#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 28 of 1
no, they are
Help channels are also for high school questions; the advanced section is more appropriate for questions about this kind of topic.
i dont think we should be encouraging questions that users can find the answer to with a bit of research
if they do their research and have questions about it still, sure.
That doesnt look like whats happening here.
I think some people learn by first obtaining some superficial understanding of what it is they're learning first. My main reason for pushing back is because I've seen people ask questions like this, but with more advanced topics, and not get the kind of response y'all gave L3.
For example, i somehow doubt that if i went into #algebraic-geometry and asked a random basic question like "is a locally ringed space kinda like X", I would be just immediately directed to the definition in Hartshorne.
So this is a closed group?
1,0 are both contained in the set and applying that function to 1 gives you 0 and 0 gives you 1
So what’s the problem?
youve written an interval and an expression
also 'closed group' isnt a term
not the way you mean it probably
A group can be finite or infinite
That interval qualifies as a set yes
but that expression, i dont see how to interpret as a binary operator
???
no, the definition of a group is precise
it must be exactly as stated
or... its not really a group
So must be exactly a binary operator
yes it must be.
Alright
ie. something that takes in 2 things from the set and outputs something from the set
noting any of these somethings may be the same
So what about [1,0] operation is multiply
ok that qualifies as a binary operator
then proceed to check the axioms hold
or not
my brain hurts
Next would be the number identify?
you should read up about groups
oh okay i see what you are doing now lol
at least the definition
lol
I have
i think they should read about basic set theory first
the only interpretation of this i can tell is that you are asking whether $x \mapsto \frac{1-\cos(\pi x + \pi)}{2}$ is a well-defined function ${0,1} \to {0,1}$
im assuming
potato
but u need to check for everything in that interval
not just 0 and 1
An introductory book would hopefully explain with examples going through the axioms to make it clear
not sure if L3 is talking about [0, 1] or {0, 1}
{0, 1} indicates the set with 2 elements
odd
u mean that?
Ye
[0, 1] = reals from 0 to 1 inclusive
Oh right cause it’s like a range
yh ok, then try checking if {0, 1} under multiplication is a group
thats the first step
Next is number identity right?
what is the multiplication you have
you needn't show it's commutative to show it's a group anyway
But it’s a requirement right?
no
Order in a set under the operation shouldn’t matter
No.
But I thought that would mean it’s not a group
The axioms are what they are - nothing else should be assumed
none mention commutativity
to be clear thats when x * y = y * x for all x, y
i use * to mean a general binary operator
I’m a programmer so all that’s going to do is confuse me
eg. you can write +(1, 2) to mean one plus two if you're clear about it
Like when statistics uses | instead of the symbol is an element of
you will find after the initial introduction the group operation is written as if it were multiplication usually
ab means f(a, b)
a^2 means f(a, a)
thats the usual standard adopted in texts
It doesn't make sense to exponentiate that generally. In a group we can only talk about a^n where n is an integer. This is just given by repeated multiplication of the element, or its inverse if n was negative
Oh ok
This makes me wonder whether there is some "natural" group-like structure that allows exponentiation by elements of some other ring R or group or whatever. So that when R=Z you recover the case of groups with the usual integer exponentiation
Also is [a,b] the same as a->b
not sure what this is.
-> arrow sign
yh but i dont know what this notation means in this context
whats [a, b] and whats a -> b
[a,b] where a and b are both integers and I think maybe i should use the arrow as a limit so as a approaches b where a and b are both integers
uh there is no context just thinking of ideas
Convergence in integers just means that at some point they're equal?
Yeah

So what are you trying to do with [a,b]?
^
yh but thats not actually group theory related, was pointing out that didnt mean what u thought it did
also, you should check out #proofs-and-logic message
this would be a lot easier to take in with the foundations to go with it
and then some mathematical notation will be clearer
Fair but right now I’m going to keep asking questions because it’s working and working well
There's no way to know if it's working unless you know the material or are being tested on it by someone who does.
And you're almost better off reading a book/watching videos on the subject than just asking questions. There's just way too much material to learn for you to learn it through asking questions, it's just impossible for anyone. For example there will be things that you wouldn't have even thought to ask questions about since you can't possibly think of everything on a subject you're unfamiliar with.
Maybe i should clarify I do read and watch videos but then I create examples for myself and ask questions on where I don’t fully understand something
Because similarly it’s almost impossible for a book or video to answer every question on a subject
Watching individual videos won't help much either. You can't learn analysis by watching 3b1b for example. You'd need to follow some syllabus which textbooks and recorded courses inherently provide. And you should watch/read actual textbooks and lectures, for example watching 3b1b won't be enough, even his dedicated playlists on specific topics, like his linear algebra and calculus playlists, aren't enough to teach you their respective subjects. You need something structured which also ideally gives you problems to solve
A good book gives you the tools to answer these questions yourself.
But that’s how I learned calculus
You said you're a programmer right?
Ye
No I learned the other way around
Learning math is similar in a sense
You should be doing problems
You cannot learn without actually doing math. Reading is not enough
I’m doing problems that I’m making as examples
Active learning, not passive
That’s what I’m doing
Doing problems you create won't test your knowledge
Calculus is much much different from more advanced math. For one, you can learn it through pure memorization. And I doubt that if you learned it through watching individual videos without doing a lot of practice problems that you learned it well.
Making problems gives me problems doing problems helps me learn the material and asking questions about the problems is what allows me to fully understand them
How are you going to test your knowledge since writing good problems at a given level necessarily means you understand all the material at that level
I write problems that confuse me or that I don’t quite understand
If i tried making my own calc problems when learning i would likely end up with an impossible integral
If you're the one making the problems you have no idea if what you're doing is correct. You have no objective metric to judge yourself on. You're not an expert at the subject that you're currently learning, you don't know what kinds of problems you should be doing/know how to do
Which is why I’m asking questions
That doesn't solve the issue of you not solving problems written by experts. You don't know what kinds of problems you need to solve, there's no way for you to know: you're just learning the subject.
Plotting graphs means nothing
thats great, but i feel like u still would miss out. as slurp says
if u tried a set of (harder) calc problems would u be able to do them I wonder
Probably but when that problem comes up I go back and learn it
Like differential equations?
Sin(sin(x))
like idk, but im thinking like some university entrance level Qs
or 1st yr uni Qs
problem sets
Qs as in Quaternions?
Qualifying exams
Lmfao
Oh lol
Specifically, how did you learn calc if not through a dedicated series by a professional?
This is how^
By typing in integration equations
There just anti derivatives
I prefer the term Inverse derivative sounds more accurate
So do you know of the fundamental theorem of calculus?
Integration by parts?
Those are important calc topics
whats the point of this conversation?
to try convince them to learn the right way
I tried to learn how my school was teaching me and it was slow
bring l3 to the dark side of math bookwormery
I hope so
Can you integrate x*e^x?
Isn’t that a lambert W function

no
yes it is
thats how you would go about solving it if that expression was equated to something
Ye
but that is not the wambert func
I’ve done those before
It's like the classic example of integration by parts
I dont think Lambert solves anything lmao, thats why I said "no", unless Im wrong
Same concept as imaginary numbers just pretend that it exists
But there is a way to approximate it
this is tangenting off either way. No - integrating that expression has nothing to do with wambert
wambert LOL
The lambert W function is related to xe^x (it's the converse relation), it is not related to this integral
You're thinking of inverting xe^x, integrating it is just ibp
Unless you're meming lmao
Yeah that's what I said
Though I understand that ibp is not part of every calc curriculum
You could also just differentiate xe^x and then integrate the result or etc
who calls it lambert w, its clearly wambert
I never took a calculus curriculum
wambert's l function
Anyways next thingy
Walmart L functions??
Yes wambert is the inverse of xe^x
Whataburger L food
I found the graph btw
You shouldn't need to graph this to solve it
I use the graph to organize my work
desmosTeX
I don’t necessarily use the actual graph
if u try to continue this route
I struggle on that
at some point one needs to learn how to structure their work properly
in a way the reader can understand
and well, books do give a good indicator on that
I sometimes use programming logic to explain shit lol
For example I was using logical stuff to explain how Spanish works
Didn’t finish it but was working pretty well
Found it
People are trying to use this channel for its intended use now, we should probably migrate to another channel
Like a flock of birds
Suppose G is a group of order 2n where n is an odd integer. Show that there is an injective homomorphism from G to a symmetric group S_2n on 2n letters such that an element h of order 2 in G goes to the product of n transpositions.
So if you look at the action of G on itself by left multiplication, this is faithful and you get that |f(h)|=2, but I'm unsure where to go next.
A product of n transpositions has order 2, but why can't there be other elements with order 2?
(12)(23) = (123)?
disjoint i assume
well literally if your decomposition into disjoint cycles contains something other than a transposition it cant have order 2
the order of the product is the gcd of the disjoint cycle lengths
Oh I see, yes, probably disjoint
OK I understand, but now why must it be n transpositions?
i didnt think of the rest
Consider the permutation group of left translations on G, and what the element of order 2 looks like
in general for a function $\func{f}{X}{Y}$ which is not surjective, is it okay to redefine it as a function $\func{f}{X}{im(X)}$? or is it always better to just redefine a new function $\vfunc{g}{X}{im(X)}{x}{f(x)}$? i would like to do this for a certain module homomorphism to show that the domain is isomorphic to the image.
nilpotent nix
i did the defining a new function for my original proof, but i'd like to know if being lazy and just redefining it is acceptable
if f : X -> Y, ill usually just write f : X -> im(f) when i need a surjection onto the image.
I think the fiasco of defining a new function g : X -> im(f) such that g(x) = f(x) blah blah is just extra unneeded text
everyone will know what you are talking about
you can just restrict the image, it's usually written $f\vert^A$
Blaxapate
If $f\colon X\rightarrow Y$ is a function and $\Im(f)\subset A\subset Y$, it is possible to define $f\vert^A\colon X\rightarrow A$
Blaxapate
sometimes called the corestriction
why do we have to impose for a ring homomorphism that f(1)=1
f(x)=f(x)*f(1) then if f(1) isnt equal to 1 then there's a problem
so isnt it obvious from the condition f(xy)=f(x)f(y)
just like f(0)=2f(0) implied f(0)=0
for groups
even in a ring with one?
Why do you think it would?
What's the problem?
How do you know f(x) and f(x)*f(1) are different
if they're not... for all y in Imf, then ofc f(1) is the unit dont you see?
if f(x)*f(1) =f(x) for all x
like saying if yx=xy=x for all x
then y ofc is 1
it's literally the definition
You don't know it's true for all x, you know it's true for all f(x)
Anyway, an easy counterexample is f(x) = 0 for all x
yes
It's a ring homomorphism if you drop the condition f(1) = 1
A more interesting example is $f: \mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ with $x\mapsto 2x$
AoiKunie
ah
Hmm nvm that's not a ring homomorphism lol
It's definitely defined, I just defined it. But it's not multiplicative
Here are some examples https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/270883/in-a-ring-homomorphism-we-always-have-f1-1
could you please screenshot
An example from the link: $f: \mathbb{Z}_6 \to \mathbb{Z}_6$ given by $x\mapsto 3x$
AoiKunie
ah
It is multiplicative because $f(x) * f(y) = 3x * 3y = 9 xy = 3xy = f(xy)$
AoiKunie
The point is that the coniditon f(x) = f(x) * f(1) does not imply f(1)=1 in general
if your ring is an integral domain it does though
Actually, it suffices that there is at least one element in the image of f that is not a zero-divisor
Because then you can cancel this f(x)
np
If M_1, ..., M_n are pairwise commuting nilpotent operators on a vector space of dimension n, how do I show that M_1 ∘ ... ∘ M_n = 0
hint: ||commuting operators share an eigenvector||
That doesn’t say anything
well I'm not sure how to make sense of the eigenvectors when the eigenvalues are all 0
have you tried using induction
note that if M_n commutes with the other operators
it commutes with M_1 o .... o M_n-1
Interesting
Rather than caring about eigenvalues etc
oh you have a simpler way?
Not seeing with induction either
ill write it out because maybe im begin stupid
Ye you wanna do what you said I think
ah wait
i had a block diagonal instead of block triangular matrix that's where i was going wrong
hmm
Okay so like M_1,....,M_(n-1) are commuting nilpotent operators on im Mn, so we get the result by induction
I think
it's not obvious how to do induction since the n in number of nilpotent operators has to be equal to the n in the dimension of the vector space
then you have to assume all of them have a block of size 1
(This is fine right?)
But we have induction
one of them could be jordan block of size n?
We can’t argue by Jordan here anyways since it’s not necessarily over an alg closed field
yeah that should work
Im not sure about this step
okay
Why is that an endomorphism on imM_n
Right ofc
Owo
Yeah sounds good then
you still need to do the case n=2 then
n=2 is trivial no?
how do you prove n=1 => n=2
just assume the jordan form, only 2 possible nilpotents then
The same argument no?
I have two operators M1, M2 on a space of dim 2, then M2 maps V onto im M2 and by induction M1 vanishes on that
So like exactly the same argument works
So ye just need n=1
ah yeah Im slow lol
It’s a neat result
So ye
I was gonna come up w a meme solution but need to think a lil
okay I mean I have a funny solution that works over an infinite field I think
sure
why does the fact that im M_i is an invariant subspace give the result
Induction by considering M1…M_n-1 as an operator on imM_n
Consider M = a1 T1 + ... + an Tn, this is clearly nilpotent and so M^n = 0. Now M^n is the sum kf terms (a1 T1)^k1 ... (an T^n)^kn where k1 + ... + kn = n. Now we should be able to show all the terms vanish by picking appropriate a_i and killing them off 1 by 1 lol
But that is more of a meme
I don't see how to apply the inductive hypothesis here because it deals with a vector space of a different dimension
You’re inducting on n
Which is both the dimension and the number of operators
Oh wait o see your point
Is $S^1\times \bR^+\approx \bC^\times$? Where $S^1$ is the multiplicative group of the complex circle ?
@south patrol imM_n could have dimension less than n-1
Croqueta
Prove it
But no
You need R^*
you need (R^*)^+
that's what I mean!
They asked to show that SO(2,C) is isomorphic to S^1\times R^+, but SO(2,C) is trivially isomorphic to C^\times
I suppose they meant R^*, not R^+
tru
oh wait strong induction?
Oh no just embed imM_n into a space of dimension n-1 lol
strong induction works too right
I don’t see how strong induction applies here
Since you’d have to also reduce the number of operators considered
yeah
First few don’t preserve imM_n, only the first n-1
I mean
Just take some subset of the M_i if im M_n has smaller dim than n-1
No need to embed in a bigger space ig
Yeah this was wrong
oh so it works
Since each operator preserves imM_n
Yes
I need to stop trying to help people when I can’t even help myself lol
wait also why does this extend to more than two operators
induction again?
each operator preserves the image of another operator
Well of T_m in particular
so why should the composition preserve it too
oh I'm dumb
if you apply one operator, the result stays in im Mn
apply another, still stays
I see
Joe 1
Well, they must all conjugate it to something in <(12345)>, and you know what conjugation in A5 (well, S5 but it mostly transfers) looks like
You mean the action of G as a subgroup of the automorphism group?
I mean, since you know what conjugation looks like, it doesn’t take that long
But yes I would think
Yea, but also G has size 16?
bumping this
yes 🤦♂️
why K[X] is principal if K is a field
pick a non-zero element of your ideal of minimal degree and use division
so P0 is minimal degree, any element can be written P=QP0+R, R=0, so P0 divides everything
right?
where did i use K being a field?
r u still here?
you tell me, you're the one who wrote the proof
Lol that was my question tho
sorry for not responding literally immediately
why does R = 0?
degree of R is smaller than P0
but it wouldnt have had to be strictly smaller if i wasnt in a field?
just making sure :^)
the polynomial ring over a field is a euclidean domain
that's what lets you do this division in the first place
wdym
what do you mean i cant do this division
where did i say that?
its not..
you must be in a euclidean domain to do this
why?
... by the definition of a euclidean domain?
lol
you can't do this in Z[x] for example
why are we talking about euclidean domain, i didnt study that i am asking about fields
ffs
THE POLYNOMIAL RING
if k is a field then k[x] is a euclidean domain
then how do you even know you can perform that euclidean division????
how did you do this???
i can do multiplication and addition, but i can't divide x by 2 in Z[x] like this
thats division tho...
okay, let me clarify
this is decomposition
you cannot do this "decomposition" in Z[x]
are you just criticizing me for abusing terminology? are we talking about math anymore?
okay got it
im not sure what you mean, and no
dam dude chile
so the ideal generated by x and 2... what would it be generated by in R[X]
Z[x] is not a principal ideal domain
ye take 1,x
(2, x) is the classic example
^^
it's really fucking irritating to be pinged three minutes after posting something being asked "are you still here?"
oh 😂
don't do that, dazzlefishe
okay
I have a question
how come when I divide an integer by a gaussian integer and round up or down I end up with distinct GCDs
are they all the same up to plus/minus
well i think i got it thanks tteppa
or do they all have same norms which is ok for them to be distinct
for example when dividing 85 by 1+13i i get either 7+6i
or 6-7i depending on rounding
Let G be a non-abelian simple group. Let H be a subgroup of index 7 in G. Determine the number of conjugates of H in G.
So the number of conjugates has to be greater than 1 or else H is normal
But what do you do from there?
I am interested in finding the unitary irreps of the free group
has this been done before?
damn three questions lol
question if in the gaussian integers the norm of a doesnt divide the norm of b then a doesnt dividee b in Z[i] i.e., their GCD is 1
yes
its easy to see if a divides b then norm of a divides norm of b
yes. and its how you prove it
question
a divides b. b=ac so lbl=lal*lcl
how come when i divide 85 by 1+13i
and round up or down i get either 7+6i or 6-7i
is this ok as both have same norm
division isnt unique in gaussian integers
they're unique up to multiplying by 1,-1,i,-i
ahhhhhhhhh
makes total sense now
then ive been doing it correctly all along
thanks so much
cause i used the online calculator to cheeck my answer
and it was sometimes off by one of the factors u gave
but can you tell why?
oh this is true
and units in the gaussian integers are exactly the elements with norm 1
and that happens to be the roots of unity in gaussian integers
true
so 1,-1,i,-i
makes sense
i dont remember doing so
Google exists
just need a quick answer, like are they cyclic
no
neither Wikipedia?
so go to Wikipedia
idk why you cant use google, but you are using internet, just use some different search engine
will work fine
short answer: it's complicated
i dont really get why the fourier transform is defined as it is for non-abelian finite groups
like for abelian ones it makes sense

you're decomposing on an orthonormal basis of functions from G to C
i have the memory of a goldfish
is it normal to have read that, and said that, and have no memory of it?
and for non-abelian groups apparently the implicit basis you're doing this on is the matrix entries of irreducible reps
but i dont see where that is in the definition of the fourier transform
i tried to recover that interpretation with the fourier inversion formula but im not really getting anywhere
Do you want me to diagnose you with premature alzheimer or amnesia?
first one
or the other i ve had a lot of concussions
concussions is not algebra
wdym
(v quick - is there any nice notation for v1 \otimes ... \otimes v_n?)
stuff like otimes_{i=1}^{n} v_i looks a bit weird to me but maybe it is standard?
like small v_i's?
cause it's standard if you're actually writing the tensor porudct of many modules but i have no idea about the standard for writing simple tensors
i agree with you that would look weird
perhaps the \prod notation? No idea tho
why if a=1 mod 4 then a can be written as a=b^2+c^2
is there some name to this law?
nice thanks a lot
fund theorem for finite abeelian groups
tells you what theyre iso to
version 2 (of the fundemental theorem) in dummit and foote
question
MyMathYourMath
can i start by claiming theres no integer with norm equal to 2
then suppose 2=ab where a b are non units
its just that i cant really induct on n and how do I use that n >3 is square free
The approach is likely to write a and b in an explicit form and go from there
MyMathYourMath
where do I go from here
MyMathYourMath
cani just claim theres no element of R with norm 2
2
but i wanna know this method too!
2 has norm 4
oh that kindof norm
yeah
well i cant remember it
a^2+nb^2
and well if this gets u nowhere rip
modular arithmetic maybe idk
what do I do with all the x_i and y_i
equate imaginary coefficients?
Is there some generalization of the concept of R-module analogous to how groups are generalizations of abelian groups?
Do you mean something like an R-module but where the modulants need not commute with addition? Like, some action of a ring on a non-abelian group
Does every compliment of a normal subgroup come from a split extension?
yes
That's a good exercise, what have you tried?
One direction I understand. For the other, if I am trying to construct a s.e.s sequence when I know that H is complement to N. I'm not sure which surective map you would put for G-> H.
I’m pretty sure this is forced by the axioms to have addition commutative
This is true for rings at least using like, distributivity or something
(1+1)(a + b) = a + b + a + b
but also 2a + 2b = a + a + b + b
So now subtract a from the left and b from the right
Now b + a = a + b
is non associative algebra like done/used anywhere
Yes, Lie algebras are an example that pop up a lot
If you ask rep theorists they’ll say “associative, unital algebra” oftentimes
Because for them an algebra by default has neither associativity nor a unit
ic
It’s basically just the data of a symmetric bilinear form
If you also don’t care about commutativitiy, just a bilinear form kekw
right, that yes was stupid
It’s a valid question, just one that ends up not panning out
A stupid question is asking for associativity to no longer hold 
can anyone help me with these questions?
I'd probably start looking at the orbit-stabilizer theorem first
oh and of course Burnside's lemma
Why isn't 0 always required to not be in a multiplicatively closed subset?
Because we care about these to localize at them
If you localize at a set with 0 in it the result is 0
so it depends whether you are fine with including the zero ring
I understand. Every element in the localization will be equivalent to 0/0.
This is about a polynomial time reduction of the compressed word problem on a free product to something else, what does the something else mean?
Does it mean its reducible to both? or at least one?
idk if i should post here or #combinatorial-structures or #foundations LOL
maybe try #numerical-analysis too?
just to be sure im not doing something illegal here, if i have a handful of elements a_1,..., a_r of a finitely generated k-algebra i can always "complete" this set so that the algebra is just equal to k[a_1,....,a_n] =k[x_1,...,x_n]/I (with a_i = the image of x_i) right?
just by universal property of polynomial algebras?
Not sure what you mean by complete the set
Can't you just take the map k[x1,...,xr] -> k[a1,...,ar]
I just mean complete because the algebra might not be generated by a_1,…,a_r
So I just want to add in a few more elements so that it is
And then yeah I take the evaluation
If p_1,..., p_n are primes then sqrt p_1, ..., sqrt p_n are all linearly independent over Q right?
yee
you can also show that degree is that extension is 2^n, which gives you something more than just linear independence
which means sqrt p_i can't be written as any polynomial involving other sqrt(primes) with Q-coefficients
why can we assume that rho is unitary wlog in the proof of plancherel?
Hello
uhhh diaconis!!!
Yah
I knew that in the previous year but I can't recall 😐
Question: Consider $C_n$ and $C_m$. What would the operation be on $C_n \times C_m$?
mns
do you know how direct products are defined as groups
G, H groups, the set G x H becomes a group with the operation (g, h)(g', h') = ...
iirc, it's pointwise, right?
So $(g,h)(g',h') = (gg',hh')
thanks
Can anyone explain to me whats an algebraic closure
If anyone can explain it in french it will be better
in what sense
in the french sense
parlez-vous francais?
Oui
closures are usually constructed as "smallest thing with such and such property"
which is achieved by taking intersections of the objects you're constructing
for example, in universal algebra the algebra generated by some set is the intersections of all the subalgebras containing this set
oh wait. Now I remember
What i want to understand is
An algebraic closure in finite fields
What does a set thats algebraically close mean
Algebriquement clos in french
An algebraic closure of a field
sorry I never heard of the concept, what I remembered is algebraic closure operators in universal algebra, idk anything about algebraic closure in field theory
which is a bold name btw
An algebraic closure of a field K is a field K' containing K such that every polynomial in K' of degree >=1 has a root
an algebraic closure is an algebraic field extension containing your field which is algebraically closed. you can call it the algebraic closure because they're all isomorphic (fixing the base), so blitz is pretty much right (edited to bolden "algebraic")
Cause some polynomials don't have roots in R?
you can even see C as adjoining the roots of x^2 + 1 artificially to R as C = R[x]/(x^2 + 1)
taking the polynomial ring R[x] and then quotienting
then x plays the role of i
the smallest field containing them
adding on
that contains the original field
Are they? What if you take $\mathbb R$ as subset of an algebraic closure of $\mathbb R(t_\alpha : \alpha \in I)$ where $I$ has cardinal larger than the continuum? This should result in an algebraic closure of $\mathbb R$ that is not $\mathbb C$ but bigger
i don't know the french equivalent
Just A Dishwasher
Yeah I get it now
wut. i thought alg closures are isomorphic
like attaching the roots of x^2 + 1 to R
yes
i might be wrong but unless you require the algebraic closure to be "minimal" in some sense instead of just being an extension that is algebraically closed i don't think that's true
alg closure extends original field
yh it has to be minimal i thought
otherwise u can keep extending
If we take a polynomials ring and quotient it by a polynomials that doesn't have a root in the field K
algebraic extension
That quotient extends K?
An algebraic closure is not just an extension that is algebraically closed. Thats how it was defined for me
i didn't say just "algebraically closed extension"
otherwise C would also be an algebraic closure of Q
oh TTeppa said algebraic extension, nvm then, sorry
i used to think the term was used for any extension that is algebraically closed because i my eyes skipped the word "algebraic", it makes much more sense this way ;-,
And here I will advocate symbolising everything because words are dumb, but get told why thats sht again 
symbols are words too
english grammar articles and conjunctions are fluff 
Hello
If I have that |Gal(L/K)| = 1 for a finite extension L/K, can I conclude that L = K ?
what do you think?
I want to say yes but I can't convince myself formally xd
because G(K/K) = {Id_K}
and if |Gal(L/K)| = 1 it means that Gal(L/K) = {Id_L} but Id_L fixes K
So what you need to do is assume you have an a in L\K and somehow use that assumption to show there must be a nontrivial K-automorphism.
That wouldnt be an algebraic extension, so thats not an algebraic closure
we resolved this dw
uhh lmao Sorry didnt bother to read down and I thought the discussion was over haha. My bad
like you can take X to be a set with k many variables, and form the algebraic closure of Q(X). If k is continuum, thats C right, but if its larger it will be well idk.
but something containing C
Is N a notation for "continuum many" here?
yes
uhm I just realized I made many assumptions
okay, the transcendence degree of C/Q is c
is this correct ?
is that number of things u need to adjoin to Q
its the cardinality of a maximal algebraically indepenent subset (over Q) of C
ooh interesting
Actually if (as the notation suggests) you know the extension is Galois, doesn't your conclusion follow directly from the fundamental theorem of Galois theory (instead of mucking around with elements)?
In abstract algebra, the transcendence degree of a field extension L / K is a certain rather coarse measure of the "size" of the extension. Specifically, it is defined as the largest cardinality of an algebraically independent subset of L over K.
A subset S of L is a transcendence basis of L / K if it is algebraically independent over K and if f...
curious why u said C as opposed to R
(cardinality wise, thats whats usually used right)
because we are talking about the extension C/Q
is there any shortcut to showing that the subset of K-algebraic elements in L for a field extension L/K has a field a structure?
Algebraic independence is beautiful, because many of the elementary results are analogous to those of linear algebra concerning linear dependence. Eg. there always exists a transcendence basis (in a transcendental extension at least)
so this subset is L intersect K bar right
intersection of 2 fields is a field... (right?)
huh
and the cardinality of any two transcendence basis for the same extensions is the same, so that lets you define the transcendence degree
The extension isn't Galois
Shortcut, compared to what?
going through each field axiom
wait I have an idea
Most of the axioms you get for free by L being a field. You just need to check closure under addition, negation, multiplication, reciprocal.
every c in K(a, b) for a,b in \bar{K}_L is algebraic
is my argument circular or something
so we can just choose a \pm b, a \cdot b, \frac{a}{b}. does that work?
Now that Troposphere is here, I'll ask a question
: Given an extension F<K such that all elements of K not in F are transcendental over F, can you find a field E such that F<K<E and F<E is purely transcendental?
The heck are you waiting for me to show up before you ask field theory stuff?
uh no, I had asked this already in here, but no one really provided an answer
I see.
And I thought you might know something about it
Sorry if that offended you, I didnt intend it in that way
example of a linear function on the space of sequences
No, sorry, it's just funny that I don't really feel knowledgeable about field theory. What little I know I have to reconstruct from first principles each time.
to show that a polynomial $f(x)$ is the minimal polynomial of $k$ over some field, I only have to show that $f(x)$ is normed, irreducible, and $f(k) = 0$?
and I'll do it again.
That question probably touches on set theory (maybe Im wrong), algebraic closures or transcendence bases already do touch on infinity (but thats just a straightforward application of Zorn's lemma). Thats why I thought someone knowledgable about infinity could say something about it (I often see you talk about set theory and logic in the server, so Im assuming this is kind of your expertise, yes).
im assuming ur interested in 'can you always find' 
maybe im missing something, but i dont see why not pick E = F(x)
because you have to include K as an intermediate field
oh i got it the wrong way round sillynme
Wait but this is false lol
Gal(Q(cubic_root(2)) / Q) = {Id} and Q(cubic_root(2)) =/= Q
Why doesn't K(x) work?
the top isnt true
why is that the galois group
isnt it C3 or something
oh wait dumb me
no that extension isnt galois
so can u clarify what is Gal in that case
In which case ?
Gal(non galois extension)
here?
oh
so something like Q<Q(t, sqrt(t^2+1)) is totally transcendental but not purely transcendental
i think we answered the Q assuming Gal operates on galois extensions only
and thats neither Q(t) nor Q(sqrt(t^2+1))
this is another example
The definition in my course doesn't require a Galois extension to define the Galois group
if u dont, then indeed uve found a counterexample to your original statement
Only a finite extension
so Gal is just all automorphisms of K in L I see
okay thank you
In my course we write G(./.) but I saw that here we write Gal xd
Actually it is all auto from L to L that fixes K
So what you want to do is find a set of independent variables X such that F<K<F(X)
I'm trying to prove that L/K finite of degree 2 implies that L/K is a Galois extension
@tribal moss Thx btw, I guess you too have assumed that L/K is Galois
So where does considering |Gal(L/K)| come into this?
being slow
L/K not galois => |Gal(L/K)| = 1 is your thought processs?
L/K is Gal <=> |G(L/K)| = [L : K]
Yes because we always have that |G(L/K)| <= [L : K]
ok ok, im with u now
stronger: I believe it actually has to divide right
not just leq
so if you change your question from 2 to 3
you will see your approach indeed can't work
right
you can still think this but get stuck?
And by contradiction, I have this : |G(L/K)| =/= [L : K] i.e |G(L/K)| > [L : K] or |G(L/K)| < [L : K]
And the fact that |G(L/K)| <= [L : K] is always true eliminates the first case
I'm kinda stuck yes
this is not true, so there's no way you can prove it
So it'll turn out if [L : K] = 2 this is indeed true, but this is precisely what you're trying to prove lol
wait wut
my brain 😵💫
ok separability problem?
yes
We assumed this for the entire course
ok, so i assume the question assumes char 0
in this case yes
Omg I hate this field
and you can see that there's only one automorphism
yes, you have to send sqrt(t) to sqrt(t)
?
yes
idk about normed
ok thanks
oh ok i see the defn
it's a requirement you put on it for it to be unique
i think my course stated that some other way
Wait i'm kinda slow for this
monomial?
monic
ah yh monic
the relevant ideal would also be generated by a*p
oh yeah that's the correct word for normed
it's "normiert" in german that's probably why illum called it that
There's also a 'norm' definition so might be confusing if u call it 'normed'
In characteristic 0 (or to be fair, in characteristic not 2), you can easily characterize extensions of degree 2, they are "Kummer", that is, [L:K]=2 implies L=K(a) for some a not in K such that a² is in K. That is, you add a square root of an element. From that, you can see that there are 2 automorphism of L fixing K: sending b to b (the identity) and sending b to -b (the conjugacy).
$X^3 - 2$ is irreducible by eisenstein with $2$ ye?
habit
i dont see why not
over Z, Q, yes
yeh
it has a real root so not there though
So, you have L=K(b) with b² in K. If you're in characteristic 2, b=-b. Take an automorphism of L fixing K, it must send b² to itself, so it must send b to b or -b; but b=-b, so really there's only one choice, it's the identity.
Given an extension F<K such that all elements of K not in F are transcendental over F, can you find a field E such that F<K<E and F<E is purely transcendental?
Doubt I can help, but to give it a go, K = F(x^2, rt(x) + x), you would pick E = F(rt(x)) right
and I suppose you're expecting the statement is true
No idk
Picking the right extension for E is a bit like finding the 'gcd'
I understand thanks
K is purely transcendental there I think
We have Luroths theorem, that says that if F<K<F(x) then K is purely transcendental (i.e. iso to F(x))
It is weird, idk. The question maybe doesnt make much sense
Why not.
Q(t,sqrt(t^2+1)) is totally transcendental but not purely transcendental
but it only has one "variable", and we know Q(t,sqrt(t^2+1)) not < Q(x) for some x
these things are very subtle, and I admit I should know more about it before talking about it
Because for example, Luroth's theorem doesnt hold in general for intermediate fields of an extension of the type F<F(x,y), but it does hold when F is algebraically closed
I'm thinking to myself rn if your Q is equivalent to asking:
For S an algebraically dependent set over F, can you always find extension F(T) over F(S) with T algebraically independent
Well I know nothing and just going off defns 
You can take S=K right
xd
well I guess that doesnt apply, because then it would be trivially dependent
but yes
I meant K=F(K) lol, but K is algebraically dependent over F even in the case when F<K is purely transcendental (simply because it contains F). What I said is nonsense, forget it
Yes
if it is, I think this is an easier Q to parse
for me at least
The point of transcendence bases is the following: If F<K is transcendental, then there exists a set T such that F<F(T)<K with F<F(T) purely transcendental and F(T)<K algebraic
yh I think I get that goal
I diagonalizable iff A diagonalizable
i simply said, let B be the matrix of I, BM=AM. So, if M invertible then B=A . other wise take a sequence of matrices Mn that goes to M that is invertible, we have B=A for all n, and from continuity we deduce B=A
i feel ive done something terribly wrong
any clues?
is it now...
I guess we would embedd Q(t, sqrt(t^2+1)) in a field of the form Q(X) for some set X of variables. I guess it does make sense
phi(M+1/n)=BMn=AMn
and what does "M + 1/n" mean?
but no idea tho
and why is this going to be invertible?
long proof

i am speaking specifically about M + (1/n)I
also, what is K?
a field
will 1/n always be defined here? what's the topology on M_n(K)?
what does 1/n mean if the field has characteristic n?
i am not sure what you mean
yes itll always be defined
just nvm ill look at the sol
i don't even understand the question

