#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 37 of 1
Yeah because insane 17 year olds like to ruin #discussion with debates on that topic
haven't read lee, but ig yea... spent a lot of time with covariant derivative stuff and defining different thigns like geodesics and curvature tensor from it
makes sense
Not having like. a normal undergrad diff geo course is the weirdest thing about this place's curriculum
I think it used to be a thing and then whoever taught it retired or something but its still pretty inexcusable lol
@rustic crown how does a silly billy like me learn topology?
make pictures in head
idk what else to say lol, unless you ask something more specific
Like what book did you use
Did you use YouTube?
i read some stuff from munkres, but found it to be a pretty boring book
i might try tom dieck or peter may
kanna!
Try bredon
okie
chmonkey textbook? :O

Fr?
Munkres is a classic text but mainly only good for point set top not alg top
Good stuff
Topology and Geometry by Bredon?
yes
Wait, that is the difference in application of point set and algebraic topology?
algebraic topology involves a lot of algebraic invariants of spaces
I have no idea how to express what point-set topology is as compared to other branches of topology
It’s like your bread and butter definitions
Plus separation axioms stuff I guess
algebraic topology is studying topological spaces using tools from algebra
pointset topology is what defines what a topological space is in the first place lel
pointset is very very bare bone
so you can't prove a lot using it alone
but it's the necessary formulation to do more advanced stuff
Algebraic topology is when homotopy and point set is when homeomorph
Real
Where from in India?
How is f a unit here?
C(X) is the ring of all real valued continous function on X where X is compact hausdorff.
if it doesn't vanish anywhere then you can define its inverse by 1/f(x) if it's real valued functions
more of a wild guess, i'm missing a bit of context here
Indeed smth is a unit iff it vanishes nowhere ig
Why can't the kernel be trivial in c?
what's gamma_g
conjugation
because if kernel is trivial then the map is injective. so |G| will divide |S_X|, i.e. 72 divides 4! = 24

Hello
I was wondering about something
Now for an inteval A to be called a group it should have a law ◇ that is :
- ◇ is associative
- ◇ admits a neutral element
- all elements from A are symetrisable by ◇
• if ◇ is commutative then (A,◇) is a commutative group
(Sorry if my terminology is bad I don't know how to say most of these terms in english)
•Now my question is
Does A have to be 'stable' with ◇ for it to be a group?
Like : ∀ x,y ∈ A , x◇y ∈ A
Like for example the interval 'N' isn't stable with the law '-', etc
• since all elements should be symetrisable, meaning symetrisable from the left and the right
x ◇ x' = e
x' ◇ x = e
Doesn't that mean that ◇ is commutative? Or is it possible for x to be symetrisable from both left and right while the law is not commutative??
Thank you for anyone who's gonna answer
'stable' is usually called the closure property in english
we say A is closed under the operation
Oh thank you
I'll remember that 🙏🏼🙏🏼
but people don't write that in the definition because that's already included in the definition of what it means to be a operation
when you say, ◇ is a binary operation on A, what you really mean is a function
(◇) : A x A --> A
where we write a ◇ b := (◇)(a, b)
But - is an operation and while R is closed under - , N isn't
Doesn't that make it not an operation?..
so you see the target is assumed to be A already
yea so - isn't a binary operation on N
btw a commutative group is usually called an abelian group
you would only talk about closure under some operation if it's already defined in some bigger set
like if you see the different conditions for H to be a subgroup of G
one requirement is that H is closed under the operation
which is needed because we use the operation of G to get something on H
Oh
I understand....
Alright that cleared things up thank you 🙏🏼
Thanks !!
i.e. you use the inclusion map H --> G and use the operation on G to get H x H --> G x G --> G
Alright I get that part
But what about the neuter element
Isn't having a neuter element from both left and right makes it commutative/abelian ?
(neutral element)
Oh
Thanks again
yes we want the element e to be both left and right identity
and inverses should also be left and right inverses
Wait no
Not the neutral element
sorry i mistaken
I meant the symmetrical element
The element that :
x ◇ the symmetrical = the neutral element
people put this in the definition because that's how they think about it, it's enough to ask that there is an element e such that e * x = x for all x and for each x an element x' such that x' * x = e. it requires a little bit of work to prove this is equivalent and is a little boring
Should the symmetrical be both from left and right?
yep
you want x to commute with its powers
x^m * x^n = x^{m+n} = x^{n+m} = x^n * x^m
but two arbitrary elements in your group may not satisfy that x * y = y * x
Ok but if it was symetrisable from both sides
Doesn't this make it abelian ?..
nope, it's only abelian if that is true for all pairs of elements, not just the very special pairs (x, x')
$E_o$ is supposed to be a subset of an unknown extension field $\hat{E}$ acquired by evaluating all polynomials of degree less than that of a known irreducible polynomial $f(x)$ at a point $\alpha$. Is this proof basically saying that since $F(\beta)$ and $F'(\beta')$ mimic $n$-dimensional vector spaces over $F$, they're naturally isomorphic to $E_o$?
This is from Emil Artin's Galois Theory book
Manifold
Ummm so it have to be commutative for the pair x x' but not with other pairs?
also, sidenote - why does homological algebra go here and not in #algebraic-geometry? aren't homological and commutative very heavily tied or something?
yes x and x^-1 commute but not necessarily everything
yep
are you french by any chance?
Ah thank youuu guys
I understand it now
That was kind of you
I am
🫂🫂🫂
aww 
how did you guys just recognise that both of yall were french? ahahah
yep looks like it
Probably terminology?..
ye
translating terminology can be messed up at times
je vois je vois
a monic polynomial is called normed in german
such a weird terminology
like
"l'inverse" is a french word too
just use that ffs
if you call the inverse the symmetric element then how tf do you talk about S_n
inverse group on n letters
Admittedly, "symmetric group" isn't a great name
😂

general linears on the field with one element
just "groupe symétrique" lmao
ah, was worried I didn't get it lol - thanks!
symmetry group
but you really need to prove that they are isomorphic as fields, not just vector spaces
usually people would prove this
E iso to F[x]/(f)
that was proved earlier in the chapter
first he considers a known field extension and element of interest and then looks at a subset of polynomials (degree less than that of the irreducible corresponding to the element) then shows it's isomorphic to starting with the ambient field and extending it using the same irreducible
oh okie
automorphism group on n elements
.<
Aut(X) with X being a set is correct
tldr
I will use the gosh darn permutation matrices
Permutation group refers to all groups actually
I did! it's in set!!
Every group is (isomorphic to) a permutation group
what's a permutation group
the category of categories
you only told me the object is set 
a group of permutations
A group consisting of permutations
ah

jinx
permutation group is a subgroup of symmetric group
how could the morphisms not be in Set if their codomain and domain are in Set 
lol
beat you to it
don't see what tin has to do with this
beat me? I only confirmed what you was confused about
subcategory of set with only identity functions 😂
The monoid of all functions A->A is called the full transformation monoid. Maybe then a more consistent name would then be the "full transformation group" :) but ofc in the case that A is infinite, we may not want to consider all bijections
full transformation semigroup
my favourite!! 
is used more often tbh
I've only every seen it called a monoid 🤷
no, go on like wikipedia
pretty sure they mention it there
it's a monoid, yes, but they still call it semigroup more often than not
everyone can edit wikipedia
Yup
you don't need abelian uwu
I get that the idea is to repeated take quotients of elements with a prime order
cauchy theorem yea
lel
that's 2 chapters from now
yea
if you find p, stop
till you get an element with the order you want
else keep looking in the quotient
then bring this back to an element of order p in your original group
my hot take is that there's really no reason to study monoids any more than it is to study semigroups
the identity only becomes relevant when we're doing ring theory or group theory
what about monoid ring >.<
Since f is irreducible (but with its root 's' in E), and the polynomials are a factorial ring with maximal ideals corresponding to irreducible polynomials, F[x]/(f) would be a field by applying Bezout's Lemma, and the homomorphism from F[x]/(f) to E given by evaluating polynomials in the latter at the root is an isomorphism
Is that how what you said would work?
but studying both seems pretty useless if unless you're studying them for studying sake
you act ring on abelian groups
I want ring on set
like you act groups on anything because Aut_{C}(A) is alwasy a groups
you can act ring on abelian groups because End(A) would be ring
yeah, so that's what I'm a bit hazy on
How would this action behave wrt addition in the ring? If it has no bearing, you're just talking about monoid actions.
so I was thinking like a module but the underlying abelian group is just a set
so no adding moduli
So you're just talking about a monoid action
It is an interesting question to ask what monoids can also have a ring structure, but I doubt there is a nice characterisation
my idea is if your element is h and the last quotient was by <k> (which has order q) then h^p<k>=<k> then either h^p=1 or it's an element of <k> which means h^p has order q which mean h^q has order p
does that make sense? 
It does to me, DarQ
h^p could already be identity but yep
h^q will still have order p, as q is a different than p
I did mention that
Guys
The proof of characterization of all finite simple groups is in the internet as pdf?
And sorry for my English ( I'm Latin)
Mmm idk if it's the proof that I looking for, the ten thousand page proof
Or so they say
I think the “10k pages” was over many papers, not just a single one
This book compiles them all I think though https://books.google.lk/books?id=lYMAg_Sj7hUC&printsec=frontcover&dq=finite+simple+groups&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiJqr2Yl6T8AhXa1XMBHYbFC4sQ6AF6BAgCEAI#v=onepage&q=finite simple groups&f=false
Really, I thought it was just about the proof
whole 10 thousand pages?
in a single book?
oh no, i just mean it compiles all the knowledge needed to classify them
Thanks you, I'll save this link for later
And even so is too much
latin?
Probably means "American with Spanish as their first language".
Usually that's said as "Latino/Latina" in US English, but if they feel insecure enough about their English to apologize for it, they might reasonably have assumed that the word would lose the gender ending in English.
how is the notation MR_S meant to be understood? is it meant to be the same as the product of ideals, i.e. MR_S is the set of sums of products of elements of M and R_S?
$MR_S$ means the set of all products of elements of $M$ and $R_S$, where $R_S$ means all the fractions that can be built using $R$ and $S$. The exercise is asking you to show that the fractions you can make using the ideal and $S$ are the same as the product of all ideal elements and ring fractions.
Manifold
So $MR_S={\frac ms|m\in M,s\in S}$?
Ocean Man
So MR_S happens to be the set of all products of M and R_S, but generally speaking, if R is a ring and X,Y are some subsets, then XY is the set of all sums of products, right (it's just in this case the sums can all be brought to the same denominator)?
Just to make sure I understand the conventions correctly.
as far as I'm aware, XY just means the set of products and not necessarily sums
sometimes they end up encapsulating sums but as far as notation goes that's the safest bet
To be a bit more precise,
$R \times S$ is the set of all pairs of elements of $R$ and $S$
Now, what we do is quotient $R \times S$ by an equivalence relation --- we want these to behave exactly like fractions, so we'll say that $(r, s), (r', s') \in R \times S$ are equal iff there is some $u \in S$ s.t. $u(rs' - r's) = 0$. The equivalence classes in this quotient are the fractions we meant, so $R_S := (R \times S) \slash \sim$
$MR_S$ is then ${m \frac{r}{s} : m \in M, r \in R, s \in S}$ and $M_S := {\frac{m}{s} : m \in M, s \in S}$
Manifold
you'll need to show these are equivalent
I'm guessing setting up a bijection should do
What are, MR_S and M_S? They're equal considered as subsets of the fraction field of R (the context here is domains).
they ought to be the sets defined above
$MR_S$ is the product of elements of $M$ and fractions, $M_S$ are the fractions with $M$ as the numerator
Manifold
The "what are?" was directed to this (these are equivalent).
I don't think that's necessary
They're clearly the same thing in the quotient field.
Where R and R_S are embedded.
I mean there's no question of "equivalence", they're just equal, plain and simple.
yeah definitely
okay, wait, no, dang it I've misread the question
yeah $M_S$ is just defined as $MR_S$
Manifold
my bad for probably being confusing
Yeah my question was just how to interpret MR_S
I still think the general definition (for all manner of subsets) ought to be about sums of products (e.g. IJ would not be an ideal if it were just products), it's just in such cases it defaults to products because of the absorption of sums by one of the factors.
wait, but what about $(2)$ and $(3)$ in $\mathbb{Z}$
Manifold
That's a PID, things are ultra-simple there.
you get $(2)(3) = (6)$, but $(2) + (3) = Z$
Manifold
You mean (2)(3) should be interpreted as the set of products?
that's what it means when you usually state it like that
I'm 100% sure that for ideals my definition is the correct one (don't know about general subsets).
Open any textbook on algebra.
the ideal generated by products
that's the same thing as the set of all sums of such products
What you said is literally refuted in the line below
"Note that just the set of products would in general not be an ideal".
We are in agreement?
All good, discourse is fun (usually).
indeed
uh bruh
I wanted to send this
in response to this
like they are trying to make the whole proof "accesible". But idk if anyone cares tbh haha
what does adding up ideals mean??
but IJ is not {ij} 
It is if I or J = 0 or (1)
And that’s what matters most

could I run a proof by you guys

MyMathYourMath
then
MyMathYourMath
But then
Yee
Yee
cool
You might have already proven this tho
Without realizing it
If you have proven that subgroups of G/K are the same as subgroups of G which contain K and that it sends normal subgroups to normal subgroups
You can replace H with G/K by the first iso
And then this tells you that N is normal because N/K is
😮
woah, i just brute forced it lol
So eventually you have to brute force it
Because proving that the correspondence of like subgroups of G/K and subgroups of G containing K
Showing that this sends normal to normal
also if you wanna brute force, then use maps :p
N is the kernel of G --> H --> H/phi(N)
Requires you to brute force
True af
Very very true
When is the cartesian product not the same thing as the direct sum of two structures
Im confused after looking this up online
Uh well whether it is the same depends on context ig
I guess ill see a case where its differnt when i need to
The main case is groups in general
I don't think this ever happens for two structures, but for infinitely many it does.
Wouldnt the cartesian product of two groups always be a group if you define multiplication component wise
i think its the same for finite
yes
most of the algebraic structures you study in the start are just enrichment of sets, and in particular the forgetful functor happens to be a right adjoint functor (the left adjoint being the free functor). Now since forgetful is right adjoint it preserves products, so the underlying set of a product will be product of the underlying sets
In the category Set
if by "direct sum" you mean "coproduct" ofc :)
I dont think i know enough to understnd this yet but thanks
Im just starting to learn about category theory so hopefully i can learn about that soon
oh so basically if there is a notion of free objects, like free groups, free R-algebras, free monoids, free modules, then you'll have that the cartesian product naturally has the enriched structure
Another answer is "when you don't just have two structures but an infinite family of them".
Oh and this isnt necessarily true for whatever a "not free" object is
Ok
Even though this is true, I think it might be missing the mark a bit, since the question said "direct sum" rather than "product".
Hm
nu, having free objects would mean that looking at the underlying set of an object has some really nice properties, one such is that it preserves products
i understand how these are different things for vector spaces but not groups
or rings
mainly cause i dont know as much about abstract algebra
Whats wrong with having infinitely many that creates a difference
There's nothing wrong, but you get two different possible results. One is just the cartesian product of the familiy; that is usually known as the "product" of the structures. The other also starts with the cartesian product, but then discards all the elements that have nonzero values at infinitely many of the positions. This is called the "direct sum"; it is the smallest structure that each of the original structures inject into (such that the injections are, in a technically precise sense, independent from each other).
Sorry wrong was the ironically wrong word
I see, so its about the way the direct sum is defined over an infinite collection
Yes.
By definition you don't include anything thats nonzero for more than finitely many "places"
but in a cartesian product you would include that because it is every imaginable (ordered) combination of things from each of the infinitely many objects
Yes.
it is the smallest structure that each of the original structures inject into
(this is only true if all the operations of the the algebraic structures you're considering are commutative, by the way. Otherwise this characterization calls for a "free product", which is a much more hairy beast).
Does that have something in common with the idea that a linear combination in an infinite dimensional vector space must be zero ** for all but finitely many dimensions?
because the idea of an infnite sum is weird?
Yes, exactly. In the case of vector spaces or modules, a direct sum consists of linear combinations of everything from the incoming structures.
Got it, thats pretty cool
You may be interested in that
Thanks for sharing that
i read it but after i saw the accepted answer and didnt understand a lot of the words they used i closed the tab. now i see that the 2nd answer is understandable for me
Its very useful to look at diagrams
I saw the word categories in the first and assumed i wouldnt get it.. but now i see it makes sense lol
i agree, but i also find making visualizations for a lot of these things can be hard
especially when infinity is at play
To see that it's independent, suppose you have another set of coset representatives y_1, ..., y_m. Then you can write y_i = x_i h_i for some h_i in H. Substituting these into the product gives you something that should look nice, but in the end you will need to use the fact that H is abelian to cancel out relevant terms
<@&268886789983436800>
For homomorphism– I assume you showed that $x_{\overline{g}(i)}^{-1}gx_i\in H$. To show that
$$T(g_1g_2)=T(g_1)T(g_2)$$ think about rearranging to get the $x_{\overline{g}(i)}^{-1}$ and $x_i$'s to cancel out (since $H$ is abelian)
pramana
Yeah, something like that sounds right
I meant you could rearrange the $x_{\overline{g}(i)}^{-1}gx_i$'s
pramana
since those are guaranteed to be in H
transfer is cool
ive never heard of it, yeah that's sick
it's actually a specific case of a more general map in group (co)homology
you'll notice that all the above constructions carry through even if H isn't abelian by just replacing H with its abelianization
In group homology you learn that the first homology of a group is its abelianization, so transfer is just the composition G -> H_1(G) -> H_1(H). In particular, you need H to be a finite index subgroup for the latter map to exist
Is H_0 the group itself
H_0 is the coinvariants
Actually idk
M / (gm - m)
Chmonkey
or just tensor with Z over ZG

but really the way to think of it is as the first homology of a K(G, 1)
True
because then just use Hurewicz
you don't know why hurewicz is a thing?
Why homotopy groups of K(G,1) are group chohomolgoy
homology groups
homotopy groups of K(G, 1) is just G in degree 1 and 0 otherwise lol
But yeah, universal cover of K(G, 1) is contractible, right?
because it's simply connected and higher homotopy groups are the same as higher homotopy groups of K(G, 1)
Real
But yeah, the cellular chain groups of the universal cover are free ZG-modules
which kinda just follows from the cell structure on the universal cover
so you have a free ZG-resolution of Z
Walter dropping the group cochmology knowledge
when you mod out by the action of G, that's the same as tensoring with Z over ZG
call the universal cover X

But EG/G is just K(G, 1)
so you recover the homology of the group
oops I guess I should've defined the group homology to be Tor^{ZG}(Z, M)
Waltermology
real
but yeah, homology is derived functor of coinvariants, cohomology is derived functor of invariants
and it all agrees with singular homology and cohomology of K(G, 1)
I am very glad that I actually understand this stuff enough to talk about it lol
Alright
Let's do some of that algebra
@sturdy marsh get in here. Not sure why but do it
So first off
Gonna understand restriction/extension of scalars for linear algebraic groups
Sloth King Daminark
Now schemes go the opposite way
Sloth King Daminark
This is a set-valued functor, but the question is, is it representable by Spec of some k-algebra?
Wellllllll
Sometimes
If k'/k is a finite degree field extension, or more generally k'/k is finite and locally free
Sloth King Daminark
Mf decides to use the algebra channel, not the AG channel for this
Sloth King Daminark
This... doesn't look right
It’s maps A -> R’ over k
Yeah that's what I expect
I'm just trying to get there from hom tensor adjunction but I think I fucked up
Oh
Lol
Yeah so I was thinking k-algebra homs had to be ring homs for a sec
In the sense of
F(1) = 1
And I was like
How the fuck is this hom space not trivial
Oh oh
You have to trace out the isomorphisms there which are only true as k’-modules and see they’re actually multiplicative
Gotcha
Sloth King Daminark
So an example is the Deligne torus
Sloth King Daminark
for groups(and for rings and abelian rings) we have one for each positive integer
Isnt that false for fields though? i.e. arent there positive integers such that there is no finite field of that cardinality?
Sloth King Daminark
Yes, there’s exaxtlt one field for every prime power
That’s all of them
so 6 is the first one without a field?
Sloth King Daminark
And 1 haha
ig but i prefer the field axioms without the 1≠0 constraint
haha
Here’s a quick and dirty proof that each finite field has to have order a prime power.
The map Z -> F has kernel a prime number. So F contains some Z/pZ, and is then a vector space over Z/pZ, so it has order p^n
is this like a version of the fundemental homomorphism theorem for rings?
It’s the first isomorphism theorem yeah
oh okay
You can also see it like this:
A finite field has prime characteristic
So like, let n = 1 + … + 1 n times
First off, n = 0 for some n > 0
Or else it’s infinite
Then n has to be prime, cuz if not you’d have like n’n’’ = n = 0
Where n’,n’’ < n so they’re non-zero
But then it’s not a field cuz zero divisors
So p = 0 for some p
whats n' and n'' here?
Then the set {0,…,p-1} is isomorphic to Z/pZ as a field
(I'll move to #algebraic-geometry)
Just factors of n
If n wasn’t prime
So this is a proof that F contains Z/pZ without first iso
sorry to interrupt. i have a stupid question. if you have something like x^(ak)y^(bk) in something like the dihedral group, is there some way to simplify that/make it look nicer, since the powers have a common factor of k? i have an ugly expression, and it'd be nice to condense it a bit.
Unless you have a relation that lets you do it, no
$x^{m_0(1-n)}(sx)^{(m_1-d_1)(1-n)}$ in $D_n$ (where $n$ is odd)
nilpotent nix
rip
For the dihedral group
Yeah I don’t think there’s a great one
Like you can reverse them
And pick up an inverse somewhere
Assuming like x is rotation, y is a flip let’s say
But there’s not a great way to like combine it and condense it
Afaict
i had some hope that maybe because the common power was 1-n, then maybe we could do something special
but i guess it'll just have to be ugly lol 😆
thanks anyway haha
it'd be cool if you made that render as latex
How can I show the inclusion $(MN)^{-1}\subset M^{-1}N^{-1}$ for (finitely-generated) fractional ideals $M,N$? I was thinking something along the lines of: if $M$ is generated by ${x_i}$ and $N$ by ${y_j}$, then ${x_iy_j}$ generate $MN$, so if $z$ is such that $zMN\subset R$, we get that $zx_i\in N^{-1}$ for all $i$ and $zy_j\in M^{-1}$ for all $j$. Now I'd be done if I could express $z$ as a sum of products of these somehow, but this I can't figure out.
Ocean Man
This is not the right channel for this question. You're looking for #prealg-and-algebra. I'll say that although you don't need the part where you take square roots, your working is correct.
Oh sorry I missed used the channel (since the subject I was aolving is algebra..)
+thank you :)
Anyone?
Actually I have a solution for when the base ring $R$ is a Dedekind domain, but I feel like $(MN)^{-1}=M^{-1}N^{-1}$ should hold for all integral domains (if only because the exercise shows up in the text before the prime decomposition of fractional ideals is proven).
Here's my solution for $R$ a DD: as mentioned above, if $z\in(MN)^{-1}$ and ${x_i}$ generate $M$, then $zx_i\in N^{-1}$. Because all fractional ideals over a DD are invertible we have $R=MM^{-1}$, in particular $1=\sum_k\mu_k\widetilde{\mu}_k$ where $\mu_k\in M,\widetilde{\mu}_k\in M^{-1}$. Rewriting this in terms of $x_i$ you get $1=\sum_ix_i\widetilde{\mu}_i$ (for some other $\widetilde{\mu}_i\in M^{-1}$), so $z=\sum_izx_i\widetilde{\mu}_i\in N^{-1}M^{-1}$.
Does this look right?
Ocean Man
Are there any infinite torsion groups?
Q/Z is one.
if you're familiar with C, the roots of unity in there is a nice example
So is any infinite product of finite cyclic groups.
But the set of the nth roots of unity only make finite groups no?
yes, but they're talking about all the roots of unity
Prufer groups
Oh
"All the roots of unity" is coincidentally isomorphic to Q/Z.
I sorta hesitated to say it because of that haha
Oh
Ooooh
I think ik why
why doesn't A iso B and B iso C imply A iso C?
it does imply that, illum
Q/Z and R/Z are both isomorphic to the unit circle but Q/Z isn't isomorphic to R/Z
Uhhhh
what is 'the unit circle'
Q/Z is not isomorphic to the unit circle
multiplicative group of roots of unity
that is not the unit circle
"roots of unity" here is the rational roots
ah
e.g. not everything on the unit circle is algebraic ig
order 2pi 🤓 (jk)
@elder wave shut
it is discussion
ok now prove A iso B and B iso C imply A iso C
function composition of the isomorphisms
Does this look right and does anyone know how to prove this for general domains (or whether it holds at all)?
proof looks good to me
Aluffi claims that there are 7^4 set-functions from C4 to C7 (where C is the cyclic group), but there are only 7^3 group homomorphisms (because the homomorphism has to map identity to identity)
but where did they get 7^3
ty
This is definitely not true
There’s no group homomorphisms C4 to C7
Besides the trivial one
It says that alone rules out all but 7^3
Lmfao
aluffi high?
i proved this with a budddy btw
there are 7 choose 4 set functions
if thats wut u meant
no
im high
Aluffi 
show that if f is an endomorphism (E->E) whose characteristic polynomial is irreducible over E which is a sub field of C, then rank(fg-gf)!=1 for all g
the only groups of order 21 are Z21 and Z3 x Z7 yes?
yes
google shows semidirect product for the latter
so do I have to use that
because also by crt Z3 cartesian product Z7 iso Z21
oh, sorry, it should be the semi-direct product
Maybe you already know but like if a group has order pq where p > q and q doesn't divide p-1, it's cyclic and otherwise it's either cyclic or a specific semidirect product which you can find in general lol
Z_21 is isomorphic to Z_3 x Z_7.
the outer semidirect product is always wrt some group homomorphism A -> Aut(B), no?
Look at all morphisms from Z7 to Aut(Z3)
You’ll see there are only two possibilities for the induced semidirect products
Aut(Z3) has two elements id and x -> x^2
so Z7 -> Aut(Z3) is either x -> (x -> x) or x -> (x -> x^2)?
By x^2 I assume you mean 2x
That’s not an automorphism since 2 and 1 are sent to the same element
You’re working in Z3 with addition
But I think that’s what you mean anyways
Im having doubts on this semidirect product business though : Aut(Z_3) is isomorphic to Z_2 and the only morphism from Z_7 to Z_2 is trivial
You should be doing Z7 semidirect Z3
There are clearly non trivial ones here
yeah ok
You also have to argue why Z_7 is normal in the group of order 21
this is a necessary condition for a semidirect product
isn't that for the inner semidirect product?
Lol
That's for all semidirect products
The inner and outer semidirect product produce the same result!
my lecture script says:
Let H and N be groups and theta : H -> Aut(N) a group homomorphism. Then (N x H, *_theta) with (n_1, h_1) *_theta (n_2, h_2) = (n_1theta(h_1)(n_2), h_1h_2) will be a group. We denote N x H with this group structure as N semidirect_theta H. In this case we call G = N semidirect_theta H the outer semidirect product
OK let me make my point clear
If G is the inner semidirect product of N and H, then it is isomorphic to an outer semidirect product N x_phi H with some phi. Similarly, if N x_phi H is some outer semidirect product, then setting G = N x_phi H, we have G is the inner semidirect product of N x {1} and {1} x H.
So they are the same.
In normal parlance, we don't even use the words "inner" and "outer".
Now your task is to find all groups of order 21. If you want to find them via semidirect products, you must first show that they are a semidirect product in the first place. For this end you must show in particular that Z_7 is a normal subgroup in every case.
Elaborating on this further: not only are they isomorphic as groups, but they are isomorphic as group extensions, which is to say that the isomorphism preserves the normal subgroup N and the quotient H in a nice way. In fact, semidirect products characterise special extensions called 'split' extensions.
ah ok
isn't another requirement that N and H are disjoint
as in
$N \cap H = \Set{e}$
rectangle cube
but $\bZ_3 \cap \bZ_7 = \bZ_3$?
rectangle cube
or wait
no
wait
I'm confused
elements of Z3 are 0 + 3Z, 1 + 3Z, 2 + 3Z
elements of Z7 are 0 + 7Z, ..., 6 + 7Z
Uhhh
They aren't subsets of one another like
(This doesn't make sense algebraically ig, you'd just get the empty set)
But
If a group G has subgroups of order 3 and 7, then their intersection is trivial
Think about why
they are both cyclic so every element has order 3 bzw 7
and an element of order 3 cannot be an element of order 7
(not taking the identity into account)
how would I show that Z7 or Z3 is normal in Z21
Sylow theorems
ah because the 7-sylow group is unique
(or just subgroups of abelian groups are normal)
lmao
Well also like
If p is smallest prime dividing order of G then any subgroup of index p is normal
Oh I didn't see you said Z21
or use that Z21 is nilpotent group, so is a direct product of its sylow subgroups
Bumping this because I think I solved it using linear algebra (assume rank 1; eigenvector implies commutator is scalar; etc.) but I feel someone more familiar with abstract algebra can use galois theory to solve this
endomorphism over what?
its an endomorphism over a subfield of the complex numbers
but nvm idc about the quest
End_E(E)?
endomorphism of E, where E is a subfield of C
You could also use your classification from earlier
yeah it doesnt matter, its way above my level
i thought i was supposed to know
but turns out we didnt do it in class
Ok fine ill review galois theory and try to find the solution w/ it
Yeah its actually really simple you just need galois theory to justify some roots things to formalize the argument i gave above
Kind of lame thought itd be something sick
okie need help with some homological alg
ik it shouldn't be hard to verify but idk how to show that you can find an injective resolution of any bounded below complex A* --> E*, in the sense that this cochain map is a quasi-isomorphism
If I'm not mistaken, Aluffi does this explicitly for projective resolutions somewhere in chapter 9
i never fully read the last chapter of aluffi 
It's ok, me neither
I actually quite like most of it up to section 8. I never finished double complexes because I got scared
But now I think I am prepared :)
Yeah, that's the one
Took me a long time to work through this proof, and I've probably forgotten how it works by now
i think i just want the existence, the stuff about uniqueness upto homotopy equivalence i think follows easily from stuff i've proven
I would think that there are alternate constructions using mapping cones or something, but I don't know of any explicit references off the top of my head
Just inductively building the map so that the mapping cone is exact sounds reasonable
i don't have much intuition about the mapping cone, but the algebra with it is always so clean 
thanks walter 
How can I prove that the Hurwitz quaternions are a maximal Z-order in the real quaternions? I would suppose O is an order containing the Hurwitz quaternions and aim to prove that it is equal. Does anyone have any ideas?
I'm looking for a more algebraic proof, not really analysis
aluffi's proof is a little tricky, but super clean even without using any mapping cones. it's tricky because it sets up a stronger induction hypothesis. we find a map A* --> E* such that at each degree it's a mono and moreover the map between cokernels of the differential is also a mono.
yeah, I've just looked at it again and I think it makes more sense now
that's a neat proof
yea really neat, but hard to come up with :p
idk why aluffi does so much work for proving the uniqueness and lifting of morphism
there is a really cute argument for this you know
how does it go?
the idea is to not shy away from Hom-complex and mapping cone :3
so in an abelian category, say you have two complexes A and B, then define the complex Hom(A, B) in Ch(Ab) where nth degree thing is product of Hom(A^i, B^n+i) where i varies in Z
there is a simple way to define the differentials, and with that the Z^0 cocycles correspond to cochain maps, and B^0 coboundary corresponds to null-homotopic maps, so H^0(Hom(A, B)) = Hom_K(A, B)
where K is the homotopy category of your abelian category
once you have this Hom-complex the argument is very cute 
so by hand you first show that if C is bounded below and exact, and E is a complex of injective, then any f : C --> E is null-homotopic
using this you can easily prove that if A --> B is a q-iso between bounded below stuff and A --> E is a map to a complex of injectives, then you can find a unique map B --> E in K such that the obvious triangle commutes
so if C is the mapping cone of A --> B, then 0 --> B --> C --> A[1] --> 0 is exact. and moreover, it is split exact at each degree
therefore you can apply the functor Hom(-, E) : Ch(the abelian category) --> Ch(Ab)
since the thing is split exact at each degree, you get a short exact sequence
0 --> Hom(A[1], E) --> Hom(C, E) --> Hom(B, E) --> 0
now H^n(Hom(C, E)) = H^0(Hom(C, E[n])) = Hom_K(C, E[n]) and since C is bounded below exact and E[n] is a complex of injectives this is 0
so the middle term is acyclic
this gives you an iso
H^0(Hom(B, E)) --> H^1(Hom(A[1], E)) = H^1(Hom(A, E)[-1]) = H^0(Hom(A, E))
and so the map
Hom_K(B, E) --> Hom_K(A, E)
given by composition with A --> B is an iso 
that is very neat 
now i am actually very confused why aluffi proves uniqueness the way he does lol
like this gives all the stuff so quickly
both the uniqueness and the lifting
i've seen people show some horseshoe lemma
but that's not needed at all with this
yeah this is a really cool way of showing lifting which is what tripped me up
Maybe I'm being silly, but I think uniqueness also follows from the second part of this exercise too
which can definitely be done by hand
or at least, I did it with some mapping cone stuff
but it seems like most of these proofs are simplified/illuminated by hom-complexes
mapping cones and hom-complexes are really op
out of curiosity, why are you looking at injective stuff?
because ag
not enough projectives 😵💫
yea >.<
also here the functor of interest is left exact
so we need injective resolution to compute the right derived functor
sheaf cohomology?
yea >.<
good luck lol
hehe :3
injectives are not so bad actually
at least the homological algebra is completely dual 
yeah, i guess that's nice
makes sense to reprove theorems using injective resolutions just for comfort
i was happy with injective once i was playing a little with cofree objects. now i wanna read more about them
so like if you have an abelian group A, then you get a surjection Z^(⊕Hom(Z, A)) = Z^(⊕A) --> A
similarly, you have a complete dual to this
if A is an abelian group, you have an injection A --> (Q/Z)^Hom(A, Q/Z)
where you send a --> (f(a))_f
the injectivity follows from Baer's criterion :3
if a is non-zero, then you can easily find f' : <a> --> Q/Z such that it doesn't send a to 0. now extend this to f : A --> Q/Z by injectivity of Q/Z
so this f shows that (g(a))_g is non-zero
oh yeah, i think i've read about this a little bit before
i think i discovered this in this channel lol, shamrock helped a lot 
or is this just necessary to show that module categories have enough injectives?
maybe i'm misremembering
yea once you show that Ab has enough injectives, it easily follows that R-mod has enough injectives as well
as co-inducing injectives gives injectives
Hom_Z(R, Q/Z) should be cofree R-module :3
for finite groups, projective ZG-modules are also injective lol
and group rings are all i think about these days
I don't think that's true
Take G=Z/1Z
Z isn't injective as a Z-module, right?
Yes
ah wait, yeah I misremembered
something about relative injectivity, i should brush up on the details
yeah, that's the context
but this showed up when constructing complete resolutions of Z over finite group rings
finite (group rings) or (finite group) rings?
(finite group) rings
like you can make these backwards resolutions 0 -> Z -> P_0 -> P_1 -> ... where each P_i is projective and finitely generated
so if you stitch this together with a normal projective resolution you can apply functors and take the cohomology of the whole thing
and that's how you get tate cohomology
Yeah remember reading something similar
Using coinduction to find acyclic resolution
Ok I haven't seen this
there's an extension of these ideas to infinite groups too called like farrell-tate cohomology or something
but idk that yet lol
Tate cohomology was like joining together the group cohomology and homology
And tweaking the 0th and 1st terms a bit
yeah, you have the norm map from the coinvariants to the invariants so you look at the kernel and cokernel of that
Yes
Also how do we get periodicity in tate cohomology when we are not in cyclic group case?
Like I saw certain non-cyclic groups showing periodicity in Tate cohomology
iirc the criterion is that every abelian subgroup is cyclic
you first prove it for p-groups and then show that every Sylow subgroup has periodic cohomology iff the group has periodic cohomology
and there's a criterion for groups where every abelian subgroup is cyclic, namely the Sylow subgroups are all cyclic or generalized quaternion groups
so really there aren't that many groups with periodic cohomology, which is kind of interesting
Oh I thought the sylow subgroups should should be all cyclic
Didn't know generalised quarternions also work
yeah, you can see that having every abelian subgroup be cyclic is equivalent to saying that the elementary abelian p-subgroups have rank <= 1. That is, the Sylow subgroups have unique subgroups of order p. The only groups satisfying this are cyclic and generalized quaternion (because everything about 2 has to be weird)
any ideas on how to prove this?
Can you do it if everything is a finite extension?
I don't see how
pramana
I don’t see why you’d ever have a polynomial in E
oh i wrote that wrong
If $f\in E$ and the minimal polynomial of $f$ in $F[x]$ is $p(x)$, and in $K[x]$ is $q(x)$, then showing that $p(x)\mid q(x)$ would finish the proof, but I'm not sure if that's true
pramana
how so?
The minimal polynomial of a divides any polynomial a is a root of
If x is an element of an integral domain R and I is an ideal of R such that x*I is principal, must I also be principal?
x = 0 
Let's say x is non-zero haha
yea in that case it should be principal
How do you prove this?
just do it by hand
say x*I = (y)
intuitively, you could guess that I is generated by something like y/x, so just try to formalize this
since y lives on the right, you can find i in I such that x*i = y
Then I is generated by i
now given any arbitrary element in I, say j then x*j lies in (y) so equals y*r,
xj = yr = (xi)r
canceling x (as it's non-zero) j = ir
so j in (i)
Great, thanks
Is the minimal polynomial of
$4 + 3i$ over $\mathbb{C}$ equal to $x - 3i + (2i)^2$?
Sapphire Gaming
That's just x - (4+3i)
Which is correct, yeah
Ah ok, thanks 🙂
woah so many sully reactions
make it 10 det
11 now uwu
im usually not first to sully, but when i do...
let $G$ be a group of order $40$. sylow $1$ and $3$ say that the $5-$sylow-subgroup exists and is unique. how does sylow $2$ tell us that this subgroup is normal in $G$?
$rectangle~cube$
All sylow 5-subgroups are conjugate. Since it is unique, what does this tell us about its conjugates?
it's conjugate to itself
Every subgroup is conjugate to itself. That means nothing.
A subgroup is normal if it is its only conjugate.
Do you see why?
wdym
What's the definition of a normal subgroup?
gNg^-1 = N for all g
So gNg^-1 is a conjugate of N. All conjugates are (by definition) of this form.
I'm not sure you actually need sylow 2 for this but maybe i'm being dumb
And it being = N means that all of the conjugates of N are just N
I.e. the only conjugate of N is itself
yeah but only for a specific g and not for all no?
No.
oh
That is for all g.
then I misinterpreted the theorem
Now let's look back at this: you have shown that there is only one sylow 5-subgroup
knowing that all sylow 5-subgroups are conjugate, what do you conclude?
idk what you want me to say
You want to know why the sylow 5-subgroup is normal
follow on from this argument to prove this
I don't think sylow 2 says anything about this
it's conjugate to itself so it's normal?
Again, every subgroup is conjugate to itself.
why
1N1^-1 = N.
Let me fill in the rest of this proof, then.
Let H be the unique Sylow 5-subgroup. Note that, for any g in G, gHg^-1 is also a maximal 5-subgroup, i.e., it is a Sylow 5-subgroup. Therefore it must be equal to H, since we know that H is the unique such subgroup. Hence gHg^-1 = H for all g in G.
adronsw is correct in saying that the 2nd Sylow theorem isn't really necessary here: we can actually infer it blindly from the fact there is a unique such group
yeah it's a bit of a red herring exercis
this was just me tryna make up an example to understand the 2nd sylow theorem
but that's what I was saying
it's conjugate to itself for every g
ah ok
so it's normal
You did not use this terminology
I'm a little frustrated by this
me too
sorry
so sylow 2 says that if H is a p-sylow-subgroup then gHg^-1 is also a p-sylow-subgroup for any g?
No, the 2nd theorem states that all Sylow p-subgroups are conjugate
could you put that into notation please
If H, H' are sylow p-subgroups then there is some g for which H' = gHg^-1
Note that, for any g in G, gHg^-1 is also a maximal 5-subgroup, i.e., it is a Sylow 5-subgroup.
why can we use "for any g in G" here
yes
In particular, it will send subgroups to subgroups
so we know that gHg^-1 is a subgroup of G.
Now we also know it is a p-subgroup, because it is an automorphism of G (in particular a bijection)
We can finally conclude that it is a maximal p-subgroup, since if there were a larger p-subgroup containing gHg^-1, it would contradict the maximality of H after conjugation
what's a maximal p-subgroup
That is the definition of a Sylow p-subgroup
A p-subgroup being maximal means there is no strictly larger p-subgroup containing it
It concerns me that you haven't seen these terms. What definition of a Sylow subgroup have you been referring to?
Let p be a prime. A group whose order is a power of p is called a p-group. Let G be a finite group, |G| = p^m k, m in N and p doesn't divide k. A subgroup whose order is p^m is called a p-sylow subgroup.
Right, OK. These definitions coincide once you've proven a particular theorem. Minor differences!
it would contradict the maximality of H after conjugation
can you elaborate on this pls
Suppose K is a larger p-subgroup containing gHg^-1. Then g^-1Kg contains H, which is contradictory.
why is it a contradiction
H is maximal
why is H maximal
That is the hypothesis
Are you asking why Sylow p-subgroups are maximal p-subgroups?
I only know that normal p-sylow subgroups are maximal p-subgroups
All Sylow p-subgroups are maximal. Try proving this.
Oh n.b.
maximal p-subgroups
Definitely not maximal subgroups haha
ah
H is the only subgroup of G whose order is |H|
gHg^-1 is also a subgroup of G
and |gHg^-1| = |H|
but because H is unique wrt its order it must follow that gHg^-1 = H
Yeah this is the proof we did above
There is a proof not assuming that H is unique wrt its order
yeah I was kinda confused about the maximality thing you were using
Yes, we were using different definitions
No worries
if $p$ doesn't divide $|Z(G)|$ and $p^m k = |Z(G)| + |C_1| + \ldots + |C_s|$ how does this imply that there must exist an $i$ such that $p$ doesn't divide $C_i$
$rectangle~cube$
if p divides every |C_i| and m >= 1, then the equation forces that p divides |Z(G)|
ah
because then you could factor out a p from the conjugacy classes
right
ok thanks
yee
why does $p^m$ divide $|Z(G)|$
$rectangle~cube$
in the context above
where p doesn't divide |Z(G)|?
how could p^m divide |Z(G)| with p not dividing |Z(G)|
by orbit stabilizer
left side is p^m k right side is something times Z_G(x)
the something isn't divided by p
oh wait yeah I got confused
mb
I was originally gonna ask about the second sentence where something with Z(G) was done but then I got it
Group actions yummy
I hate them
but you like galois theory
they feel unnatural to me
another question
Group actions are basically the main reason for considering groups
they are more natural than the groups themselves arguably in some cases
how does induction over |G| with this whole thing show that there exists a subgroup S subseteq Z_G(x) with |S| = p^m
what's an intuition behind group actions
for me they're just "group acts on a set"
which feels weird
I guess one point is that sets can come with certain symmetries, which can be encoded using a group
like
what is the induction step
and induction beginning
or whatever it's called in english
Do you need induction here? Isn't the hypothesis that p doesn't divide |Z(G)|?
I'm trying to understand the proof of sylow 1
so if |G| = 1, then it trivially contains Sylow subgroup
assuming it holds for all groups with order less than |G| = p^r m, you show that p^r divides the order of some proper subgroup of G
then the inductive hypothesis implies that said proper subgroup contains a p-Sylow subgroup, which must also be a subgroup of G
but if $S \subseteq Z_G(x) \subsetneq G$ then how can $S \subseteq G$
yes
but the centralizer of x is a proper subgroup of G
so how could S be the entire group G
we're not claiming that S is the entire group G




