#groups-rings-fields
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not for just the shape
You only care about this when it comes to order
(I say 'shape' theres probably an actual term ive forgotten)
Conjugacy class or something
and this'll help me understand there's nothing of order 12?
I think it kinda makes sense
yes, find the orders of each of these
lcm((a)(b)(c)(d)) = lcm(1, 1, 1, 1) = 1
lcm((a b c)) = 3
lcm((a b c d)) = 4
lcm((a b)(c d)) = 2
hm
btw we usually omit cycles of order 1 in decompositions, but either choose to include them or dont
If you include them, (abc) = (abc)(d)
right
(ab) = (ab)(c)(d)
understood
and this makes no difference when calculating lcm
because it's just one
yes, am just nitpicking this line
but have we listed all the possible "shapes" of the permutations
.
Sorry to be more precise
its the problem of splitting 4 into a sum of 4 positive numbers
4 = 1+1+1+1
4 = 2+1+1
...
this is equivalent. You can solve this systematically to convince yourself you have
I see
thank you @coral shale
I appreciate all the help
I think I've got it
oh
@coral shale I understand why you wanted me to observe the "shapes" of these permutations
(sorry for the ping)

Conjugacy class is the proper term
(it turns out all permutations of the same 'shape' are equal up to conjugation)
yh. You can try the same exercise for say S_6
its fairly straightforward to do
but why is the order of (a_1 a_2 a_3 . . . a_n) (assuming they a_j != a_k) always going to be n
So think of a permutation as a function
f = (123...n)
If you apply f repeatedly to 1
ffffff(1)
If you do this less than n times, it can never map to 1
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
are you a graduate student?
i am
cool
or at least
anyway thanks again
i graduated 
oh
im not a student any more
i might be a student again in the future 👋
ooh what you doing now shuwi
oh
i cant wait to do more real math
i thought some top secret research >.<
tell more 
nup


dw when i get more into it im sure i can shove some algebra in

Nope
I've never seen something more advanced than eigen vectors from ML
(wtf did i type
)
if u so say
good news for me
because i basically didnt get any further than eigen ever
How would one go about proving that endomorphism of (V) is isomorphic to the 1-1 tensor, namely, T: V x V* -> K, where V is a vector space and K the underlying field
So you want to show V x V^* = L(V) right
I assume you mean the spaces of such maps?
Probably worth showing more generally that there's an isomorphism Hom(V,W) with V* x W
yeah
there is one map that should immediately come to mind
you require finite dimensionality of all vector spaces I think tho
otherwise you just get an injection (which is particularly nice)
Yes, you only get an isomorphism in finite dimension (otherwise there's no tensor representing the identity map on V).
"Give an example of an abelian group G that has exactly 1000 elements" ? ?
Z/1000Z
I'll do you one better: (Z/2Z)^{500}
Wait what's Z/2Z again? I forgot
Same thing Z/1000Z is
integers mod 2
That has a hell of a lot more than 1000 elements.
inner product?
"I'm good at mental arithmetic" 🤦♂️
So the 1000 elements are the 1000 congruence classes. for example all the integers divisible by 1, by 2, .... by 1000
am i? 
ur not
First one yes, second one no. All integers leaving remainder 0 when divided by 1000, leaving remainder 1 when divided by 1000 and so on till 999

Ohh okay. Nice. Are there any other groups with exactly 1000 elements?
Yeah
@coral spindle that story was really fun. ping me if you ever do that again 

There's a theorem that classifies all Ableian groups of a particular order
Is it more readable as $\langle a, P b\rangle = \langle a_W, P b\rangle = \langle P a, b\rangle$?
Lmao it is something I do from time to time, I'll @ you if I do
Fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups?
finitely generated, but yes that's right
latex's u's and v's smh
In fact I'll give you an example of a group of order 1000 that isn't Z/1000Z
Z/2Z x Z/2Z x Z/250Z
Oh it has to be abelian too, I forgot that part
the description of finite abelian groups is purely arithmetical (see the structure theorem). If you drop abelianity then the situation is much more wild. https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Groups_of_order_1000#:~:text=gap> SmallGroupsInformation(1000)%3B There,199 groups of order 1000.
Yes, asking for all the groups of order 1000 is a much harder question!
I am not familiar with either. If that is inner product I have a direction on it. Thank you
Fair point, I switched to a and b.
Troposphere
there are 199 groups of order 1000, as says the link provided
199 non-abelian groups?
and u can easily make groups of order 1000
Unless I'm mistaken, there should be only 9 abelian ones.
the other day I thought that it might be possible to give asymptotics on the number of isomorphism classes of groups of order n
If p counts unordered partitions, then yes.
The group U_1000 of solutions of z^1000 = 1 in C under multiplication is the example my book gave of an abelian group with 1000 elements
(ig 199 included both, abelian and non-abelian)
It's the same thing as Z/1000Z (group isomorphism).
Presumably the 1000th roots of unity.
i thought U_n was used for (Z/nZ)*
It's the set {z : z^n = 1} where z is a complex number
is this common notation
common enough that people don't complain when they want to be lazy
Ireland/Rosen use it in their book.
surely this
and this
dont coincide do they
|{z : z^n = 1}| = n
|(Z/nZ)*| = phi(n)
The latter has 400 elements.
yee
well this is a
moment
U_n under multiiplication is isomorphic to Z_n with addition mod n
|{z : z^n = 1}| = n is just C_n or Z_n. We don't need yet another letter for this thanks
I'll take this

Z/nZ as a additive group.
huh wheres the mistake
i think mu_n is a notation i've seen for n-th roots of unity
but that was in the context of group schemes
so ig i should C-valued points of that
I've seen this notation before too, and since I don't know what group schemes are, it must have been in another context
Does the order in which you state the axioms of a group matter?
i hope not
You should state identity before inverse
Ah yeah, good point
i can only imagine an extreme pedant making a fuss about it.
Im not being a pedant 
no i didn't mean you or what you said. what you said is just good advice.
since there are programming languages that allow you to do things with variables that aren't defined until later down, I feel like it doesn't matter imo
js moment
but I like the convenience of identity before inverse, sorta stupid to not do it that way, you're right
depends on how you define a group. if you define it as a quadruple (G, m, e, i) where m : G x G --> G, e : 1 --> G and i : G --> G, then we already know what e is :3
think this is a bit better
in terms of some well-definedness practicalities, perhaps
How many possible binary operations are there on a set of 2 elements, and how many of these give a group structure?
Do you want hints with this or do you just want an answer
Yeah maybe some hints to help me understand it better. I feel like there should be 8 possible binary operations. Not sure how many would be groups, but maybe you can tell from making a table
take the set defn of function
Hint: the number of functions from a set A to a set B is |B|^|A|.
Hint: there is only one group of order 2, up to isomorphism.
I just looked it up
There are 199
So A = {a,b} and B = {a,b,e, a^-1} ? 4^2?
I don't like guesswork. I'd rather see a justification.
define what a binary operation on G is
Because a binary structure is taking a pair (a,b) and assigning it to an element
You have your set S with two elements {a,b} , the binary structure is mapping SxS -> S ah so |A| = 4 and |B| = 2
So how many such operations are there?
So, SxS can mean (a,a) (a,b) (b,a) or (b,b)
No
S x S means a particular set – it contains those elements
It's really important that you don't confuse these concepts!
Ah, so SxS = {(a,a) (a,b) (b,a) (b,b)}
yes and S = {a, b}
And each of those gets map to either a or b
anyways, so using this . .
Yep, there are 4 things with 2 possibilities for each so 2^4
Good job
And then you hinted maybe only one of these gives a group structure. 1/16?
Again, I don't like guesswork.
If you don't have a watertight justification, you haven't answered the question
I guess associativity places a heavy restraint on what the Cayley table can look like
For 2 elements
no
associativity is usually hard to detect on a cayley table
There are 16 binary operations, but quite a few you can immediately reject from group axioms or immediate properties that follow
I would strongly recommend using the fact that we know what the group of order two looks like already.
But if you want to do it from scratch, then yeah, follow mu's advice
Group of order 2 looks like {e,a} so a&e=e&a = a, and e&e=e, and it must have inverse so a&a=e
drawing the cayley table for this would help, too
Yeah, then use this to determine which binary operations are possible
one way I have in mind is use the fact that multiplication by an element of the group is a bijection
Big hint, imo: ||If you know that the set is a group of order 2, then if you know which element is the identity, then you know the entire structure of the group.||
I see. I think I understand. Thanks
It was spoilered for a reason >:(
So for a set with 3 elements I'm thinking there's 19683 possible binary operations
Are you trying to do this again with order 3 groups? I don't think you've finished the order 2 case
Also, this is going to get a lot harder
nowhere near.
Nah that's correct; 3^9 = 19683
why is there guessing 
oh nvm
order 3 group is cyclic
I think the fastest way to compute for arbitrary order is to list possible group structures and take permutations.
taking permutations is not necessarily simple, has to be thought (some may result in the same binary operation)
Well, if you have representatives G_1, ..., G_m of the groups of order n up to isomorphism
You can count the number of times G_i occurs as a binary operation: it's |Sym(n)/Aut(G_i)| = n! / |Aut(G_i)|
This actually gives away the answer for the case that n is a prime 🙊
Naughty me
I think even the 4-element and 5-element cases can probably just be winged, knowing all the possible group structures.
I daresay if you want to calculate this in a human lifetime for, idk, n > 10, you're going to have to know all the groups of that order
And the symmetries of each of them.
Fwiw we have enough theory to make that a fairly easy task for certain orders
That too
You can see this via the action of Sym(n) on the set of binary operations on a set with n elements
ill have a think. ty
It should come from orb-stab, I reckon
That's nice as a general theory, but I'm not sure we should discard ad-hoc reasoning quite that soon. For example, how many binary operations on {a,b,c,d} give us V_4? It seems faster to say "well, all we can really choose is which element is the identity" than it is to compute the size of Aut(V_4).
This is kinda the theoryified version of that question
so |Aut(V_4)| is 6, if I follow
Aut(G) in my head allows us to sort out the information that we need to specify the group
3!, of course.
so for the spoilered hint I gave, this follows from Aut(Z/2Z) = 1
We do need to choose a bit more than the identity in the case of V_4, as mu's calculation points out
We need to choose two generators, and we're done
but yeah
Sym chooses the identity, and Aut chooses the generators
No, the group operation doesn't actually depend on which elements we call generators.
The product of any two non-identity elements is the third non-identity element.
Oh mb I had it the wrong way in my head
Yeah you're right, it's quite the opposite
because Aut(V_4) is 3!, it's entirely dependent on the identity
my mistake
A lot of these counting problems in aa seem to boil down to combinatorics thinks 
For some reason I was fixating on it being equal to 1, not (n-1)!
counting does indeed seem to boil down to counting
indeed.
Who'd have thought counting problems would boil down to combinatorics? :trollface:
thats more combinatorics than most of us would like tho 
Yea lol
Anyway, this general answer gives us the prime case very nicely
For an arbitrary group it can be difficult, yes.
Not quite
p-1 
Yeah that's right
I never really got comfortable with automorphism stuff
E.g. the exceptional outer automorphism of S_6 is not something one would just guess from staring at a systematic description of the group.
Tbh, it's really hard to guess almost any property of a group from a description of it
Something something Adian–Rabin
Finite groups are hard, let's go shopping!
I'm slowly clocking that same binary operation iff automorphism rn
just want to remark the notation is particularly nice $|S^{S\times S}|=|S|^{|S|\times|S|}$
Merosity
So for n=10 there's exactly a googol different binary operations.
damn, an actual application of googol, first for everything
time to frantically work out what gives a googolplex now
And there are only 2 groups of order 10 
D5, C2C5, C10 at least
We can probably work out what proportion of these are groups now, let me just think
2 and 3 are same
C2 x C5 = C10 :)
shh
Righty, so
|Aut(C_10)| = phi(10) = 4,
|Aut(D_10)| = 5*phi(5) = 20, after I looked it up lol
So in total we have 10!/4 + 10!/20 groups
I like D_2n notation
,w (10!/4 + 10!/20)/googol
that's 1088640 groups out of googol
lol i asked it in a weird way
do you like S_n! then 
Nah
But I write Sym(n) and Dih(2n) anyway
I think of Sym as a group on the set n = {0, ..., n-1} 
(acting on the set, I mean)
i guess the funny factoid I'm capable of remembering to spit off to kids is, "despite there being a googol of binary operations on 10 elements, there are only two groups of order 10"
write that 2 in binary
If you ever write a book on intro group theory lol
but it's shoving the symmetries under the rug there
Apples to, um, some kind of fruit.
Well I mean, the 10^-94 is still a cool number to throw around
And you could give this as an exercise!
I just want an excuse to say googol
Yeah "only a million or so" kind of spoils the rhetorical oomph.
About 17 times larger than a million.
hah
numbers bigger than 20 are too big
"For every group structure on 10 elements, there are about 10^94 binary operations on that set that don't form a group"
This one is pretty impressive
That's like, almost a googol
"For every group structure on 11 elements, there are over a googol binary operations on that set that don't form a group"
For every field structure on 10 elements there are infinitely many pairs of binary operations that don't form a field.
Somehow doesn't sound quite as impressive.
lol
say it for 11 then
10 is a power of a prime, p^{log_p(10)} for all primes p!
googolplex 
Oh I clocked it. By definition automorphism not only preserves set, but the group operation as well. So by definition the binary operation is invariant under automorphism
This means isomorphic groups are automorphic iff they have the same underlying set and binary operation
Congratulations on the insight. (It's trivial once you see it).
I kept trying to think about the homomorphism defn and getting nowhere
Once you've got the right definitions down it pops out I think
how does it follow that there is only one subgroup of Zn of order n/d?
Because that single subgroup contains all the elements whose order divides n/d.
How would I find an example sequence that under F isn't left-exact for the last part of the question
You can take A,B to be Z, for example
identity
yea
Think of another choice of map
and then I think C should be Z / 2Z
or does C = 0 work, that may be easier
no C = 0 doesn't work
it doesn't matter what C is
but Z / 2Z maps to "itself" under the functor so it's cool
C is just the quotient of B by im(A)
the only thing that matters is that you have an injective A --> B which is no longer injective
after appyling the functor
yea
mocha
so the first one makes sense to me. b1b2^-1 is still going to be a string of elements from A with exponents either 1 or -1. but i'm not sure how to go about adjusting this to make it normal... the thing i'm really unsure about is how to use the elements of A to make sure that conjugation by an arbitrary element of G stays in the set.
would it just be something like all elements of the form $\prod_{i=1}^n g_i\inv a_ig_i$ for some $n\in\bN$?
nilpotent nix
btw just looking for a hint, not a solution 😅
yeah this doesn't work
H = <A> is gonna be a subgroup of the desired normal subgroup (calling it N). so in particular gHg^-1 is also gonna need to be a subgroup of N, for each g. so what does that tell you about what elements have to be in N?
they'll be ||g * a_1^e_1 * a_2^e_2 * ... * a_n^e_n * g^-1, for each g in G||
and then these will be enough to form a normal subgroup
so i thought about that. but i don't see how it will be closed under multiplication, since it will have a g1^-1g2 in the middle and they aren't necessarily the same g...
sorry for the low quality screenshot but these are the exercises my prof listed as things to look at related to this one
it's weird to me that it seems easier when there are two operations lol. i guess maybe because one is always commutative
i shouldn't have begun to think about this at 3am. but well
it'll have to at least contain the subgroup generated by these guys, which looks pretty ugly, so it seems like something that'll look pretty ugly....
ohhh, okay, so
the subgroup generated by the gHg^-1 actually works
though you need a little trick to show it's normal
say $N = \langle gHg^{-1},\text{ for each $g\in G$}\rangle$. then each $n\in N$ will be a product like $n = \prod g_ih_ig_i^{-1}$. when we try to take the conjugate of this, what seems to impede us from getting an element of $N$ again are the junctions like $g_i^{-1}g_{i+1}$. is there something smart we can do at those junctions to circumvent the issue?
lambdcalculus
lil' extra: ||the trick will let us turn gng^-1 into a product of elements of N||
the actual trick: ||g_i^-1 * g_{i+1} = g_i^-1 * g^-1 * g * g_{i+1} = (gg_i)^-1 * gg_{i+1}||
having to type without latex so the bot doesn't show stuff is pain
i assume there's a way to make it hide the output as a spoiler. anyone know how one does that?
ahahhh i see. so the original thing i thought does actually work! since we can insert gg^-1's between every term, conjugating the product by g just turns it into a product of (g_ig)^-1 ai (g_ig)
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i figured it out
,texsp $boop$
you mean texsp
yrp
i mean, if you spoil the source as well it's fine. though if i recall it'll do some weird thing
,texsp ||$boop$||
lambdcalculus
,texsp ||u||
yeah that darn thing
no worries.
hey guys, I'm back. How do you intuitively see if this field extensions is simple or not? When you get it, how do you prove your claim?
what is your definition of separable? I don't have it in my skript
also I wanted to ask, for a,b in L a field extension of K, does K(a,b)=K(a)K(b) always hold?
there are many equivalent definitions, you say a polynomial is separable if it doesnt' have repeated roots. and then you say an algebraic extension F/k is separable if minimal polynomial of each a in F over k is separable.
oh yeah, now I know what you mean, sorry my german and english are kinda confused sometimes haha
what do you mean by * here?
I meant the "multiplication"
but I'm confused too
cause I saw it in some solution, but I think they mean the generated "Zwischenkörper"(I have to look the word in english up) by K(a) and K(b)
if E and F are subfields of some larger field L, then EF is defined as the smallest subfield containing E and F
which is also called the subfield generated by E and F
is defined as the union right?
and EF = {e1f1 + ... + enfn | ei in E, fi in F}
idk german 
(but this is only true if like L/k is like algebraic or something, otherwise you would also need denominators)
so yea E*F isn't exactly just {ef | e in E and f in F}
maybe you recognize some symbols 
looks like they're saying K1K2 is the subfield gneerated by the the union?
yeah, I mean, for this to hold E/L hast to be finite for it to hold
yes exactly
any field extension of char 0 fields would automatically be separable, so here all finite extensions are simple 
so we get "problems" when charK=p for a prime number right?
this means that the smallest subfield of K is Q right?
yep, the standard example for a non-simple extension is this
F = F_p(s, t) and k = F_p(s^p, t^p)
so [F:k] = p^2 but this has inifnitely many intermediate fields (which doesn't happen for simple extensions), the ones generated by s + a*t and a in k.
yep, char 0 fields contain a copy of Q
intermediate field
ah is this like that chess move
zwischenzug somthing
which means an in-between move
zwischen = between
primitive element theorem my beloved
did you mean K(a)(b) here?
if E/k and F/k are algebraic extensions, then so is EF/k and in this case EF is finite sums of elementary products e*f
(ofc to define EF, you assume the are subfields of some large enough field)
that's why we use the notation EF
but the definition is the subfield generated by E and F
K(a) * K(b) = K(a, b) = K(a)(b)
Just to make sure I'm not doing anything stupid, (a,b)^2=(a^2,ab,b^2), as ideals
Take a "complete" set of bijections with the operation of composition. Make the sum and multiplication operations the same, the composition
that works, but probably not what you were expecting xdd
this is usually not considered
talk about groups
it's not distributive
a group is furthest from being commutative when its abelianization is the trivial set
if you want distributivity it implies that + is commutative
ahh you are right
wait really?
cant u have left and right
oh now that you say it, i think i did this exercise sometime 
actually wasn't this asked once some time ago?
like uh, you look at (1+a)(1+b), you can distribute it in 2 ways and then you compare what they give you
ic
if we don't have a 1, then we could only say that the elements {a*b : a, b in R} commute with +, right?
I was more asking about a theory behind them lol
something like very non commutative algebra 
The book says I can’t solve this using group theory. I tried to see why. Does the problem happen because the group isn’t of prime order?
do you know what a splitting field is
I mean, you can absolutely prove this with group theory, but you need some more advanced tools
Nope

you don't really need any field theory to prove this
hmm
you can do it using some basic sylow theory
Sylow won’t be covered until next year…
I don't know any simpler proof. Elementary methods won't really help you here, at least not just lagrange on its own
I ask this because I remembered something about groups of prime order being cyclic
I just wanted to check that my above working was correct
this won't help you here
Apparently there’s a difference between F_p and Z/pZ
they're isomorphic
But by definitions I think F_p is like a world of integers that stops after p-1
Z/pZ has elements which are equivalence classes, so every integer falls into one class
Here's how to prove it with sylow: ||In general, you can prove any finite subgroup of the mult. group of a field is cyclic. What you do is, for every sylow subgroup, say of order p^k, note that x^p^k-1=0 has at most p^k roots, so there are at most p^k elements of order dividing p^k, but this implies the sylow subgroup is unique, hence it's normal. By similar reasoning, you can conclude that the sylow subgroup is cyclic. Why? Because there are at most p^(k-1) elements of order p^(k-1), but there are p^k elements in the sylow subgroup, so there must be some element in it that has order greater than p^(k-1) and dividing p^k, i.e. it must be of order p^k. Finally, normality implies that your group is a direct product of its sylow subgroups, and each of these is cyclic with coprime order, and you finish by the chinese remainder theorem||
does someone know why both a(x) and b(x) are forced to have constant term of 0 ?
i thought only of the constant terms is forced be 0 only
@formal ermine
Yeah I was told this as well, but I thought they were literally the exact same thing, just a notational difference
the proof I had in mind is ||it's the splitting field of x^p^k - x so its mult group is U_(p^k - 1) which is cyclic||
In response to this
fields are unique up to isomorphism
as in like there's only 1 field of order n up to iso.
if that's what you mean
I think yes because elements are just relabelled but it doesn’t feel rigourous
finite* fields
"but what about the empty set"
This doesn't show F_p^\times is cyclic tho
I mean it's a very important distinction, there are infinitely many nonisomorphic infinite fields, so it's not true that fields are that nice
you can show that U_n is cyclic using the structure theorem
then you don't need fields a priori anyways...Like I said
the initial question was about F_p^\times
yes, I linked it to U_n
you can see by inspection that it's the same thing
suppose L is a field extension of K
is it true that every element a of L is the root of some irreducible polynomial over K?
those are called algebraic extensions
or well
algebraic extensions are when every element of the extension field is a root of some polynomial over K
without the irreducible modifier here
and there are non algebraic extensions
I mean, it's equivalent
but yea these are exactly the algebraic extensions
right
There are elementary proofs as long as you know F_p is a field and that the polynomial x^{p-1}-1 has p-1 different roots in it (all lying in F*_p). All you need is this and some basic group theory (knowing how orders of elements work). Page 10 of https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/ugradnumthy/ordersmodm.pdf, so long as you know what polynomials over a field are, you should be able to understand this (this is the simplest and clearest proof I know). https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/cyclicmodp.pdf has a bunch of other proofs of this one fact, if you are curious to see more.
yes
because L/K is finite there exists an n such that { 1, x, ..., x^n } is linearly dependent over K
fwiw the converse only holds true when L/K is finitely generated
Oh never seen a proof using Sylow theory
My method to show any finite subgroup of a field is cyclic would be ||use the fact that a group G of order n is cyclic iff it has <= phi(k) elements of order (exactly) k for each k|n and note there are <= k elements of order dividing k for each k|n giving the result after splitting up||
yea, that's pretty much the same thing innit
like i'd prove the thing you said with sylow theory also
you can do it elementarily too tbf
but it's more annoying
how would you prove it without it being a PITA
pita?
|| sum of phi(d) over d|n is n just from considering Z/nZ or by other methods and then from that this is easy||
Ofc if I were asked in an exam or at gunpoint I'd just say structure theorem as above but ye that is overkill
pain in the arse
lol I thought it would be something like PID
yea that works but I don't like working with the totient function
lmao
Where |G| = n, you write S_n/Aut(G). Is this a quotient group!? I don't see how Aut(G) is normal
Conjugation of an automorphism by any permutation which moves the identity will surely not yield an automorphism
oh.
a more normal notation would be [Sym(n) : Aut(G)]
Ye fair
Yes this makes sense then yh
What is the best way to prove, that if L/K is an algebraic expansion, then a and b in L are algebraic over K iff a+b and ab is alg over K
you just need this one lemma: F/k is f.g. extension say F = k(a1, a2, ..., an) then TFAE
- F/k is algebraic
- each a_i is algebraic/k
- F/k is finite
you probably have seen this by now
so if a, b are alg/K then K(a, b)/K is an alg extension, so a+b and ab are alg/K
conversely, if a+b and ab are alg/K then K(ab, a+b)/K is finite and now K(a, b)/K(ab, a+b) is at most a degree 2 extension, so K(a, b)/K is still finite, hence a, b, are alg/K
does it always hold that K(a+b) is the same as K(a,b)?
but it's contained
yee
cause I showed that K(a,b)/K is finite
does this automatically imply that K(a+b)/K also has to be?
yep
I think I'm missing a lil point here
its an intermediate field
getting a social pressure for you to watch one piece
i want to show this
if we take ideal in A/I
all ideals contain 0
and 0 in A/I corressponds to I in A
so any ideal in A/I contains atleast I (every ideal is atleast the 0 ideal)
does this work for converse
Not sure, but I would advise sticking to doing it properly with injective/surjective first
before trying other stuff
okay
do you know what happens to the ideals that dont contain I ?
what happens to them in A/I
I barely understand this problem in my head, just vaguely recall its an isomorphism theorem
I'd have to think of a concrete example to be sure.
iirc this is completely analogous with groups too
===
I feel like an ideal contains I only if it is a union of of cosets of I
So if it doesn't, that map produces something that isn't a coset
What do you mean? You can consiser the image of them under the quotient map
And youll get some ideal of A/I
The image under the quotient map is some ideal of A/I
If you call tbe original ideal J, the image of J is the samw as the image of J+I, which is an ideal of A that contains I
They mean consider this map on all ideals, not just the ones containing I J -> Jbar := {x + I : x in J}
right
and what it outputs
ActiveChapter
the set of outputs is not an ideal anymore in A/I i think ?
i think that too
say Z
I = (2)
J = (3)
oh wait u want completely empty intersection
uh
Think of a better example 
i mean it doesnt matter just as long as J doesnt completely contain I
yeah
looks like u end up with the entire quotient ring
maybe in more complicated rings it may not remain an ideal anymore?
im not thinking particularly clearly rn 
No
The image of an ideal under any surjective map
Is still an ideal
It doesnt matter how it intersects the kernel of the map
det is here to do the thinking, good.
Am i invisible 😭
certainly not, but hes a direct upgrade on me
i dont understand
okie what was the question uwu
ideals of A containing I are in bijection with ideals of A/I
what about ideals in A not completely containing I
Theyre just not part of the correspondence
Again: the image of an ideal under a surjective map is still an ideal
Proof: just do it
okay so ideals get deleted when sending to A/I ?
"deleted"
thats what im ask
it makes sense then
Again: if J is any ideal of A, then the image of J is the same as the image of J + I
And if J containsn’t I, then J + I and J are different
Ty i just came up with it :)
i told a friend that i learned a new word. but i was saying it zwishenkorper, with z like a z and not s
.<
he told me i should know that much after staying 4 months in germany
OH
So you stayed 4 months in Germany
come on as long as you don't have to say Eichhörnchen everything is savable
I don't see what's wrong though
yee me doing masters here

he thought it sounded cute 
is this enough proof
what does ann mean? I've only seen it as tor
And I would add smth at the end saying "hence ..."
Ann is defined there
The annihilator of a module
ah annihilator
though unfortunately different to annihilators in lin alg ig
oh tor is like the opposite thing
oops
Huh
you mean the underlying abelian group right?
Uhh I mean like
Ideals are closed under addition
You need to show that that is the case

Sorry yes there is a fancier way
But it is the same proof basically lol
You can think of this as the kernel of a map out of R
i believe you can do both at once by showing for r1,r2 in AnnR(M) and s1,s2 in R, then s1r1+r2s2 is in AnnR(M)
then s1=s2=1 shows closed under addition
s2=0 shows left ideal property
s1=0 shows right ideal property
for a comm ring you only nead sr1+r2
in the words of my professor, "you'd probably confuse a class teaching it like that, but it does work"
What do these words mean, individually I understand but when they bunch them together my brain rots
@.me when replying so ik
permutation multiplication is ordinary composition of functions
@astral stream A collection of permutations are a collection of bijections f:A->A.
So think if this $S_A={f:A->A|$ f is a bijection $}$ and composition of these $f,g\in S_A$ is normal function composition. Composition of bijections is a bijection so the operation is closed. Now think about associativity,inverses, and identity.
small saint
\to
lol i forgot latexing on phone is different
For 'collection of all permutation of A' I didn't understand 'collection' = set and permutations referred to the function and not just a new set (so I thought permutation of {1,2} would just be {1,2} and {2,1} and not the functions). not sure if that makes sense
For 'group under permutation multiplication' I forgot permutation multiplication = function composition.
so this phi is not necessarily a group homomorphism, right? then would showing ker(phi)={1} not prove it is injective?
the second part of the question supposes H and K are finite and uses the cardinality to show that |HK|=|H||K|/|H∪K|. but i'm also not really understanding how we can go about showing |HK/K|=|HK|/|K|.
the notation HK/K is very suggestive. but i don't understand why {hK:h in H} would have the same cardinality as |HK|/|K| (when they're finite)
Just by counting. Each coset of K in HK has the same size, and they are all disjoint
And their union is all of HK
You can always decompose any finite separable extension as a tower of extensions of prime degree, right? I guess this is group theory
so you have sylow groups
and so you can reduce to the case where the extension has degree p^n
and you want to decompose it as n extensions of degree p
which I think is enough by Cauchy's theorem
no?
What if it’s not galois?
ah sorry forgot to include that hypothesis
I was thinking about Galois extensions, yeah
if its not Galois then idk, but I guess its still possible? 
I know examples of degree 4 extensions with no subfields
nice
But not galois
yeah, what I said is true for Galois no? I made the sketch of the group theory
right, HK is the union of all left h cosets of K. so to count the number of cosets, we just divide the total number of elements by the size of each coset? just want to make sure i understand
Even for galois fields, subfields need not be galois
So like take your first sylow, you get a subextension whose degree has no powers of p in it, but it might not be galois; how do you continue?
Thats right
It is exactly the same as the typical proof of Lagrange
you want everything to be as Galois as possible always, maybe taking the Galois closure takes us somewhere?
so can this application of Lagrange's theorem always apply to quotients, even ones that aren't groups?
Like, take an A_5 extension. Im not seeing how your argument works.
Where the equivalence classes of are all the same size, yes
very cool. thank you both ❤️ @coral spindle @oblique river
Nvm A_5 is fine, because it has A_4 as a subgroup
Consider the extension $K<L$, let $G=\text{Gal}(L/K)$. Suppose $|G|=p_1^{a_1}\cdots p_n^{a_n}$. Let $H$ be a subgroup of $G$ of order $p_1^{a_1}$ (Sylow) and let $L^H$ be the fixed field. We have the tower $K<L^H<L$ where $[L^H\colon K]=p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_n^{a_n}$ and $[L\colon L^H]=p_1^{a_n}$
Croqueta
and $L^H<L$ is Galois
Croqueta
maybe Im making everything up lol, I have to check the fundamental theorem all the time
is that correct?
ah but you dont know if K<L^H is Galois
is that the problem?
Yes
So given a group G you would want to find subgroups G1<G2<...<Gn such that [G{i+1} : G{i}] is prime
this is the group theoretic formulation of what I was saying (in a Galois extension), correct?
that seems pretty impossible actually, idk
Indeed this is just saying G is solvable
Okay tbf I was sloppy there
If the series is subnormal this is solvabulity, but I assume you want normality cause we want galois extensions0
ah right, no assumption on normality
I dont see why would you need normality at all
subfields correspond to subgroups, and the degree and index is preserved
I think what I was saying asks for the following: Given a group G, find a subgroup H of G such that [G : H] is a prime number.
Let K<L be an extension G=Gal(L/K). Say H is a subgroup of G with [G : H] prime. Then K<L^H<L with K<L^H of prime degree, L^H<L Galois and Gal(L/L^H)=H, so you can keep climbing
but I guess its just not true in general
A module is a generalization of a vector space. You can think of it as a group of vectors with scalars from a ring instead of a field. In this lesson, we introduce the module, give a variety of examples, and talk about the ways in which modules and vector spaces are different from one another.
Be sure to subscribe so you don't miss new lessons...
these explainers are surprisingly good
role-module 
Lang left this as an exercise but is it just obvious? "The normalizer of a subgroup H of G is the largest subgroup of G where H is normal." Like if there is a bigger subgroup, all elements of it would be in the normalizer?
Yup
Basically by definition of the normalizer right?
Hi! I'm supposed to factor (x^4+1) in the finite fields (\mathbb{F}5), (\mathbb{F}{5^2}) and (\mathbb{F}_{5^3}). And while this was easily done through elementary methods for the first case, I suspect I'm supposed to be able to use that knowledge as I proceed, but I'm just at a loss for how I'm meant to continue
Marci
I'm starting to think I don't get how finite fields work but doesn't (x^2+2)(x^2+3) do the job?
x^4+5x^2+6 which reduces to x^4+1 mod 5 right?
Just based on plugging in every element in each case I'm inclined to say no? (They're quadratics and have no roots)
Yes!
So the next part depends on how much you know about finite fields
1: do you know that F_5 < F_5^2?
< meaning “is a sub field”
Yep
Cool, so first general fact
If K < L, and you have a polynomial in K[x] which factors in K, the same factorization holds over L
Does that make sense? What I’m saying here is that at the very least x^4 + 1 factors like this over F_5^2
Cool, so now we have to ask, does it factor even more now?
Yep this is the point I got up to basically
Ah oky cool.
I'm not sure if it does/ if we have any standards methods to see how
So do you know how to write F_5^2 as an extension over F_5?
Or I guess actually let’s be more general
What facts do you know about finite fields?
I’ll be even more pointed to help out
What even is F_5^2?
OH! I know F_5^2 is the splitting field of x^(5^2)-x over F_5? Could that help?
Yes this may be helpful, but there’s something that might be even more helpful
How many finite fields exist
Of any given order?
I thought they were unique?
So we want to know if these two polynomials factor in F_5^2 yeah?
(quick sidenote, thank you so much you're top tier at walking me through this I am beyond thankful already)
Yeah I guess if we just extend the field with one of its roots
OH it's a degree 2 extension so that extension has to be exactly F_25???
Ah that's quite cool how the uniqueness was important
That's also degree 2 so does that mean we can follow the same argument and both of them have to factor in F_25?
Well it can't factor further than linear factors so it'll just be the same as for F_25
Well no!
Damn
Does F_125 contain F_25?
So could those quadratics factor in it?
Nope
:D
I suddenly see why this problem was written in the first place
Wow thank you so much 😭 fields have never made more sense
Do you have any general tips on how to lay out similar hands on questions with more clarity? I often get stuck just not knowing how I'm supposed to even apply my knowledge
Idk
Experience
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I just rummage through a textbook trying to find relevant theorems
Fair enough thank you for your help anyway
So like... since the sequence splits, each module is like isomorphic to the direct sum of the ones next to it, so then like P_1 is P_0 + P_2, but P_2 is itself P_1 + P_3, so P_1 is P_0 + P_1 + P_3 and that hurts my head
i don't understand 2 out of the 6 words
No it doesn’t
Oh wait
You only surject onto the kernel of the last map
There’s no reason that’s projective
The splitting thing only applies to a short exact sequence
Okay that's why I was confused
Lol nvm
Oopsie moment

Damn I thought that sas Walter
Okay this makes a lot more sense now lol
(will you not enlighten det?
)
Lol which two words
Padawan = apprentice Jedi, young padawan is just a meme term for like, a beginner
woes padawan
I thought you meant projective resolution for a sec
tell chmonkey your worries beginner 
I was getting ready to explain lol
hehe 

It’s a starwars reference, it’s pretty cringe to say it lol
But I did it on purpose sarcastically so it’s marginally better
so would an example just be
[\begin{tikzcd}\dots\arrow[r]&F(\ker d_1)\arrow[r,"d_2"]&F(\ker d_0)\arrow[r,"d_1"]&F(A)\arrow[r,"d_0"]&A\arrow[r]&0\end{tikzcd}]
yee
tietzeric extension (he)
hi det 
uwu 
hope you're well and that you had a good weekend
(that's a nice functorial free resolution :3)
:o words
me binge-re-watched vinland saga uwu
all it means is if A --> B is a map, then you get a ladder of the resolutions above
sounds like a weekend well spent
so it's like you want to study the object A
which is complicated
but free modules are not complicated
so you try to approximate A using free modules
think of generators and relations idea
oooh
for PIDs these terminate (and f.g. modules)
but for general rings you might have to go on forever
They're the same as free resultions, up to homotopy
and free resolutions are much easier to motivate; they're generalised presentations
Where does the homotopy come from
I haven't seen any of these
or whatever it's called. I think it's called the prism map.
OK well you'll get there.
There's a notion of homotopy.
so in some sense the object A
and the whole sequence
... --> F2 --> F1 --> F0 --> 0 --> 0 -->
have the same information
Coool
I'm surprised you're looking at any homological algebra without first knowing simplicial homology lol
one entirely consists of free stuff which hopefully are easier to understand uwu
like how do you expect to motivate it
It's just an algebra hw assignment
Lol
It wasn't anything complicated, it was just prove that any module has a projective resolution
But it seemed interesting
We just learned about modules and projective modules so that's why
Next class is on injective modules and baer's criterion 👀
So yeah the motivation might be over my head
you know cat theory right
Very little
okie that's enough :3
I've been reading the first chapter of riehl's category theory in context
so you get a functor
R-mod --> Ch(R-mod)
what's Ch(R-mod)?
Grrr that's a lie
Chmonkey(R-mod)?
:( should be a functor up to homotopy alone
(R-mod)
Ch(R-mod) are chain complex for R-moduels
stuff you have been looking at
Okay
--> M2 --> M1 --> M0 --> M-1 --> ...
So the projective resolution is an example of that?
where composite of two adjacent maps is 0
so the functor above sends a module M to the trivial complex




