#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 32 of 1
zero plus itself is 0
Y’all are on another level
lol im preparing for an alfebra qual
I understand now 🤓
algebra*
qual?
phd qualifying examinations
WHATTT
once u get in u need to take 2 or 3 depending on ur institution
First two videos: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLBY4G2o7DhF0JCgapYKrqibGaJuvV4Gkb
What’s the splitting field for $x^4 - 2$ over $\mathbb{Q}$? Is it $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2}, i \sqrt[4]{2})?$
Sapphire Gaming
yes
is the correct way of proving xy and yx have the same order as eachother in any group the following
(xy)^k=e_G implies
x(yx)^{k-1}y=e_G
thus $(yx)^{k-1}=x^{-1}y^{-1}=(yx)^{-1}$
MyMathYourMath
then hitting both sides by a yx we have that yx to the k is e_G
can you have vector spaces over finite fields 
I am a vector space over myself
so anyone who wants to check my 33 abstract solutions let me know 🙂
theyve all been written out just need verifying.
"Just".
lol what? theyre all finished
Verifying homework solutions is time-consuming, tedious, boring, and not particularly rewarding work. There's a reason universities need to pay graders to do it.
question on the proof that if H is normal and K is just a subgroup then HK is a subgroup
so i let $x,y \in HK$ then $x=h_1k_1, y=h_2k_2$
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
how do i show this
MyMathYourMath
this is something im doing on my own time in prep for preliminary exams
doesnt have to be hw, checking sols is generally tedium
Who knows maybe someone will find it fun
I would
you think you would
and then you'll realize many parts suck
God how I wish I could force student to typeset and/or be able to remove points for poor handwriting
10$ cool lol and when i get paid which is this tuesday
can someone help me on the above proof
if H is normal and K is a subgroup then HK is a subgroup
i know I need to show xy^-1 \in HK for x\in H, y \in K
then this
ok thank god
ok i got this then its easy
I forget the reason why that version isn't necessarily true
cause ofc "I can't show it's true" isn't enough
it doesnt matter which one is normal
_> i can't get the proof to work
the subgroup test doesnt care which one is inverted
the proof is symmetric u just invert the other guy
oh duh
is a field an abelian group under "multiplication"
0 has no inverse in nontrivial fields
so not quite
the intuition is kind of like that but you're better off not really thinking about fields as just two groups mashed together
noted, thank you!
I'm trying to show if H is a finite index subgroup of G, then G is of type FP_n if and only if H is of type FP_n for 0 <= n <= infinity.
The forward direction is straightforward, as we may regard a (partial) projective resolution for Z over ZG of finite type (a projective resolution where each projective module is finitely generated) as a (partial) projective resolution for Z over ZH. Since H is a finite index subgroup, each projective module is still finitely generated when viewed as a ZH-module.
For the other direction, I want to use an argument along the following lines: start with the augmentation map ZG -> Z, view it as the start of a free resolution over ZH. Then we can extend it to a (partial) free resolution of finite type over ZH. Is there some way I can lift this to a free resolution of finite type over ZG by using induced modules and the fact that H has finite index in G?
the roots of $x^3 - 3 \in \bQ[x]$ are $\sqrt[3]{3}$ and $-\frac{\sqrt[3]{3}}{2} \pm \frac{1}{2}i3^{\frac{5}{6}}$. is the splitting field $\bQ(\sqrt[3]{3}, \sqrt{3}, i)$? cuz like we can get the $3^{\frac{5}{6}}$ with cbrt(3) * sqrt(3)
rectangle cube
but you can't get sqrt3 :p
the splitting field is Q(cbrt3, i sqrt3)
or said in another way, Q(cbrt 3, omega)
Why does $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2}, \sqrt[4]{2}i) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[4]{2}, i)$?
Sapphire Gaming
ah right. thanks
uwu?
im having struggles understanding this bijection at the bottom
i don't see how it actually maps into the fiber of f over P
show both inclusions
like since Q is prime in S_[P], it's inverse image epsilon^-1(Q) will be a prime in S/I which doesn't contain U
now the further inverse image, pi^-1(epsilon^-1(Q)) will not contain any elements outside P (else epsilon^-1(Q) will contain something in U, and it would be sad), so it is contained in P
similarly, since epsilon^-1(Q) is an ideal in S/I
the final inverse image pi^-1(epsilon^-1(Q)) will have to contain P
as elements of P die under that map

how to show that a group of order 4 or less is abelian?
Just wing it for each of the possible orders.
hn
1 is easy. 2 and 3 are primes, and you should already know that groups of prime order are abelian. Then there's only order 4 left.
Do you know they're cyclic?
proof by exhaustion
Lagrange's theorem shows that.
hn
i just know the definition of cyclic groups
that groups of prime order are abelian?
I mean the groups of order 4 case
For 2 and 3, as time cube has already said, it follows from Lagrange's theorem and the fact that cyclic groups are Abelian
You can also brute-force the possible group operations on a set with 2 or 3 elements. Lagrange's theorem will be handy for the 3 case too.
with 3 elements i suppose g = {e,a,b}, where e is neutral. In this case, b need to be the inverse of a, right?
yes, there's only one group of order 3
(it's isomorphic to Z/Z3 fwiw)
Since when do you write Z/3Z? 
shit
you saw nothing
with 4 elements
hn, ok
(at least that's how I did it back when I had to do this as a homework)
eh you can do it by counting too
okay tbf maybe I am just aassuming you can use lagrange there thoguh, if you can't then a table works ofc
he doesn't know lagrange
sure
i'm trying to apply rules on the four elements so that this implies that the group is abelian
also wouldn't you need prime square order
sure
in this way, g = {a,b,c,d}, let a be neutral. So, b, c and d needs to have inverse

something you might instantly see:
we know there are 2 groups of order 4, one of them being cyclic. you therefore only have to find the other one (which is not cyclic) and verify that it is also abelian
(in fact, if every element in a group G has order 2, then G is abelian and if G is also finite then G is isomorphic to (Z/2Z)^n for some n >= 1)
(vacuously because there's always an element of order 1 != 2)
this is true even for not finite
It becomes an F_2 vector space
Indeed ye I realised after
And so you just replace n with some cardinal
Since the way I'd prove it is to use vector spaces anywa6
Counterexample: the group of finite or cofinite subsets of N under symmetric difference is not (Z/Z2)^n for any n.
Crushing a cockroach with a sledgehammer
and i get other question
This is infinite tho, in which case it’s (Z/2Z)^(+)alpha for some cardinal alpha
how to prove that there is an n positive interger that a^n = e?
Is your group finite?

There’s some i,j such that a^i=a^j and i ≠ j
Or you get infinitely many elements
Now take a difference of i and j
a different proof: let x be an element out of your group (x in G). let k be its order (k = |x|). by lagrange kl = |G| for some integer l, so you have x^|G| = x^(kl) = (x^k)^l = 1^l = 1
is $\bZ_2(2) = \bZ_3$?
rectangle cube
Literally wtf is this notation
whats $\Bbb{Z}_2(2)$? @formal ermine
MyMathYourMath
Bro wtf is YOUR notation. \Bbb{Z}?
,, \left(\bZ/2\bZ\right)(2)
rectangle cube
Literally what is that

is the field extension $\bZ_3/\bZ_2$ simple
rectangle cube
That’s not a field extension!
Characteristic...
but $\bZ_2 \subset \bZ_3$
rectangle cube
Who is the order 2 element in Z/3?
This isn’t even a subgroup inclusion
Huh? The task was to prove that every element has a finite order, which you seem to be assuming as known when you say "... let k be its order".
lol
What is $Z_2$ and what is $Z_3$ in ur notation
potato
Z/2Z
z2 like @next obsidian said isnt a subgroup of z3
okay maybe you are just going off of like {0,1} being contained in {0,1,2} or something
and constructing them that way which is leading to confusion
Think about the cardinality a field extension of a finite field would have to have. Think of vector spaces as someone above said
with order here I mean the order of the cyclic subgroup generated by x, which is obviously finite as the group itself is finite
Or even just Lagrange to see that Z/2Z can’t be a subgroup of Z/3Z
Usually one does not think of them as such and if you do then this is kinda besides the point as these inclusions aren't subgroup inclusions
Because 2 doesn’t divide 3
this is field theory
oof
huh
why is this false
as a subgroup?
as fields
byt LaGranges theorem the order of Z2 would need to divide the order of Z3
its not even a subgroup let alone a subfield
Saying the cyclic subgroup generated is finite is equivalent to a priori assuming the order is finite...
At this level you can't assume that kind of thing
he assumed that the group itself is finite, and a subgroup of a finite group must always be finite, by definition
the only subgroups of Z3 are the trivial and Z3 itself
You’re the one that asked why it isn’t
K/F if F is a subset of K
....
You’re fucking kidding me
.<
lets at least try and keep the language G rated lol
One would, in this case, have to prove that the cyclic subgroup generated by an element is something that is even well defined
In any case lagrange is too strong here
fair
If they are tasked with proving every element of a finite group has finite order, they don't know lagrange's theorem
sorry for annoying you guys with this question
This definition doesn’t even say anything about the field structure
There’s no way this is your definition, you’re misinterpreting a definition
Definition 4.1.1. A field extension L/K is an inclusion K subseteq L of two fields
that's what's written in my lecture script
wdym
K is a subfield of L
No
No, it's not.
You got to show it's minimal such positive integer
eh a few words make it fine though
||o(yx) <= o(xy) by this and then "by symmetry"||
xd
This isn't enough, because all you showed is that the order of yx is less than k
Well there's other issues
I've not actually read the proof lol
It seems fine other than that you seem to be assuming k = 4 notationally
I forgot the ….
a^k = 1 does not mean that the order of a is k...
ye this is what i mean
But yeah after correcting it to this, you're like a few words away
So I’ve shown order of yx is at most k
First equality is also bad
I meant to include a …. In the parenthesis
so I assume there is some l<k such that the order of yx is l?
And find a contradiction ?
A little lost here
You proved that ord(xy) <= ord(yx)
oh now do the other way
That is, assuming ord(yx) is finite
im assuming its finite order

sorry but for the other direction i expand (yx)^k
and deduce that
$(xy)^{k-1}=y^{-1}x^{-1}$
MyMathYourMath
i e. xy has at most order of yx
MyMathYourMath
since $yxyxyx...yx=y(xyxyxy...xy)x$ $k$ times
MyMathYourMath
Another way to see that is to note that xy and yx are conjugate.
And conjugation is a group automorphism, hence preserves order.
yeah but im trying to do it the classical direct way
how to prove that any subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic?
i guess that any element of this subgroup has form a^n, so from definition, that cyclic
but i'm not sure
"G is cyclic" means that there is a g in G such that every element of G is of the form g^n for some n
you are given such a G and a subgroup H
thats a big proof
you need to find an h in H such that every element of H is of the form h^n for some n
it uses the division algorithm no?
Not really
It follows by some very elementary element counting and the most basic of NT
i encourage you to try a few examples of cyclic groups and subgroups out before doing a proof
does this proof suffice for that
ok

i typesetted this myself
come on
yeah, quite easy with that
to show that a Group G that has no subgroup of its own is cyclic, I can show by saying that if the belongs to G, any power of G must belong to G and that therefore the set of powers of a is a cyclic subgroup of G, and as by hypothesis G has no subgroup of its own, then the G itself is cyclic?
Yeah this works
Notably: you have to allow {e} and G as subgroups, so you mean no non-trivial subgroups
And then you take a ≠ e
(Or I guess e if the group is trivial lol)
You mean with the division alg right
not sure what you mean by "subgroup of its own"
proper subgroups
sorry about my english
sure dw
ye, k = mq + r
k is any interger that x^k \in H
and you claim H equals the subgroup generasted by x^m
yes
tbf you don't really need much of a division algorithm
well
i guess you do but it's simple
bros
how can i prove that if G has no proper subgroups, G is cyclic and of order p prime
that is cyclic i can prove
but
with order prime i cant
some hint?
You'd wanna say proper, non-trivial subgroups
Okay, so uh
Do you know anything about the subgroups of Z/nZ?
Say Z/6Z, what are the subgroups
hm, no
proper
non-trivial
Cmon man, G is a trivial subgroup
Fair
Well I would usually take it to mean {e} but ig that's more if they just say trivial group rather than subgroup
In any case it's clear from context ig
Yah
owo
Mfw when the field extension is normal and separable
Idk I never learned that stuff
Better call Galois
lol
Yeah so uh
my course defines finite galois as spl fld of a sep poly
which is more based
bruh
Hm
Oh I guess if you have finite extension then you can view it as splitting field of like the product of minimal polynomial of generators or something
Something along those lines
mine defined galois as its fixed field being the base field 
Apply primitive element
To get a generator for which the ext is the splitting field of, poly is separable
Hmmm
primitive element theorem is epic
Actually now thinking
Okay yeah you have to use extra thm
Or no uhh
Okay idk I think no work

sad
Or maybe it does
happy
Chmonkey
Okay I think it does
So L contains all conjugates
Of alpha
Say L = K(alpha)
This cuz normal
We know that m_alpha is separable cuz separable extension
Then we just need to know dat L = splitting field
So we need to know it minimal
But it has degree deg(alpha)
So it minimal
Maybe that works?
With the sauce!
You know what’s cool
In char 0
That actually for deep reasons makes a lot of AG in char 0 tick
That u can take Galois closure
L

Walter
yes but i am trying to learn more group coho
Char 4 is cool
Char 8 extensions are more interesting
Go play some fortnite
too late, i grew up
There is a bijection between Char 8 field extensions and abelian non-solvable groups
char 1738
which is a rich area of study
wth is a characteristic 8 field
a field where 1 added to itself 8 times is zero, duh
common examples include
F_un
and
8 is prime for prime values of 8

Therefore there are fields of characteristic 8
qed
Let G be a group, N a perfect normal subgroup. If we have a partial projective resolution P_2 -> P_1 -> P_0 -> Z -> 0 over ZG where each P_i is finitely generated and projective over ZG, I can see that applying (-)_N (taking coinvariants under N) preserves exactness. However, I don't see why (P_i)_N is projective over ZN.
Hmm, I don't think it's true that taking coinvariants preserves being projective. However, if the partial projective resolution is in particular free (which I can do), then I can view each P_i as a free ZN-module. Then the coinvariants are free abelian groups of the same rank as the free ZN-modules
Have u tried Chmonkey theorem?
realized I was being dumb, I'm constructing a projective resolution of Z over Z[G/N]
Maybe Chmonkey theorem was the right thing to do actually
in which case taking coinvariants of free ZG-modules under N literally gives me free Z[G/N]-modules
thanks chmonkey 
I'm reading that it's unknown if there exists a group of type FP which is not of type FL. This is equivalent to asking if there exists a group G of type FP such that the integral group ring ZG has a finitely generated projective module which is not stably free. Interestingly, there are examples if you drop the FP condition, one being the integral group ring over Z/23Z. I find it neat because there are a number of results which we can prove for groups of type FP that we can't prove for groups of type FL.
I'm reading all of these from a book published in 1983 and I know some of the conjectures stated in this book have been solved by now. Does anyone know if there has been interesting progress regarding this question? Feel free to ping me if you have an answer or just want to talk about the problem lol
What is FP and FL
FP means Z admits a finite length projective resolution over ZG where each projective module is finitely generated
FL means Z admits a finite length free resolution over ZG where each free module is finitely generated
L for libre
Definitely
P for projectif
Wait wtf
This seems…
Like wtf
I mean I guess I don’t know counterezamples to this for just resolutions over whatever ring
But like that’s kinda kooky
Yeah, supposedly the answer is "certainly yes" if you work over arbitrary ring
Which I'll think about more when I'm not sleepy
But the equivalence is kinda neat, the idea being that if G is FP, then G has finite cohomological dimension n (meaning cohomology vanishes in degree greater than n). Then you can construct a partial free resolution of length n - 1, but you can't guarantee that the n-th term is free, only that it's projective.
If P is stably free then you can do the Eilenberg trick or whatever it's called to replace it with a free module, proving the group is FL
good luck uwu 
ok so two questions:
- what's the connection between purely inseparable (idk the translation) and separable. they seem so arbitrary but yet are named similarly
- why do we need galois extensions to be separable? like, what's the background behind this?
tbh the second question might not be the smartest to ask right now
cuz all we've done in lecture was show that Aut_K(L) = Hom_K(L, K bar) and define Gal(L/K) := Aut_K(L)
oh also another question
- is there an easy way to finding the galois group of an extension
let L/K be an extension and char(K) = p > 0. a in L is called purely inseparable if a^(p^m) in K for some m
could be translating it badly
ok im not too sure about this - but moving to the next
So say your irreducible polynomial has a squared factor. Eg.
f = g^2 h where g, h are linears
Now when you take K[x] / f, you still get a field right
as f is irreducible
yes
but now you cannot distinguish between 2 of the roots
i edited - g, h gotta be linear
so say (x-a)^2(x-b)
If it was separable
(x-a1)(x-a2)(x-b)
You would have extra automorphisms by mapping a1 to a2 and viceversa
but setting a1 = a2, you've lost these
we haven't connected roots to the galois group or w/e yet
so the galois group gets smaller so number of possibly homomorphisms decrease
I think it's too early for me to ask this question
mm
but thanks anyway!
hmmm
I'll come back to this sooner or later
what about this
nope, finding it is usually hard
you can do it for small degree polynomials quite easily
but in general, it is probably undecidable lol idk tho
and about your first question
purely inseparable extensions are like the literal opposite of separable ones
for separable extension you know that an irreducible polynomial will not have any repeated roots when you go into some bigger field
but for purely inseparable, all the roots clump together into a single thing
they do?!
yep
pick any element alpha
it's minimal polynomial is like x^(p^n) - a
so this factors like (x-alpha)^p^n
oh so purely inseparable means galois group is trivial
uh, ok
you phrase that using separable degree
given a field extension F/k, one defines [F:k]_s = number of extensions of k --> k bar to F
this is also multiplicative like the usual degree
and a finite extension is separable if and only if [F:k]=[F:k]_s
might be a stupid question, but why?
oh because alpha will satisfy alpha^p^n = a in k for some n
so alpha is a root of some x^p^n - a
ahhhhhhhh
and since this factors like (x-alpha)^p^n, then if you choose n to be minimal such that alpha^p^n lies in k, then the polynomial will be irreducible in k[x]
why does it factor like that?
hehe :p
this is the reason why inseparability only happens with positive char
there is no such thing when char is 0
negative char exists?
lol i just mean 0 vs positive :p
ah
anyway, one last piece of information :p
~~what if you're french
~~
given any field extension F/k, you can define the subset F^sep of F given by elements which are actually separable over k, i.e. F^sep = {alpha in F : alpha satisfies some polynomial with no repeated roots}
then F^sep is automatically a field extension of k
when do we use lowercase letters for field
upto you
yes we covered this
yea so the separable degree i defined above is then just [F:k]_s = [F^sep : k]
yip
and in particular htis means separable degree divides the actual degree, so one can also define an inseprable degree to be [F:k]_i = [F:k]/[F:k]_s

ok so for the galois group
yee?
I have the field extension Q(cbrt(3), isqrt(3))/Q
that is the splitting field of x^3 - 3
okie
okie, so first lets confirm that this is a galois extension
yes I already did that
which is clear in this case as you gave it as a splitting field of a separable polynomial
so now you wanna find the group of automorphisms which fix Q
one nice thing about using generators is that you only need to keep track of where these generators go, the whole automrophism will be determined by them
so say f is an automorphism fixing Q, what can you say about f(cbrt 3)?
(acbrt(3)+bisqrt(3))/(ccbrt(3)+disqrt(3)) ?
or wait lol
I'm overcomplicating this
yep
:p
use that f is an automorphism
the image of cbrt 3 isn't an arbitrary element!
it has to satisfy a really nice polynomial
the minimal polynomial of cbrt3?
yee exactly
why
since (cbrt3)^3 - 3 = 0
if you apply f to this and use that it is a map of fields and also fixes Q, you see
f(cbrt3)^3 -3 = 0
this is common slogan "roots go to roots"
and if moreover the extension is simple, "a root can go to any other root!"
(but use the letter n for exponents >.<)
right so image of cbrt 3 is another root of x^3-3
so has only 3 options
similarly image of isqrt(3) has to be a root of x^2+3
and you have 2 such options
so this actually gives you an upperbound for the number of such f
since f is determined by where it sends cbrt3 and isqrt3
there are at most 6 such things
for that you need to be a little careful
I misread what you said
it is true, but one needs to verify that you can make both these 3 choices and 2 choices independently
so instead of doing it directly, it's nicer to just use some theory
for example, if p is an irreducible separable poylnomial over k, then the galois group of the splitting field field of p would be a transitive subgroup of S_{deg p}
this is because, just like we proved "roots go to roots", each automorphism defines an injective function on the set of roots
transitive subgroup?
yee, coming to that >.<
this is automatically a bijection because of cardinality reasons
@spice whale yes
so it shows that it's a subgroup of permutation group on the roots
hi buncho
ok thanku buncho
hi
hewwo 
i was answering a question alison asked in another channel

hi det
I'm doing some rep theory exercises
and yea, a transitive subgroup of S_n is a subgroup such that for any 1 <= i, j <= n, there is a permutation in the subgroup which sends i to j
from artin
(alison, i think this is only true over char 0 though)
he's only doing complex reps so this is fine
and this is easy to see in our case, given any two roots of p, say alpha and beta, there is map k(alpha) --> k(beta) which fixes k and sends alpha to beta. now you just extend this to an automorphism of the whole extension
ig you can replace this with some concrete calculations
but usually people would wanna avoid them :p
i'll just end this lol.
so in our case, we'll have a transitive subgroup of S_3, and since complex conjugation is also an automorphism, by some simple group theory you see it's all of S_3
okie so for the more computational approach
is the galois group always a subgroup of a symmetric group
first i would say it's easier to pick a different set of generators
all groups are
use t = real cbrt3, w = primitive cbrt of 1
is the galois group always a symmetric group
so you want Gal(Q(t, w)/Q)
so before i began this stuff about transitive subgroup and all that
we proved that roots go to roots
why primitive cbrt of 1
i don't want you to pick cbrt 1 = 1 lol
its fairly easy to construct an example for C2 x C2
like w = (-1 + sqrt(-3))/2 or its square
but don't we have Q(cbrt 3, isqrt 3)
what's the example of C_n in your mind?
idk 
they're the same fields lol
ok, C_n for some n?
huh
looking at C_p
ah
the standard example is the cyclotomic extension Q(mu_n)/Q which has galois group U(n) = (Z/nZ)*
like the only benefit of this is that you can write your automorphisms explicitly
f(t) = t * w^a and f(w) = w^b
here a varies in {0, 1, 2} and b in {1, 2}
because t * w^a are roots of x^3-3 and w, w^2 are roots of minimal polynomial of w, which is x^2+x+1=0
anyways, so i think this relates to the inverse galois problem, and its thought that all finite groups are galois groups
now you would need to explicitly check that these are indeed field maps
(finite)
it's false that all groups are galois groups
even if the base is not Q
because galois groups are profinite
it has not been proven yet?
and so they naturally carry a topology, which is compact, hausdorff and totally disconnected
no
but that means you could put a finite haar measure on it, which further tells you that it can't be countable
so galois groups are never countable :3
ic
it's known for a huge class of groups ig
like all finite abelian groups can are galois groups over Q
S_n is also possible
A_n too then
solvable i guess are also proven
idk more tho
anyway, once you do this, it's easy to see that galois group is non-abelian and has order 6, so S_3

not sure how to use frobenius reciprocity in the proof of (b)
I've got it from the definition of induced rep
i imagine the point is that you can use orthogonality to decompose the representation
@spice whale I think the idea is to show that the characters of ind(res R) and R + R' are the same. write them out as class functions, and order the conjugacy classes so that those which make up H come first (just for simplicity)
you want to show that each entry of these vectors is the same
Omg Buncho
so take the inner product with e_i
and for ind(res R) use frobenius reciprocity and for the other side, just write out the character of R + R' based on the character of R
and if you sort that out I think that should work?
hi chm
how's it going?
are you ready for them?
But neither are any of my classmates
ez
It’ll be gg ez
haha
I proved a neat thing
oh yeah?
If you have a domain where every prime is principal, it’s a PID
This isn’t that hard actually, fg primes => Noetherian, Principal Ideal Theorem => dim 1, then it’s a Dedekind domain
All ideals are products of prime then you’re 
The cool part is you can drop “domain”
huh
And the proof is geometric, you take the irr components of Spec A and then you argue they’re connected components, basically because they can’t intersect or else the point of intersection has too large a tangent space
It has to be dim > 1, but the (co)tangent space is like m/m^2
So that contradicts m being principal
So all the irr components are disjoint so they’re connected components, so actually A breaks apart as the product of its irr components
Then you can show it for them separately
It’s pretty sweet
Good job chmonkey
Thx Walter
And good luck on finals
Give me like 3 semesters
Ok
It’s nice!
Also it made me like
Think back to this result I proved before
If A is a Noetherian ring such that A_p is an integral domain for all p, then it’s the product of A/pi over the minimal primes
I did it using a lot of algebra before, but the geometric proof is way easy
Again you just want to show the irr components are disjoint so they’re the connected components
But if irr components intersect at p, then A_p isn’t an integral domain, because it has more than one minimal prime
So you’re just done
i see
geometry so ezpz
Literally
this is so much more work than just using definition of induced rep
I don't think that the "using frobenius reciprocity" remark was meant as a hint to get you started
i think the purpose was as a directive to force you to practice using that theorem
because it's true in much more generality than what you proved in the previous problem
the thing is like
part c requires use of frobenius reciprocity
maybe part b was meant to be a warm-up for that then?
or at least is made much easier with it
you use part B's result
that's about it
Occasionally ppl also write down some nonsense if all other theories as to why they wrote something down fail
I remember there was some problem in my analysis class where literally everyone went “that hint was useless, I just did X”
i mean i think the purpose of exercises isn't just to compile a list of true facts
it's to give you a little sandbox to try to understand how something works
how do I find a normal extension that isn't separable
You're gonna need to start with a non perfect field
So no finite fields and no char 0 fields
what is a perfect field
don't know what that means either
google search results are personalized and most of the time when I google stuff for aa I just get nonsensical results
Protip right there
oh it's called vollkommener körper in german
Anyway, I think F_p(t) over F_p(t^1/p) works?
at least that's how my prof calls it
This is not separable, it’s the canonical example of one
And I’m pretty sure this expresses F_p(t) as the splitting field of t [whoops I meant of F_p(t^1/p) over F_p(t)]
No this is backwards
lemme try showing that it's separable
uhhh
It’s F2(t) over F2(sqrt(t))
Or wait
Think
You’re right
I’m being crazy lmfao
So sure, normal because degree 2
And it’s not separable
Namely, what’s the min poly of sqrt(t)?
Then find the two roots of that
X^2 - t
Right
sqrt(t) and -sqrt(t)
But in char 2 this is the same as?
(X - sqrt(t))^2?
I don't quite understand why -sqrt(t) isn't a root, doesn't it fulfill X^2 - t?
(The important characterisation of perfect fields btw is either char 0 or char p + every element is a p-th root. In particular finite fields are perfect)
This is the same as sqrt(t)
The field is char 2
Because -1 = 1
This is the canonical example of non-separable extensions btw
You should memorize this example
I will
it's so annoying
my course hasn't introduced the F_n notation and it feels weird to use it
F_p >.<
owo
Z/n is cursed
H\G/K
Who uses nZ\Z 😭
Z/(n) is better ig but looks cursed
.<
Z/nZ for additive, Z_n for multiplicative
case closed
I won't take any questions
Z_n for integers modulo n
Is Z_p = Z/pZ, the p-adics, or S^-1Z where S is {1,p,p^2,…}
And if you’re dumb, Z_(p)
lol
Why not Z_nZ
Hi det 
A3 C3 Z_3 Z/3Z Z/(3) 
I saw the S3
what S3
The group of order 6 that definitely is not isomorphic to F_3
lie
Also not a group of Lie type or a Lie group
Chmonkey
Commutator subgroup of GL_2(F_2)
50% monkey, 49% chair, 1% 
chain complexes in monkey 🙈
Computing chmology
wait, it might be a group of Lie type, idk group theory
A_1(2) = SL(2,2) = S3 says Wikipedia
{z/n: z in Z}
that's why i said basically always lol
i think if it's in an algebraic context it's more clear it means Z/nZ
$\mathbb{Z}_{n\mathbb{Z}\ \mathbb{Z}}$
Blitz

$n_\mathbb{Z}$
Spamakin🎷
Perfect!
the hell
Spamakin🎷
can i ask a question on field theory here?
ah aiight
I scared them off 
for 2 algebraic numbers a and b which is true
Frru1ty
I don’t think this requires anything about algebraicity
huh
But you can get every one, the first is guaranteed
cool
Easy example of case 2: a=sqrt(2)+1 and b=-sqrt(2)
and for an easy example of case 3 you can take a=b=0.
Let $K$ be a field and $\operatorname{char}(K) = p > 0$. Let $f \in K[X]$ be an irreducible polynomial. Show that $f$ is not separable iff there exists a $g \in K[X]$ with $f = g(x^p)$.
rectangle cube
I can easily show the $\impliedby$ direction by using the fact that $f$ separable $\iff f' \neq 0$
rectangle cube
if f is not seperable then it's formal derivative is 0, that means that every monomial in f is of the form a_r * X^(rp)
"monomial in f"?
as in components of the sum that make up the polynomial
this describes how each summand must look like for the derivative to be 0
yw
is there any simple criterion for when an extension is cyclic
In general no I think
But you have things like this
See Kummer theory and Artin-Schreier theory
A main problem I think is that F<K cyclic and K<E cyclic does not imply F<E cyclic
This is what Clark says:
@formal ermine
We've defined the free group F(X) of a set X to be the set of words in the symbols x, x^{-1}, as x ranges elements of X
alongside the universal property on X: let G be a group and φ : X → G be a set map. then (G, φ) has the property if for any other pair (G', φ'), there is a unique group homomorphism f : G → G' such that fφ = φ'.
How would I prove the following?
If (G, φ) has the universal property on X, then G is isomorphic to F(X) via the identity on X
I know that there exist maps a : F(X) → G and b : G → F(X) such that ai = φ and bφ = i (by the universal property applied to (F(X), i) and (G, φ), where i here is the inclusion map)
And by uniqueness, I know that ba is the identity on X.
The hint is to show that ab is also the identity to conclude that a and b are isomorphisms, but I'm not sure how this works
is a symmetric matrix just stretching? i just checked the singular value decomposition for it and it shows that a symmetric matrix is just a rotation then stretching then rotating back(the inverse of the first rotation).... then isnt it just strectching?
i mean i know it isnt
but i dont see how it cannot be
this is the picture I have in my head
<@&286206848099549185>
nvm i got it
Do you agree that if ab and ba are both the identity, then a and b are isomorphisms?
The rest of it is just to repeat your argument for "ba is the identity" the other way around. There's not really any particular property of the official free group involved, just "if two groups both satisify the same universal property, then they're isomorphic".
thanks
is there something similar to this but for char 0?
(I hope you mean "ba is the identity on F(X)" here).
Re the first part: yes, since then they're both invertible.
I'm unsure of the repeat your argument bit, and I'm trying to work through the details right now: how do you know that the unique homomorphisms formed in the reverse case are still b and a, and not something completely different?
Yes, see kummer theory
You get the morphisms a and b once and for all by applying the universal property of G and F(X). They are ones you have before you start asking whether they are each other's inverses.
Hmm, perhaps I'm skipping a few steps here.
Have you proved yet that F(X) itself together with the inclusion from X into F(X) has the universal property?
Yes, I'm assuming above that (F(X), i) has the universal property
My thoughts are: given (G, φ) has the universal property, treating (F(X), i) as our other pair, you know there's a unique homomorphism b : G → F(X) such that bφ = i. Given (F(X), i) has the property, treating (G, φ) as the other pair, you know there's a unique homomorphism a : F(X) → G such that ai = φ, and from this you can show that ba is the identity.
I don't see how you can easily reverse this though
That looks right. But what you're saying is completely symmetric, you can just swap all references to (F(X),i) with (G,phi) and vice versa, and then your argument word-for-word proves that ab is the identity too.
The fact that a and b are the unique solutions to ai = φ and bφ = i ensures that it will be the same maps you're talking about.
When we "swap all references", don't the equalities ai = φ and bφ = i remain unchanged? How do you prove ab is the identity using those two?
Highly doubt it
Note that we are using the characteristic of the field very strongly. That extension is of degree char K
Ok yeah, ab is then the identity on G (not the identity on F(X), which was a source of confusion), so a and b are inverses
You also need to swap a and b, of course. Then after all the swapping "ai = φ" and "bφ = i" have turned into each other(!), but the conclusion "ba is the identity" has become "ab is the identity".
Great; thanks so much
Actually, sorry to bother you again, but how do we then know that the isomorphism from G to F(X) is the identity on X? If G was e.g. generated by X and φ was the inclusion, then sure, but I'm not sure why this is true in general (because all you know is that a(x) = φ(x) for x in X)
Perhaps the exercise should read "G is isomorphic to F(X) via φ on X?"
the isomorphism from G to F(X) is the identity on X
This claim doesn't seem to make sense to me.
X is not necessarily a subset of G.
On the other hand, since phi = ai and i is an injection, we know that phi must be an injection too, so each x in X corresponds to an element of G.
I'm not sure how to interpret "via the identity on X" in the exercise; I'd suggest ignoring it.
It doesn't make sense to me either: the claim in my notes is formulated as "If (G, φ) has the universal property on X, then G is isomorphic to F(X) via the identity on X", but I suspect the correct version involves φ (and yeah, φ injects into G in 'the same way' as i injects into F(X))
I don't think you can make it mean anything more interesting than what ai = φ and bφ = i already say.
Are Poisson algebras defined to be commutative algebras with a Poisson bracket? Looking at an article that doesn't impose commutativity but then claims $\text{ad}{a^{-1}} = -a^{-2}\text{ad}{a}$, which I can't seem to prove without commutativity
ΣAC
some people require commutativity, some don't
maybe whatever you're reading has a comment about its conventions somewhere?
maybe it follows the conventions of some of its sources which might?
The textbook written by the same people that wrote the paper that this article references does impose commutativity
I was just wondering if the identity holds in the non-commutative case, either it doesn't and they should have said commutatitive, or I just can't figure it out
i'll stare at it once i'm caffeinated and see if it's possible to prove without commutativity

