#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 47 of 1
(a)+(b) = (gcd(a,b)), (a)(b) = (lcm(a,b))
Ok now my mind is thinking categorically these look like products and coproducts but w/e
they are coproducts and products 👀
(4)(2)=(8) no?
the lcm is the intersection, not product
have an arrow x -> y iff x | y
Yeah I was just looking for extra questions
Makes sense I didn’t read that many questions
Actually yeah the way to go is probably categorically but that’s way too much thinking
Train internet being slow 
Yeah whoopsie
(a)(b) = (ab) which is way nicer tbh
I found this http://www.quasigroups.eu/contents/download/2018/26_29.pdf which looks at the ideal semi ring of a semi ring @rotund aurora
probably
finish every serge lang exercise and you'll be ready

I'm scared about the ring and module part
groups and galois is ok
also construction using ruler and circle (or compass idk what it's called)
good luck on your exams
Straightedge is compass
That one is easy
If number is constructible it's contained ina degree 2^n extension
If the extension is galois the converse is true
And you use the contrapositive to show some numbers are not constructible

Question 1: Construct the 65537-gon
I mean I guess straigthedge and compass is simpler since they are towers of quadratic extensions, but not necessarily easier
is there an elegant way to prove that every element in the dihedral group of order 2n is of the form r^m, sr^m?
I think that can be proved from the generator relations?
Dihedral group is generated by two elements r and s which are Permutations, with r being an n-cycle (1 2 ... n) and s being product of flip transpositions except the vertex on the flip axis
Now however way you combine these two, elements will always be of the form r^m or sr^m
I mean I think the main point here is proving Dn is really generated by these 2 elements
If you define it as the group of isonetries of an n gon
That gives us two relations I think
r^n = e = s^2, rs = sr^-1
And uh
Was there anything more?
these completelly specify the group
my course has yet to do it
we have 2 lectures left
I don't understand this part of the argument
Well it ain’t gonna be C_49 or C_7^2
wdym
Wdym wdym
Yus
That part doesn’t deal with that
The next line does
If it was n = 8 the entire group would have to be C_7^8 (order argument) thus abelian thus trivially solvable
7^8 > 56
And (C_7)^8 is what I just wrote
Yus
Because it’s a group of order 56 that contains 7 distinct groups of order 8, right?
Fuck
8 distinct groups of order 7
That’s the ticket
If there’s some semi-direct memes going on then I might cry
yes
Prove it
No
I don't get it
why are 56 - (8 * 6) = 8 elements left
like why are all of the sylow 7-subgroups trivially disjoint
If they weren’t their intersection would be a subgroup of both - which is impossible, C_7 has no subgroups other than the trivial
Sorry I thought that was clear
intersection of groups is a group?
ah I see
proof: trivial.
what if their intersection is C_7
ah wait
lol that was a stupid question
then they would be equal and no longer distinct
we have 8 distinct subgroups
right
Yus
When does a irreducible iff (a) maximal hold for rings?
in pids because irreducible is equivalent to being prime there
yeah right, a irreducible implies (a) is maximal among principal ideals
non-zero prime 
but that's it, correct? In general, the implication a irreducible implies (a) maximal fails, even for, say, Dedekind domains
?
UFDs even
☝️ 
how can -8x^3 + 9x^2 + 3 in Q[x] irreducible by eisenstein with p = 3
if we look at it with gauß we have it in Z[x]
ah wait nvm
lol
I thought gcd(8, 3) = 3

You want irreducible => prime and your ring to be dimension one
I want to write ${\langle; x,y,z,t ;\vert; xy=yx,x^6=z^3,x^4=t^5 ;\rangle}$ as an amalgamated free product. Can I just separate ${\langle; x,y ;\vert; xy = yx ;\rangle, \langle z\rangle, \langle t\rangle}$, give the isomorphisms ${x^6 \mapsto z^3}, {x^4 \mapsto t^5}$ and call it a day?
Gev
Is this presentation really enough to determine the entire group
I mean any presentation determines the group
why isn't it true in ufds
this should most likely turn out to be an amalgamated free product but I don't see how
feels like we have different amalgamations between pairs of groups
z^6 = t^15
WAIT
what you said is true for UFDs but we also need non zero prime ideals to be maximal
and every UFD where that holds is a PID already
what does that mean
what
$\langle x,y,z,t \vert xy=yx,x^6=z^3,x^4=t^5 \rangle \= (\langle x,y \vert xy = yx \rangle \ast_{\varphi} \langle z\rangle) \ast_{\psi} \langle t\rangle, \ \phi: x^6 \mapsto z^3, \psi: x^4 \mapsto t^5$
Gev
every field homomorphism is injective because the kernel is an ideal
and fields only have two ideals
it can't be the field itself because then it would send 1 to 0 which would contradict it being a homomorphism
fields only have two fields

yes
ok nice
minor spelling mistake 
is every matrix being uniquely decomposable as the sum of a symmetric and an antisymmetric matrix (when char F ≠ 2) analogous to the tensor product being decomposable as the sum of a symmetric product and an exterior product?
Okay short answer yes, but here is a more like general ting relating to rep theory, idk how much you know lol
More generally, if you have a G-representation V (a vector space with a linear group action basically) then you're often interested in subrepresentations (i.e. bits on which G acts more easily) and in particular direct sum decompositions
In the special case of G = Z/2 with generator g, say, the point is that we can (given assumption on char not 2) decompose it into bits where g acts as multiplication by 1 or -1, e.g. since g^2 = 1 and is thus diagonalisable for field not char 2
In fact you can get a p explicit formula for V^G (i.e. elements v of V with g.v = v for all g in G) and in the special cases you gave it spits out what you expect
[I should say of course that here the group actions are given by either g.A = A^T or g.(v \tensor w) = w \tensor v]
Oh, and just to throw a third example into the mix: decomposition of functions F -> F into sums of even/odd maps (which again has the char not 2 hypothesis ofc)
:)
@long nebula
oooh interesting
yea I was thinking about this haha
that is cool
I just told my friend about decomposition into even/odd functions, so I will also tell him that the other things are actually the same thing too
Yeahh
gotta love mathcord for giving me things to blow my friends away with
In fact there's also more generally a fact that like
oh and this is also like every harmonic function being able to be written as a sum of a holomorphic function and an anti-holomorphic function :o
well basically usually your conditions on the characteristic of the field correspond to primes dividing the order of the group
(just looked it up)
Yeah nice
that makes sense
I'm trying to think of a simple analogous thing for a number higher than 2 lol
Oh well in a sense this is related to like
quadratic formula only really working in characteristic not 2
and cubic in char not 3 and stuff
hmm that makes sense
cause the proofs of solvability I know basically use representations lol
gotta learn me some rep theory then
Well
Basically this is within Galois theory
But the proofs can be phrased/motivated representation-theoretically lol
It's fun :)
ty spud!!
np owo
is there a quick way to check if R_{\Gamma}^4 \subset (\rho) when R_{\Gamma} is the two-sided ideal containing all non-trivial arrows in the quiver
💀
idk anything quicker than just computing it lol
and that's not so bad
R_{Gamma}^4 is generated by paths of length 4 right. notice that in the quotient by (rho), there are no non-trivial paths of length 3 starting at the vertex 1, you can't do alpha twice and can't do beta before gamma. if you start at vertex 2, there is no choice but to take the first step using gamma, but then taking 3 more steps will definitely kill it as now you're on vertex 1.
ok fair
If C is algebraically closed and i^2=-1 with i\notin F, is it automatically clear that \sqrt{-a}/\sqrt{a} belongs to F?
I had to think about this for a minute, came up with the following:
If x,y are the square roots of a and -a respectively and g is the nontrivial element of Gal(C/F), then g(x)=-x and g(y)=-y, since x and y both generate C/F and g\neq 1 (so g has to move both), so g(x/y)=x/y, so x/y\in F and -1=(x/y)^2.
Because I had to pause and think about this and it wasn't in the text (which is usually very thorough), I just wanted to check whether there wasn't an obvious explanation I might've missed.
That’s right. In general, for any field K, if K(sqrt(a)) = K(sqrt(b)), then a/b is a square in K and your argument works just fine
You can also do it directly without galois theory. If sqrt(b) is in K(sqrt(a)) then write sqrt(b) = x + ysqrt(a), for x, y in K. Square both sides: b = (x^2 + ay^2) + 2xysqrt(a).
Since sqrt(a) not in K, we have 2xy = 0, so either x = 0 or y = 0. In the latter case we conclude sqrt(b) in K, contradiction. So we come to b/a = y^2
Hmm i guess tbis doesnt work in characteristic 2 haha
everything's a square in char 2
What does he mean by "if there is 2-torsion, then the field has characteristic 0" (C again alg. closed)? I can see "if there is only 2-torsion, then characteristic 0 or 2", since char p & alg. closed => p-torsion.
x not a square in F_2(x)
oh lol my blunder
But there are infinite fields in characteristic 2 which arent perfect
Oh wait, nvm, for some reason I thought the Frobenius endomorphism is torsion.
So what does he mean by this?
Idk if im familir with this kind of fact :O
Damn, what now
I'll repost this in ANT, maybe someone will know it
Can you post more context? Is this supposed to be a statement avout a general algebraically closed field? Or is this like, a conclusion of some sort
The context was Artin-Schreier theorem
Ah, I think it's this: proof of AS shows that |C:K|<\infty implies |C:K|=2 and char C=0 (I forgot about this last bit for a minute), so an alg. closed field of positive char. can't have finite degree subfields and hence torsion elements.
Ok cool yes i recognized the artin-schreier context but i thought tbis was maybe a step in the proof as opposed to a conclusion
What chapters are relevant for commutative ring theory in Lang?
So there's one chapter on noetherian rings
and you have basic rings and modules in the first part
is there anything else I should be aware of?
DF seems to contain more on these, idk if I'm crazy
One chapter for lang is a lot of content
It goes quick
You can just flip through and see
det

🤦♂️
Why
ig they want you to think of A > P as there is an element in A which is not in P
but meh
.<
Does (i) iff (ii) require commutativity?
(i) implies (ii) holds without commutativity, but I think the problem of the direction (ii) to (i) is that (ab) need not be the same as (a)(b), as ideals
?
Isn’t ii) usually the definition for prime ideals in a non commutative ring
yeah but take (i) to mean ab in P implies a in P or b in P
whta if you consider R = M(2, k),
a = [1 0] b = [0 0]
[0 0] [0 1]
R is a simple ring, so only two sided ideals are 0 and all of R. take P to be the zero ideal. a and b are not in P but their product is.
and it's easy to see it satisfies (iii)/(ii)
cause very few ideals
What does it mean to say multiplying complex numbers and adding angles mod 2pi gives the same algebra?
what?
if you go around 2pi on a circle you get to the same number again
because 2pi = 360°
which is just one full rotation
do you know the polar form
So 2pi is like the identity element? Cause if you add 2pi it doesnt actually change the angle
Lol Im sorry I have no theta on my phone keyboard
then write out theta
2pi = 0 in a way, yes
360° = 0°
Okay, so 2pi in this case is in some sense equal to 1 when multiplying complex numbers
the isomorphism is then given by theta -> e^(i theta)
So, let me see if I understand the essence of Abstract Algebra.
Multiplying complex numbers might be hard. But if you realize that's the same thing as adding angles, it might make the calculations easier?
no lol
the essence of abstract algebra? 😵💫
Well, why care about Abstract Algebra? Why care about isomorphisms?
It must be a nice thing but I'm not sure exactly how because they give totally different answers
do you know what abstract algebra is
u have barely touched on it
I mean, I passed Abstract Algebra in school. I could do the problems without thinking too hard about what exactly I'm doing. That's the enlightenment I'm asking for. What really is the significance
high school generally does not offer such a thing
even if it does its usually some elementary group theory
This is almost like asking "why care about mathematics?"
I mean, i^4 = 1 which is in some sense the same as pi/2 + pi/2 + pi/2 + pi/2 = 2pi , 1 = 2pi they're both identity elements
So I see there's some similar structure
In algebra an isomorphism is analogous to an if and only if. A statement holds in an object iff the statement obtained by replacing the terms by their images along an isomorphism holds in the codomain of that isomorphism
AA is the study of algebraic structures.
Impose a set of properties to define the structure and deduce more properties they must satisfy.
You havent seen the beginning of AA if you havent done the isomorphism theorems
The 1st iso thm especially, is the first 'big' result you will see
I have seen it before, thanks
Youre still talking very concretely here
It doesnt give me confidence you have done much AA
Well you might have done a lot of AA but you can't exaplain simply what an isomorphism is I doubt how much you actually understand
Your intuition is more or less right. What you are saying is that the additive group R/(2pi) is isomorphic to the complex unit circle under multiplication
Discussing the implications of this would be enlightening if youre looking for the 'essence' imo
So intuitively an isomorphism is basically a translator
But like, why is it useful to have an isomorphism if not to write something complicated as something easier?
and you can replace "unit cirlce" by any circle centered around the origin, of course. But the point with complex numbers is that you can write every complex number in polar form, so it is more interesting to look at the unit circle ofc
An isomorphism in AA is analogous to equality in other areas
Lol
Instead of proving the same result for every isomorphic structure, you can prove it for only 1 of them and then use isomorphisms to automatically prove a related one in any other isomorphic structure
By defining it we can start talking about which structures are the same
I mean, what I said doesn't provide anything new. It's just saying what you said but with more precise language
then what is equality equivalent to 🤓
Ahhh, that makes sense
For example, suppose you have two polynomials f,g and want to prove that af+bg=0 only if a=b=0. You can treat the space of polynomials as a vector space and use that isomorphism to prove this
Another major result is cayleys theorem. All groups are (isomorphic to) permutation groups.
yoneda moment
Oh damn! Thanks for the example. That does sound really powerful
So now, we can consider studying only permutation groups to obtain general results on groups
if im not mistaken rep theory exists because of this basically
How is that related to representation theory, isn't representation theory just looking at groups as "subgroups" of general linear groups of some vector space (usually over C I guess) ?
i havent taken rep theory so 
mmh I have read like the very basics once, but haven't gotten into it
Is a Rubick’s Cube isomorphic to any groups?
youre looking at actions on vec spaces right?
so like permutations?
thats why i thought of that
But I mean, Cayley's theorem is nearly trivial, and the symmetric groups are absolute monsters (in the sense that they are so rich)
I think the point of rep theory is that linear algebra is "easy"
The puzzle is related to a group structure, u can check on wiki what it is
its not trivial
semi direct product involved
iirc it can be split into some kind of product of 4 structures
orientation/permutation of edges/corners
Honestly I just asked these questions to wonder how would I explain the importance, beauty and significance of Abstract Algebra to someone with no Math knowledge like my mom. So I’m sorry if my questions are not clear
so interestingly you can decouple this in the group structure like how we would decouple it when thinking about the puzzle
I think u might have to stick to analogies
I cant even explain the significance of math as a whole to my parents rlly
They are aware its 'important', but why, no clue
I don't think you can explain it tbh
That makes sense though. If you wanna prove some algebraic property of a complicated set, you can prove it for an easier set if theyre isomorphic
another fun isomorphism is SO(3) = RP^3
There is a group consisting of the all possible movements of a rubik's cube up to equivalence. As in, two moves are considered "equal" if they always have the same effect on the cube. This can be seen as another instance of isomorphism: moves that have always same effect on the cube are isomorphic. We just end up treating them as equal tho.
For example rotating a cube 4 times in same direction is "equal" or "isomorphic" to doing nothing
Ah so twisting a face all the way round is the same as not twisting at all. Hahah. Okay
When things are isomorphic i d say none is easier than the other. There is however a generalization of isomorphism called homomorphism, that does not preserve all the structure only some of it. By preserving less structure you might be able to reduce a question about a complicated structure to one about a simpler one
for example if you wanna rotate R^3 around some vector by an angle, this isomorphism helps you write down what it does it each point 
you think of S^3 --> H as unit quaternions and R^3 --> H as the span of {i, j, k}. Then given a unit vector u and an angle q, define the unit quaternion Q = cos(q/2) + u * sin(q/2).
then the rotation around u with an angle q is given by conjugation v --> QvQ^-1
Ohh. But it can make things easier to prove, like your example about af + bg = 0 => a = b = 0. Equally complicated structure though
well its easier to prove if you already know the answer in the isomorphic object
but you could prove the same answer the same way in the other object, so in that sense its the same difficulty
Hmm. Okay, it seems my feeling about Abstract Algebra making complicated things simpler is not quite correct
Unless you're talking about homeomorphisms
it is in a way. You ignore all the 'noise' and look at only specific aspects of structure
R is a field, but here we dont care about it being complete
or stuff like that idk
We don't really care if every Cauchy sequence converges
completeness for ordered fields is stronger than Cauchy sequences converging actually
there are non (dedekind)-complete ordered fields where every cauchy sequence converge
the confusion is that the word complete has different meaning for ordered fields and for metric spaces
Ordered fields just means there's some notion of an element being greater than/less than another element?
With all the usual field properties
yes + some properties about that order and relating it to the field operations
Also, one example that you might have seen without realizing: to prove the sum of 2 odd numbers is even, you can consider the non-zero homomorphism from the integers to {0,1} with the operation 0+0=0, 1+0=0+1=1 and 1+1=0. It can be proven that any odd number gets mapped to 1 and even to 0. Therefore if a,b are odd then phi(a+b)=phi(a)+phi(b) = 1+1 = 0 so a+b is even, where phi is the homomorphism
1+1=1
what just happened .-.
sorry i meant 1+1=0
Ohhh
So odd numbers are 1, even numbers are 0. Then an even plus an even is, well, 0+0=0. I see
yeah this is an example of a quotient
Why can he conclude that? I don't get it. Also > is \not\subseteq
also this is very unclear, because I think he means an ideal maximal with respect to the property A cap M = empty
so like you Zorn up the set {A an ideal : A cap M = empty }
This is the discussion between the statement of the lemma and the proof
That's the worst notation ever
imagine using > for non-transitive stuff >.<
yea, have to do that
i have a feeling now that the person means $\supsetneq$
det
nu
he wants to prove P divides A or P divides B
ie, A subseteq P or B subseteq P, so he assumes these don't hold and tries to derive a contradiction
unless I'm wrong
if these don't hold and AB is contained in P
then consider (P+A) and (P+B)
these are strictly bigger ideals than P and you have
(P+A)(P+B) is contained in P
(so this proves (iii) => (ii))
det
uhh ok that step was contained in the other proof lol (I didnt read the proof of the other lemma because notation annoying + very intuitive)
But still, this is not correct, because you cannot conclude A cap M!= empty simply because P is maximal
no
but this proof is different than the one I posted before, its for this lemma ^
You can right? P is maximal which doesn't intersect M. So any strictly bigger ideal has to intersect with M
But you dont know if A is strictly bigger
that why i thought A > P means that
quick question
i said the only binary operation that would make this a group is the one where x * y = e, i.e. y is the inverse of x
So if that wasn't the case, then x * y not in G, so (G, *) not a group
is that enough to conclude that there's exactly one
this is equivalent to saying that there is only one group with 3 elements
have you had lagrange's theorem yet
I've had 2 lectures so far lol
I think you should describe why you can't have x * y = x or x * y = y
and its an introductory course, the last thing we'll do is Homomorphisms
so no isomorphism
oh
what kind of course does that
yeah then what you're attempting is fine
I prefer that then having to wait until second year to see groups
(fwiw every group with prime number size has only "one possible operation")
I see.
Im also first year and its annoying as fuck, because they didn't let me take groups
but anyway, most of the stuff I learn is not following classes
what on earth
sean
show that (25)(34) = (12345)^n(125)^m for some m,n integers
well they don't even commute so that won't be the general form of an element in the subgroup generated by them (i'm also not really sure how that'd be helpful anyway lol)
Well, there is only one 60 element subgroup and you should know it contains (25)(34)
Indeed
So now perhaps one thing to try is to show that this actually is A5
though there may be easier ways than that lol
sean
An is generated by the 3-cycles of Sn
So if a subgroup of Sn contains all 3-cycles, it contains An
Is there a "simple" example of a field F and an infinite dimensional F-algebra which has finite length as a module over itself?
so you want an field extension E/F that is infinite dimensional and E is finite length module over E itself?
try C/Q
how would the filtration be
C/C has dim 1
So he is saying that $A\not\subset U$ with $U$ maximal in $\mathcal X$ implies that $A$ only has finitely many isolated primes. This does not follow alone from maximality of $U$
Croqueta
Isolated primes of A are primes lying above A minimal with respect to the property of containing A
you only know that A+U has finitely many isolated primes, since U subset A+U
Isaacs
based
I cannot decipher that shit tho
I'm missing something big
because he is using the same reasoning all the time
but its flawed, it requires ring theory
and I dont see the ring theory anywhere
I mean, this kind of conclusions do not follow from maximality alone
maybe Im being dumb
okay the author is definitely using > to denote this notation
so annoying
at least that is transitive
I'll be honest, when you wrote that, I read too quickly, and I read it as $\not\supseteq$, because of the crossed equality lmao, thats why I debated it. Should of listened 🤦♂️
Croqueta
He does it again here
It must be that, otherwise its absolute crankery
but wtf is this notation
How to check whether these groups are isomorphic?
$\langle a,b,c,d \vert a^4=c^4=b^2=d^2=1,ab=ba^{-1},cd = dc^{-1}, a^2=c^2, b=d, a^2b=c^2d \rangle \
\langle a,b,c,d \vert a^4=c^4=b^2=d^2=1,ab=ba^{-1},cd = dc^{-1}, a^2=d, b=c^2, a^2b=c^2d \rangle$
Gev
I'm given two dihedral groups of order 8, and I need to find two generalized free products of them with K_4 amalgamated that are not isomorphic
I see 18 different ways of forming these products but I'm not sure if I can check the isomorphisms between any


So over the holidays my mind has been tourmented with trying to prove that the inner product space of trig functions span L^2(R) and now I don't even know if that is a sensible question to ask since trig functions arent even in L^2(R) but I wanna prove the fourier transform works for all functions in L^2(R). So I find the inner product space way of looking at Fourier series is quite elegant but I have no idea how to prove the trig functions of discrete frequencies span L^2[-pi,pi] and furthermore it occured to me that although in L^2[-pi,pi] the inner products of the sines and cosines of discrete frequency is normalisable, in L^2(R) when you inner product the same trig function you get something unnormalisable so trig functions arent even in L^2(R) so that makes it questionable whether you can apply linear algebra to it at all. I inquired about this in a physics discord and was told that trig functions indeed do not form a basis for L^2(R) since it is not in L^2(R) but there do exist other sets of countably infinite basis vectors that span L^2(R) so it still counts as a hilbert space. I've also been told that the trig functions do form something called a "continuous basis" for L^2(R) and it has something to do with what is called a "rigged hilbert space" and the person didn't elaborate because he wasn't familiar with it himself. Is it even sensible to ask how do you prove trig functions span L^2(R) if the trig functions arent even in L^2(R)? If it is a sensible question, how do you answer it? In any case how do you prove the fourier transform can decompose all functions in L^2(R) into a sum of sines and cosines.
This is not an appropriate question for this channel, try #advanced-analysis
but cant the fourier coefficients be thought of as inner products? Thinking of fourier series in terms of an inner product space feels most natural to me.
This is not an abstract algebra question
i wouldve thought it was an abstract algrbra question because at least for fourier series you can think of periodic functions as abstract vectors whose basis are sine and cosine functions of discrete frequency under an inner product that is the definite integral of the product of two functions
The content of what you're asking about is more the analysis behind it. Trig functions being in L^2 is a matter of convergence of integrals, for instance
I see, thanks!
You're not doing much with the algebra of inner products, and tbh in this setting there isn't much to do
Just because you first learned about vector spaces in an algebra class doesnt make all questions which involve vector spaces algebra
(Also for when you reask your question in analysis I'd recommend working on the readability)
when it says something like "the group of automorphisms of L that fix K." what does fix K mean?
it's invariant under K
Just a sanity check: Let $n=p_1^{v_1}\cdots p_k^{v_k}$, where the $p_i$ are distinct primes. Then $\sqrt{(n)}=(p_1\cdots p_k)$, correct?
Croqueta
also, technichally this question is nonsensical, because we are not provided a ring, but it is understood that the context is Z
so its an invariant subgroup?
no
invariant like in linear algebra
just what croqueta said
ohhh, wait i think i sort of understand
the reason we want it to be invariant under the base field is because then it fixes the coefficients of any polynomial over the base field
which then means that it basically permutates the roots that don't lie in the base field of the polynomials
(tl;dr roots get send to roots)
👆
it permutates them?
yes
that's why the galois group of a polynomial of degree n embeds into S_n
because the polynomial has n roots and so the galois group permutates those n roots
oh wait i was thinking about it backwards, in regards to the base field
yeah that would make sense
in that context though not sure why the base field is needed
where does the polynomial live in
oh, nice
if it lives in the polynomial ring over the extension field then well every root is in the field already
so its just making life easier
Yeah
why do we need to specify T_x and T_y separately?
like wouldn't it suffice to just say Tx = 1 for all x
before that it talked about reps of S3 by looking at its generator <x, y, x^3, y^2, xyxy> and finding matrices R_x R_y such that R_x^3 = I blabla
but here it says "every group" so idk if they're still referring to that x,y from before
in the group
a rep is a homomorphism G -> GL_n(C)
hmm
wait
in the next sentence it says
"we will see that every rep of S3 can be built from A, Sigma, and T"
A and Sigma were previously defined reps
so maybe they defined T like that for this?

My guess is that they are talking about reps of a specific group, like S_3, with generators x and y. For any group, to specify a representstion it suffices to specify what happens with the generators
yeah
So, to specify the trivial rep, i will specift ehat it does to the generators: it sends them both to 1.
yeah
yeah
Factor it
Galois theory over finite fields is “easy”. An irreducible polynomial of degree n has galois group Z/nZ, and for products of irreducible polys it’s cyclic of order lcm of degree of factors
Its cyclic permutations
The galois group is generated by frobenius
The subgroup is generated by an n-cycle
Oh yeah hahaha
Thats what makes finite fields “easy”
(does this hold even when n isn't prime?)
Yes, it does
Yes, thats the point
All galois groups of finite fields are cyclic
Because your poly could be thought of over F_2 itself — it has no roots in F_2 so it is either irreducible or factors into two quadratics over F_2.
The only irreducible quadratic over F_2 is x^2 + x + 1, so if it factors over F_2 it would have to be (x^2 + x + 1)^2
Which it’s not. So the galois group over F_2 is Z/4
And the splitting field is F_(16)
Which is a degree 2 extension of F_4
Hence it must factor into quadratics over F_4
how do we show this?
By hand. The only finite fields are F_(p^n).
Prove that the galois group over F_p is generated by frobenius
I don't see how this would show the original statement
Which part?
An irreducible polynomial of degree n has galois group Z/nZ
Take an irreducible poly of degree n
Adjoin one root, that gives a degree n extension
By this, that extension is galois and thus contains all the roots of f
And the galois group of F_(p^n)/F_p
Is cyclic of order n
Finite fields are perfect so all extrnsions are separable
Or just use the other definition, that the size of the automorphism group is equal to the defree of the extension
The order of frobenius is easy to calculate
how?
There’s lots of ways
But it follows from:
Classification of finite fields if you know it
Using the fact that there’s at most d d-th roots of unity
What is the minumum d such that x^(p^d) = x for all x in F_(p^n)
If d is smaller than n, then you have p^n elements of a field which satisfy a polynomial of degree less than p^n
Which is bad news bears
ah so d must be n by euler
Therefore frob has order n in the galois group of F_(p^n) / F_p
And since that galois group has size n
No, you cant even talk about p not being prime here
Or else F_p wont be a field
Oh i see
Usually people use q if you want to include prime power I think
I also was confused haha
Buncho what’s a source to learn about adeles
Cuz my class just blitzed through their definition
And it confusing
I learned about adeles/ideles on the streets
Which is to say i just picked them up after sufficiently many random encounters haha
All i hear on the streets is “hiv/aids doesn’t exist” 
I think most class field theory books should have a good section on them
Lol uhhhhhhhh
You must live in adelaide
Ha
http://www.math.columbia.edu/~harris/website/courses1/mathematics-gr6657-spring-2023
Here’s my course syllabus. I’ve been told it’s “fast”
Professor of Mathematics
please laugh
That is what generates the galois group
Yee
You can see that like, once you know it for Gal over F_p
Using some Galois theory theorem yeah?
Yeah
Yeah yeah
maybe the answer is disappointing, but I think you just list all irreducible polynomials of degree 2 and check divisibility
First you check if it has roots, if it has none, then the only possibility is that it has quadratic factors
maybe I'm saying complete bullshit and there's a smart way
uh btw I thought you were asking how to factorise it over F4
ah ok
yeah ok my bad, didn't read carefully
For the first bit, just look at the explicit formula for the map Gal(K/Q) -> (Z/nZ)*
Indeed
For the second part like think of another way of writing K cap R
Which relates to the previous bit
Yes
The index of K cap R in K is hence given by what
Ye
Np enjoy your walk, can I join
Calm
Am i on the right track with these? for Lemma 1, i think i needed to assume that the subgroup is nontrivial as well, but the Lemma wasnt written that way so maybe not. For Lemma 3, im not sure what is special or even how to show that the intersection is contained in H, i feel like it would also be contained in K too, which would be pretty easy to prove.
why is <a> = {a, e}? what if a has order 3?
then wouldnt it be <a> = {a, a^2 , e}
so it needs to be up to n-1 where n is the order of G?
no
just say that <a> cannot be {e} and therefore has to be G
as <a> is a subgroup of G
it's what you were probably thinking when you wrote that
so we do need the nontrivial assumption then
yes
Have to note that the order of <a> divides order of G
?
Did i say something wrong?
no, what you said is factually correct, but it doesn't make sense in the context
yooo thats sick
He said order has to be up to n-1 and im just saying that the order of <a> divides G generally, sorry if its unrelated
this is just lagranges theorem
Yes
they said that it should be { e, a, a^2, ..., a^(n - 1) }
not group order n - 1
yeah I can see where the confusion comes from lol
and this only works because we know every group has a cyclic subgroup right
okay yeah
Consider Z and localize at all the primes except 2. The ring thus obtained is essentially Q except that 2 is not invertible. (2) is still prime and is in fact the only prime and this is still a PID. In particular, there are just finitely many minimal primes.
Why is this not a counter example?
ñ
I don't see the issue
Well okay so maybe the thing is
(0) is the unique minimal prime in the ring you gave
Not (2)
So indeed the union of minimal primes is just (0), coinciding with what the question says
how do i prove that the set A = {n² | n ∈ ℤ+} is closed under addition/multiplication?
It isn’t?
oh ok?
I mean you can show it’s closed under multiplication super easily but it isn’t closed under addition
for multiplication, do i let a, b ∈ A, then define a = (k)² and b = (j)² for some k, j ∈ ℤ?
i think i got it now
thanks
suppose i try to show that <nZ, +> is isomorphic to <Z, +>. I construct the following function f: <Z, +> --> <nZ, +>; for m, n in Z, f(m) = mn. is it possible to show that this function is injective? for assume that f(a) = f(b), so an = bn. The obvious way would be to divide both sides by n, but we are under no assumption that n is nonzero. is my function wrong therefore? or was there a mistake in the problem
Well if n is 0 then the original thing doesn't hold
Since nZ is just the set {0} which ain't iso to Z
so we just say that is nonzero?
that makes sense
but it's a bit annoying that they didn't include that in the problem
my professor said that metabelian groups are similar to semidirect products in a way (certain kinds, at least), but i didn't really understand what he meant. would anyone here be willing to explain (if they know)?
semidirect p[roducts of abelian groups are metabelian
let G be a group, and let <a> & <b> be two cyclic subgroups generated by element a & b, such that there is no element c∈G that can generate <a> or <b>. Question: can <a> & <b> have a non-trivial intersection.
my intuition is no, you can’t. So I try to prove by contradiction: assuming there is some intersection, and say a^m=b^n. assuming m and n are coprime, if not, we can always just find one that generate a^m and b^n so their exponent are coprime and prove that there is some combination of a & b that can generate <a> and <b> but i am not very familiar and good with number theory so i am stuck in the end.
hold on
if no c in G exists that generate <a> and <b> then how are <a> and <b> subgroups of G
well i mean no c that is not a or b
obviously a generates <a> and b generate <b>
but no c like c^n=a or b
I'm assuming G is finite here
that probably would simplify the problem but i think it won't matter maybe?
hmm I think that doesn't matter
I would consider cosets actually
one nice property of cosets is that they constitute a partition on G
yeah sorry I should've led with that
you can take c = a^k for some k coprime to the order of a
so the order of a has to be prime
similar with b
they cannot have a non trivial intersection because prime order groups have no proper subgroups
But what if c=a^k and k divide the order of a
then it doesn't generate the entirety of <a>
take |a| = 8 and c = a^2, then you only get e, a^2, a^4, a^6
But I am not asking the intersection to generate the entirety of <a> or <b>
Just non trivial
I don't see how this is relevant
I'm arguing that the order of a has to be prime if there's no c that generates its cyclic group
i guess it was unclear to say "such that there is no element c∈G that can generate <a> or <b>" but i mean there is no element in G that is also not in <a> or <b> that generate the cyclic groups
this is wrong btw lol
my brain is in C^inf mode rn
yeah my first thought is in order to prove by contradiction, the order of a and b has to not be prime
c cannot be in <a> and <b>
okay can we maybe see the original question verbatim
👆
so i am eliminating that
why do i feel like this guy is a bot - -
if c generates <a> then c has to be in <a>
not necessarily
<3> generate 3z but 1 generate 3
1 doesn't generate 3Z
you mean that <c> is a supset of <a>?
yeah
can we see the original question please
am I a bot?
yeah this isn't what generate means lol
let G be a group, and let <a> & <b> be two cyclic subgroups generated by element a & b, such that there is no element c∈G that can generate the elements {a} or {b}. Question: can <a> & <b> have a non-trivial intersection.
send a screenshot
take a picture
ok yeah the original question is flawed
did you rephrase or translate it by any chance
no
please
ok i changed the cyclic group <a> <b> to the element a and b
Lol
that is just a screenshot of this message
is this supposed to be funny?
I meant of the original problem that your prof gave you or something
oh i was just working on some random theorem and i just came up with this
completely irrelevant trust me
yeah well the question is flawed to begin with
is it?
if you mean it like this in the current state then take any a,b in Z and c > max{a,b}
their intersection will be their lcm
but 1 generate a though if a is in Z
if c is greater that a, how does c generate a?
the answer is yes: it can have a non trivial intersection
right
i agree, only if c cannot generate a or b
and if its not a counterexample, you have to prove it
I'm not sure what you're saying
the example you give me is exactly that i want to prove it
like i know tons of examples in Z that are exactly what this statement says
it can have a trivial intersection though
so i give up find any counter example in Z
for sure
but i am interested in a non trivial one
?
there are cases when it has a trivial and when it has a non trivial one
I'm not sure what you're trying to prove
is this needed to prove your original question or just as like
if it has any nontrivial ones, then there must be a c in G that generate a or b, in the case of examples in Z, 3 generate 3z, 5 generate 5z, then obvious 1 generate 3 and 5
"a fun thing I thought of"
a fun thing lol
this is yet another different question to your original one
you keep rephrasing it
i dont think i am
i only changed from the cyclic group <a> to the element a
which is still huge i know
please write down your question
ok i think this is my final version of it
the last bit of the statement i think i have said different things but they all mean the same
,rccw
gracias
so i was trying to prove by contradiction and think there is some combination of a&b so it generates a & b
ok so you are saying if a and b are not subsets of some other cyclic subgroup of G
then a and b have nontrivial intersection
(assume I said cyclic subgroups on a and b)
a and b are elements of G
subset sounds really
suspicious
now there's an iff
okay
come back when you have a clear theorem statement
and write it with TeX
If $G$ is a group, $a$ and $b$ are elements of the group and they generate the respective cyclic group, $<a>$ and $<b>$ , then they have non trivial intersection only if there exist an element $c$ in $G$ such that $<c>$ is a superset of $<a>$ or $<b>$.
endless
so now its exist?

its already downvoted
holy shit how??!!!
O o
apparently I am also confused lol
I am confused by what you are writing
your theorem statement has changed multiple times
are you sure this is your final theorem statement
yeah i am 100% sure
i mean i changed a few times
but the idea is the same
but there were some "flaws" in the languages
these flaws you speak of make it impossible for us to understand
you need to communicate your idea with precise language
anyway
if i understand the question right, the result seems false
say G = S4, and a = (1234), b = (3214). Then a^2 = b^2 = (13)(24), but there's no cyclic group in S4 with higher order than 4
from here if they have prime orders (like what illum said like about an hour ago)
follows very fast
^ should mention they have to be distinct prime orders
i mean unless <c> doesn't have to be a proper superset, in which case it's stupidly true regardless of the intersection of <a> and <b>, just take c = a or c = b
oh wow it's as easy as that, thank you so much! really appreciate it!!!
I know it's in german, but this is just the construction of polynomial in more variables. Can somebody explain me how the jota function works? I somehow don't get it
i think looking at this a little more abstractly could be helpful.
the iota map sends an element of the ring to the constant polynomial
that has the coefficient a for x1^0x2^0 ... and all other coefficients are zero
instead of worrying with these tuples, you could abstractly construct the monoid ring. So say R is a (commutative) ring and M any monoid, then you could construct the ring R[M].
the elements of R[M] are formal finite sums of r_i . m_i. and you define multiplication by forcing the distributive law to hold and by defining (r.m) * (s.n) = (r*s) . (m*n)
to get the usual polynomials, you could take M = N, the monoid of natural numbers.
and actually instead of thinking of it as N, use it's isomorphic copy M = x^N, i.e. the monoid {1, x, x^2, ....} with the usual multiplication
once you abstractly understand this, polynomials over multiple variables are quite easy to construct. the monoid would be replaced with N x N x ... x N (or again its isomorphic copy M = {x_1^i_1 ... x_n^i_n, each i_k in N})
(if you wanna think of this more abstractly, x^N is the free abelian monoid on one generator x, and the other guy is free abelian monoid on n generators x1, ..., x_n)
(you could also play this game with non-commutative monoids, for example if M = <x, y> is the free monoid on 2 generators, i.e. finite length words made of x and y, then R[M] is the free R-algebra on x and y. these are called non-commutative polynomials)
i'll stop now :p
thanks
To be honest I’m not sure if referring to Monoids is the best idea here det 
.<
i just feel doing all the tuples thing concretely can be weird
but, yea, if this the monoid ring looks too abstract, then you may ignore what i wrote >.<
let F be a field and consider the ring homomorphism from Z (integers) to F, mapping n to n.1
n.1 = 1 + 1 ... + 1 (n times)
if the kernel of this map is non-zero, then we can find a smallest positive number p such that p.1 = 0. we can show that p is prime
so clearly pZ is contained in the kernel, but why is the reverse inclusion true? i'm trying to show that the kernel is generated by p
say something is in the kernel and use division algo with that and p
(you can also do this by using that ideals in Z are always principal. so the kernel actually looks like nZ for some n)
oh yes neat
x = pq + r, for some 0\le r < p. then, x.1 = pq.1 + r.1, so r.1 = 0. this contradicts the minimality of p
why is this true? if char F = 0, then F contains Q, otherwise if char F = p (prime), then F contains F_p
but it's not clear from this that there are no other prime fields contained in F as subfields
right?
agreed, but still need to argue that F_p and F_q aren't in F
for p \ne q, p,q primes
okie so what i mean is if E --> F is a map of fields, then this forces that both have same characteristic
in particular an inclusion of fields
if a and b are chosen such that pa + qb =1 then...
tbh we can just take the intersection of all subfields of F
that'll be a subfield too, and it doesn't have a smaller subfield contained in it
but i don't think that would answer this.
It's also clear that like
Well okay nvm it'd be the same as I said lol
But like if F_q is a subfield then the kernel of Z -> F contains (q)
and so you can't get another prime
yep cool! thank u
how can we "cancel" a^j the cancellation laws only work if S in itself is a group right?
You’re using the operation in G where cancellation holds
It doesn’t matter if S is a group or not because you’re using an operation which has cancellation
oh right yes, my bad, thanks.
ok so for the proof that $\tilde{v} = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} gv$ is $G-$invariant, I don't quite see where we need the $\frac{1}{|G|}$ term in the front
I know that like when v is already invariant then we need it for obvious reasons
You don't need it
Yeah indeed, this gives you a projection V -> V^G
We don't need it.
is every invariant vector of the form [ c \sum_{g \in G} gv ] for some constant $c$?
Suppose v is invariant. Then gv = v. So v = 1/|G| sum gv.
cuz it's like eigenvectors with eigenvalue 1 no?
yeah
ok nice
this was simpler than I thought lmao
thanks
so like I know that every operator on a finite dimensional nonzero complex vector space blabla has an eigenvalue
this is "needed" for this (is it?)
but I don't see where exactly it's being used
It's not being used anywhere here yet.
yet 👀
Algebraic closure is relevant to rep theory.
hm
but then like why would this argument fail when we just say if we can construct some rep to a real space and get some operator then it has an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1 by this computation
is it because our matrix is invertible
I remember that invertible <=> 0 isn't an eigenvalue
but do we have something about the existence of other eigenvalues
This operator can only have eigenvalues 1 and 0, since it is a projection.
why must it be a projection
Because it is idempotent.
why is it idempotent
I suggest you try to prove it is idempotent from the observations we made above.
I don't see how it is idempotent because we would need rho(g) rho(g) = rho(g), because rho(g) is invertible we'd have rho(g) = Id?
We are talking about the operator defined here.
yeah I can see why that is idempotent
because it's already invariant we just get |G| v
but we have the cancellation term at the beginning
so just v again
I don't see the connection of that to this question
Then I don't understand what you're asking.
we construct a rep to some real space. we can then use the computation from above to construct an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1 for some matrix in the space. yet not every matrix in a real space has eigenvalues?
We cannot use the computation above to construct an eigenvector for every matrix.
It is true that the action of every group element has an eigenvector, provided that the space is nontrivial of course.
However, this cannot be used to show that fact.
The reason is very simple: there is no guarantee that this does not produce the 0 vector.
ahhh
this was what I was looking for
thanks
what's your question
we get 4 roots of x^4+1
but i can make two of them from the other two
so will the degree be 3?
no

we can do this simpler: the roots are i, i zeta, i zeta^2, i zeta^3 for zeta a primitive 4th root of unity
no
one zeta and then powers of it
you forgot i
then what it is
instead of trying to find a basis we can use the fact that [K(a) : K] = degree of min poly of a
yes
then we can just use the tower law [Q(zeta, i) : Q] = [Q(zeta, i) : Q(zeta)] * [Q(zeta) : Q]
ah wait my brain is in C^inf mode right now
i isn't a root
yes that is true
i^4 = 1
the 8th cyclotomic polynomial is x^4 + 1
cyclotomic?
polynomial that has all of the nth primitive roots of unity
it's irreducible in Q
so our roots will be generated by some primitive root of unity
and because it's irreducible we can use this
yes
but this approach is good too
just look at the roots then manually find the splitting field
yes but will Q[(1/sqrt2)(1+i)] contain all the roots
okay
Some authors use [] here, too. The ring generated by any algebraic number over Q is automaticallt a field
And that is the splitting field…
is it then
If A<=B<=C are division rings, then the degree formula holds the same way it does for fields, right? Or am I taking crazy pills?
how can say that (1/sqrt2)(1-i) is in the field
It’s the inverse of (1/sqrt2)(1+i)
yes
yes
yes
okay then it's fine cus other ones are additive inverse and multiplicative inverse of additive inverse
then the degree is 2
What about zeta^2?
You cant write the multiplicatice inverse of zeta
it should be of the form a+b zeta
As a linear combination of 1 and zeta
so we'll need to write them separatly
Do you know that x^4 + 1 is irreducible?



