#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 27 of 1
thus x-y \in I+J
and for the ideal property
let r \in R
then by distributive property r(a+b)=ra+rb
where a \in I and b \in J
thus by idea proerty of I,J ra \in I and rb \in J
thus I+J is an ideal
Yeah nice
What happens if instead of using the trace we use the determinant?
It will be something different, but det(\wedge ^k A) must also encode a lot of (interesting) information about A
this look right to yall , problem is [G:H] < p |H| where H subroup of G then H is normal
why do you say that O(gH) = [G:H]? That would be true if the action were G x G/H -> G/H, but your action is H x G/H -> G/H
to see that it's not true, take any g in H, then gH = H and O(gH) is just {H}
if the gcd is defined for any PID, whats the gcd of 5,7 in R?
R, as in real numbers?
gcd is a thing which is defined up to units. gcd(a, b) is a common divisor such that every common divisor divides it. with the definition, you can see that it only makes sense to talk about gcd up to multiplication by an invertible element. for fields every non-zero element is a unit, so gcd of any two elements will be 1, unless both are 0 in which case gcd(0,0) = 0
Is there a useful analog of this for multilinear forms?
wdym up to multiplication by an invertible element
AH i got it
Lemme phrase that better
Nvm
in a PID it makes sense to do that yes, the gcd of a,b is the ideal (a)+(b)
Ah cool
no elaborate plz
Yea that's just what I was about to say
idk if you would say "the ideal", but that ideal has single generators, those generators are gcds.
Croqueta elaborated for me lol
Ah yeah i get it
but there is a problem, this definition only works for PIDs
for general GCD-domains (basically ring where gcd makes sense) the ideal (a, b) might not even be principal
even for UFDs, that's not the case
Yea
3d matrices 
idk lol

I guess thats all you can do lul. I guess this simply states that to evaluate f(v_1,..,v_n) you only need to know the coordinates of v_i and the image of the n-tuples of basis vectors.
yea >.<
show that Z is noetherian
i want to use the property that Z is principal
so i am taking the Union of ideals since we have an increasing seq of ideals
and i know that this is generated by just one element
Yes
but i am not sure how to move from there
i want to show that there is a smallest one
Use one of the equivalent criteria for Nietherian
gcd
Well I mean
All ideals are finitely generated
So you have a union of ideals
yes
and this generates the union
yes
So how does that relate to the original ideals
all original ideals are included in it
i am not sure what else
Ah
my element is the the generator for the biggest ideal, the last one
You already have that all ideals are fg, which is equivalent to Noetherian
how?
how is it equivalent
Otherwise you can always construct an ascending chain which does not stabilize
ok i see the first implication, i am asking about the equivalence
It’s standard and given in all books
Other way is what you just did
Take the union of the AC and its fg so must stabilize after a point
Hm
You can construct a dc that doesn’t stabilize
Fun fact, all Artinian rings are Noetherian
ouf
how
in Z for example
Z, ill remove an ideal, lets say 100000
if i remove all ideals below that
|| (2) ⊃(2²) ⊃ (2³) ... ||
i am bound to go to 0
lol
i am so fucking bounded in thinking :/
is there some characterization for artinian?
hint (x) ⊃(x²) ⊃ (x³) ...
dcc?
every set of ideals have a minimal element is another characterization
i am not sure whats dcc, but i mean like the finitely generated ideals thingy
unfortunately no
whats a minimal element? a minimum?
i know what a minimal polynomial is
minimal under inclusion,
could you elaborate what this means then?
meaning there's no smaller ideal contained inside it
Have you read any standard book for these definitions? It's literally an equivalent definition
i have not, this came up in an exam 2 years ago its not in my book
i was doing old exams and we're asked to prove this
whats acc
ascending chain condition
ah
the increasing chain stabilize thingy
but wdym i want to understand this
you know what a partial ordering is?
no
ok I'll phrase it differently then
i think i do tho
ok
ah yeah yeah i do
its just a generalization of > and <
to include inclusion and such
it means that if you take a set of ideals of R then you must find one ideal among them which is "smallest" in the sense that there's no smaller ideal contained inside it which is also in your set.
say (2), (2²) thingy
so its kind of like the minimum property for intervals in R
if you pick (2ⁿ), you'll always get (2^(n+1)) contained inside it
so no minimal ideal
.
and can i say that an example of a non noetherian ring is the set of matrices Mn(R)?
or what other examples can i propose
right xd
maybe you should get comfortable with the def first
so Z[X]
is any ideal of matrices finitely generated?
i am, by trying to find examples
Z[x] is Noetherian ring btw
look up Hilbert basis theorem
so i need infinite dimensions for that?
ok can't recall an easy example but here's one
ℤ [1/p]/ℤ
or easier is ℤ [x1, x2,...] constantly many variables
ℂ{z}
Can anyone have an example of when a quotient of an injective module is not injective.
I know it's not possible over PIDs in general
or even semisimple 😪
the examples i can find online are where R is an infinite product of fields e.g. countable product of F_2
okay and why the quotient is not injective?
wait hm okay the thing i found online was flawed lol
you might find this helpful https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2864675/quotient-of-injective-module-which-is-not-injective
this is interesting to me too now hm
a necessary and sufficent condition for this to be an integral domain
my guess is that there's only one element in P(E) other than E and the empty set
there definitely should be no disjoint elements
yes! (non-empty disjoint)
and why finitude of E implies this ring is principal
principal ideal ring?
yeah
yeah, so its the intersection of all elements of E with a selected set of elements
yes so let's say X is an element of our ideal
what can you say about the subsets of X?
so when E is finite, it suffices to take the union of all intersections with all elements
am i right?
i am not sure what you mean
that's an element of P(E) and will generate the ideal
but why does it break down when E is infinite
So, if X is an element of I and X' subset of X then X' is in I right?
yes
kind of got it
but just being closed for subsets doesn't mean it's principal yet
you have to look at the other operation too
for example the subset containing {1}, {2}, Ø isn't generated by a single element
however {1} Δ {2} = {1,2}
and if you add that element then this thing will be an ideal and it's generated by {1,2}
more generally $A\cup B = (A\cap B) \Delta (A\Delta B)$
Just A Dishwasher
and you can extend this for any finite amount of things
So if P(E) is finite and I is an ideal then I is finite so it is closed for unions so you can take the union of all elements of I and that'll give you an element that generates I
so P(E) is a principal ideal ring in that case
if P(E) is finite then E is finite
yeah
E being finite is equivalent to P(E) being finite
yeah
i mean if we dont have P(E) finite
i am doing the other implication
P(E) principal iff E finite
Okay, suppose P(E) is infinite
Let I be the set of all finite subsets of P(E)
prove that this is an ideal that is not principal
god why is thinking this hard
idk
i think of taking some kind of union
Suppose it is principal. Then there'd be an element X that generates the ideal. Can you reach a contradiction from here?
Hint: ||An ideal here is closed for subsets so X would have to contain every finite set...||
What was our ideal?
all finite subsets
but there is infinite finite subsets
so what we're saying is that the ideal generated by all finite subsets cannot be generated by other than an infinite subset
but the infinite subset cant be the generator for finite subsets, because it's not a finite subset
and finite subsets are closed under intersection?
yeah
alternatively, suppose X generates the ideal. Then X is finite. So you can find an element outside of X to create a bigger subset that is not contained in the ideal generated by X
Cool name
well i've seen other situations where similar techniques are of use
okay?
the finite ones are principal because we proved ideals are closed for finite unions
so it's natural to try an example where we'd need an infinite union
uwu math girl gone sad
But g not in H by construction cause g is in that and other cosets
Right?
i want the diagramm that shows where each structure lies within the others, like rings PID, fields...
whats it called. i remember seeing it on wiki someday
Oh wait I jsut need the number or orbits is bounded by the index
do you mean this?
try and come up with examples
why don't you try to come up with ecamples for yourself
sniped
i got sniped
double sniped
i want allllllllllllll examples

what other examples can you come up with based on Z
it's impliedd
Z/nz
its also a ring
commutative
field if n is prime
not integral so ofc not principal
wait this deduction is false right
i mean theres ofc Z[X]
that's one
and R[X]
depends whether by principal you mean "principal ring" or "principal domain"
i think principal ring, i ve never heard of principal domain
oh
principal ring is one which every ideal is generated by one element right?
nvm then i thought you meant a PID
principal domain is a principal ring that is also an integral domain
this is a pid
wait.... but principal doesnt imply integral?
No
im probably getting my terms mixed up i hadnt heard of principal rings
pid also needs requirement to be an integral domain
while principal ideal ring doesn't
when they said principal ring i assumed pid, ignore that then
integral is a weak condition
so principle implies integral?
ok see im not crazy
i am getting mixed msgs
like check the inclusions
but they dont mean PID's
how do we move from this to integral
sear it into your skull
when u say principal, you mean PID yes?
???
ok heres my list of rings i actually use
===
Rings
Integral Domains (ID) - no zero-divisors (ab = 0 implies a or b = 0)
Unique Factorisation Domains (UFD) - all factorisations are unique
Principal Ideal Domains (PID) - all ideals can be generated by one element
Euclidean Domains (ED) - euclidean algorithm exists
Fields
same
in order
this is the only defniition of principal
thats a principal ideal domain
probably throw noetherian in there too
iem a PID
it doesnt live in the inclusion chain
"it's not necessarily integral"
ok so a PID is integral?
yees
how to prove that
yes. check the inclusion hierarchy
The proof of inclusions are generally non trivial so just look them up
so this deduction is actually correct
A PRINCIPAL IDEAL RING IS NOT THE SAME THING AS A PID
oh
stop with the freakin def please
i want the thing where every ideal is generated by 1 element
no i got something wrong
name it SBHADVIDBHSKBFJKASFP
Principal ideal ring
and it is not in those inclusions you saw
so whats PIR vs PID difference
SBHADVIDBHSKBFJKASFP is necessarily integral?
r v d
No
PID is a PIR that is also integral
yes remember that P(E) thing
yes
for E finite with more than 1 element
wait a second.
that is principal ideal ring as we proved
yes
but it's not integral
is this context entirely in commutative rings with unity
yes
just checking
for me at least
Powerset of E with sum given by symmetric difference and multiplication given by intersection
oki
.
for n not prime yes
this is probably not the most enlightening discussion to understand that chain of inclusions tho
yh, ive never heard of PIR before this
The point of many of the inclusions is to characterize how much this thing behaves like the integers with different particular properties
well not when you get to fields since integers is not a field
i'd think it's more like if you prove something is one of them then automatically you know it's all the lower ones
ok so lets keep going
where were you taking me
Z[x] and Z[sqrt{d}]
Z[X] isnt PID
there you go
but it is noetherian
so that's an easy example of a noetherian ring that isn't a pid
yeah thats very cool
Z[sqrt{d}] is p+qsqrt(d)?
its a ring
id guess its not principal tho idk why
i like to use a and b instead of p,q, keep those for primes
this is a common confusion tho
one of my profs uses PIR always
because he excludes rings with zero divisors from the definition completely
depends 
actually maybe it's always a PID i'm not sure
but that's not what the example is supposed to highlight anyways
is it a PID? how can i prove that?
it's not
what is it meant to highlight?
it's not even a UFD
it's a euclidean domain for certain values of d
yeah i wouldve guessed so
in which case it is a PID and in turn also a UFD
what's the point of this
nvm i see why, for it to be integral

is there some cool intuition for this
timo still getting sniped
what does he mean by all numbers for 1 to n-1 are relatively prime to n and can be paired into pairs of multiplicative inverses
if n is prime then every number from 1 to n-1 is relatively prime with n
yes
gcd(a, n) = 1
and?
4 . 1 = -1
something i multiply by to get 1
and this is a field btw
yes so each has an inverse
and its unique
so necessarily they get paired up
right?
ah so (p-1)! cong to -1 [p] is super intuitive
fuck
thanks
just spend a moment convincing yourself yh.
also. x^2 = 1
can only have 2 solutions at most
is a key point
one way is the fundamental theorem of algebra
you need to show there arent more solutions
otherwise they dont all pair
so its always 1 and -1
unless 1 = -1
but u can manually check that case
how to prove that a finite integral ring is a field
my prof did a seemingly complicated method
finite integral ring?
yeah, integral domain ring
an integral domain with finite elements?
yes
hm
uh pigeonhole i think
maybe
yh i think so
try that idea and see if it gets u there
think thats an important proof technique
that you ideally shouldve come across by now. maybe another name
lookit up
tell me the gist
then again it's a name for something simple
i study in french
ah
got it
principe des tiroirs
how can it be useful here
actually i get it
very smart thanks
wilson's theorem is cool
i think there are like a million proofs
My favourite is probably like $x^{p-1}-1 \in \mathbb F_p[x]$ factors as $\prod_{a \in \mathbb F_p^\times} (x+a)$ and then plug in $x = 0$
find x so that x=2[19] and x=3[15]
potato
i should use the chinese remaindertheorem
not sure how tho
what? xd
lol
whats Fp
oh
well F_p = Z/pZ
but thought of as a field lol but i could've written it as Z/pZ
the point is that x^{p-1} and the other thing both have the same roots
because both of them vanish at 1,2,...,p-1
ok.... so we have (p-1)!= -1[p]
yup
how do you want to prove that
Well okay I'll add more detail to what I did then lol
waaaaw
incredible observation
absolutely fabulous
i think i am good
how bout this?
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
how do i use the crt
but like if p is odd then that is what you want and for p = 1 it works fine
19 and 15 are coprime
actually tbf you don't really need the chinese remainder theorem here other than just to know a solution exists lol
yes
so.... x=6[19*15]?
So what I'd do is like uh so this is a general method basically like
write x = 3 + 15a for some a and then do that mod 19
so like 3 + 15a = 2 mod 19
go from there
keep going
i have no idea what to do from here i already reached this
15a=-1mod19
yes
or 4a = 1 mod 19
equivalently
now you just need to find an inverse for 4
and you can do that by guessing or something lol
well, or maybe you can see it
how?
15 = -4 mod 19
ye
wait wdym
oh
sorry yeah wasn't sure what you meant by the []
mod
ye sure
is there some intuitive way to make sense of this?
where phi is the euler function
oh lol i couldn't see the 1
The Theorem of Lagrange
Well I would basically take this as a statement that $\varphi(n) = |(\mathbb Z/n \mathbb Z)^\times|$ plus Lagrange
^
Lol my latex today is not great
🫂
potato
Also uhh
so I wanted to show that there's a finite group G which doesn't embed into GL_2(C)
Am I right in thinking that like
this theorem is used so often that I wonder if it even needs a name
I can take G = (Z/2)^n and then like if there were an embedding of G into GL_2(C), then the matrices in the image would be digonalisable + commute and hence be simultaneously diagonalisable
so because the group of invertibles is exactly of cardinality phi(n) then a^ phi(n)=1 because every element's order divides phi(n)
But there are only 4 diagonal matrices of order 2
So I can take n > 4 and be done?
And then I imagine in general you can take (Z/2)^{2^n + 1} and it doesn't embed in GL_n(C), by the same argument
Okay yeah sk this is basically saying any finite abelian subgroup of GL_n(C) can be conjugated to live in the maximal torus lol
And so we just need a finite ab group which cannot be embedded into U(1)^n
And then that is calm
Let A=Q[x,y], p=(x^2-y^3), is the following a valid proof that A/p is not integrally closed?
x^2-y^3 is irreducible, since considered as a monic polynomial in x over Q[y] it has no roots => A/p integral domain. If x',y' are the images of x,y in A/p, then x'/y' satisfies the equation t^2-y'=0 and is integral over A/p. It does not however belong to A/p, since if x'/y'=f\in A/p, then y'^3=y'^2f^2 => f=0 (since y' != 0 in A/p).
can a group contain more than one maximal normal subgroup?
pZ is a maximal normal subgroup of Z for every prime.
wait isn't Z doesn't have a maximal normal subgroup?
ocean man has just given you countably many
idk like uh
any subgroup of Z is of the form nZ for some n
and if nZ properly contains pZ then n|p
Anyone?
ok i think i get it, pz is not Zp
why does this make sense, for the euler function if m,n are coprime
if $m,n$ coprime then $\mathbb Z/m\mathbb Z \cong \mathbb Z/m\mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$
like suppose first number a= 2.3.5=30, and b=7 , so phi(m) are the numbers that are coprime with each divisor
i dont want that
potato
now take units
too abstract for something intuitive
there we go ^
Yeah it does follow from this statement of the CRT
Yeah you're not gonna get something intuitive.
it is intuitive
Does someone have a simple and intuitive
Or maybe i should say: you share a factor with mn iff you share a factor with m or n
because you can work with primes ig
prime powers* tbh
well i mean working with primes is okay right?
if two numbers aren't coprime, then a prime divides them both so that enough
Nah you need to deal with the prime power case separately
yes
we can work with primes
okay perhaps idk i basically view \phi(n) as order of (Z/nZ)^X
^ this is just unequivocally the best way of seeing this imo
so we are basically asking why |(Z/mnZ)^x| = |(Z/m)^x| |(Z/n)^x|
and the most illuminating way is probably just to show that we have a straight up iso on the level of the original groups
to me at least
how is iso equi to this
well not equivalent
If two rings are isomorphic, so are their groups of units
and the group of units of R x S is R^x x S^x
done.
okay, still why would this be true |(Z/mnZ)^x| = |(Z/m)^x| |(Z/n)^x|
Bro
$\mathbb Z/mn \simeq \mathbb Z/m \times \mathbb Z/n$, take units, $(\mathbb Z/mn)^\times \simeq (\mathbb Z/m)^\times \times (\mathbb Z/n)^\times$, take cardinalities
Z/mnZ is isomorphic to Z/mZ x Z/nZ, by CRT
potato
This is what I said earlier and you decried as being too abstract 
lol, it still is but ill take it
since now i understand it better
But like idk maybe there is a difference between like
AND I am DONE with this yeeey
smth which is simple algebraically vs simple if you are learning nt for the first time
now to the 40 exercises lol
like different aesthetic concerns lol
:((((
so is it correct to say that any group can be a normal subgroup of some bigger group?
yes but fairly trivially
Yes; in fact this is trivial. If N is some group, then it is a normal subgroup of N x G for any group G.
If you want an example where the larger subgroup acts nontrivially on G, the holomorph of a group is a good example, and is a larger group in almost all cases.
Fun thing about the holomorph of a group G: if you see it as a split short exact sequence, it is the terminal object on the category of all such sequences with kernel G
That's a really cool fact!
man why you do this to me, i thought i am understanding something few minutes ago
So you could say that the holomorph of G classifies semidirect products with kernel G
Why is the nilradical of a local ring trivial?
I'm just saying it to people who might understand it. If you don't understand something it's okay, maybe one day you can study it later if you want
Yeah. It's definitely the "most generic" semidirect product
I suppose in some ways this is obvious
ok... 🥲
intersect all the primes maybe
at least as a first step to approaching it
Is this for commutative rings or rings in general?
commutative rings
Is it even true?
i don't see why it should be
ya
like x is nilpotent then it's already inside the prime ideal P, localizing it doesn't send it to 0
k[X]/(X^2) ?
I also meant to include that it's a domain,
A domain doesn't have zero divisors
How did you define nilradicals?
radical of 0
oh of course
Think there's an error when you say the quotient is not in A
You want to show it's not in A/P
People aren't not answering because they don't see your question; they're not answering because they don't know.
That's what I meant, just a typo.
better to repost if it gets bumped away, it happens
Should I now or later?
Then I guess only the last step is slightly confusing
Isn't the result then f^2 = y' in A/p?
Ah shit you're right, i fucked up with the arithmetic.
Still, should be possible to write down an argument that says that y' is not a square in A modulo p
is there some characterization for similar matrices in terms of characteristic polynomials or eigen values
only when its the same roots and same dimension of eigenspace for each root right?
ah no not even then
nvm
hm i don't think even that is correct cause you care about how the generalised eigenspaces behave
i want to show that if A^3 +A=0 then A is similar to this
so you could have like three jordna blocks of size 2 vs two jordan blocks of size 3
then theres no way :((
i mean that isn't true in general because of stuff like A = 0
Yeah lol thats true
and probably more non-trivial examples
this is an exam
which field is this over
hm okay
so i think for 3x3 stuff this works
because like
there are only a few ways a matrix can split into jordan blocks
if each factor is simple, no double roots
that means they're similar right?
in C they're both similar to the same diagonal matrix
in R.... well i am not sure
actually so means i am right?
if matrices are conjugate over C, they are conjugate over R
so yes, since in C all of them are conjugate to the same matrix, they are all conjugate over C
and hence all conjugate over R lol
gg
and this isn't actually too bad to show
thanks ❤️
Two matrices are similar if they have the same rational canonical form in general
whats that
like you can put a matrix in the form diag(A_1,..., A_n) for some block matrices A_k where A_k is the companion matrix of some polynomial f_k and f1 | f2 | ... | f_n
but uh basically the important thing is that this is a canonical form that exists without assumptions on the field
and the min poly of A_k is f_k
so the rational canonical form of a matrix satisfying A^3 + A is very heavily constrained
Isn't it the characteristic polynomial?
min poly = characteristic poly for companion matrices
Ah
what does that mean :p
companion matrix isnt for cyclic functions?
Yeah it's equivalent
The equivalence is not straightforward though
what does it have to do here with anything?
this is very new to me so i need a bit of a thourough explanantion
the thing potato said
i just know that a companion matrix is a matrix for some cyclic f
what about, given an endomorphism f over a vector space E, you construct a family of subspaces of E on which the restriction of f is cyclic ?
You can do that algorithmically
but if the restriction on subspaces is cyclic doesnt it mean f is cyclic?
nah. hum, I could try to tell what it does but I don't really know the words in English for that
nuclear bomb: do you have RCF at your disposal?
yeah
whats that
in full name
Bon. Si V est un sous espace de E stable par f sur lequel f est cyclique, alors tu peux réduire f sur une base de E adaptée à une décomposition du type E = V + S où S est un supplémentaire de V dans E. Regarde alors le bloc en haut à gauche de la matrice que tu obtiens pour f.
What does that stand for ?
f is cyclic only on some of the subspaces
is this f1 divides f2 fivides f3?
I just thought, what about you diagonalize A ?
A^3 + A = 0 gives a straightforward diagonalization over C
yeah... we were talking about another method
oh ok
this thing
i really really want to understand this
can you plz either explain it fully, or guide me somehow?
Well, I have only 2 years of studies past high school and I'm not in the university. That does not ring a bell to me.
tu fais prepa?
l'X
yes
Me too
atten mais t es admis non?
J'étais en MP
ouais xd et t as gagne
Kinda jokish that you go there if your bro did too
yeah. I feel like the universe is against me tho
mmh t'es à ginette ou llg ?
it wont let me do this
filiere international, liban
rational canonical form
Ah yeah the reduction over subspaces where the function is cyclic
how can i understand this better?
decomposes any matrix into companion matrices of factors of its characteristic polynomial
any matrix, not just one whose characteristic polynomial splits like jordan form
so we take each factor, and see the companion matrix that we can get out of it?
the proof seems straightforward for the existence of this reduction, but the uniqueness is not seemingly
first time i come across that too tbh
how can it be unique? doesnt it depend on the vector i choose as a starting point?
yeah but actually i've just read an additional condition
the characteristic polynomials of each companion block f1, f2 ... fk must satisfy f1 | f2 | ... | fk
what does that mean
f1 divides f2, etc...
Does the correspondence in the correspondence theorem for ideals preserve maximality?
I guess this is obvious if you think about the lattices.
well, the RCF of that matrix is going to be what ? if you take v an eigenvector associated to i and u associated to -i, then A(u+v) = i(u-v), A²(u+v) = -(u+v) so basically the RCF of A over C is given by a reduction over the basis x, u+v, i(u-v) with Ax = 0
and that gives you the matrix on the right
I've never manipulated RCF (and I don't think I ever will) though
No. Consider the inclusion Z->Q. (0) is maximal in Q but its preimage isn't maximal in Z
hmmm
I meant in the context of quotients
Ah oof
i.e. if the projection of a maximal ideal is a maximal ideal
Oh well this is not the rcf
but still solves the problem
how does f1|f2| f3
ah
xd
anyways. rcf seems to be a super powerful tool and i know it's not taught in mp so just don't use it
yes xd
might help if you want to get into ulm though
ulm?
ens de paris
ah
(harder to get than l'x)
(much much harder)
ik lol
Why is (xy-2) contained in (x-2,y-1) in R[x,y] where R is the reals?
it's all an easy consequence of a (maybe) hard theorem: decomposition of finitely generated modules over PIDs
stop abbreviations :/
pid ?
principal ideal domain
^
integral domain and every ideal is generated by one element
ok. i've never studied ring theory in depth so not gonna help x)
and i don't think i will have the opportunity to
PID is a well known abbreviation for principal ideal domain
all you need to know is that k[x] is a principal ideal domain when k is a field
If you speak english*
ok i got it
(x-2)(y-1) + 2(y-1) + (x-2)?
its a ring in which every ideal is principal i.e., generated by a single element
ik ik
wdym by thAT
not just ring, it also needs to be an integral domain
true
Well i'm not gonna comeback on this channel. Far too high for me.
wait i forgot, quand une matric n est pas diagonalisable.... intuitivement
C'est quand ca se decompose en block comme la somme d une matrice diag et matrice nilp oui?
seulement
the intuition behind non-diagonalizability is not having enough eigenvectors
so its non diagonalizable ,it can be written in blocks as the sum of a non 0 nilpotent and a diagonizable matrix right?
yeah, just trigonalize it
okay great
and separate the diagonal and the rest of the triangle matrix
yes
(i mean if the characteristic polynomial is split)
yes over C
this applies to any matrix whose characteristic polynomial splits though, so what does this say about diagonalizability?
you need to be a bit more specific than just "triangularize"
is that the right name in english though ?
it is
I just answered to him saying that any matrix can be written as the sum of a diagonal and a nilpotent triangle (in a certain basis). that's all.
and i answered saying this has nothing to do with diagonalization of the matrix itself unless you specify what you mean
wdym
okay, there you go
this is what i was asking it just glitched in my head
any matrix whose characteristic polynomial splits, regardless of diagonalizability, can be triangularized in a basis. so you need to be more specific about the triangularization if you want to reflect anything about diagonalizability
their edit "in a certain basis" is meant to reflect that
MMh, I think he did not really ask for a link with diagonalizability here

I'm not sure though
indeed
but wasnt that a separate question ?
anyways
kinda childish of mine to argue over that
sincerely. I apologize for doing that.
Can a Noetherian ring have infinitely many prime ideals?
Z
is noetherian and has infinitely many prime ideals
Oh duh because being Noetherian is equivalent to f.g. ideals and Z is a PID.
how do I show that for any matrix $A \in \mathrm{M}_n(\bC)$ there exists a $g \in \mathrm{GL}_n$ such that $gAg\inv$ is in JCF using the classification of finitely generated modules over pids?
i believe in mathemagic
so we have $\bC^n \cong C[X]/((X - \lambda_1)^{k_1}) \oplus \ldots \oplus C[X]/((X - \lambda_r)^{k_r})$ as $\bC[X]$-modules
i believe in mathemagic
for $\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_r \in \bC$ and $k_1, \ldots, k_r \in \bZ_{\geq 0}$
i believe in mathemagic
(tterra btw I was able to figure out the other thing with the basis for the matrix)
(how did you prove it?)
I just tried out random shit, got to 1, x - lambda, ... then reversed that set and got the correct solution
yeah
all you need to do now is apply that basis result to each summand here
you have C^n = V_1 ⊕ ... ⊕ V_r, and for each V_i you can pick a basis with respect to which the operator is a jordan block
What is the vanishing locus of (x-a,y-b) over K[x,y] ? Is it always (a,b)?
taking the union of all of the bases gives a basis of C^n with respect to which the operator is a block diagonal matrix with the blocks, as you can guess, jordan blocks
so you found a basis in which the operator is in jordan form
QED
pretty sure it should just be the single point (a, b)
did you try proving it?
So this is clear to me if (x-a,y-b)=( (x-a)(y-b))
But I'm too stupid to know if that's always true
gAg\inv is like a change of basis? (do I ask this in #linear-algebra rather than here?)
Is this always true?
no
(x, y) is not (xy)
this, on the other hand, is true. did you try to prove it?
it should be a very "follow your nose" kind of thing
by that i mean you shouldn't be overthinking it
"should" is a dangerous word but i really think this should be straightforward if you just write out the definitions and, say, carefully prove each side is contained in the other
what have you tried?
you can even go in desmos and graph (x-a)(y-b)=0 and the point (a,b) and compare the graphs (although you should be able to do this by hand if you can't do it in your mind)
So any element in (x-a,y-b) is of the form p(x,y)(x-a)+q(x,y)(y-b), but I'm not sure how to go from there
what happens if you plug in x = a and y = b
Then that's 0
so (a, b) is contained in the vanishing locus of (x - a, y - b)
right?
I was going to try and find a polynomial that doesn't vanish when (x,y) is not (a,b)
or, if (c, d) is in the vanishing locus of (x - a, y - b), can you conclude that (c, d) = (a, b)?
in particular, x - a and y - b vanish at (c, d)...
works too
Oh duh, x-a and y-b are in there so they must vanish on (c,d)
and what does that mean?
so (c,d)=(a,b)
thanks a bunch
to do this, if x is not a then take x - a, and if x is equal to a take y - b
I understand, yea, that makes sense
stupid question but: "to which the operator" what operator?
the one you're trying to find the jordan normal form of
well
you started with a matrix
ah ok got it
same thing
matrices are identifiable with their left-multiplication maps on vectors
Can a range of numbers be considered a group?
the integers are a group under addition, so yea
I am once again asking you to read a book
Fwiw also, there is a group of any cardinality, so any set "could be considered a group" with the correct additional structure
but like, the interval [0,1] would not be a group under the usual addition of reals because, for example, 1 + 1 is not in [0,1]
false!
there is no group with cardinality 0 😏
Ha good catch
So a group has to contain its operations?
first page of an algebra book will answer the question
group is a set together with a single operation
a group is precisely a set of elements together with a single operation
I do better by asking many questions to come to my own understanding
satisfying some properties
ok but you also waste a lot of time
i mean this stuff is just absolutely basic
why not just let the guy do what he wants
Nobody is going to teach you an intro algebra class in discord
wastes ppl's time?
its anyone's free will to answer/refuse to answer any q in this channel
But people can answer questions true likely no single person will teach me but that’s why this community exists
I think it is good (for them) to redirect to algebra books or Wikipedia when this kind of questions are asked
ok but like other ppl might have serious questions
And it's also important for you to gain the ability to learn for yourself
Then they can ask in help right

I literally had to rediscover the law of signs in order to understand how it works
i agree, but you tried that, and they still want to ask questions here, so i don't see why yall are pushing back so hard



