#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 51 of 1
lol
Was reading the article about orthogonal matrices. The definition is weird, but now knows its meaning now lol Thank you
weird? in what sense?
If Q mean orthogonal matrix, I don't know why we need to mention Q "is in general linear group"
The author of another article just define Q = orthogonal matrix
And I read this definition in another book, he didn't define Q = orthogonal matrix
your english is cute 
to emphasize it's a subset. Also there's more set theoretical reasons
how to tell O(n) is subset of Q in this equation (if we already told the readers Q is orthogonal matrices)?
By his equation, its more like telling O(n) "is orthogonal matrix", more than "is the subset of orthogonal matrix".
guys a question for this exercise 32
My idea is this
let a,b belong to the group G we know that (ab)^2=(ab)(ab) so if a=a^-1 and b^-1 then we have
(ab)^2=(ab)(ab)
=(a^-1b^-1)(a^-1b^-1)
=(ab)^-1(ab)^-1
=(ba)^-1(ba)^-1
=(b^-1a^-1)(b^-1a^-1)
=(ba)(ba)
=(ba)^2
I don't really understand what you mean
how to tell O(n) is subset of Q in this equation (if we already told the readers Q is orthogonal matrices)?
By his equation, its more like telling O(n) "is orthogonal matrix", more than "is the subset of orthogonal matrix".
Q is not a "set of orthogonal matrices" it's just a placeholder
Yeah Q is a placeholder, and I think the whole expression inside the bracket is representing"orthogonal matrice"
33 or 32?
32 jeje
why is a'=a?
see either you define orthogonal matrices by saying those invertible matrices whose inverse is the transpose. or you expand this out more, i.e. matrices Q such that Q * Q^t = Q^t * Q = I. since for orthogonal matrices Q, the inverse is given by transpose, they're a subset of GL(n, k)
in order to prove commutativity
ahh no, you can't just assume a and b are of order 2
only thing given is (ab)²=a²b²
hint: || abab=aabb now cancel||
yes. I know these 2 facts"what orthogonal matrix is", and also "ortho. matrix is the subset of GL(n,k)".
What I don't understand is, Its text description said "orthogonal group is the subset of orthogonal matrix". Which I cannot see O(n) is subset of it in its equation. The right hand side of the equation is more like defining what is orthogonal matrix itself
ah i see your question
they define orthogonal group to be "the" subset of orthogonal matrices
looks like typo 
as in they're refering to the subset which contains all the orthogonal matrices
and not defining it as "a" further subset of the subset of orthogonal matrices
or not
ngl even I fell for it

whatever, english is weird. ignore it
Can I write as such for this sentence ? O(n) x O(n) -> O(n)
So far I can't tell the difference between orthogonal group and the set of orthogonal matrices
at the level of sets there is no difference
you just wrote the only difference 
when you say orthogonal group, it contains the data of both the underlying set of orthogonal matrices, along with the multiplication operation


why we highlight it is a group then?
dan
because it is
because... we care about groups?

because more structure makes mathematicians happy
oh ok. A set is just a bag of items. A group is a data structure that supports binary operations.
yee 
Oh... thank you
that's sounds too cs for my comfort >.<
yeah
It sounds easier with cs words
btw, the language might be a little weird here... when you say "support", it shouldn't mean that there exists a group structure on it. it should mean that the group structure is part of the data >.<
just a tiny point i wanted to say >.<
for any (non-empty) set X, you can give it a group structure by defining some weird operation
if X is finite, use the structure of Z/nZ
if X is infinite then |X| = |F(X)|, so transport this structure
how would we show that H intersect K satisfies the existence of an inverse x^-1 for every x in H intersect K? that would basically amount to showing that if x in H and x in K, then x^-1 in H and x^-1 in K. but the problem is that we don't know that x in H and x in K from the information we're given (or at least you guys might, i'm struggling on figuring out how to prove it). We know that their intersection is nonempty (e in H intersect K) but other than that i'm stuck
I think you have some of the directions of the proof wrong
Spamakin🎷
@white oxide
oh ok thanks
So you're starting with that fact
but how do you know x in H intersect K?
by assumption
don't you have to prove existence first?
no
that there is something other than the identity in H intersect K
for all you know, the identity may be the only thing in there
you want to show that if anything is in there
so is it's inverse
that's all
yes you are supposed to show a subgroup is non-empty, but this is trivial because identity is in both H and in K
yea you already showed that so I didn't mention that
but as far as any other element, doesn't matter. Note that no where did I say that x was a non-identity element
sure it may
yea or it may be something else (for example if H = K = G and all the groups are non-trivial)
similar logic should be used to show closure under the group operation
guys I just made this cayley chart of Z_3xZ_3
two questions
the first one is that the table if it is ok or not ?
at some point I found
2+2=4=1mod3
no problem for this ?
now i would like to know how can i get the subgroups out of this table ?
this exercise appears on youtube in a class at UNAM
the table looks fine to me
heehe nice exercise
was literally on my test today
what question?
highlighted one
how did you do it?
are you still stuck?
to find the subgroups of Z3xZ3 if any idea ?
there arent many
On my test today, one of the questions was to prove that the cyclic group G is abelian
so i did something like for any x,y in G, x=g^a and y=g^b for some integers a,b respectively
then xy = (g^a)(g^b)=g^(a+b)=(g^b)(g^a)=yx
would that be right or am i completely off
It’s correct
yeah that's fine
ohhh ok thank you so much that makes complete sense!!!
do you know lagrange's theorem
Any subgroup will have order 1,3 or 9. (Why?)
Order 1 implies singleton identity, order 9 implies the whole group
Now find the subgroups of order 3
Identity must belong to each of these
is it right to define Z[i/25]= {(a+bi)/25^k| a,b in Z and k in N}
following question, what is a nice/fast way to show that two generated rings are the same?
how do I prove these two groups aren't isomorphic?
Think about some properties of the groups involved
What do S,C and D mean? Do they have their usual meanings?
why is it enough to show that the generators are contained?
is there any general method to show groups are not isomorphic/are isomorphic?
S_3 is the symmetric group of order 3, i.e. the group of bijections from {1, 2, 3} to itself
and C_6 is the cyclic group {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
D is the dihedral group for uh.... not sure
To show that two groups are isomorphic, construct/demonstrate the existence of an isomorphism.
To show that they are not isomorphic, either assume an isomorphism and prove a contradiction or examine properties of the elements such as their order or something, or examine subgroups.
What is the group operation here?
Ah ok
S_3 is not a cyclic group, C_6 is
Hence they are not isomorphic
Why is S_3 not cyclic? It cannot be generated by a single element (Prove this)
wait, so if a group is cyclic but another isn't then we cannot construct an isomorphism between them?
(why?)
Right
Left as an exercise to the reader
but how come?
Prove it, not that tough
no I mean, why is it that two groups must both be cyclic in order for an isomorphism to be constructed between them
or not both cyclic
Let G and H be two isomorphic groups, such that G is cyclic. Now consider a generator of G, and an isomorphism ϕ from G to H.
That is what I suggested you prove
This is a hint, although I would call it basically the whole answer
oh
Even easier, all cyclic groups are abelian. So it is sufficient to demonstrate that S_3 is not abelian, which is trivial, to show that it is not cyclic.
How can I answer part b of this question?
i get scared when i see [4] on the right >.<
If H is a subgroup of index 2 of a group G, then H is a normal subgroup of G.
(Prove it)

S3 doesn't have order 3
how many ways are there to arrange 3 objects?
Thank you!
3
Sanity check: Just send (m+n)(S+T) to (mS,nT). You can check that this is well defined, since if m+n=m'+n' modulo S+T then m=m' mod S and n=n' mod T, as S and T are disjoint. This is clearly surjective and to see that it is injective, suppose (mS,nT)=(m'S,n'T). Then there exist s in S and t in T such that m-m'=s and n-n'=t. Adding both expressions, we get (m+n)-(m'+n')=s+t in S+T
Another way is to just consider the "canonical" mapping M+N --> M/S + N/T, defined by m+n --> (mS,nT) and see that it is surjective and that the kernel is S+T, and apply first iso
le epic universal property
I am confirming your sanity

This works for arbitrary index sets, too.
this is the only way 
other way doesn't exist 🙈
yeah
both ways are clearly the same sure, but in one you have to invoke the first iso, in the other you kinda do it in the fly I guess
what do you mean?
like arbitrary direct sums and not just 2
👍
I was aware of that long ago, but looking through some old exercises I realized I did not write down a proof of that, so wanted to make sure
how can you show that R[X1,...,Xn] is isomorphi to R[X1,..., Xm][Xm+1,...,Xn]
I know that it has to be done with the universal property, but I can't visualise the commutative diagram
I too require a sanity check: if $A$ is integrally closed, $K$ its fraction field, $L$ finite extension of $K$ and $B$ integral closure of $A$ in $L$, then for $a\in B$, $N_{L/K}(a)\in A^\implies a\in B^$ (I don't like the standard approach with embeddings):
$N(a)$ is a power of $b_n$ (up to $\pm1$), where $x^n+b_1x^{n-1}+\cdots+b_n$ is the minimal polynomial of $a$ (which has coefficients in $A$), so if $N(a)$ is a unit, so is $b_n\implies$ multiplying the identity $a^n+b_1a^{n-1}+\cdots+b_n=0$ by the inverse of $b_n$, you get $1=a(\cdots)\in B\cdot B\implies a\in B^*$.
show abstractly for any ring R, you have a natural iso R[x,y] = R[x][y], then rest would follow from induction
Ocean Man
I can't really visualize the definition of the second set
so they're polynomials in the variable y and coefficients in R[x]
something like
(4 + x +x^2) + (3x - x^7)y + (x^99 - x^999) y^2
pff haha omg, thanks
and the isomorphism would think of this polynomial as a bi-variate poly with coefficients in R
this makes sense
btw what's your definition of R[x,y]?
you don't want to see it
i realize we might have to prove R[x1, ..., xn, y] = R[x1, ..., xn][y] depending on the way you define it
Rn mentioned above
ah that
yup
but they show it with the universal property
I just don't see how you get your Isomorphism
yee, that's the best approach
do you just define your homo from R[X] to any set S
you never would want to define a map with elements and then check it preserves + and *, that's too much work
Big up universal properties
hehe, homo
okie let's just do it directly
we wanna define map both ways R[X1, .., Xn] --> R[X1, .., Xm][Xm+1, ..., Xn]
recall that any polynomial ring comes with a natural map S --> S[Y1, ..., Yk]
R --> R[X1, .., Xm] --> R[X1, .., Xm][Xm+1, ..., Xn]
so use this map
and the universal property to extend it to R[X1, .., Xn]
similarly define the other direction and then we need to check that the composites are just identities
if |G|=n then for all g in G we have g^n=1 correct?
Yes
to check that, it would suffice to check it only on the generators X1, ..., Xn by uniqueness in the universal property.
another idea is to verify that R[X1, .., Xm][Xm+1, ..., Xn] satisfies the universal property of R[X1, .., Xn]
ah right
which maybe a little nicer now i think about it :p
Oh interesting that the non-lagrange proof breaks down in non abelian case
Well if G is abelian you can consider the product of all elements of G, then the product of all elements of gG (which is also G ofc)
(you're sane uwu)
and then you get like the second is the first times g^n
So g^n=1
But ofc only works for abelian, sad
(not any "set", it should be a commutative ring together with a map from R)
Will a simple ring always be a simple module over itself? Even if it's not unital, commutative, etc.?
nope
iirc for simple rings, you require no non-trivial two-sided ideals
for if you think of it as a (left) module over itself, then the definition would only look at no non-trivial left-ideals
i don't wanna think about non-unital :p
You could have it as a two-sided module over itself tho, no?
yea but usually people don't do that ig
like it becomes an R-R bimodule
which is same as R⊗R^op left module
Okok I see what you mean

thank
yes you're right, oopsie
thanks for the explanation though
I worked it through
I have another question though which is confusing me rn
why is the unit Ring of R contained in the one of R[X], it's logic, I know, I understand it too
but somehow my definition doesn't make it work
the group of unit of R(?)
I'd say so
yee that's a group
they actually have the same unit groups
because the stuff you add to your ring can't be inverted because of degree reasons
f in R[X] is unit then f * g = 1 which means both deg f and deg g are 0, so the equation f * g = 1 is entirely inside R
why are all prime elements also irreducible? does this work? if x is prime, say $x = uv$ that means that $x | uv$ hence $x | u$ or $x|v$ say $x| u$ wlog. then $xy = u$ which makes z become a unit.
ActiveChapter
nit pick, non-zero prime in an integral domain. and that makes y a unit, not z.
but y doesnt matter
yes
how many elements does $\mathbb{F_2}[X]/<X^2 + X + 1>$ have
i counted just four
1,0,x,x+1
F = F_2?
oop yes
yee then its 4
about $\mathbb{F}_2[X]/<X^2 + X + 1>$
ActiveChapter
i have to answer question about if its a integral domain and/or a field
i say that it is a domain but not a field
is it correct?
I just verify by the 4 elements that i computed before
not a field because X + 1 has no inverse
(also in general, finite integral domains are automatically fields)
oh
(also finite dimensional algebras over a field which are integral domains are also fields)
try proving these
:3
everytime you ask me something i'm reminded to check how long i need to wait for next ep of one piece >.<
oh the proof idea is very much the same.
in one case you use pigeon hole to say injective => surjective
in other you would use rank-nullity
this one is not different too
read the manga
just like mr det said
then you'll have to wait for both 
mr det 
im ofc joking im not that formal

hehe 
i have a question, you guys have only one name for absolute value in own native language?
it's weird, on my country the word for absolute value is the same for "module"
it just feels wrong for me after studying abstract algebra to name absolute value as "module"
two
what are they
in original?
wartość bezwzględna
and
moduł
that's for absolute value right?
yes
my head goes on a rollercoaster everytime i read module so it feels weird for me rn
i don't know if you all get me
i mean i start immediately remembering propeties of module
then i get confused
because it was actually talking about abs value
moduł means module, absolute value and result of taking something modulo n
there's no compelling semantics interpretation for me unfortunately
(though not sure who uses the last one)
how did he go from 2nd to 3rd line
that's just the definittion of tau i think
tau(l+i) = i for i = 1, ..., k
tau(i) = k + i for i = 1, ..., l
wow ur smart
at the cost of making that sgn (sigma * tau)
wait 1/sgn(t) = sgn(t)?

yea sgn takes values in +-1 lol
lol
so he multiplied both
sides
no
he multiplied by 1 sgn(t)*1/sgn(t)
then used multiplicative property right
yee

It's especially hard to follow when one cannot see what is being proved, or the assumptions it is being proved under.
mb
how did he get 3.7
i understand that if tao fixes the indices of g then u get the multiplication equality of tao
but then how does he just factor out these sgns
and also
if f is a ring morphism, then a=b ==> f(a)=f(b) right?....
f just being well defined implies this
because summations
yea but the summation is taken over tao
so he cant treat it like a constant?
or am i stupid or what
the summation is over pairs (sigma, tau)
now it doesnt' matter if you first some over tau for a fixed sigma, and then sum these over sigma
like finite sums commute right >.<
am i misunderstanding your question?
you apply sigma to that big summation
okay
by definition of the action, this is same as applying sigma to each summand
okay
so now
you have sigma(sum(...))
which means just sum(sigma the indices of whats being summed )
right?
yee
yea
oh i got it
he applied the phi insied the sum
then he just double summed them
wow S_k is finite
damn
k!
okay
hehe
ok so now
what's phi
yee so you wanna see what's sigma(tau(f)⊗g)
so they ask you to think of tau as a permutation in S_{k+l} which fixes k+1 and beyond
so thats sigma(tau(f⊗g))
because you don't touch inputs of g
okie so you swap the order of sum
for a fixed tau, sum over all sigma
as you vary sigma over all S_{k+l} then sigma*tau also varies over all of S_{k+l}
wait u can do that
you're summing exactly sgn(sigma*tau) sigma*tau
sum over x sum over y = sum over y sum over x
yea yea
yee it works uwu
just induct the hell out of it
no fubini tonelli fuckfest
lol
tonelli still nice tho
cause no hypothesis
just non-negative measurable
which are like all the functions

yea but u have to like calculate one of the integarsla and make sure one of them is atleast finite
thats fubini right? ( im new sowy )
oh it doesn't matter
for fubini you need to ensure convergence and finiteness and all that
but if you're integrating non-negative measurable functions then order doesn't matter at all
yeaa
if one side is infinite, then so would be the other
so anywayss
he is saying
lmao yea so he is saying
every tao has a unique like extension to S_k+l call it mu
to get that k!
and there are k! taos
yea
its the element
in S_k+l
that arises from tao times the rest of the l elements
is that right?
mu = sigma * tau
yea so sigma has to be in S_l rihgt?
where you pretend tau is in S_{k+l}
na
you're composing two perms
both are in S_{k+l}

and then what
oh is he just saying
composing two permutations is just one
in the same group
he calls this composite mu
and then says that for a fixed tau, this mu would vary over all perms
ok but why not (k+l)!
as sigma varies over all perms
because tau has to fix the last l things

yea k + {1, ..., l}

anyone know where i can find a list of groups that have an abelian normal subgroup? looking for as many examples as i can

all of them 
rusty on algebra (took first course 2 years ago) and now am in second course...
want to clarify this -- Factor (polynomial) in Q[x] --> factors will have only rational coefficients
particular example has a zero at 3 --> (x-3) * (quadratic) but quadratic has two complex roots, so that cannot be factored further in Q[x]?
errr a nontrivial one i mean
normality would be a prob
o
yee
the trivial group is abelian and characteristic, thus normal, ergo all groups contain a normal abelian subgroup Q.E.D.
wew being slow as usual 
oops reacted to wrong thing
what does characteristic mean
I still think it's all of them btw, take the centre
normal means phi(H) = H for phi any inner automorphism
any automorphism, not just inner
char means phi(H) = H for every automorphism
yurrrr
guess i havnt learned that terminology yet
it's usually not mentioned
i just had my first test, we covered groups up until lagrange theorem and cosets
but ye uh i think this is basically unreasonably big of a question
unless you mean examples
in which case like, just take any abelian group lol
any group with non-trivial centre will do
ooo
as I previously said
centre is normal yes yes
any non-perfect group
even stronger, it's characteristic 
yes by cauchys thm. 2 is prime, and divides all even numbers, so theres an elt of order 2 which in turn generates C2
yeah. worked extensively with abelian groups, dihedral-esque groups/semidirect products of abelian groups, and metabelian groups already, and i'm looking for more.
yeah
dang....

going to start by looking at groups with a nontrivial center
more what btw, lol
sounds scary
honestly, they're basically the dihedral group with like one or two slight changes lol
yea but imagine working with them >.<
dihedral are already too much for me 
i remember in our group theory course the prof asked us to write a presentation of S_n
and i was like why
more example of groups with a nontrivial abelian normal subgroup
semidihedral are fine, what's scary is an arbitrary extension by C_2
ok so we have non-trivial centre, uhhh
if a subgroup is the only subgroup of that isomorphism type it will be normal
do you remember what the presentation was?? i wouldnt rly have an idea of how to do this
hint: S_n is a (real) reflection group
like like c_k^k = 1 for cycles of length k?
maybe i dont understand the hint, but wouldnt this be useful for a representation not a presentation?
i figured he meant with like generators and relations
it's useful for both, real reflections groups are generated by elements of order 2
yea use a transposition (12) and the n-cycle (12....n)
show that you can get any (1k)
then show you can get any (ij)
then show you can get any perm
you can get the presentation from the coexter diagram
lmao my group theory isnt coxter diagram hardcore
not surprising, they're pretty niche
+1
thank you to everyone who helped! i have some things to look at now 🙂
what's a coexter/coxter/whatever diagram
does it have something to do with quiver theory
nope, although they are graphs
they're to do with reflection groups
what's that
they denote relations between the generating reflections basically
hence why you can recover a presentation for the group from them
you can actually think of them as linear transformations that fix a hyperplane
but that's far too geometric for my tastes 
that hyperplane is their axis of reflection?
the hyper plane is fixed, I don't know what an axis of reflection is
the normal vector to that hyperplane is mapped to it's negative
yes wait let me draw something
so the 3 hyper planes would be the xy-plane, yz-plane, and xz-plane
yeah a line is a "hyperplane" in 2D 
really I should say "space of codimension 1" instead of hyperplane but who cares
yes but that's what I mean with axis of reflection
in that case yes
it's more that you get a rep of a group via it being a reflection group
one min lemme get my book to make sure I get the definition right
a reflection "along" a vector $\alpha$ (here alpha would be the normal vector to the hyper plane) is a linear transformation of $\bR^n$ that maps a vector $\lambda$ to $\lambda - \frac{2\langle \lambda, \alpha \rangle}{\langle \alpha, \alpha \rangle}$
Wew Lads Tbh
which is like gramm-schmidt but twice if you know what that is
ah so like, we look at some vector space and then form a group by taking some reflections (linear transformations that fix a hyperplane)?
yes I know what it is
yes exactly
these vectors are called "roots" I won't get into (mainly because I don't fully know about it myself) but they are STUPIDLY important for rep theory of lie groups
what's the difference between a lie group and a lie algebra
is it just like
both are differentiable manifolds
but one's a group
well for one lie groups have inverses 
and the other one's an algebra?
inverses for what?
elements
wait with lie algebra
Are lie groups groups
do we mean
vector space with vector multiplication
so like
ring over a field?
(and some other condition of course)
yes but no
the multiplication isn't that nice, it doesn't even have to be associative
for example, R^3 with the cross product is a lie algebra
Just a bilinear map
wut
isn't bilinear
like
A x B -> C
not A x A -> A
yes
Could be any
major "lol" moment
that's what I meant with vector multiplication
Just linear in each argument
why make it complicated
yeah, fun exercise is to show the cross product(s) in R^3 satisfies these
an even more fun thing to do is to show the cross products in R^7 do 
I think only alternativity and the jacobi identity make a lie algebra different from a normal algebra
isn't cross product an inner product
it's an outer product iirc
the results of outer products are matrices though 
and those of inner products are scalars
well a cross product gives us a vector back so that throws a spanner in the inner product theory
such an awful operation
ah I forgot what cross product meant for a second lol
Are inner products the same as bilinear maps
an inner product is an example of a bilinear map yus
So no
inner products are symmetric alternating bilinear forms or whatever
But okay
not every bilinear map is an inner product
the cross product is definitely bilinear
^
R^3xR^3 -> R^3
but isn't a bilinear form
Don't think they're alternating, through they're positive definite
In the sense of like lol
Ok i was looking at different sources
Positive definite symmetric bilinear form
Ig the codomain can be whatever
yes that's what I was looking for
Just should be linear in each argument
Depends on book
Uhh
problem with bilinear maps is that (ax, ay) = a^2(x, y) which makes me angry... if only there was some way to fix this :trollshiro:
What's a concrete example of an infinite perfect field of char. p that is not algebraically closed (alg. closed fields are perfect)? I know that F_p(x) is imperfect, but I don't know any perfect examples. I was thinking maybe take an imperfect field K and adjoin all the p^k roots of all its elements, but idk if that's guaranteed perfect (i.e. L=L^p).
what about the colimit of F_{p^{2^n}}
this is not the alg closure because any element here will have degree of a power of 2
so in particular stuff like cbrt(some non-cube) won't be there
what i've done is basically adjoin square roots as much as possible until you can't do it anymore
Interesting
Is the colimit of fields always a field? I am not yet familiar enough with limits.
the important word is "filtered colimit"
but for now just think of it as a union
construct extentions of Fp by induction
and make sure that these are actual inclusions
F_p subset F_p^2 subset F_p^4 ...
and then actual union
from this it should be clear this is a field
uwu
does someone know how they prove that c(f_0g_0) = 1
if irreducible element divide c(fg) then why does showing that it divides c(f) or c(g) make c(f_0g_0) = 1
they'll do it in the next proposition or something
they reduced it to proving prod of primitive is primitive
ok
but i dont understand that last sentence
"that if an irreducible element of R divides c(fg) then it divides c(f) or c(g)"
how does that imply that c(f_0g_0) = 1
oh
it doesn't imply that
basically you might also have to keep track of powers
saying just for irreds not enough
like 12 = 2 * 3 * 2
every prime dividing 12 divides either 2 or 3
so the last 2 isn't forced to be 1
oh wait i see what they wanted to say
they want to show c(fg) = c(f)*c(g)
so it suffices to show c(f0g0) =1 right
do you agree with that?
yes
so we want to show that product of the primitive polynomials f0 and g0 is also primitive
that is we have reduced to the case where c(f0) = c(g0) = 1
and we want to show that c(f0g0) = 1
they rename these f and g
so now you have c(f) = c(g) = 1
that's why they start by taking a prime divisor of c(fg)
i dont understand
which part
if c(fg) was not a unit, then a prime would divide it
and tehy show this means at least one of c(f) or c(g) is also divisible by that prime
so you can't have c(f) = c(g) = 1
yes
but why does that show that c(f_0g_0) = 1 where f_0 and g_o are priminitve
this was the confusing part
i see
and in a UFD there is no distinction between irreducible and prime elements yeah?
non-zero prime and irred yea
understand
uwu 
@rustic crown but do not we also have to prove that it doesnt divide c(f_0g_0)
since a prime can divide c(f) or c(g) but still divide c(f_0g_0)
you wanna show c(f0) = c(g0) = 1 implies c(f0g0) = 1
you prove the contrapositive
c(f0g0) not unit should imply c(f0) or c(g0) not unit
oohhh
which is same as proving if c(f0g0) is divisible by some prime, then at least one of the other two are too
det will go
good night uwu

good night
something about this proof is just not registering for me
it looks like the inductive hypothesis p(r) is
$p(r):$ id $=\tau_1\tau_2,...,\tau_r \rightarrow$ $r$ is even
cryptic-spinach
but it sounds to me like we're just verifying that the inductive hypothesis holds for even number
just use the sign function lol
That's one way to prove sgn is well defined

det didn't sleep after all
but we're not necessarily disproving that id can't be written as a product of odd transpositions
.<
bad
yea det is bad 
uh oh idk what sgn is
if you write a permutation as a product of transpositions, then sgn is 1 if there are even number of them and -1 if there are odd number of them
ok just looked it up and its not so scary
you're proving that this function is well defined
at least one way to prove it is that
what
you need to prove r is even
by induction you get r-2 is even
you didn't know r was already even, so doesn't make sense to say that you're only verifying it for even r
for even r, there is nothing to verify
cause that's what you want to prove
if you assume r is even, then what will you do lol >.<
:p
btw that's not exactly the induction hypothesis, as not all cases reduce to a smaller p(r)
only the first case reduces to that
yeah I'm looking through the rest of the proof and I'm not sure they actually prove that r is even
btw just a question, what is your group here?
S_n
(want to know what you call it, is it n?)
I'm good with calling it S_n
okie
this is what we're actually proving.
if id = product of transpositions t1 * t2 ... tr and a is in {1, 2, ..., n} then you can write id = s1 * s2 * ... * sk such that parity of r and k are same but this time these s_i doesn't move a at all. and the stuff these s_i move are a subset of what t_i moved
writing it out makes it eww
but that's the idea
so if you keep doing this, after a while you can write id as a product of transpositions which doesn't move any element of {1, 2, ..., n}
that means you had no transpositions
so r and 0 have same parity
let me know if that makes sense
or else i'll try to phrase it a bit better
.<
once you understand the proof, writing it won't be a big deal
when you say s_i doesn't move a at all do you mean that a is not included in any of those transpositions
it's just tedious
yee, that's what i meant
(there are better to write proof out there, i can tell you one if you're interested)
yus please I more interested in understanding the result than understanding this particular proof 🙂
it's not a bad proof, like if you're stuck and scratch your head for an hour... more likely this would be the proof you end up coming up with
i like the other proof because it defines the sgn homomorphism directly
but then your work changes to proving that transposition have sgn -1
so you would still have to work a little
basically "conservation of work" 
try understanding this proof first maybe
i'll say the idea once more
if you write id as a product of r transpositions, then you can do one of two things... either write it as a product of r-2 transposition, or decrease the index where the letter "n" appears in the product
if the first thing happens then you're done
if the second thing happens, by induction you can assume that none of the transpositions had an "n" in them
so this is actually a permutation of S_{n-1}
and so r would be even, this time by induction on n
sort of like double induction
So I was toying with the $K[x]/(f)\otimes_K L\cong L[x]/(f)$ isomorphism and I was wondering whether it generalises. If $A,B$ are algebras (over a field or comm. ring) and $I\subset A$ is a 2-sided ideal, does $A/I\otimes B\cong (A\otimes B)/(I\otimes 1)$ hold, where $(I\otimes 1)$ is the ideal generated by $I\otimes1$ in $A\otimes B$?
Ocean Man
yep it holds
Exactly as stated?
wait lemme think again
i had commutative stuff in my head
basically this should reduce to "right exactness of tensor"
you have exact sequence
0 --> I --> A --> A/I --> 0 of k-modules
If it holds for comm. algebras, good enough.
then you tensor with B
to get
I ⊗_k B --> A ⊗_k B --> (A/I) ⊗_k B --> 0
the left most map may not be an inclusion though
you can't say much about the left most object in general
but you only care about it's image
which is the ideal generator by stuff like i⊗b
or simply i⊗1 (because you generate it as a A⊗_kB-module)
which is what you had written
only thing i would have to check in the non-commutative version is left-sided ideal vs two-sided ideal
That's much cleaner, thanks.
Well you want a 2-sided ideal so that A/I is an algebra, no?
all this works for modules, which is why i haven't thought about it much
so if I is an ideal in A
then the stuff generated by i⊗1 would also be an ideal in A⊗_k B right
Great, thanks.
the image would be linear combination of i⊗b
and this is an ideal
yea it works
k here is just a commutative ring, not necessarily a field
okie this was a bad thing to say, i didn't really say what i'm generating it as
as a 2-sided ideal, no?
yea but then that statement has no content in it
the ideal generated is an ideal
the actual thing is the left B-submodule generated by i⊗1 where B acts by multiplication on the second entry is actually a 2-sided ideal in A⊗_k B
but this has too many words
which is why i like this more
i need to show that image is an ideal, that's all.
after that check that this ideal is generated by those i⊗1
Sure, but if you tensor the inclusion I->A and identity B->B, don't you get as a result I⊗B in A⊗B?
i⊗b is sent to i⊗b
yea but the point is this
unless like k is a field, where it would be injective
lemme give an example maybe
0 --> 2Z --> Z --> Z/2Z --> 0
and B = Z/2Z
then (2Z)⊗Z/2Z --> Z⊗Z/2Z is the 0 map
but the left object is non-zero
(tensor is over Z)
I've seen such examples before, but I don't see why this doesn't hold, just unwinding definitions
the map is inclusion tensored with identity
yep
each elementary tensored is unchanged
well kind of
sure, the resulting sum of elementary tensors might be 0, but that's beside the point, no?
notice that teh tensor 2⊗1 is sent to 2⊗1
but on the right this 2 lives in Z
not in 2Z
so you can write it like 2*1
and (2*1)⊗1 = 1⊗2*1
I see, but that's still an afterthought, no?
but multiplication by 2 in Z/2Z gives 0
The image is still I⊗B
it's just it happens to be 0 inside A⊗B
does that not make sense?
By itself maybe, but inside A⊗B it might? IDK, maybe I've got it wrong, I'm kind of sleepy
image can't be both Z/2Z and 0 right
I mean if inside Z⊗Z/2Z you take the set 2Z⊗1, then the ideal generated by will be 0, right?
but you won't call it that set right
When I say "inside A⊗B", I mean the set of sums of elementary tensors with first coordinate in I
yea this is true
So the elements might have some relations between them by virtue of sitting inside A⊗B that they might not ahve otherwise
the confusion arises because there is a difference between writing A⊗B vs a⊗b
first refers to some module
second is an element
OK, let me restate what I meant: the image of the module I⊗B in A⊗B is the set I⊗B, i.e. the sums of elementary tensors i⊗b.
Is this correct now?
Sure, I understand. I just explained it poorly
Sure, it's different tensors
and the set I⊗B in A⊗B is 2-sided ideal that happens to coincide with the 2-sided ideal generated by the set I⊗1.
Correct?
yee
Nah I should've worded it better, you don't know what I might've meant.
and finally we get (A⊗B)/(I⊗1)\cong A/I⊗B as algebras
the projection map tensored with identity A⊗B-->A/I⊗B is easily seen to be multiplicative
oyasumi
why can't det sleep 
What's the identity element and inverse of nonzero complex numbers under multiplication?
1+i is the identity?
do you think it is?
what is the identity by definition?
det go to sleep
close discord and your eyes
i phrased this strangely. rather: "what is the definition of the identity?"
let us see.
z*x = z where x is identity
z * z^-1 = x
Remember that identities are unique as complex numbers - {0} are a group under multiplication. So find an identity, and that's the only one.
Well, I'm looking for a c+di such that when I multiply it by a+bi gives a+bi
Nope, 1+i wont work
you are correct
Oh 1+0i
yep
what about inverses? also, don't overthink this.
(really you could quickly get to knowing 1 is the identity by realizing the reals - {0} is a subgroup and therefore has the same identity)
I'm looking for c+di that gives 1+0i when multiplied by a+bi
Got it. Thank you everyone
is it true that if G is a finite cyclic group with n elements, then if a is a generator a^n = e?
I need help proving part c
One way
I’ve proved if gcd = 1 that it’s an isomorphism
But I need help proving if it’s an isomorphism that the gcd = 1
its like
suppose u have some equivalence y = x mod n
then umm
let p_i be the prime factors of n
then there is a solution in each mod inside the p_i
its basically something similar to what ua rgued
not only that but is x
lmao
its actually what ur trying to prove
but the algebraic version of it
ie Z/nZ is isomorpmihc to Z/n1Z x Z/n2Z.....
where each ni and nj are coprime to each other
If the gcd isn’t 1 try finding a non trivial element of the kernel
ahh thanks ill try that
for this problem that'd be circular
Yea ig
Reading Dummit and Foote as an accompaniment to my abstract algebra class (because the actual class textbook isn't vibing with me) and want to do some exercises but like...theres so many...
andy advice on picking what problems to do/which are important?
Then it fits since Z/nZ is on the circle 
go through each one and flip a coin
lol
that would probably still leave me with too many lmao
There are 36 exercises for section 1.1
i usually just pick the ones that look interesting
alright fair
36 for like a whole chapter is fair
I think around 50 is good for an entire chapter
but for like the 1st section of a chapter with 6 sections, 36 is a lot lol
Try to avoid computational ones and pick anything that looks interesting or you don't know how to solve
alright
Typo
ive spent the last 14 hours doing 4 problems so honestly 36 problems sounds really bad
Two problems don't have to be equal in difficulty
Since it's the very first section 36 exercises doesn't sound that bad
Sure you might have problems if they constantly throw 30 exercises at you
Everytime I self study something it goes well until I reach the exercises and think "now what"
Most of them are proofs
I think most books should have a "recommended exercises" list
or at least star by importance
say you have some product of cyclic groups $G=C_{n_1}\times\ldots\times C_{n_t}$. does there always exist a positive integer $m$ such that $G$ is isomorphic to $(\bZ/m\bZ)^\times$?
nilpotent nix
chinese remainder thm?
hmmm. what if the n's aren't coprime?
at least i think that's what you need to use the CRT
was messing around with Z/7Z^x and Z/9Z^x and how it seems they're both isomorphic to C6. but i was wondering if there was some m where the product group is isomorphic to C2xC3, and if there's a way to find it in general (if it does indeed exist). obviously, phi(m) would have to be equal to n1*...*nt. but i was hoping there was a better way than just testing every integer that has phi(m)=6.
sorry this was just me guessing
i cant remember the statement, but looked v similar
hm yh it needs pairwise coprime
So whats got C2 x C2 structure? 6?
Oh wait
maybe it is sometimes impossible. i saw that U(p1^k1...pt^kt) (my professors notation) is isomorphic to U(p1^k1)x...xU(pt^kt), and since all of them have order (Euler phi function image) which is even (or 1), then only products of even integers can possibly work.
yeah

