#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 46 of 1
ah I see, they were asking about which ones are self inverse - not when all of them are self inverse, no clue how I made that mix-up in my mind
Think I have an idea though, ||The group (Z/p^kZ)^\times acting on Z/p^kZ^+ by multiplication is exactly Aut(C_p^k) \cong C_{p^{k-1}(p-1)} acting on C_p^k, so we just need to count the number of elements in C_{p^{k-1}(p-1)}, of even order - which is related to the size of the sylow 2-subgroups in some way|| could be nonsense but it's an idea
If L/K is the splitting field of f, in order to show "f irreducible iff Galois group acts transitively on roots of f" do we at any point need separability of f? For => definitely not I'm thinking, for the converse I don't see it either (as long as f is not a power of an irreducible).
I'm assuming you also mean to assume that f is separable
you need to use that f is separable for <=
How so? If f has two distinct irreducible factors, then the action cannot be transitive. Like I said, only reason I can fathom separability of f playing a role is to show f is not a power if the action is transitive, but I can't see how to do it.
the proof I have in mind is like
if f is separable and f = gh where g,h are nonconstant then the roots of g and h are disjunct
then go for a contradiction
yk?
galois group doesn't make sense if f isn't separable
the splitting field is only galois if f has no repeated roots
Don't split hairs, that's a catch-all term for Aut(L/K) regardless of whether the extension is Galois.
Yeah, that'd probably work. But it's enough for my purposes to show f has no distinct factors, so I think I'm fine without assuming f is separable.
Actually nvm, you're using a different definition of separability of f.
you use the fact that f is separable when you want to show that the aut group is transitive. In the proof I know, you take any two roots a,b, then you want to extend the isomorphism K(a)->K(b) into an automorphism of L
this can fail if f has repeated roots
what is your definition
Not "no repeated roots", but all irreducible factors don't have repeated roots.
Yeah but for the converse you're a priori assuming the action is transitive.
for the converse yea, but i'm talking about showing that irreducible implies transitive
You don't need separability for that.
what's your argument then
If a and b are two roots of f, then K(a) and K(b) are K-isomorphic, that extends to all of L since L is a splitting field.
if i'm not mistaken, this can fail if L is a splitting field of a non-separable polynomial
that's my point
It shouldn't
That's just the splitting field isomorphism extension theorem
If K and K' are iso, then L and L' are iso, extending the iso.
can you show me your proof of this theorem. Maybe it's different from the one I know
but in the one I know the fact that f has no repeated roots is featured quite heavily
I don't have a source literally on hand, but look in Lang or something else.
Number of roots comes into play when you want to show the number of distinct extensions is the degree. That's when you use separability.
Here
It works the same way for infinite splitting fields by Zorn.
hm yea I think you're right then
Cat Bread dies to Artin
Hi, guys, suppose i am given a field K, and a natural number n, is it possible that we can always find a field L containing K such that [L : K]=n ?
yes
No, R doesn't have such extensions
It depends on the field
yeah except when n exceeds [alg closure of K : K]
I think there might possibly be pathological cases even if the alg closure has infinite degree, but I may be wrong.
hmmm we just need to find an irreducible polynomial of degree n
Exactly, I don't know if it holds for absolutely every field.
yeah
It does for finite fields and for Q definitely, don't know about other ones.
Thank you!
What is an induced module?
if R --> S is a ring map, and M is an R-module then S ⊗_R M is naturally an S-module, this is called the induced module.
Hom_R(S, M) is also naturally an S-module. this one is called coinduced module
I am trying to find the commutative unital rings of characteristic $p$. What i have right now that we have a natural map from $F_p \to R$ and if we pick $x$ outside it's image $R$ takes a structure of a vector space spanned by 1 and $x$. So we have a surjective map from $F_P[x] \to R$. How to find the kernel of this map ?
ru0xffian
cant you just look at the sign?
like if x is smaller than 1, all the products will be negative. If x is between 1 and 2, all the products except one will be negative (so sign changes), and so on. And you want m to be big so that the sign of the whole expression does change (ie, so that whenever the product in the middle is negative, then the whole expression is negative. And when its positive, the whole expression is positive).
The kernel of the map is the set of polynomials in $F_p[x]$ that map to 0 in $R$. To find this set, you can use the Euclidean Algorithm. For example, suppose you want to know if $f(x) \in F_p[x]$ is in the kernel. Then compute the greatest common divisor of f(x) and $g(x)= x^n+a_{n-1}x^{n−1}+\cdots+a_1x+a_0$. If it is a nonzero polynomial, then f(x) is not in the kernel. Otherwise, it is in the kernel
I don't know, not really thinking about it. I assume that the factor of p and the x^p are to show that you have a cycle or something, and is irrelevant for showing you have p-2 roots, otherwise I'm saying nonsense.
I've seen somewhere that the kernel is just the ideal generated by $x^2-bx-a$ for some $a,b \in F_p$. I see why this ideal should be inside the kernel by considering $x^2$ as it must be $a + bx$ for some $a,b$ but why is it the whole kernel ?
Because it captures all polynomials in $F_p[x]$ that map to 0 when evaluated at $R$. This is due to the fact that any polynomial in the kernel can be written as a combination of powers of $x^2-bx-a$, so all we need to do is show that these polynomials map to 0
Nats
can you elaborate more on why it captures all of them ?
Sure, consider a simple example. We want to know whether $f(x)=x^2+2x+3 \in F_p[x]$ is in the kernel, so we can rewrite this polynomial using the form of the kernel: $$f(x)=(x+1)^2-2x-4,$$ where $b=-2$ and $a=-4$. And since any polynomial in $F_p[x]$ that maps to 0 when evaluated at $R$ can be written as a linear combination of powers of $(x+1)^2-2x-4$, the ideal generated by $x^2-bx-a$ captures all such polynomials
Nats
Thank you! Do you have a reference that mentions this definition? And by ring map do you just mean a map between rings, or do you mean a ring homomorphism?
I don't really know many algebra books 😅 any you could recommend?
maybe someone else knows a nice algebra book, i don't have any at the top of my head 
No worries, thanks
i saw it in aluffi, but he didn't use the word "induction" or "coinduction"
(Tbh I never heard the term induced module)
it was extension of scalars
I've always heard it referred to as extension of scalars
i think
Yea
ive never heard that haha
I was looking at a book by John Milnor and he mentioned an induced module without defining it which is why I wanted to know
if you understand tensor-hom adjunction, you should be good
Literally never heard of that lmao
(the word "induced" could be used loosely as well... like a map of modules induces this other morphism, somethign something)
Yeah but why any polynomial in the kernel can be written as a combination using $x^2 - bx - a$? sorry if i am missing something obvious.
ru0xffian
Ah I see
So I wanted to show I is prime, but maybe I'm saying nonsense. So (1,1+sqrt-3=z) form a basis Z-basis for the whole ring and (2,z) forms a Z-basis for the ideal. Suppose (a+zb)(c+zd) is in the ideal, with a,b,c,d integers. Then multiplying everything out you will see that ac is even, therefore one of a or c is even, and we are done.
Is this correct?
In this case I'd say its easier to calculate [L : Q] by first calculating the size of the Galois group
Here is a solution for x^p-2, p any prime. The group is actually pretty simple.
@willow geyser
(maybe you solved it already idk)
yeah and all roots (except 1) are primitive
||try finding two generators of the Galois group||
and like I think that was it
see what can you send 5rt 2 to
I don't think complex conjugation is too useful in this situation
Yeah
And the other roots of unity are z^k
So you can fix one z and that automorphism composed k times will give 5rt 2 -> z^k 5rt 2
Now you know z is sent to a root of unity, so z -> z^k, and you want to ask if this automorphism produces all automorphisms of the type z -> z^a
Yes, because 5rt 2 and z are generators
Of the whole field
There are 5 fifth roots of unity, but only 4 primitive ones
One is just one
And you want to send z to a primitive root of unity, definitely not one
So 20
And you can check all of them do work
You dont really have to do a lot of work tho
So you look at the automorphisms that act on z and fix 5rt 2, and vice versa. And you can compose them like fg where f acts on 5rt 2 and g acts on z. Then fg(z)=g(z) and fg(5rt2)=f(5rt 2), I think
The two automorphisms I was talking about were z -> z^g (and fix everything else) and 5rt 2 -> z 5rt 2, where g is a primitive root of 5
And I think you can realize this as a matrix group by sending the first automorphism to the matrix ((g,0),(0,1)) and the second to ((1,1),(0,1))
Everyone knows matrix multiplication
So you wouldnt need to write down the relation needed to specify the group (given the two generators of order p and p-1)
But in that case, the group is pretty simple, so I guess its fine to not put it as a matrix group. But I guess its always nice to try to look at matrix groups
What do you mean?
Matrix groups do contain every galois group
But you get shit matrix groups, so there is no point. In this case it was all nice
Idk lmao
Like in general probably not, but maybe there are other funny families of polynomials like this one. I dont know more examples tbh
Lol we had this problem and yeah using matrices is cute
It should be noticed that we invoked a primitive root modulo p, so this is a very specific thing
I'm trying to show that the Haar measure on SU(2) is translation invariant and is normalised by (1/2pi^2)
But I don't know how to paramaterise over the 3-sphere
Could anyone help me with the parameterisation or this part?
Use the first part of i), then ask what (x + x^-1)^p is
Btw Joe I can give you my sheet if you'd like
which 1 is it?
ok I'll send both lol
any chance you could find rep sheet 4 from somewhere?
By the first part, this is equivalent
But here you need to use some fact that is particular to this situation to figure out what (x + x^-1)^p is
My guy you’re in char p
alao bump
i’m gonna ask a dumb question probably but it’s fine since i’m learning
but showing that a group G is abelian, we need to show xy=yx for all x,y in G
is it not enough to show that x’y’=y’x’, since x and y have unique inverses?
all elements in G are inverses of something (of what?), so it would suffice
but why do you want to do this?
just trying to fill in some gaps
Does AATA have a more comprehensive solution booklet by any chance?
what is AATA?
bump again
What do you think of the demonstration as to whether it is a group or not?
Would you be able to point me to one?
(i think that was an allusion to piracy)
this was in my professor's lecture notes, but how do we know that Map(X, S) has a binary operatoin induced from (S, *)? Is it just defined to be that way?
the operation is being defined at the bottom
AATA is freely available online, there is no need for piracy.
ninja about to drop some heat
hey can someone check my proof for 4.8 b
I just wanna know if it's right, if theres anything important I've skipped or just any general bad practices I've done
(matrices of the first type are those that represent adding a multiple of one row to another)
hot enough for ya?
oo yea
Alright I'm here
So at a glance Ninja
Do you know globally what the idea is? There's a term for this
wdym?
i guess my argument is the opposite of row reduction
i try to generate the arbitrary matrix from the identity
im not really sure what the point you're getting at is? 
I just wanted to make sure you "knew what was going on" in summary lol
My thing about undoing row operations is that if you show "every matrix row reduces to the identity"
That statement would auto imply this anyway
Because you'd say oh Id = E_1 ... E_n A
Now invert gg
yeah I did consider that, but I thought of this idea first and wasn't 100% sure how to show that i can reduce them using just matrices of the first type
I'm guessing second type means scale a row right?
Ah okay that requires more thought on how to avoid
btw this is a proof for b, so I can't use 2nd or 3rd type
So honestly I feel like this can be made a lot simpler?
To elaborate
Actually
Nah maybe this is it
Oh me too but I'm not nearly smart enough to do it 
b ii) need help please
it's easy enough to just find the square and cube of that matrix for general a, b, c by hand
write down what it means for the matrix to not have order 1 or 2 but have order 3 in terms of a, b, c and argue why this means that no such order 3 matrix exists
I tried this
I got $\begin{pmatrix} a & 2b \ 0 & c \end{pmatrix}^3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$
isomorphism
the diagonal of the cube should be a^3, c^3 so you can write down the value of those immediately, then it should be straightforward
how so? I can just choose b = 0
and then a = c = 1
and this gives us the identity matrix
that's the correct answer but you've got it the wrong way around
you've got to show that the equation holds if and only if a = c = 1 and b = 0
oh, wait
you already know the identity matrix will be a solution
you've just got to show it's the only one
the identity matrix is a solution with order 1
yeah
I said this instead of saying solve A^n = I because you need to get into the habit of checking that the A you've found is not order 1 or 2 or etc.
which is an easy mistake to make
yeah...
obvs here because of Lagrange's theorem any solution only has order 1 or 3 but ya
you can also prove it with division by remainder, if g^k = e then the order of g divides k. so if k is prime you just need to establish that g != e
for the proof by division with remainder, let ||n be the order of g and write k = an + r for 0 <= r < n||, then ||show r = 0||.
I see
that's clever
I still need help with this though (showing the index [Z^3 : H] is infinite)
for each n you can prove that {(x, y, z) \in Z^3 : x + y + z = n} is a coset of H
how so?
and how does that help me with showing the index is infinite
well then you've got infinitely many cosets
try looking at (1, 0, 0) + H first
x + y + z = -1
how do you show that $\frac{1}{2} |S_n| = |A_n|$ using Lagrange's theorem?
isomorphism
I tried leveraging that $|S_n| = [S_n : A_n] |A_n|$
isomorphism
I don't know how to show the number of left cosets of $A_n$ in $S_n$ is 2 though
isomorphism
I'm told I can use it
how would I show it otherwise?
I mean you know the cardinality of S_n and A_n, no?
I guess you meant order
I think they want to prove that the order of A_n is actually half
of the order of S_n
yes, the order of S_n is n!
order, yeh
well first if a is any odd permutation then (12)a is even
so we have at least as many even permutations as odd ones yeah
yeah, pretty much
similar argument if a is an even permutation
the lagrange theorem argument would be very similar actually
(12) A_n produces all your odd permutations
isomorphism have you learnt about homomorphisms yet
yes
then this method would work too
and using the first isomorphism theorem yields S_n/A_n isomorphic to {+-1}
is there any way I can use lagranges theorem tho
and considering the order yields the result
^
well I mean
this doesn't actually use lagrange tbh
it just tells us we have 2 left cosets of A_n
is b) ii) $\mathbb{R}^\star = {A \in R : \text{det}(A) = 1}$?
isomorphism
First make sure it's obvious that this is an ideal. Next, try showing that every element outside of this ideal is invertible, this is the same as saying it's unique maximal, but it might be easier to see. You will need to explicitly use some analytic arguments about continuity here
Exercise: Show that the 8th cyclotomic field contains sqrt 2.
So I simply showed that it contains cos(pi/4) and that cos(pi/4)=1/sqrt 2
how can i know that there is no other maximal ideal
but idk if that's the intended way to do it. The discriminant is just 256
If you prove every element not in m is invertible, that shows that m is maximal
oh wait, i see
okay, but hmm, you only have f(0) not equal to 0 given
not sure how i would try to get an invertible element out of this
Ok if f of 0 is not equal to 0, then there's some small nbhd on which f is not 0
yeah
And you don't care what happens outside of small nbhds of 0 because of quotienting out by I
So in this small nbhd f is invertible
Outside of this nbhd you can do whatever it doesn't matter since they will identify in the quotient
okay, yeah, this is what i was stuck on, why does it not matter what happens outside of the neighborhood
Ok so
If f and g agree on some nbhd of 0
Then f-g|U =0
So they agree kn the quotient
Essentially this is capturing the local behaviour of functions near 0
So if you define a new function h such that h=f on the nbhd of 0 where it doesn't vanish, and constant elsewhere (so that it's still continuous but nonzero everywhere)
Then you get that h+I=f+I
But h is an invertible representative, since it never vanishes
So you can take its reciprocal
sure :)
no, a matrix being invertible is equivalent to nonzero determinant
yes, but we have to preserve the structure of the ring
we must have integer entries
which is only achieveable when a^2 + b^2 = 1
Oh ya you are right soz
Any hints? 11(c) is that if all of the Galois conjugates of an algebraic integer have absolute value 1 then that algebraic integer is a root of unity. So I think the intended path is to show that all of the Galois conjugates of u/\overline u have absolute value 1, but this is equivalent to |sigma(u)|=|u| for every complex embedding sigma, which is most likely false, so I'm pretty lost.
ok now I realize I didn't use the fact that u was a unit nowhere lmao
uh wait but you use it to invert \overline u so idk
(Also which book is this?)
Number fields?
yes
Nice cheers, but don't wanna distract from your question lol
Let \Gamma = 1 \to 2 \ot 3 with a: 1 \to 2, b: 3 \to 2 be a quiver with the representation V = k^2 \to k^2 \ot k^2 with f_a and f_b being a 2x2 matrix with all entries 1, and k some field.
Based on the picture below, I am struggling to find some maps from the representation V to the direct sum of the 4 representations given, say (W, g).
Based on my intuition, the a map for the direct sum would be f_{1,a} \oplus f_{2,a} \oplus f_{3,a} \oplus f_{4,a} = 0 \oplus 0 \oplus 0 \oplus 1, given that V_i = (V_i, f_i) for i = 1,2,3,4.
But if I want to construct an isomorphism to show that V \cong W as representations, I have to find a map, \phi = (\phi_1, \phi_2, \phi_3), from V to W, where \phi_i: V(i) \to W(i) for i = 1,2,3, where V(i) and W(i) are the vector spaces at position i in the quiver \Gamma.
These \phi_i's have to satisfy a commuting diagram such that \phi_j f_a = g_a \phi_i for all a: i \to j \in \Gamma_1 (the arrows in Gamma)
Say, we want to find the maps such that the diagram commutes for the path a: 1 \to 2. Then we have \phi_2 f_a = g_a \phi_1 = (0 \oplus 0 \oplus 0 \oplus 1) \phi_1.
Let me just draw out the diagram
i’m stuck on b) haha
so i tried providing an explicit function that would be in the intersection, but i can’t seem to find one in this way
You wrote your question out in TeX, then did not call the texbot
yeah but mainly my issue is I cant understand how you can have isomorphism maps \phi_1, \phi_2 such that the diagram commutes
Also I usually do this, but I suppose this question was a bit too long for doing it this way.
like it would always end with some value (0,0,x,y) in W(2) if I attempt to go via phi_2 whilst it would have (0,0,0,z) in W(2) via phi_1
if that makes sense
I think you might be overthinking it a little. For any complex number z, |z/conj(z)| = 1. Now for u our unit, we want |sigma(u/conj(u))| = 1 for all sigma. But this is the same as |sigma(u) / sigma(conj(u))|, which is the same as |sigma(u) / conj(sigma(u))| because conj is in tbe galois group which is abelian
Now apply the first fact to z = sigma(u)
Np
Note that this works equally well in any abelian number field! But also any abelian number field is a subfield of a cyclotomic field, so it’s also just true by that fact
yup
but it should be shown that u/conj(u) is an algebraic integer, no?
well I guess its just that things in Z[omega] are algebraic integers
lul
So we have |sigma(a)|=|a| if and only if conj(sigma(a))=sigma(conj(a)), which is fun
diagonalize matrix. got it
I dont think this is true
The second statement is always true (in an abelian number field) but the first is not
Oh this is a tricky one. There is an explicit function. The idea is you want a function that decays fast enough so that the limit of it divided by x^n is 0, so it's still continuous at 0 when divided by x^n for all n, then you could multiply by x^n to get that your function is in m^n (Since x is in m)
Maybe I'm wrong, but this is what I did: Suppose sigma(conj a)=conj(sigma(a)). Then multiplying both sides by sigma(a), we see that |sigma(a)|^2=sigma(a*conj a)=sigma(|a|^2)=|a|^2, since |a|^2 is rational. Now, suppose |sigma(a)|=|a|, then |sigma(a)|^2=|a|^2 and so sigma(a) x conj sigma(a)=|a^2|=sigma(|a|^2)=sigma(a)sigma(conj a), and so conj sigma(a)=sigma(conj a)
yeah, i was thinking abt that too, but i can’t seem to find it explicitly
idk if it would be better if I latexed it lmao
Latex or not I dont understand the first half of the proof. I dont contest tbe other half, because again, sigma(conj(a)) = conj(sigma(a)) is just true for all a in an abelian number field
Maybe I'm wrong, but this is what I did: Suppose $\sigma(\overline a)=\overline{\sigma(a)}$. Then multiplying both sides by $\sigma(a)$, we see that $|\sigma(a)|^2=\sigma(a\cdot\overline a)=\sigma(|a|^2)=|a|^2$, since $|a|^2$ is rational. Now, suppose $|\sigma(a)|=|a|$, then $|\sigma(a)|^2=|a|^2$ and so $\sigma(a) \cdot \overline{\sigma(a)}=|a^2|=\sigma(|a|^2)=\sigma(a)\sigma(\overline a)$, and so $\overline{\sigma(a)}=\sigma(\overline a)$
Croqueta
well I'm saying in any number field |sigma(a)|=|a| if and only if sigma and complex conjugation commute
Take a very large prime p (not necessary, jsut for demonstration purposes) and consider a = 1 + zeta_p. Zeta_p is very close to 1, so a (and |a|) are very close to 2. However, zeta_p has some conjugate very close to -1. For that corresponding sigma, sigma(a) = 1 + sigma(zeta_p) is very close to 0, as is its magnitude
This isnt really a reasonable statement though because one half depends on a and the other doesnt.
yes
I actually meant sigma(conj a)=conj(sigma a), which is what I wrote at first, sorry
Okay, still, it’s wrong lol
mmh
Please see my counterexample
Again, sigma(conj(a)) = conj(sigma(a)) is always true in an abelian field, but |a| = |sigma(a)| is not
yeah okay your example definitely makes sense
Suppose $\sigma(\overline a)=\overline{\sigma(a)}$, multiplying both sides by $\sigma(a)$ we obtain $\sigma(a)\sigma(\overline a)=|\sigma(a)|^2$, and the left hand side is $\sigma(a\overline a)=\sigma(|a|^2)$.
Croqueta
This is correct I think
now I think i concluded that |a|^2 should be fixed
but it need not be rational actually, so there's no reason for that
I think that was the mistake
Guys for this exercise
I have this idea
Let be the binary operation ab=ab for all a,b belonging to R.
now let's fulfill the associativity of a group then for all a,b,c that belongs to R* then
(ab)c=a(bc)
therefore we have that
(ab)c=(ab)c
=(ab)c
=abc
=a(bc)
=a(bc)
=a(bc)
therefore is the binary operation is associative
Now for the inverse we have
Let a belongs to R* then there must exist an a^(-1) that belongs to R* therefore it follows that
ab=ab
aa^-1=aa^-1
=e
so the identity e belongs to R* a which is equal to
aa^-1=1
Now let e belong to R then let ae=ae be the binary operation ae=ae
=a(1)
=a

I agree, that is the mistake. All you can say is that it’s real.
Guys, how about the demo?
I'm not showing it with "*" but it doesn't appear here in discord.
actually, can’t i just take x for x >= 0 and 0 else
This is actually interesting
consider x^2+4ax+2 (irreducible by Eisenstein), then the two roots of this polynomial differ by sqrt(4a^2-2) lmao
and both are real, so conjugation commutes with the automorphisms
this feels like "R* is a group because it is a group"
why must a^-1 belong to R*? you're saying "the inverse exists because it exists"
is m^n/I isomorphic to (m/I)^n
Así es
What does "m^n/I" denotes?
I haven't studied ideals yet
Like coset of groups
Now I see. It is the same idea of group factor
But for Ring
Could you tell me the correct way to define it please?

recall the definition of a group
and understand exactly what it is saying
by the way the binary operation for R* is multiplication
you don't say ae=ae is a binary operation
yeah nvm me then lol
show that the kernel is I
but i’m not sure if the kernel is actually I
one inclusion seems fairly easy
i think the kernel must be I just from the fact the isomorphism holds for abelian groups
But ofc gotta actually check that
yeah, that’s what i thought
Wait no I got confused because like
When you talk about m^2 you mean actual squares of elements
right?
yeah
Oh sure oopsies
But then how are you quotienting by I
i mean the ideal product
it’s an ideal, no?
Yeah i just meant the other interpretation was false
yeah
It's all fine and dandy now lol
need help please
You can actually give a nice description of the quotient group
Try giving that a go
can you elaborate?
Okay so I'm not sure if you've done quotient groups yet so maybe I can go a bit slower
But basically what you should think about is: given a,b in C^x, when are they in the same coset of S?
[i.e. when can we write a = bc for some c in S]
The idea is of course that you wanna show there are infinitely many such cosets, so understanding what the cosets actually are is nice
U was right
I have done quotient groups with additive abelian groups
so this would be the cardinality of the quotient group $\mbb{C}^\star/\mbb{S}$
n!
we have to show the cardinality is infinite
I just have no idea how to go about this
If G/H is a factor group factor from a homomorphism then H is the kernell
idk what a kernel is
"null space"
all elements that get send to the identity
this is worded a bit weirdly btw
still not sure how to approach this
Try finding an infinite group G and a surjective map C* -> G with S being the kernel.
n.b. this map must be a homomorphism
I don't think we are supposed to go about it that way since we haven't studied kernels yet
is there an alternativ emethod?
I couldn't explain you now cuz I'm at the job right now
.....
Try drawing a single coset, diagrammatically. Draw a few. You will discover, in fact, that you know what all the cosets look like.
are you the one being helped or are you trying to help
Trying
a coset is an element of G/H
G/H are the left cosets of H
H\G are the right cosets
No no wait
aH denotes the left coset of H in G
a is any element of G
Ha denotes the right coset of H in G
"the left coset" implies there is only one, which just isn't how it works
The factor Group G/H turn out when the left coset are the same as the right coset
When aH=Ha
G/H need not have a group structure
No
but it is a group when aH = Ha, is what they're saying
But in order to form a group, it must
Yeah
what does this have to do with the above
lol
Well, G could have many proper subgroups it will implies many set of cosets
What
literally what illuminator just said
I said yes
also fwiw subgroups have nothing to do with the amount of cosets, like I already said above
Cuz I was confusing about if we can call G/H when it doesn't even form a group
I know
Well, G could have many proper subgroups it will implies many set of cosets
illuminator you have to work with the language barrier here
they meant proper subgroups corrispond to many different sets of cosets
they didn't mention the size of the sets of cosets
ah
Show me an counterexample please
my bad
That
I mean, if G have D and U as subgroup aD and aU could be different set of coset
they will absolutely be different cosets unless U = D
what are you saying
Idk wtf about C^\times/S bruh
I don't even what it means
I don't even know
the conversation you interrupted
I have a question, whenever you guys are done with your conversation.
?
we are done
what's your question
Is the Galois Group of $p(x) = x^4+3x^3-13x^2+15x-90 \cong S_{2}$?
Sapphire
How would that work
yeah
why not?

how tf did u do that so quickly - I'm impressed
Why is it in m^2?
I looked at its factorization
cant you just take the root
so sqrt(x), x > 0 and 0 else
yeah I was working on the factorisation - did u CHEAT??!!
so it’s the product of that
in fact, i think you could take almost any continuous map and take the root
I was thinking of a slightly different problem where you look at smooth functions
i was overthinking it i think
That's a bit trickier
yeah, pretty much
that would be harder
what did you have in mind v
Yea you're right
In the case of smooth functions you take e^(-1/x^2)
yeah, i had something like that in mind
Then this vanishes faster to 0 than any polynomial, so dividing it by x^n it remains smooth
yup, when you said that earlier, i immediately thought of exponential
But yea in this case just taking the n-th root totally works
but that case gives even more
Cool, thanks guys!
For fun I was just determining if p(x) was solvable by radicals. (It’s obvious it is.) So I just wanted to confirm the Galois Group was iso to S2
why don't you do some actual galois theory instead of just plain calculations btw?
because then you could see that every polynomial with degree less than or equal to 4 is solvable
the galois group embeds into S4 (or S3,2,1)
subgroups of solvable groups are solvable
S4,3,2,1 are solvable
therefore by induction S_n is always solvable 
S_n is divisible by more than two primes so it is solvable by Burnside
If all the roots of P(x) all lie in the unit circle, what can yous ay about P? Trivially, you can see that the coefficient of x^r will be less than or equal to nCr (in absolute value)
what polynomial ring is this
real of course
I think?
I think I assumed the polynomial should be monic
oh yeah it also works for complex coefficients
its just vieta and triangle inequality
I guess you can also do a less explicit reasoning
and the polynomial monic of course, because otherwise you can just multiply by stupid constants and the roots don't change
So I was looking at this problem: Suppose all the roots of P have absolute value 1. Show that all the roots of 2xP'(x)-nP(x) also have absolute value 1, where n is the degree of P
can't you maybe do something like uh factorize it into irreducible, monic polynomials, then those have to be the cyclotomic polynomials?
this is fake
consider 3/5+i*4/5, this is not a root of unity, yet it has absolute value 1
(pythagoras)
yeah but like
if the polynomial is over R or Q
then you can factorize it into irreducibles that are monic
F_n,0 is irreducible
yes, but they need not be cyclotomic polynomials
so the minimal polynomial has to divide them
What do you mean here?
nth cyclotomic polynomial over Q
x^2-6/5*x+1 is a counter example to what you are saying
why?
no
why not? if you look at it over C it will contain some of the roots
like not divide in Q[x] but in C[x]
yeah this is pretty stupid
the roots of the problem need not even be algebraic
oh yeah
but this is false even in the algebraic case, the example above is a counter example
tbh, idk if this problem is analysis or algebra
I should probably not help with stuff I can't help with
nah don't worry, I don't know what to do either
I think I could show they cannot be strictly less than 1
If I have two R-modules M and N and I take the group homomorphism f: M -> N. If the R modules are over a field, is the group homomorphism then just a linear map like in linear algebra?
Group homomorphism satisfying f(rm) = rf(m) with r in R and m in M
do you mean module homomorphism
Idk, they use the name R-homomorphism or R-linear map too
yea, you call it one of these things
R-module homomorphism/map
R-linear homomorphism/map
Alright ty for confirming :)
Got it!
(btw be a little careful if you your abelian groups can be considered modules over multiple rings, for example the conjugation map C --> C is R-linear by not C-linear)
what does $\bL(\bK)$ mean?
is it just like all stuff from K added to L?
ok another question
let K be char 0 and f in K[x] with splitting field L
why does Gal(L/K) is solvable => L(U_n)/K is a radical extension?
don't we need L/K to be finite?
Splitting fields are always finite
You get them by adding finitely many algebraic elements
has anyone read the chapter on generalized free products in Robinson's "A course in the theory of groups"?
there's a theorem I've been reading for days but still can't make sense of it
I haven't, but just ask the question
I don't understand the whole proof
I know this sounds like I didn't even try but it's not the case
can someone tell me the rough idea what he's trying to do here?
we're trying to prove the uniqueness of normal form in generalized free products of groups
here's the definition also
Ok so the outline of this proof is to define an action of G on the set of normal forms. This can be done by specifying an action of each G_{\lambda} on the set of normal forms, and then verifying that N acts trivially. Do you see what this action is?
Once we've defined the action, we can specify a map G -> M that maps an element g to the image of its action on the normal form of the identity element. Conversely, we have a map M -> G as follows: given a normal form in M, we get an element in G by looking at what element the normal form specifies.
Finally, the composition M -> G -> M is the identity, which implies that the map sending a normal form to an element of G is injective, hence normal forms are unique.
There's a neat geometric interpretation of this in terms of groups acting on trees, which I can sketch out if you're interested
yea kinda makes sense now, thank u very much
in the middle part when we make 2 cases
and he says that the other case can be handled similarly
its still not clear to me what's the difference between those cases
aight I'll figure it out I think (I'll try)
such a tedious and cumbersome proof 
I'm not sure if I'll understand but would be interesting
It's a bit hard to grasp, yeah. But it's a cool idea
Sure, I'll finish writing it up in a sec
Actually I'll just talk about it anyway because it's kind of fun. This is kind of specific to an amalgam of two groups, but just induct of something idk. I'm pretty sure there's a way to generalize it to more, but I haven't thought about it too much yet.
So if G is a group acting on a graph X by automorphisms, we call an edge e with vertices v and w a fundamental domain for the action of G on X if the quotient graph X/G is isomorphic to the subgraph consisting of v, w, and e.
A few observations: the stabilizer of e, say G_e, is the intersection of the stabilizers of v and w, G_v and G_w respectively. Also, two edges g*e and h*e have a vertex in common iff g*h^(-1) is in G_v or G_w.
Now I claim that X is a tree if and only if the map induced by inclusions G_v *_{G_e} G_w -> G is an isomorphism.
that definition of a fundamental domain I dont understand (is it wrong?)
one edge is a fundamental domain if the quotient group is isomorphic to that one edge?
the edge e and its vertices v and w form a subgraph of X, right?
we say that it's a fundamental domain if the quotient graph X / G is isomorphic to this subgraph
The idea is that any edge in X can be written as g * e where e is the edge in our fundamental domain, and every vertex can be written as g * v or g * w, but not both
so either all edges (with their vertices) are fundamental domains or none of them is?
I don't want to prove one direction, but I'll sketch the other. Using our observation on common vertices, you should be able to note that paths in X correspond to reduced words. Like you start at the vertex v, go to w via e, go to g*v via g*e (where g is in G_w), go to gh*w via gh*e (where h is in G_v), etc.
If X is a tree, then it has no loops, so these reduced words are not equal to the identity. Then the unique path from v to any vertex in X corresponds to a unique reduced word. Conversely, given an element g in the group, we can associate the reduced word from v to g*v where the first edge is e.
I don't think this is true
I'm having hard time understanding the definition of fundamental domain:
we say that if the quotient graph is isomorphic to a single edge with its vertices then call v-e-w a fundamental domain, but in that case it's also isomorphic to any other subgraph with a single edge?
and on the other hand if the quotient group isnt a single edge then there are no fundamental domains?
I mean there's a more general definition of a fundamental domain which is just a subset of the space which contains one point from each orbit
But in this case I'm just restricting to the case where the fundamental domain has one edge and two vertices
It's not necessarily the case that every edge with its vertices are such that the two vertices are in distinct orbits
oh, okay I didn't get the orbits part
Ah yeah, I probably should've said that explicitly.
I'm not explaining this too well either lol
it's fine u don't have to, I'm trying to figure out tho
It's not a huge deal if you don't get it, but if you want some more exposition on this I think it's laid out in more detail in Serre's book on Trees
But yeah, at the very least I hope you can see the big picture of the proof of the uniqueness of normal form in amalgamated products
yea I'm slowly coming to the point where this should connect to it
thx for ur time, and also, are you undergraduate?
I'm an undergrad right now, yeah
focusing on group theory?
I like thinking about groups and I keep a collection of group theory facts, but I don't want to commit myself to anything right now. I like lots of different parts of math
Well, for example, let G be a torsion-free subgroup of SL(2, Z) of finite index k. Then G is free on 1 + k/12 generators
black magic
modular curves :^)
Here's another cool one, let d be the gcd of all [G : H] where H is a torsion-free finite index subgroup of G. Then the prime divisors of d are exactly the primes p such that G has p-torsion
do u also know the proofs to these?
I do (though I might have to review some bits). The proofs I'm most comfortable with involve Euler characteristics of groups, but the first one can be proven by studying the action of SL(2, Z) on the Farey tree (which is also how you can deduce its structure as an amalgamated product, as we were talking about earlier)
what the fuck
it makes sense that it's free but k/TWELVE? wtf...
it's related to the funny number -1/12
the time has come
and also the fact that the abelianization of SL(2, Z) is Z/12Z
ok that makes more sense
infinite groups are crAzy
read the proof, not particularly enlightening
Here's another fun one. I posted this last night, but I'll rephrase it to be even more group theoretic. Let G be a finitely presented group; let <S|R> be a presentation and let F = F(S) be the free group on the generators. The group (R \cap [F, F]) / [R, F] is a finitely generated abelian group, let r be the minimal number of generators.
Then any presentation of G with n generators has at least n + r relations.
this one is more interesting by far
presentation theory my beloved
since we're all here
is combinatorial/geometric group theory worth studying full time?
it it active branch with perspective in it?
geometric group theory absolutely has a lot going on
It is definitely active
Get it out of my head
I've started doing stuff related to amalgam free products with my undergrad advisor (studying still)
and I'll probably keep going this way
and since I'm not a math beast like some of u
to do grad lvl math as an undergrad
I'll probably just focus on this one thing
I'm doomed
u r not doomed...
I just need to be lucky with my future research in group theory
this should work out
no idea how other undergrads who are not focusing on group theory know more group theory than me lol
just went to a math camp and geometric group theory was one of the topics
something about group presentations
Why is the map from k(x1,...,xn) to functions : k^n->k injective if k is infinite?
I see that it's clearly not injective if k is finite due to cardinality considerations
k being a field
hmm
so if f and g get mapped to the same function, then f - g is identically zero on k^n
It may be easier to show the kernel is trivial
can you not view k(x1,...,xn) as a vector space iso to k^n and then the space of functions is just the dual of this vector space? Then nice things happen cause k is infinite and the vector space is finite dim
unless you want a field map I suppose
It's not a field map cause polynomials may not invert
yeah
So it is a field, neat
take them as algebras 
Wait field homomorphisms are automatically injective

We did it team
Wait no the space of functions k^n -> k isn't a field
Right?
Pointwise operations
it might be a field then
maybe
product and sums are ok
commuting ok
division is (1/f)(x,...) = 1/f(x,..)
my mfw face when the function has a zero
pain
Skill issue
simply do not
yeah it's not quite as simple as "hurr vector space"
wait how
the book I'm reading takes it to mean a polynomial ring in n variables
oh you're talking about polynomial ring??
💀💀💀💀💀
k[] != k()
it says () 😭
lol yeah I've always seen [] to denote the polynomial ring and () to denote the field of rational functions
reeeeeeee
pain
i should've asked for clarification anyways
nah it's like asking for clarification about if "G" is a group
Yea
But yeah, if f and g are mapped to the same function then f - g is identically zero. A polynomial over an integral domain has finitely many roots, but k is infinite, so f - g = 0
we use le universal property
no we le don't
yeah can't improve on walter's solution
ohhh gotcha
okay that makes total sense idk why I didn't think of that thanks!
happy to help
Yea important part is infinite field
alright
ive been waiting ooga
i am not good at this projective injective flat stuff
time to post my problem
If $A\otimes_R I\to A\otimes_R R$ is injective for every finitely generated ideal $I$, prove that $A\otimes_R I\to A\otimes_R R$ is injective for every ideal $I$. Show that if $K$ is any submodule of a finitely generated free module $F$ then $A\otimes_R K\to A\otimes_R F$ is injective. Show that the same is true for any free module $F$.
metal cofe bad kernel oog
this has three parts
i did the first part for just ideals I of R
i have no clue how to do the second and third parts
more importantly the third part
i havent thought of the third part yet but i imagine its similar to how i did the first part
but like
im taking F as R^n and distributing the tensor product thru
and i have some element in the kernel of the map A otimes K to A otimes F
im struggling to wrap how im supposed to work with K here i dont really know what it looks like
its just any submodule
finitely generated free R modules must be isomorphic to R^n, and ideals are submodules of R = R^1 (and conversely all submodules of R as an R-module are ideals), so it's a generalisation of the ideas in the previous question
right its like
the non rank 1 case
maybe i can use M being finitely generated somehoiw
my idea is you take $R^n = R \oplus R \oplus ... \oplus R$ and then write a submodule as $K = I_1 \oplus I_2 \oplus ... \oplus I_n$ with $I_j \trianglelefteq R$
Wew Lads Tbh
does this enumerate all the submodules? probably not
I know that for groups all subgroups of a free group are free by nielsen-schreier but these aren't groups 
yeah u can def have nonfree submodules
counter example: take a field and k and look at submodules of k^2
oh wait no still works
hmm
do we know anything else about R or is it just le ring
le ring
all rings are PIDs -> structure theorem 








im stuck on b), i've already shown that it's a local ring
By induction it suffices to let k = 1
Compute how much the dimension of the ring drops, and then show that the # of generators for m drops by the same amount
You will almost certainly use Nakayama’s lemma
@smoky ivy
Show that the generators are contained in the other ideal
For 2 this is… well pretty easy
So youre reduced to showing that 1 + sqrt(-5) is in the other ideal, and likewise
That’s just some algebra, idk off the top of my hand, but I’m sure you can figure it out
Actually I didn’t just figure it out off the top of my head, but I need to leave some work for you
xD
You… write it down
As an element of the other ideal

I mean
You tell me

Well you’ve now shown one ideal is contained in the other
So now you need to do the other one
could something like $\bZ/2\bZ\times\bZ/4\bZ$ be a $\bZ$ module?
nilpotent nix
Yea
A Z-module is just an abelian group
Z mods are abelian group
okay sure. then, is it even possible to use matrices for it?
free means it has a basis right?
You can’t just write down every map as a matrix and do linear algebra like you can for vector spaces
hmm. then why isn't (1,0),(0,1) a basis?
ah that makes sense, but i didn't know that.
Free is equivalent to being isomorphic to a direct sum of the ring
So being Z^(+)alpha for some cardinal alpha
so Z/nZ can never be a free Z module?
Yes
You know the sturxfure of finite abelian groups right?
Or I guess finitely generated
a little bit. they are all isomorphic to a direct sum of cyclic groups, right?
Yeah
And for finitely generated it’s this and then a part which is just Z^r
r is the rank which is the maximal # of lin ind elements
So it splits into a free part, Z^r
And a torsion part, made up of cyclic groups
So from this you see a fg abelian group is free iff it is torsion free
ah okay. yeah that makes sense
I'm trying to figure out a way to characterize automorphisms on this group. does anyone know if there's some sort of well known result that characterizes the in possible automorphisms on finite abelian groups such as that?
Automorphisms commute with products
And you know the automorphisms group of every cyclic group
“Know”
haha yeah probably should know. are the automorphisms of a cyclic group something relatively simple? something like phi(1) has to be coprime to the order?
I mean
You know their size
Actually you don’t know specifically what they are in general
Also I misspoke, I think this is actually hard sorry
It’s true that Aut(G x H) = Aut(G) x Aut(H) when the order of G and H are coprime
But then you can only break apart your group into parts based on primes
So you have to deal with an arbitrary product of Z/p^nZ for various n inside each block
And eg Aut(Z/2Z x Z/2X) = S_3
Given by permutinf the 3 nonidentity elements
But Aut(Z/2Z) is trivial
In general though Aut(Z/nZ) has size phi(n) since it’s determined by sending 1 to some element coprime to n, so it’s just multiplication by any of the phi(n) elements coprime to n
In “a lot” of cases this is cyclic, for example for a prime number
But in general you’d do some number theory to figure out what when you admit a primitive root mod n
But you get screwed once you deal with products of Z/p^nZ for different n, for one fixed p
need help with part iii)
I tried saying the following when checking for the subring axioms:
$0 \in S$ because $\text{det}\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \leq 10^{50}$
isomorphism
$1 \in S$ for the same reason - because $det(I_2) = 1$ which is less than or equal to $10^{50}$
isomorphism
but we meet an issue when checking for additive closure, I think
if $a, b \in S$ it is not always true that $a + b \in S$
isomorphism
right??
i.e. if we take $a$ to be $\begin{pmatrix} 10^{50} & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$ and $b$ to be $\begin{pmatrix} 10^{49} & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$
isomorphism
the determinant of a + b will be 2(10^50 + 10^49)
which is clearly greater than 10^50
tysm for all of this! I'll have to read it more carefully, take it in, and mess around with it to fully understand it, bit thank you.
how do we show this
Exercise
anyone
Then the formula (phi x psi)(g,h) = (phi(g),psi(h)) defined an auto morphism
You will end up showing everything is of that form
G and H have a trivial intersection
i honestly don’t see how to show this by induction
Quotient by just one thing first, then by k-1
Assuming you can handle k = 1, after step 1 you have a regular local ring still
And the other k-1 things are still linearly independent
yeah
so i.e. R/(a_1) regular local ring
how would i follow that R/(a_1, a_2) is a regular local ring
By induction…
The image of a_2 through a_k satisfy the same hypotheses
If you look at what (m/(a_1))/(m/(a_1))^2 is
This will be the same as m/(m^2 + a_1)
The images of a_2 through a_k will be linearly independent in here because a_1 through a_k were assumed to be linearly independent in m/m^2
I proved that it is indeed a subring of C
as for the second part, showing it's part of the unit group I did the following
If $a = 8 + 3\sqrt{7}$ then $a^{-1} = 8 - 3\sqrt{7}$ which clearly follows the structure of $\mbb{Z}[\sqrt{7}]$
isomorphism
i don’t rlly get it, could you expand?
from first sight it looks that it does since 8^2 = 64 and 9*7 = 63
yeah good
In an arbitrary ring $R$ if $I$ and $J$ are two ideals such that $I\supseteq J$ does there exist an ideal $K$ such that $J=IK$ ?
Croqueta
R commutative and unital
I tried looking at the set of ideals ${K \colon J\subseteq IK}$ and this satisfies Zorn I think, because you can take the intersection
Croqueta
i would guess not. don't have a counter example at the top of my head, but i think that's true when R is a dedekind domain.
how would you prove it? Using UFD?
"containment-division ring" wtf
you prove it for PIDs, and then this thing behaves well with localizations so you also get it for dedekind domains
i looked at these things when i didn't under localizations properly. ig it's a good time to revisit it 
like there is a notion of ideal quotient (J:I) = {r in R | rI contained in J}
and by definition it satisfies (J:I) * I contained in J
the other inclusion isn't always true
(i think)
but for dedekind, you just localize and reduce this to DVRs, which are in particular PIDs so all was good
so if you're looking for a counter example, maybe start with a dimension 2 ring like k[x, y] or Z[x]
the ideal (x, y) in k[x, y] should definitely be involved lol
let's see if that works then
(x, y) contains the ideal (x)
so we want to look for (x, y) * I = (x)
so y * I is contained in (x)
but x and y are coprime
so I is contained in (x)
tru
yea should work lol 😂
(x) = (x, y) * I <= (x, y) * (x)
dividing by (x) this gives (1) <= (x, y)
that's def false

ah, so it's equiv to dedekind, nice
dedekind DOMAIN
Wiki says no

Therefor no, wiki has never been wrong
But I mean your screenshot says R is an integral domain so this shouldn't be very surprising?
No its not surprising lmao
So I was searching for extra practice questions on homomorphisms when I found this document and I haven’t read through all of the questions but it seems to go in an order that would be similar to how you would learn ring theory but what do you guys think? http://www.math.kent.edu/~white/qual/list/ring.pdf
This doesn't seem to go in a very particular order
Also these are qual exam questions lol
Maybe they are loosely ordered within the subjects
i think you should refer to some book/script for the order you're gonna learn stuff in instead of a collection of qual exam questions
I have doubts on ideal arithmetic, what is the algebraic structure formed by the ideals with the usual operations of addition and multiplication of ideals? Does it have a name?
I think its just like a ring except there are no additive inverses ?
It’s a semi ring
ok nice
Might even be a sub-semi ring of the semi-ring of modules over a ring but I’d actually have to think about it which I’m not gonna do
what's the additive identity?
(0) ?
then like what's the additive inverse of ideal (a)?
ye
what's a semiring 
in a way, when you "idealize" your ring, you forget about units
well you can always Grothendify it
hence no additive inverses at all (no -1)
Yur
I’m doing a lot of stuff with semi rings as we speaK
you can talk about ideals in a semiring just fine right?
The semi-ring of modules over a group algebra that are fixed under a certain set of actions
Sounds lamw
Think so? - they just won’t be groups under multiplication
Bit like you then

you meant addition?
I did
Because I was thinking, you could start with a semiring and "idealize" it, and then you can ask wether the original semiring and this idealization are isomorphic as semirings
