elements in the co-domain, i can find an element that maps to it
bump to this tho 
oh lol do i just pick g to be e
what are f_i and g_i?

oh co
i didn't read co
mb
yeah
yee looks uwu 

what would my 70 year old professor thing of that


I used to have a smiley face instead of a halmos on my psets
one of my graders at a math program used to draw cats after every nice proof i did 
and i once drew a
in my analysis midterm
do yk how to do this in latex by any chance
i saw somewhere of a girl using smiley faces as her independent variable in calculus
because the prof missed writing something like "take X to be non-empty"
i wrote "what if X = empty
"
I don't like this because it's just confusing to follow when grading
true
I often just put a smile instead of a halmos without thinking, just bc I'm happy
:)
Grader and I shared cat pics through psets and feedback. I posted memes and cat pics on my psets and on the last pset he went "my turn" and put a bunch of pics of his own cat
I also put a smile when someone gets full marks and I'm grading
Had a guy do this to me but with Nordic runes instead
That kinda hurts
i drew eevee :3

Haha cute
He said I was the first person to comment on the runes
LOL
Someone start writing hanzi for unknowns
2ไฝ - 1 = 2, ไฝ = ???
OK this is getting discussion-y
I'm still thinking about the N-embedded subgroups thing
I'll post here if I come up with anything
I'll just say that you most likely need some package, idr which
am i doing the surjective parts right? injective is much easier for me
I think you might be a bit confused. For surjectivity, you want to show that every element in Hg has a preimage in H; that is, for every y in Hg, there exists an x in H such that f(x) = y. As you have it written, you're applying f to h_3 which doesn't even lie in H so it doesn't make sense to apply f to it
To show surjectivity, you might want to review the definition of Hg. What do elements in Hg look like?
Right, elements in Hg have the form hg
Now can you tell me an element x in H such that f(x) = hg?
Random thought but are there any infinite non Abelian groups idk why I canโt think of any
Unles u add some weird structure to R ?
Wait matrix groups
Right?
There are plenty - matrix groups, free groups, infinite dihedral and symmetric groups, etc.
would it be e
im looking for an element in H such that when i apply f to it i get hg?
Yes
g then
Not quite
its inverse, third trys the charm
yeah i dont get it
Ok so let's walk through how f is defined
I've fixed an element g in the group and I have a subgroup H, right?
yes
So now I have two sets, namely H and Hg, where Hg is the right coset
yep
My map f: H -> Hg is defined by taking an element h in H and mapping it to hg in Hg, so f(h) = hg
So now you've managed to show that f is injective, which is very good
For surjectivity, I want to show that every element in Hg is in the image of f, right?
yeah thats the definition
If I have an arbitrary element y in Hg, then by the definition of right cosets, y = hg for some h in H, right?
yes
not particularly, when i was doing this stuff with functions over the real numbers i was letting an element in the co-domain be arbitrary and then "undoing" the function to show if it was surjective or not
but that isnt going to work here
You can still "undo" the function here, if my guess as to what that means is correct
In particular, the fact that f is a bijection means that it has an inverse Hg -> H
Can you guess what that might be?
well i dont know its a bijection yet but yeah
all bijective functions have an inverse such that f^-1(f(x))=x
or the other way works too
right, so in particular one way you could show that f is a bijection is by constructing its inverse
so maybe a different approach here is for you to tell me what the inverse of f is in this case
not quite, remember that the inverse is a map Hg -> H. In particular, the image needs to lie in H
so like f(hg) = something just in h?
yeah
well maybe don't use f for the inverse function since we've already defined f: H -> Hg by f(h) = hg
yeah sure
im just trying to thing of what to compose in order to get h back
f^-1: Hg -> H by f^-1(hg)=g^-1 maybe
the issue is that g^-1 doesn't necessarily lie in H, g was just an arbitrary element in the group
is this way any easier than just guess and check
again, it's kind of just staring you in the face
h then like last time lol
yeah, exactly
the inverse maps hg to h
sorry if that wasn't particularly enlightening or illuminating, I'm not sure how to explain this further
theres not much depth to it so youre fine, i think im just not understanding the definitions properly
It could be worth reviewing definitions, yeah
so like f^-1: Hg -> H by f^-1(hg)=h implies that f(f^-1(hg))=f(h)=hg right
yeah, exactly. Just explicitly writing out the composition does the job
maybe another way to view f^-1 is as right-multiplication by g^-1, since hg * g^-1 = h
Recall that G acts on the set of 3-Sylow subgroups by conjugation and that this action is transitive (hence there is one orbit). Furthermore, the stabilizer of a sylow subgroup P under this action is N_G(P), the normalizer of P. Then by orbit-stabilizer, the |G|/|N_G(P)| is equal to the number of p-Sylow subgroups, but the former is just the index of N_G(P)
@rustic crown can we talk about that problem from yesterday/earlier
showing that epimorphisms in Vect(R) are surjective
oh okie 
so suppose we have an epimorphism f in Vect(R)
R being reals
the defining characteristic of that epimorphism is how it interacts with two other maps g1 and g2 right
in order to bring this to the level of surjectivity then, i need to pick arbitrary g1 and g2 and show the g1 \circ f = g2 \circ f => g1 = g2 thing right
^^this is probably wrong but it's the first thing that comes to mind
i think we said the arbitrary part is wrong
bc in the example of Set we pick specific g1 and g2
but im not sure how using a specific map shows surjectivity for all epimorphisms
did you remember what we did in Set*
(pointed sets)
i said if X --> Y is a morphism, then we wanna find maps such that on the image they're the same
so idea was in one case we will kill everything
and in other we kill only the image
so we looked at the object Z = Y/(im f)
is Set* anything in particular or just category of sets
can you try to do this for vector space? 
idk what the * is
a chosen base point
so that i don't have to deal with empty sets lmao
cuz this argument not very nice with that
objects are sets X with a distinguished element x
and a map (X, x) --> (Y, y) is a function X --> Y which sends x --> y
this is the proof our prof gave us
this is a slightly different idea which would work exactly the same in Set*, Ab, R-mod, k-vect etc, cause all these are pointed :3
(more precisely i'm proving, surjective if and only if coker = 0, if you know what cokernel means)
i cant get used to the term coker
or cok
coke addicts and genitals invading my notes
This looks like Aluffi's typesetting 
naw it's prof notees
but ok im gonna ignore this then
you could try to give a proof like that, but then would require you to choose basis and that's not uwu (when we don't need to)
i think this is what im stuck on
that is we wanna find g1, g2 : Y -> Z right
we wanna pick a vector space Z such that there are two maps from Y - > Z that "agree" with our given map X -> Y
well what's stopping me from just being like
R^2
because X and Y stay arbitrary if im not mistaken

(btw if you like this idea more, we can do this too. that's what you were thinking yesterday as well)
too flashy



