#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 36 of 1
Yes, in the part where I conclude it divides |H|.
im unable to see the second black thing you sent lol
That's you quoting the first one!
I think that’s just your reply
i take it youve seen this problem before lol cause DAMN lol
Not that I remember -- but as you alluded to yourself, considering the quotient and the projection map into it is pretty much the automatic thing to do.
i got stuck after that part though on the exam and was running out of time
ohhhhhh
it also divided [G:N] thats what i was missing
and theyre corpime
thus it must be 1 if it divides both
very slick argument
are there any resources on why generating functions work to give helpful solutions to recurrence relations
because it seems like a miracle that they work
Isn't it more like you create a generating function based on the problem to be solved?
Like ordinary generating functions are pretty easy to motivate
I guess a general generating functions text is probably what you want
https://www2.math.upenn.edu/~wilf/DownldGF.html
@ruby sundial
no i know about this lol
the books pretty much goes over handbook methods of finding generating functions
but im asking from a more algebraic side why do these methods work
algebraic in what sense, like x^m * x^n = x^{m+n} sort of explains it all to me I think
I have a question regarding proposition 33 on quotients of graded rings. What type of multiplication do we use on the ring to the right? If I use componentwise multiplication I get that $(S_{i}/I_{i})(S_{j}/I_{j})=0$ when $i\neq j$ which can't be correct
GUNILLA62
You multiply it like in S
If you have the class of a homogeneous element s_i in S_i and s_j in S_j you send it to the class of s_is_j in S_i+j
The fact that this like, works, depends on I being a homogenous ideal
Okay, so we aren't using the usual (external) direct product multiplication?
Nah
That actually doesn’t even make sense
Because each S_i/I_i is only an abelian group!
🤯
Graded stuff are whacky
I didn't realise this at all
Thank you!

Mecejide
The Lie algebras of double covers are the same as the original Lie algebras for Lie groups over C, so I wouldn't expect it to magically happen in characteristic 2, but it might idk.
for ideals of a commutative ring is $(I+J)(I \cap J)=IJ$? I'm not asking for a proof since I'd like to prove it myself later; I'm just asking since it seems like this would be well known but possibly has some caveats, since it's essentially $\gcd(a,b)lcm(a,b)=ab$ in ideal form.
mOwOsity
Can someone help wiht some intuition on lie brackets
what properties does C have when AB-BA=C
i have dozens of questions on lie brackets in my textbook and they all seem very difficult cause i have no idea what it tells me
like if C=A then A is nilpotent, if C is diagonalizable and commutes with A and B then C is the zero matrix, if A is diagonalizable and C commutes with A and B then C is also the zero matrix, if C= aA+bB(a,b scalars) then A and B are simultaneously trigonalizable
Its false in general
cool thanks
it is interesting to ask when does that hold
it's true in Dedekind domains, that's really all I care about
at least, if I trust that random person saying so in the answer haha
but I'd be interested to know to what extent it holds outside of Dedekind domains too while I'm here thinking about it, good point
As a warmup: Do there exist matrices A and B such that AB-BA=I where I is the identity matrix?
no
tr(AB-BA)=0 while tr(I)!=0
nice
so tr(C) always =0
and ive seen the property that if tr(M)=0 for any matrix M, then there exist A,B such that M=AB-BA
with complicated proof. Not sure that would help
how do I show that Z2 actually is a subgroup of S3 without checking all of the elements and stuff? do I use cayley or something?
nu
find an element in S3 of order 2
that gives a map Z --> S3 sending 1 to that element of order 2, and kernel is exactly 2Z so this embeds Z/2Z --> S3
alternatively cayley's theorem
.<
it feels like this is the same problem as what they asked
oh so i didn't understand the question >.<
yee then it makes sense what DerpZ is saying >.<
Z/2Z --> S2 by cayley
and S2 --> S3 by permutations fixing 3 or something
can't I use cayley for Z3 too?
Z/3Z is iso to S2 no?
permutations on 2 elements is id and swap
yep
yeah
and in multiple ways if k > n
unless your definition of S_n is exactly the permutations on 1,2,...,n
why?
because then there is a canonical way to put S_n --> S_k
a permutation f is sent to the permutation which is f on {1, 2, ..., n} and identity on the rest of the elements {n+1, ..., k}
here i meant that there are multiple injective maps S_n --> S_k with different (but isomrophic) images
I thought with "unless..." you meant it's no longer possible to embed Sn lol
S_n has a bunch of subgroups isomorphic to isomorphic to S_k, but only one of them is the symmetry group of the set {1,...k} < {1,...,n}
but this is kind of an artificial thing to think about
yo, was there some follow up to the warm up
the questions of your textbook haha
they seem pretty nice tbh
what if char is p dividing size of the matrices?

I was thinking about that earlier, I think you can then use the trick [d/dx, x]=1 with a basis of p monomials to construct examples explicitly since as functions x^p=x lets you do it finitely
wdym?
Tr(I)=0 mod n
if I is nxn
just checking by hand earlier I found $A=\mqty{0&1\1&0}$ and $B=\mqty{0&1\0&0}$ works for $\mathbb{F}_2$ to make $AB-BA=I$
mOwOsity
yeah we're in R or C
tho nice
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
ive been thinking about this since morning
I am dying
i have the solutions BUT i dont want to look xd
cause it's useless if i have no strings to follow
if C commutes with A^2 and A diagonalizable
then does C commute with A?
what does commuting with a nilpotent matrix tell us?
only intuition I have about lie brackets is that the jacobian identity is written more intuitively like as if it's a product rule, think of the first term "distributing" to the other two terms:
[A,[B,C]] = [[A,B],C] + [B,[A,C]]
makes it feel more like a derivative
wait help me with that last part, how to do it finitely?
oh do you mean x^p = 1?
no, x^{p-1}=1 is fermat's little theorem but the problem is this is false for x=0. x^p = x for all x in F_p though
is that helpful in any way that is clear to you in the case of matrices?
ah okie, i was thinking like we're considering the group-algebra k[Z/pZ] and derivative makes sense on this
I dunno, I didn't work it out myself, I just figured taking the basis {1,x,...,x^{p-1}} and looking at what d/dx and x* as matrices would just work out since as functions x^p=x
there could be problems haha
thinking about it, seems like the derivatives will break, so maybe not
yea
but i think this still works
d/dx (x^n) = n * x^(n-1) and since we're in char p, value of n only matters mod p
so n = m (mod p) would mean the derivative of x^n and x^m are same
ah yeah I see, that sounds good
here x^(p+1) and x^2 are same as functions, but their derivatives are different
.<
I just need this and everything else is easy, if uv-vu= some linear combination of the 2, then they're simultaneously trigonalizable
it would be consistent with my p=2 example I found since 2*(2-1)= 2 hah
If theres any hope of finding intuition for this ill pay a million dollars
some day. when i have a net worth of 150 billion
my guess is most of this stuff is motivated by people doing things in physics
What can we say, in general, about the automorphism group of a group?
you can split it into the inner and outer parts
yeah, the outer automorphism group is the quotient of the automorphism group by the inner automorphism subgroup
idk, probably much more can be said, I'm no expert
Okk tell me if i am correct, after seperation of this equality we get u(a Id+v)=v(bid+u), which is a kind of commutativity that preserves the fact they are simultaneously trigonalizable right?????
because..... i am not sure
Can someone recall me why we wrote F-automorphisms of the rational funciton field F(x) as a 2x2 matrix in GL_2(F) ?
I mean, the fact that all automorphisms are of the form x --> (ax+b)/(cx+d) where ad-bc not zero is clear, but idk what notational advantages does looking at these automorphisms as matrices have
More specifically, why do we care about actions of a group on itself other than a source of examples
I GOT IT
And i am done
thanks discord
Conjugacy is a very fruitful way to analyse groups.
Uh I think the point is that its a homomorphism
It's actually in PGL_2(F)
You're right, it's just notational really.
It should be said that these things (Moebius transformations) occur naturally a lot
Why PGL? Like the determinant neednt be 1, just not zero, right?
Uhm wait I think I said nonsense
Ill check that later
Any element of the galois group fixed Delta iff it has even sign. Recall that the fixed field of G is exactly the base field, so Delta is in the fixed field iff all the elements in G are even
i.e. G is in An
What's this from, i.e. is this a set of notes available online?
if a nilpotent matrix commutes with a diagonalizable matrix that is not lambda id, is that nilpotent matrix the zero matrix
the zero matrix is nilpotent and commutes with everything
uhm wait this is definitions, idk if zero is considered nilpotent xD
no i mean is it necessarily the 0 matrix
0 is definitely nilpotent >.<
0 is nil
i am asking if a matrix is nilp, commutes with a diag that is different than lambda I, is it necessarily 0
and how to prove that
this is part of my unending journey of trying to understand what commutes with nilpotent matrices
i mean is it that hard to answer this :(((
ig the better question is "why care?" :p
lol. just a crucial insight in most exercises involving some kind of commuting matrix
Depends but it does it really matter?
Not at all, by Jordan decomposition every matrix (over an algebraically closed field or one whose minimal polynomial splits) decomposes into the sum of commuting diagonalizable and nilpotent parts. The diagonalizable part doesn't have to be the scaled identity and neither does the nilpotent part have to be 0.
looool
why sad?
cause i am nowhere near understanding what commutes with a nilpotent matrix
and ive been at it since morning
i think ocean man gave a really nice class of examples
when 2 nilpotent matrices commute?
and when a diagonalizable matrix commute with a nilpotent one
how to find the matrices that commute, diagonal and nilpotent one in the jordan decomposition
where it's D+N
convert to jordan canonical form, decompose there and change basis again?
i dont think that gives us the D and N that commute. at least most of the time it doesnt
it should tho
if A is any matrix, then you can find P such that PAP^-1 = J, now J = D + N where D and N commute and so A = P^-1DP + P^-1NP
clearly P^-1DP is diagonalizable, and P^-1NP is nilpotent
because changing the basis can't possibly do anything to some intrinsic property of an operator
iirc if x is any operator you can actually write the semi-simple part and nilpotent part as polynomials in x (with no constant term)
No problem!
Ok so you start off with a recurrence relation which is an equality formula that generates a sequence in the integers for example. How does it work to turn this object into an equality about power series
@ruby sundial that sorta stuff is covered in here
once you put the coefficients on a power series, then things like multiplying by x shifts the sequence on the power series, then you can start to interpret other things like multiplication of the series turns into convolution on the coefficients for instance.
Hi, I wanted to find the splitting field of $x^{8} + 11x^{4} + 24.$
I found that the splitting fields for the individual factors are $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{-3}, i)$, and $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{-8}, i)$.
I don’t know what to do from here.
Sapphire Gaming
not sure what you're doing but your polynomial is a quadratic in y=x^4, which means you should be able to get the roots pretty directly
how is this possible
The minimal poly of 1+cbrt 2+cbrt 4 is x^3-3x^2-3x-1, and it is not divisible by x^3-2
and like they are coprime
To be short, let a^4 = (-3) and b^4 = -8.
The splitting field must contain Q(a, b, i).
However, Q(a, b, i) splits already, because
- Q(a, i) is a splitting field of x^4 + 3 = 0 over Q.
- Q(a, b, i) is a splitting field of x^4 + 8 = 0 over Q(a, i)
maybe the wording just means "do these as two separate exercises", idk

The splitting field must contain Q(a, b, i).
how do you know it contains i?
In the integers mod 4 under addition, is 3 the inverse of 1?
No. 3 is the inverse of 3.
Oh, addition
My bad
Oh because he got Q(a, i) already.
In detail, whenever a is a solution of x^4 + 3 = 0, ai is a solution too, so we get ai / a = i in the field
You are right: it is 3
Thank you
Under multiplication it is different
Yes
My mistake for misreading
No problem :)
the inverse in that group is the number which you add to the element to get something equivalent to 0 mod 4, and 3+1 is equivalent to 0 mod 4
Agree. I think "the monic polynomial" in the text is misleading.
oh ok, I thought you were just reasoning immediately from the first line you wrote not what they put
Given an arbitrary polynomial p over a field F, how do you denote its galois group?
Something like Gal(p(x)/F) or simply Gal(p/F) ?
I don't think there's a consensus, I've seen John Milne denote it by G_p.
I think your Gal(p/F) notation is short and nice, but I've never seen that being used.
I found the proof a little too compact, did I fill in the details correctly?
If J is an ideal containing pR_p, then p is contained in J\cap R, but the only way the latter doesn't intersect R-p (from which would follow J=R) is if p=J\cap R and hence pR_p=J, i.e. pR_p is maximal. If M is any other maximal ideal, then M\cap R has to be contained in p (otherwise M wouldn't be proper), hence M=pR_p.
I see no issue in your proof.
BTW I spent a little time to understand p = J cap R -> p R_p = J,
which follows from the p R_p <= J and J <= p R_p, where the formal comes from the assumption.
pR_p=J because p=J\cap R and contraction/extension are inverses on (all) ideals of R_p, i.e. pR_p=(J\cap R)R_p=J.
That's more clear to me now. Thanks
yooooo question
hope youre still there
does this explain the fact that if fg-gf=f then f^ng-gf^n=nf^n
cause the right term looks suspiciously like a derivative
An is a subgroup Sn because its the kernel of the sgn homomorphism?
yep
oke
Nice reasoning. And therefore An is a normal subgroup, additionaly
yea
and you get an iso, Sn/An = Z/2Z
rectangle cube
like with $H = S_2$ and $\bL = \bQ(\alpha)$ where $\alpha = \sqrt[3]{7}\sqrt{-3}$
rectangle cube
(that's the splitting field of $x^3 - 7$ btw)
rectangle cube
so the definition is $\bL^H = \Set{x \in \bL | \sigma(x) = x ~ \forall \sigma \in H}$
rectangle cube
but like
wait
isn't it just everything in L except something that contains the roots?
so it's just the base field?
because that's what the automorphisms are supposed to fix?
which S2 is that?
the galois group is S3, so you need to tell me the exact copy of S2 you want
wdym
S3 has 3 subgroups isomorphic to S2
and the exact fixed field will depend on the this subgroup
umm
i mean
the subgroups generated by (12), (23) and (31) in S3 are all isomorphic to S2
won't the resulting fixed fields be isomorphic too
ah wait
I forgor about things like (12)
i don't think that's true
but i may be wrong
omw asking on mse to get downvoted into oblivion
but in any case, if you're doing galois theory you're interested in the actual lattice you get and not just intermediate fields upto isomorphism
MSE is an ego fest lol
for example, one copy of S2 in the galois group correponds to the complex conjguation
and the fix field is then just the intersection of your field with R
which is Q(cbrt(7))
there are certainly people like that there, but there's also a lot of people willing to help and give good answers
true
actual lattice?
yea the inclusion reversing bijection and stuff
what's a lattice
do you want me to give you an easy way to remember
yee
real values functions form a lattice
I mean a lattice doesn't have to have infinite joins and meets
but you don't always have that sup of two functions is a maximum
.
my homework wants me to find the intermediate fields tho 
The max of two functions is just their pointwise sup
But it's called a maximum in the lattice
Or join and meet whatever
yea exactly, you don't wanna just find it up to iso
source?
why
this is the lattice of intermediate fields
ah so like a diagram
and that's the subgroups thingy
I guess max and min are a bit confusing in this context ok
I did mean a least upper bound and a greatest lower boind
yea that makes more sense
I mean it makes sense to say max(f, g) where f, g are functions because we don't mean the literal maximum in the lattice of functions, but their pointwise maximum
but yeah it's a little confusing
yee
do you like my explanation
det
yea it's super nice 
so something like a galois extension with group Z/2Z x Z/4Z would give a counterexample
if you use Z/2Z x 0 then fixed field will have galois group the quotient Z/4Z
I just checked the isomorphism class of S2 in S3 lol
and if you use 0 x 2Z/4Z then the galois group of the fixed field will be Z/2Z x Z/2Z
{id, 12} and {id, 23} give different results
Q(cbrt(7)zeta_3^2) and Q(cbrt(7))
yea both are iso to Q[x]/(x^3-7)
oh
@rustic crown conjugate subgroups yield isomorphic fixed fields
Why is Z mod p with p being prime always a field
because elements invertible mod n are precisely the elements relatively prime to n
if p is a prime, then every non-zero element is relatively prime to p i.e. invertible
DarQ
nope
p = index of H = |G / H|
I confused index with order
I get the proof until the step of the last implication
How does the gcd for every a being 1 with p imply that there exists this multiplicative inverse x in the field?
fermat's little theorem
Thank you I’ll look that up
if a and p are coprime then a^(p - 1) = 1 (mod p)
I got how it works now
Sorry if I’m slow, but how does this give me the assurance that x is in the field
huh
gcd(a, b) = 1 implies there exist constants x, y such that xa+yb = 1
here xa+yp = 1, or modulo p, xa = 1 (mod p)
that is, a has a multiplicative inverse
Makes sense thanks a lot
I mean, Fermat's little theorem works, but imo you prove Fermat's little theorem using that set of non-zero elements is a group
and Lagrange theorem
so it might be a little loop here
the proof I have in mind is using euler's theorem
x = a^(p-2)
Euler's theorem is proven the same way
you guys are using a result that you prove using what you want to prove
is what I'm getting at
isn't that just looking at the cyclic subgroup generated by the element and lagrange?
You should use bezout’s lemma about integer combinations like blitz did
and how do you know it's a group?
that's the point
This is the lowest-tech way
There definitely are non group theoretic proofs of both Theorems
And you’ll need to use that like a billion more times during the course of a group theory course
Someone would have to provide me with one to convince me tbh.
I mean that if we want to do it step by step, then you'd have to also provide your proof of Fermat's little theorem that doesn't use group theory
but at that point we might as well go more basic
and use Bezout lemma
let $\bQ(\cbrt{7},\zeta_3)/\bQ$ be the splitting extension of $x^3 - 7$. I want to know the fixed field generated by $\Set{\operatorname{Id}, (12)}$. my basis is $\Set{1, \cbrt{7}, \cbrt{7}\zeta_3, \cbrt{7}\zeta_3^2, \zeta_3, \zeta_3^2}$. how would I know where $\sigma \coloneqq (12)$ sends $\cbrt{7}\zeta_3^2$ to? like if I number my roots: 1 = $\cbrt{7}$, 2 = $\cbrt{7}\zeta_3$, 3 = $\cbrt{7}\zeta_3^2$. then $\sigma(\cbrt{7}\zeta_3^2) = \sigma(\cbrt{7}\zeta_3)\sigma(\zeta_3) = \cbrt{7}\sigma(\zeta_3)$ but where does it send the $\zeta_3$ to?
rectangle cube
ah wait I think I got it
sigma(zeta_3) = 1/zeta_3
because sigma(cbrt(7)zeta_3) = sigma(cbrt(7))sigma(zeta_3) <=> sigma(zeta_3) = ... = 1/zeta_3
no this doesn't feel right
because then the fixed field would just be Q
1 -> 1
cbrt(7) -> cbrt(7)zeta_3
cbrt(7)zeta_3 -> cbrt(7)
cbrt(7)zeta_3^2 -> cbrt(7)/zeta_3
zeta_3 -> 1/zeta_3
zeta_3^2 -> 1/zeta_3^2
where's my mistake
The most basic would be to bypass Bezout and start all the way back from Euclid's lemma.
Fix a with 0 < a < p. When we take the remainder of dividing na/p for each n with 0 < n < p, we will never get 0 due to Euclid's lemma. But that means we never get the same remainder twice, because if na/p and ma/p have the same remainder, then |n-m|a would give a remainder of 0. By the pigeonhole principle, then, we must have gotten 1 as a remainder in one of the cases. Thus a, which was arbitrary, has a multiplicative inverse.
Can anybody explain this? The definition of DD this uses is "noetherian ring whose localisation at every prime is a DVR". First line is clear to me, that's a foregoing lemma. The proposition it refers to is how every ideal in a DVR is of the form (r^k) where r is the unique prime. An ideal of R_p/p^aR_p is an ideal of R_p containing p^aR_p and all ideals of R_p look like (r^k), but how does he get p/p^a from this?
What is "DD"?
Putting k=1, we know r^1 is the maximal ideal of R_p,
But since R_p is a local ring with the unique maximal ideal p R_p,
the unique prime ideal r you said is p R_p.
Therefore each ideal in the DVR R_p is p^k R_p for some k
ideal of R/p^a <---> ideal of R_p /p^a R_p <---> ideal of R_p which contains p^a R_p
<---> ideal with k >= a case
and for k >= a cases,
(R / p^a) / (R / p^k) = (p^k / p^a) = (p / p^a)^k
where the step in the middle is obtained by thinking R, p^k, p^a as R-algebras.
Dedekind domain, I forgot this book calls them "Dedekind rings".
My mistake- k <= a cases, I mean.
- Just to double-check, I assume p^kR_p=(pR_p)^k holds (for all localisations, not just with respect to a prime, i.e. for JR_S)?
- You're right, all ideals of R_p/p^aR_p are of the form p^kR_p/p^aR_p with k<=a, but how does this translate back to R/p^a?
-
in the set-theoretic level,
p^k R_p = {(a_1 * a_2 * ... * a_k) / s : each a_i in p and s is in (R - p)} = (p R_p)^k -
The translation I used:
ideal of R/p^a <---> ideal of R_p /p^a R_p <---> ideal of R_p which contains p^a R_p
the latter is "ideal of R / I <---> ideal of R containing I" in general, which is already clear.
The former you just asked is, thinking R, p^a and R_p as R-algebras,
(R_p) / (p^a R_p) = (R tensorprod R_p) / (p^a tensorprod R_p) = (R / p^a) tensorprod R_p
where the second equality holds since tensoring commutes with cokernel.
ideals of the left-hand side <---> R_p-subalgebra of the left-hand side
<---> R_p-subalgebra of the right-hand side
<---> R-subalgebra of the R / p^a (?!?!?!)
<---> ideal of R / p^a
The step (?!?!?!) in the middle is mysterious because,
tensoring does not preserve injectivity in general.
Perhaps we have to show this step is valid for our R_p,
but I guess lemma 3.11 in your capture already deal with it.
Is that right?
how do I show that every irreducible polynomial $f \in \bQ[x]$ has at max one root in $\bQ(\cbrt{2})$
rectangle cube
I have like no idea how to begin
can I have help with this?
I am so lost on what I should do
I'm not even convinced this theorem is true lel
which part?
there's only one question lel
I swear I proved a similar result for field extensions lol
hmm
maybe look at G -> Sym(left cosets of H), phi(x)(aH) = (xa)H?
this is 9.11 btw
Lemma 3.11 shows that R/p^a and R_p/p^aR_p are isomorphic.
Don't get 2) yet, probably have to stew on it a little.
Sorry, I'm not a native English user.
What is the meaning of "stew on it"?
My dictionary doesn't know the phrase...
probably "think about it"
thanks!
np :)
@warm wyvern does this help?
btw this one looks simple but tricky...
yeah
Perhaps you already derived a fact I did:
if dim ((splitting field of f) cap Q(cubic root of 2)) >= 2, then it is 3, so the latter field is a subfield
But I don't have any progress beyond it
why are we looking at the intersection?
I'll think about it tomorrow
I'm currently spent 
I just meant I need to think about it some more and absorb it, thanks for the answer.
My attempt is: (assuming the number of root >= 2)
- thinking of intersection, the splitting field of f contains Q(cubic root of 2) as its subfield
- therefore it contains the splitting field of of Q(cubic root of 2) as its subfield as well.
- hence it contains sqrt(3) * i
- x^2 + 3 = 0 is factorized in the splitting field of f
- ... somehow we get a contradiction
OK
I think... this question is too difficult to me.
Sorry, I quit.
lol dw
I think looking at the splitting field is a good idea though
so we gotta show that the splitting field is never Q(cbrt(2))
for an irreducible polynomial f of degree > 1
I see.
I think I got it?
ok so I think I have it for deg > 3
assume deg(f) > 3. because f is irreducible it must be separable because we're working over a char 0 field, therefore the galois group of the splitting field over Q has at least degree deg(f) (as we're permutating deg(f) roots). this implies that the degree of the extension is also at least deg(f) (because our extension is galois). however the degree of Q(cbrt(2))/Q is 3. therefore Q(cbrt(2)) cannot be the splitting field as that has at least degree 4 over Q
still on this?
yes
and for deg(f) = 2, deg(f) = 3 we can just check by calculation
multiply out etc
Did u try assuming 2 roots and constructing a factor that divides f
just an idea
does this look correct tho?
I am showing that for deg(f) > 3 the splitting field cannot be Q(cbrt(2))
😓
wait
I forgor my reasoning why that should show that it has at max one root in there
Q(cbrt2) is simply not splitting because it lives in R
wdym
K = Q(cbrt2) subset R
[K : Q] = 3
[split(xxx-2) : Q] = 6
xxx-2 has only 1 root in K. Adjoining either of the other 2 roots splits it.
Ok this works:
Try some algebraic manipulation with
f(a+bx+cxx) = f(d+ex+gxx) = 0
(x denoting cbrt 2)
Any hints on showing that any finite subgroup of PGL(2,Q) occurs as a Galois group over Q?
I really don't get this highlighted line from Dummit and Foote. It defines neither a bilinear binary operation (I think) nor a ring homomorphism f:R -> A mapping 1_R to 1_A such that the subring f(R) of A is contained in the center of A
The algebra structure mapping simply sends r in R to the map multiplication by R in Hom(M,M)
The line you highlighted is just defining the module operation on the right by the one already seen on the left if you will since algebras should have a module operation that can be used both on the left and right
Ah my basis is wrong
Hi guys
hello
where's the algebra
encrypted
ok here's one, $A$ is finitely generated module with $A \cong A\oplus A$, then show $A=0$
I do have a solution but I would like a different take
you could do it with some tiny ag language
think of A as a quasi-coherent sheaf on Spec R
if A is non-zero then it will be non-zero at some stalk (say p in Spec R)
so this basically reduces the problem to the case where your ring is now local
now if you go further to residue fields, you get that A_p/pA_p must be 0 as it's a k(p)-vector space isomorphic to its square
and by nakayama this means A_p = 0
i could remove the AG language if you wish
Finite dimensional vector space. This is really the only place you use the finite generation, right?
and nakayama
Ah right
It follows from the jacobson radical version right, cuz the radical is just the maximal ideal
yep
maybe i should also say that if R^n --> A is surjctive then at stalks, (R_p)^n --> A_p is still surjective
(can be seen by tensoring with the flat R-module R_p)
I think you could do this without reducing to the local case first? For any maximal ideal m you get that mA=A by the same reasoning when you quotient, then in particular you get the same result on the radical and apply nakayama
i was thinking that earlier but then wasn't sure how to get the jacobson radical working nicely
Hmm yea ok maybe you're right this isn't immediate
ig it was clear if there were finitely many maximals? but idk
Yea you need to do some finagling here to get it to work
Checking locally is always good practice anyways
Makes life easier
can someone help me with this?
how far have you gotten
I'm pretty sure the proof looks like this sketch from 9.11
here ker's index would've been either p or 1
if it's 1 then H=ker and if it's p then it's trivial then G iso S_p then G=H (in both cases H is normal)
I'm not sure how to generalize the result tho
I suspect I wasn't supposed to use this reasoning I shouldn't have had to consider the index=p case maybe?
I'm not sure how I'd do that tho
that's the proof I have
except the AG terminology
lol
so the left action of G on G/H gives you a homomorphism
G --> S_n
set K to be the kernel of this and verify it gives you what you're looking for
For which pairs of positive integers (n,m) does there exist an irreducible polynomial over Q with n real roots and m complex roots?
mmh I guess this is it
there was a nice exercise in aluffi similar to this
but now i wanna see an algebraic proof >.<
i think the idea in aluffi was this... say m = n + 2k
define f(x) = x(x-2)...(x-2(n-1))(x^2+2)(x^2+4)...(x^2+2k)
so f is in Q[x] and has n rational roots at 0, 2, 4, ..., 2(n-1)
and it has 2k complex roots which are not real
now the reason we made everything even is that f = x^n (mod 2)
so if q is any odd integer, then q * f(x) + 2 by eisenstein is irreducible
after that you use analysis to say that if q is HUGE then roots of f(x) and f(x) + 2/q are really close (since all the roots of f have multiplicity 1, this should be easy to show)
so for all large odd q, it will have n real roots and a total of m complex roots
nice
Will this embedding be compatible with the ordering?
that question doesnt make sense
it should because squares map to squares?
yea right, but not every positive thing is a square 
Also, if we have a subfield of R cap A, then its orddering is not necessarily unique
right
but R cap A is realclosed, therefore the ordering is unique. So I guess the order should be respected if F is iso with R cap A
we can give an order on Q(sqrt(2)) using the embedding Q(sqrt(2)) --> R sqrt(2) --> -sqrt(2)
and everything would be weird
how do you define realclosed?
R cap A is formally real (orderable) and it has no proper algebraic extensions that are orderable
R cap A = P cup {0} cup -P where P is the set of squares in R cap A
unless Im delusional, no?
Like if its iso is clear, because that will happen only when F is realclosed, so its order is unique and is determined by the set of squares
but if F is not realclosed and its just an embedding R cap A, I guess the question doesnt make much sense
right
I mean
That's what I was trying to do lel
lol
But how do I know it's not just the trivial group or smth?
K could be trivial ig
0 is a square, so you don't need a separate term for it.
but you just wanna find K such that [G:K] divides |G| and n!
so if |G| does divide n! then ig just pick K = 0
How do you know such a subgroup exists?
that's why we gave a weird construction of it
start with the action of G on G/H
to get the homomorphism G --> S_n
and kernel of homomorphisms are normal, so at least one requirement is fulfilled
usually you would use it for small values of n, so that |G| doesn't divide n!, therefore this map won't be injective in that case and K would be a nice non-trivial normal subgroup
IG i can see why a non trivial kernal might exist
But how tf do I prove its index can always be GCD(|G|, n!)?
lmao
Isaacs talks about positive squraes, thats why I wrote it like that (I should of said positive square, yes, but I omitted it because it wasnt important). Talking about nonzero postiive elements is probably better, because you can then say that P and -P are disjoint
That's such a dumb result
lol
it's not that dumb :p
you can use in some cases to say if a group is not simple 
(okie saying that is not that useful :p)
i don't know much either lol
What signature is he talking about? I thought signatures of bilinear forms were pairs or triples of numbers
mmh I guess its the trace of the (a) matrix of the bilinear form?
mmh but like the trace can be negative I think xD. Idk if its then the positive entries of the diagonal
Apparently, some authors call the trace the signature
The proof relies on hyperbolic planes, and idk what they are. This is the proof
I guess its not that important anyway
hmmm I feel like dummit and foote is doing a terrible job at explaining R-algebras since it never explains that. So just defining an left and right R-module operation is enough to have an R-algebra also?
this is all it states (and I did exercise 22 too)
oops
wrong snippet
or rather not enough of the right snippet

the more you know the more you become aware of things that you don't know
it's a never ending cycle 
so i guess everyone feels like that
i mean i just know jordan holder theorem, so every finite group is has finite simple groups as its building blocks, but beyond this idk anything :p
building blocks as in?
composition factors
you try to filter a group as much you can, i.e. find a series of subgroups 0 = G_0 < G_1 < ... < G_n = G
such that G_i is normal in G_{i+1} and the filteration can't be refined further
then composition factors are quotients G_{i+1}/G_i
by jordan holder theorem, any two filterations will give the same composition factors up to a permutation
since you can't refine the filteration further, the quotient G_{i+1}/G_i doesn't have any non-trivial normal subgroups, so it's simple
What if simple group, but infinite 
What's this from?
JH holds for infinite groups as well, it's the finite length assumption that is pertinent.
yee ik but idk if people really care about infinite simple groups lol
They are frightening
someone once sent this cool diagram for algebraic structure
like a flow diagram
found it
Ngl I have no idea how to read this
start from a magma
do you want an identity?
go to unital magma
do you want inveritibility?
go to loop
pretty sure this is from wikipedia
Are these words used much? I've heard semigroup and monoid but not the other middle ones
unital magma, no
quasi-groups and loops exist more in combinatorics
ah ic
but inverse semigroups, yeah
they're just in theory of semigroups so you might have not heard of the term
it's an attempt to make some kind of theory
and they correspond to partial functions
Oh I think I've only come across monoid in a different sense of the word (I assume a category theory monoid is a different thing)
just how semigroups correspond to functions, and groups to bijections
Algebraic theory of semigroups or something that'd pop up in analysis?
you identify the two
because if you have a monoid then you can cook up a category in which it's monoid in that sense of the word
and conversely
it's very straightforward
or?
oh
algebraic theory of semigroups, yeah
I don't think they pop up in analysis
Clark's field theory notes http://alpha.math.uga.edu/~pete/expositions2012.html you can find the pdf there
it's kind of related to this thing called Penrose inverse of a matrix
you should try classifying them, its a nice and easy exercise 
This is on wikipedia btw, on this article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semigroup
In mathematics, a semigroup is an algebraic structure consisting of a set together with an associative internal binary operation on it.
The binary operation of a semigroup is most often denoted multiplicatively: x·y, or simply xy, denotes the result of applying the semigroup operation to the ordered pair (x, y). Associativity is formally express...
magmas: every algebraist's punching bag
semigroups, monoids: somewhat useful somewhat pervasive
groups: what everyone actually cares about
everything else: 
True lmao
They're not, btw. An inverse semigroup has a different notion of 'inverse' to the one in a group – in fact the diagram is misleading in that way. There are inverse monoids (i.e. inverse semigroups with an identity) which are not groups, e.g. the bicyclic monoid.
I know
I was being sarcastic
Mb I just read the rest 
Idk, Moufang loops seem to appear in some obscure physics
just because quasigroups lack associativity doesn't mean they are not useful - it means they're painful to work with
particularly in octonions
for me it seems that it's semigroups and monoids that seem to lack applications
like... what do you apply it to. Automata theory?
if someone wants to prove me wrong, feel free too, that'd be nice
Im trying to solve this equation in Z^2
I did all this work
I looked for a particular solution
Then went to lok for the general one
I feel stupid for not getting this
But after I looked at the teacher's solution ...why do we have the same k here
Is it because their gcd=1
Idk why I'm not getting it
this is probably more appropriate for #elementary-number-theory
but i'll just answer it since you're already here >.<
so you saw that (-2, 4) is a particular solution
Oh I didnt even notice it lol
i.e. you have 11(x+2) + 6(y-4) = 0
Yep
now 11 divides 6(y-4) as it divides the first term and 0
since 11 and 6 are coprime you get that it has to divide y-4
It doesn't devide 6
so y-4 = 11t
where t is some integer
plug this back into your original equation
11(x+2) + 6*11t = 0
and so x = -2 - 6t uwu
yee getting a good sleep is important :p
(i'm sleeping at 5am since the last few days >.<)

maybe since you're here i could also tell you how to solve these in higher dimensions or if you have more equations 
say you're solving Ax = b where A is an m x n matrix over Z and b is a m x 1 vector
the idea is to use the smith normal form of A
write A = PDQ where P and Q are invertible matrices over Z of the appropirate dimensions and D is the smith normal form (which is a diagonal matrix)
so it reduces to solving D(Qx) = (P^-1)b
since D is diagonal, this isn't hard at all
What's does smith normal form mean?
A diagonal matrix form?
English isn't my 1st language lemme google it
yee sort of, if you know some linear algebra there is a notion of diagonalizing a square matrix over a field
there you can write a matrix A as PDP^-1
here we're working over Z which isn't a field, so it makes it much harder
Z is still a euclidean domain, so you could carry out euclid's division algorithm as long as possible with all rows and all columns
for example the smith normal form of the matrix
[a b] would be [gcd(a, b) 0]
no body would want to compute smith normal form by hand lol
okie maybe i could give you an example
by doing the above problem with this theory
but i'll remove all the computational steps
since usually you'd just use a computational software and ask it to find the smith normal form for you
we had
[11 6][x] = [2]
[y]
we have
[11 6] = [1] * [1 0] * [11 6]
[-2 -1]
therefore one would be solving,
[1 0](something) = [2]
and solution to this can be just read of
the first variable is forced to be 2, and the second can be arbitrary
so the something is,
[11 6][x] = [2]
[-2 -1][y] [k]
and the matrix on the left is invertible
so you get,
[x] = [-1 -6][2]
[y] [2 11][k]
which is
x = -2 -6k
y = 4 + 11k

this might be a good candidate of one of the most useless examples i've ever done uwu
killing a cute rabbit with a nuclear weapon >.<

oh
hewwo walter


Damn
Thats a big pain
but that's exactly why it's super useful
with you can prove some nice theorems really quickly
jordan canonical form, rational canonical form, structure theorem for fg modules over pid etc
(i write etc because i can't recall more :3)
Nice
I'll take screenshots and write it down and go brag to my teacher lol

When are we gonna learn that :"))
so ig the usual route is, you study groups, rings, modules and while doing some module theory you wanna understand structure of modules over a pid which is where it's usually proven
in our undergrad it was a course offered in the 4th sem
Im still studying groups rings and fields
structuuuuure
Im taking 3 algebra classes
Goups and rings / arithmetics / fields and polynomials
Along with other 3 classes mesure theory / ordinary differential equations/ calc 5
woah
good luck
Thanks 

whats calc 5
Functional analysis
ah
Idk its internationnally like that
youre grad right not undergrad
i thought calc 5 was calc on manifolds with some de rahm chomology stuff :p
wait so how long is your undergrad? is it 3 year of 4 year?
3
Speed learning math lol
you live in a scary place >.<
We struggled so much with it omg
Cause we didn't finish our topology class
We didn't take normed vectorial spaces
rip
So we had to study them on our own with the teacher speed teaching functional analysis
I spent like 10h a day studying on weekends for like a month to get a hold of everything :"))
your schools in session rn??
What does in session mean
being so close to xmas/new years
like classes are being taught
and exams and homeowkrs are being given
woah
reminds me of my algebraic geometry 1 course in undergrad >.<
what country is this in lol
North africa
oh wow
Its a weird country
I've always wanted to take that class
so it must be super late rn for u
same
I think I'm gonna take it on grad
my prof menrioned hes teaching my alg part II
3h18
Yeah
it felt like the prof did 2 semester's worth of stuff in half a semester 🙈
i remember going to a new class and learning 5 new definitions each time
i took a riemann sufrace course taught using algebraic curves and riemann surfaces text which is as close to alg geo as ive taken
My teacher did that with normes spaces
like zero sets of polynomials n stuff and compact riemann surfaces

How much more abstract algebra do i have to study before i “get it” and not just memorizing theorems 
We only learned the riemann integrals
And sums in series
At this point I think its just memorizing
yeah we learned about zero sets of homogeneous polynomials
which form RIemann surfaces apparently. that course was tough for me.
when you do harder abstract algebra, the stuff you thought you didn't get are crushed by the new stuff you don't get, so it feels you finally understand the old stuff 
I feel like some people i talk to are really understanding it
Dude why math stuff in english sound so scary 
Loll
So youre saying
Well it takes time tho
I am getting the grasp of it
You encounter even more crazy stuff that makes you realize you understand it evne less than the previous topics
Cause I have to its my field for now
I do algebra and cryptography so I had to learn how to undertsad stuff
Wow
Personally mindmaps helped me a lot
no more like you're not scared of the old stuff, and once you're not scared you can look at the theory much more easily
Mindmap?
The new stuff puts the old stuff into context?
Let's say u don't understand rings
sometimes
And the theoremes
like i used to think that modules and tensor product and stuff are kinda hard about a year ago
U try to draw what u know
you cant really draw out ring concepts lol
Lemme show u an example of a mindmap I made after I was revizing for a test
now i have seen their sheafified versions with modules over sheaf of rings, so they seem super trivial 😂
you can draw in topology by not much in alg
Ah isee
Not literally lol
oh lol
So mindmap but actually making one, not just in your head
Wait lemme show u an example
i was like how do i draw an ideal lol
Ohh
This is an example for a topology test
This is cool
i like this
I started doing it like every lecture we have
wish it was in english lol
Until I managed to make this one for one concept
I expect its very useful for showing how things are connecred because this kind of stuff is all about showing the structure and showing how things have similar or different structur
but i think i can manage to translate
i can't imagine doing math in a language which isn't english >.<
Thats how I knew i understood that
I do it in 3 languages lol

You're american?
nu
We speak 2 languages
aren't these like super scary place?
And I learned english too cause everyone has to lol
i can't even imagine doing math in my native language lol
U study in another language in univ?
me? no english im in america
english is not native for americans?!
I was talking to u
Cause ik in the US they study in english
nope, all my studies were in english
Ah okay
i did my ug in india, and doing masters in germany
scary
Yeah but we basically speak french too on a daily basis
So its not that hard getting used to it
Doing math in french is cute
English math is scary to me
Everything sounds hard
i had to read some math article and my prof gave me it in french because she didnt' know any other nicer place to find it >.<
How is math in germany?
i had to guess so many things
mostly in german, idk if they even do the bachelors in english at all
I'm planning to go to either france or germany in 2 years
Aw man so I have to learn it
but since masters also get a lot of international students they're shifting to engilsh
I have a very basic question I just can't get past: if p is a maximal ideal of R, consider the localisation R_p and the ring homomorphism R/p^a->R_p/p^aR_p, r+p^a goes to r+p^aR_p. Why is this injective? If r is in p^aR_p, then it is of the form b/c with b in p^a and c not in p, so you get rc is in p^a and hence in p and r is in p. But how do I get that r is in p^a?
ig you can induct
say r is not in p^i but it is in p^(i-1)
so in the R/p vector space p^(i-1)/p^i, the vector r is non-zero
but when you multiply it with the scalar c in R/p, it becomes 0, as rc lives in p^a which is a subset of p^i assuming a >= i
so c is 0 in R/p
which gives c in p
which is sad
so r lies in all p^i for i = 1, 2, ...,a
:3
Hmm that works. I expected the answer to be more trivial, something incredibly basic I'm missing. Thanks.
idk, i was just trying to continue from where you left of :p
btw a cautionary comment, you don't directly get that b = rc
the definitions only say there exists a z such that bz = rcz
but the thing is, you could have just changed the fraction b/c to bz/cz
and this new c works now
.<
Wdym, R imbeds in R_p as r/1, so if r/1=b/c you get b=rc.
yea but the definition of equivalence isn't that a/b = c/d iff ad = bc
Are you talking about the definition of localisation for general rings?
For domains it's enough to consider ad=bc.
is R a domain? >.<
For domains it is, afaik.
yee for domains yep
I mean... The proposition doesn't outright assume it iirc, but the context of the book is all domains and localisation in the text is defined as ad=bc.
oh okie
Thanks for the pointer regardless.
i haven't ever worked with localizations just for domains lol
but it can be fun with non-domains
Yeah I've heard it comes up in AG.
What German uni you at btw, I'm thinking about future prospects (currently finishing bachelor in Germany).
for example if you have two rings and you take their product, R x S, then inverting the element (1, 0) basically kills off the component S and you get R back :3
That's neat.
i was at muenster >.<
yee and one nice thing you get is that R is a flat RxS-module
so tensoring will automatically be exact
Oooh, I've seen a poster for your department on our bulletin board. It had a purple-ish logo, right?
Kek. How was it?
I've seen one of your guys on YouTube talking about Hochschild homology.
Big dude with glasses and long hair, iirc.
it's been great... i just wish there were more people taking the course ag3 with me >.<
Are you at a different German uni now?
oh i haven't seen their youtube or twitter
nah, muenster was the only place in germany i found which had a scholarship for master students
i might visit bonn sometime as it's not that far
How was your overall impression of the faculty and course offerings, particularly algebraic ones?
i would be happy if there were even more courses lol
but ig they have a good bunch
and facultys have been pretty good so far
(that wasn't always the case in india)
so it was already an upgrade for me, so i'm pretty happy :p
Do you have a module handbook or a list of offered courses on hand?
okie the website of course catalogue is currently down
Thanks for trying anyway.
But in words, what have you taken.
And what are the mandatory ones.
for masters there aren't anything mandatory ig... only thing is that you have to do at least one applied math course
i'm doing these
algebraic geometry 3
differential geometry 1
etale cohomology seminar
topology 1 (just attending)
topology 3 (doing a thing called type 2, where you don't need to write exam)
Wow
Topology is so difficult that’s crazy
topology 1 is the easiest among all the courses i'm taking lol
which is why i'm just attending it
don't have the energy to do weekly hw for it
whats in topology 3 
and AG 3
ag3 did some flatness, smoothness, then some homological alg and should end with the proof of riemann roch


It must be a "top 3" hardest course haha
top3 is homotpy theory, and later half was more unstable stuff
neat
No way
Ain’t no way
I’m reading through topology without tears and I’m still crying
I mean det is a masters student and of the things he listed only topology 1 is standard undergrad material
Oh come on
If ur masters degree then it’s obviously easy for you
what are you guys doing in it? lee type stuff?
This has a filter damn


