#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 26 of 1
i have a proof in my notes
Z3 is a good start
show
your field gotta be char 3 

"integral domain" is not the phrase you are looking for
That is super not true
That should say Euclidean domain
it did seem really odd that we could jump from an integral domain straight to a field
Or even PID
lesson learned 
Being a PID is enough to guarantee R is a field
prof lecture notes
kill prof
no he's nice :(
speak to prof about error
well the final is tomorrow

still, do it
like right now
that's a big error and you don't want anyone going into the final with that
,ti
The current time for stμādying is 10:18 PM (EST) on Wed, 07/12/2022.
i'll email him but aint no way that man is awake rn
The onus is on you to read the proof and realize it makes no sense with the given assumptions IMO
this is true
reading proofs
ive been skimming old lecture notes to make sure i have things mapped in my head correctly
by skimming i mean reading theorems and accepting them as law
but yeah lesson learned
back to the original Q, is frobenius the way?
idk what frobenius is but he sounds funny
you said Z/3 was a good start
just cus it has char 3
i mean yeah, the answer probably has something to do with it
likely some quotient of Z3[x]
quotient?
i know what it means but why
my cat ears say so


if no one else gives a hint, just try and see what u come up with
after all if any quotient of Z3[x] is a field
then it must be char 3
and therefore have order a power of 3
Iāll be honest
Have you seriously not done a classification of finite fields in your class?
we didnt really do many things with fields

a stray result here and there
Rip
the class following this one is called fields and modules tho
Ah
so whys this question now
pain
well one thm i do remember being true is R/I is a field iff I is maximal in R
that's probably useful here
so that quotient idea makes sense
goober question is Z/3[x] finite?
probably not but i also remember that in a finite ring prime => maximal
ok yeah thought so
a friend told me he used that prime ideals are maximal in Z/3[x]
but 
i was p sure that's only true in finite R no?
any non-zero prime ideal is maximal in a PID, and Z/3Z[x] is a PID
is this because primes are irreducible and (x) is maximal when x is irreducible
Sort of; you're hiding the fact that we're in a PID in the second statement because that certainly isn't true in general
otherwise every UFD would be a PID
found this
it kinda makes sense
irreducible => prime => maximal => R/I is a field
and im assuming it being of degree n somehow gives us the desired order?
reading through this, though im not done yet
I've heard that quiver representations do not come with a tensor product. However there is still a fairly natural (but maybe naive?) way to tensor two quiver representations, namely take pointwise tensor product of all vector spaces and tensor product of linear maps. Why is this not studied, is it uninteresting for some good reason?
besides eisenstein, are there any other ways of showing that a polynomial is irreducible
also ive asked adjacent things before but are there tricks to showing that something is irreducible in a euclidean domain
8 hours remain 
Rational root test
Thereās also generalized Eisenstein if I remember right
That's not very helpful for irreducibility unless your polynomial has degree 2 or 3
Well given how hard it is to tell wheter a big integer is prime or not, I'd say it's an equally difficult problem in other euclidean domains
Idk it is basically just hard rip
For degree <=3 suffices to show no roots and often stuff like taking it mod a prime helps to do that
Sometimes u can shift then eisenstein
Like with prime degree cyclotomics
then what about the norm stuff that came up when i was trying specific examples before
ig that's not polynomials tho
Like which
.
Thatās just a trick that works well here
You have to exercise your creativity

ok as an example, showing that x+1 is irreducible in Z[x]
is this just assuming x+1 = rs for non-units and finding contradiction
like can i just say that if it's the product of non-units it would also be a non-unit?
Just look at the quotient and itās just Z
saw that now ye 
reduction modulo p
if R is a ufd and f in R[x] normed, then for a prime elemenet p in R if f is irreducible in R/p[x] then it is also irreducible in R[x]
im a bit confused on what it means to say a polynomial is irreducible mod an ideal
Suppose I is an ideal of R
Let f in R[x]
By reducing all coefficients of f mod I, you get a polynomial f mod I living in R/I[x]
Is that polynomial irreducible?
thank you! this is what i guessed but it did not appear anywhere in my notes
its the same process when asking if a polynomial is reducible mod 3
the 'mod 3' at the end there indicates the ring is Z/3Z and the polynomial ring is (Z/3Z)[x]
this one?
oh right, maybe if u ask nicely u can take it next month 
what are all the groups that have a finite number of sub groups
ig all cyclic groups?
and are (Z,+) ,(Z^2,+) isomorphic?
Z does not have a finite number of subgroups
every other cyclic group has a finite number of subgroups, since indeed any finite group does
Is (Z^2,+) cyclic?
only the finite groups I think
if such group weren't torsion, then it would contain Z which has infinite amount of subgroups
and otherwise, if it were infinite torsion group then consider all subgroups generated by one element
they're all finite and there is a finite amount of them, contradiction
yeah
no, i think
well this is really the theorem about finitely generated abelian groups
the isomorphism class depends on how many Z, Z/p^kZ you have
Z² has two disjoint cyclic subgroups but Z doesn't therefore they are not isomorphic
wdym
and this
yeah seems good
the theorem about finitely generated abelian groups tells you not only that all groups are isomorphic to a finite product of Z and Z/p^kZ for p a prime number, but also that such representation is unique (in the sense that it only depends on how many of those factors would you take)
we can decompose Z^2 to Z+Z?, kind of?
those two are isomorphic yes
more generally GxH is isomorphic to G+H for any abelian groups G and H
waw
okay
and how does this help here
Z^2 and Z are not isomorphic
okay
both Z and Z^2 are representations like in the theorem about finitely generated abelian groups
first group has one factor of Z while second has two
simple as that
but also like if you take any element of Z^2 it clearly doesn't generate the group
that'd probably be how i'd do it
but ye many ways to do it
tensor with Q and then this would be an iso between Q and Q^2 ig
then you'd still need to show Q not iso to Q²
Given V vector space, is there a smallest algebra containing it?
is V a vector subspace of some algebra then
you could always put the trivial lie bracket on V
unless you want associative algebra
not necessarily. By containing it I mean like homomorphic injections
well, smallest algebra implies we already are in some algebra, I think
I think we can just inject V into its exterior algebra then
this is the "largest" unital such algebra from some canonical properties
I think
and then just take intersection of all subalgebras containing V
maybe tensor algebra instead of exterior?
pop quiz, state 3rd iso without googling it
sebb is your final today
naming conventions differ from place to place
yeah i took for granted that only first iso would appear and now i feel dumb
but lol I think I never used that explicitly, I have used the correspondence theorem a lot, I think they are kind of the same, so I would just state that
but it went better than i thought 
glad to hear it
The smallest algebra containing $V$ would be an algebra $A$ such that there exists an injective linear transfromation $f\c V\to A$ and such that if $B$ is another algebra then there exists an injective algebra homomorphism $g\colon A\to B$
I kind of meant this, but I guess this is too strong
still got to answer walter's question
What question?
walter was asking if the algebras are required to be associative
btw, looking at intersections of algebras in T(V) looks pretty good, so thanks
or well, unital too
okay I thought in general we considered algebras to be associative. But the tensor algebra T(V) is associative, then the answer would be very different no?
sends everything to 0
lmao
But if you wanted to give a vector space a non-associative algebra structure, is there a natural thing you could do?
The natural Lie algebra structure on an algebra such as, the algebra of operators on a vector space, is given by the bracket [A, B] = AB - BA
this in general won't be associative
yeah
I don't think we require much else than associativity
it's literally like a free construction
yeah I know
but then Im confused about the universal property
I think thats why I assumed that algebras were associative
If there is a linear transformation from V to a non-associative algebra A, then this factors through T(V) by an algebra homomorphism, but this is an algebra homomorphism between an associative algebra and a non-associative algebra?
concept of free non-associative algebra over a field F, exists I'm pretty sure
but I don't even want to imagine what it is
we know this from say, universal algebra
does a free non-associative algebra generated by some vector space exists? Hmm. Not sure
I mean it should be
you could take non associative monomials, right?
like similar to tensor algebra but just don't make it associative lol
after adding all the vectors in V as nullary operations
oh, well, I was thinking of how to do this using the properties of universal algebras
fair enough, i don't know about universal algebras so I can't comment
well this doesn't quite work since they could all "squish" together into a null subspace
non-associative monomials it is ig
I was trying to ask what happens in this universal property when A is non-associative, because T(V) is associative, so many things will get killed?
ahhh
nvm
the universal property requires A to be associative
yeah, it cannot be non-associative
lololo that's why I was confused xD
so perhaps you would look at the analog of T(V) but for non-associative algebras
interesting
unless we say that a non-associative algebra is just an algebra, then any algebra is non-associative 
nomenclature issue
it's like, you have non-commutative rings but... those are just rings, so commutative rings are non-commutative ig?
i've always seen non-commutative rings reserved specifically for rings which are non-commutative
and just "rings" to encompass both commutative and non-commutative
hmm... I guess wikipedia suggests the same
but with non-associative algebras it's a funny naming issue
associative algebras are non-associative
maybe this is very open / dumb question, but given an algebraic structure (rings, vector spaces, etc.) then its easy to introduce relations (ideals, subspaces, etc.). But what about "deleting" relations. So for example, suppose your ring R is commutative, could you make it non-commutative in a natural manner, starting from the given R?
well the biggest issue here is I think this
I don't think that a free (universal) algebra containing said object exists in general
I know free object exists in equational classes, but probably not the above
like what you are concerned with here is an extension problem
Can I verify a proof that if R is a PID every irreducible is prime. Let p be irreducible. We seek to show (p) is maximal as maximal ideals are prime in commutative rings with 1. Let I be an ideal in this PID then I = (m) and assume (p) \subset (m) then there exists and r \in R such that p = rm but as p is irreducible then either r or m is a unit. if m is a unit then I = R and if r is a unit then I = (p) thus (p) is maximal and p is prime.
seems good
Yeah i think you can basically define irreducible elements a as those elements with (a) maximal among proper principal ideals right
And then for PID that just becomes equivalent to (a) being maximal
Shouldnt these be called anti-symmetric, and alternating reserved for forms that are zero when two of the components are equal?
if two of the components are equal then by transposing those two components you get f(that) = -f(that) so f(that)=0
well
unless you're in char 2
over char 2 no, not sure over other characteristics
i think they are equivalent over non-2 characteristic
I think not, that's why I asked
ah no alternating maps are also antisymmetric
f(a+b,a+b,c,...)=f(a,b,c,...)+f(b,a,c,...)=0
yeah
anti-symmetric doesn't sound too good, does it
after all, an anti-symmetric relation is something like an order for example
I have also heard skew-symmetric
In mathematics and theoretical physics, a tensor is antisymmetric on (or with respect to) an index subset if it alternates sign (+/ā) when any two indices of the subset are interchanged. The index subset must generally either be all covariant or all contravariant.
For example,
holds when the tensor is antisymmetric with respect to its first thr...
only heard of alternating tensors before
let $E/L$ and $L/K$ be two extension fields. \
if $E/K$ is algebraic, then any subfield of $E$ (such as $L$) must also be algebraic, as any element of $L$ is also an element of $E$ and can thus be expressed as the root of a polynomial in $K[x]$. \
if $E/L$ and $L/K$ are both algebraic, then any element of $E$ can be expressed as the root of a polynomial in $L[x]$, and any element of $L$ can be expressed as the root of a polynomial in $K[x]$. therefore any element of $E$ can be expressed as the root of a polynomial in $K[x]$, thus meaning that $E/K$ is algebraic.
did I make a mistake somewhere?
How do you justify that any element of E can be expressed as a root of a polynomial in K[x]?
in both cases
It is true, but you didn't really give an explanation for why that is true
why is this
i understand if the group H is a normal subgroup then G/H exists
but why is this equivalent to saying the set of left cosets forms a group
what part are you confused with
what does it mean for left cosets of H to form a group
G/H also exists if H is not normal, but it isn't a group then
isnt each coset represented by a representative element?
like our definition of a normal subgroup directly follows from trying to define a group structure on G/H
not by a unique one
How do you suggest we multiply cosets
yeah... but how can we talk about a group of cosets
If using representatives, why is this well-defined
a coset is a class of all equivalent elements
Rather, WHEN is this well-defined
if the multiplication doesn't depend on the representatives, we can form a group
yeah
$G/H = \Set{g \circ H | g \in G}$
doesnt it always not depend on the representative in cosets?
and we're trying to "make that set into a group" (define a group structure on it)
It is independent of the representatives IFF H is normal
this isnt showing up
texit is down
ouf
mm.... i dont see why... i mean cosets are meant to represent the same structure of a subgroup
aH
Taking the quotient is 'setting H to 0'
All the elements of aH only differ by elements of H
It's exactly the complement of representing the subgroup's structure
if the group operation of G induces a well-defined operation on G/H then that makes G/H into a group
and that happens if and only if H is normal in G
though it's a bit rude to say that G/H doesn't exist otherwise
okay but i am confused about representatives...
say you want to multiply aH and bH
why when its not normal the representatives matter
you pick a representative ah1 in aH, and a representative bh2 in bH
their multiplication is then a h1 b h2
yeah
and in the quotient that's in a h1 b H
I mean, its equivalence class
but if you had picked a and b as representatives instead
you would have ended in a b H
and it's not always the case that a h1 b H = a b H forall h1 in H
i dont think i got it
You can read the answer of Arturo Magidin, I really liked it when I was learning this
so in general, the equivalence class of the result of mulplying a representative of aH with a representative of bH
depends on the choice of representatives
so you can't define an operation on G/H with that
why ah1b H != ab H
and why normality fixes that?
well yeah turns out i am having a bit of a hard time i should restudy this
Look
You're almost there
Just spell out the definition
That's all you have to do
yes but i meant as vector spaces those are clearly different by taking dimensions
but yeah it was a joke
we have aH={ah; h in H}
wdym by coset equality exactly?
that for any ah in aH, ahH = aH?
maybe a different way to see H must be normal if G/H is well-defined is that like
Well yes but more explicitly when does this happen
And then apply that condition to ah1bH=abH
aH= bH when b is in the same coset as a
Which happens when...
i am not sure
E/K => E/L and L/K:
let a be in L, and therefore in E. because E/K is algebraic, there exists a nonzero polynomial f(x) in K[x] such that f(a) = 0; thus E/L is algebraic. similarly, since a is a root of f(x) in E, it is also a root of f(x) in K, since K subseteq E. this means that L/K is algebraic.
E/K <= E/L and L/K:
since E/L is algebraic, for an a in E there exists a nonzero polynomial g(x) in L[x] such that g(a) = 0. similarly with L/K; there exists a nonzero polynomial h(x) in K[x] such that h(b) = 0 for a b in L. we can combine the two polynomials into f(x) = g(h(x)). this polynomial lies in K[x] and has a root in E. therefore E/K is algebraic.
is that correct?
No
what property do the elements a and b need to fulfill such that aH = bH
When are two elements in the same coset
Another way to say this is that a^-1b is an element of H right
yeah
Ok so ah1bH=abH implies that
b^-1a^-1ah1b= b^-1h1b is in H
But look, we just conjugated an element of H by some element of G and landed back in H
If this happens for all elements, this is exactly the definition of normality
how did u use that a^-1 b is an element of H
Well, Z² also different from Z as free-Z-modules by taking dimensions
why?
Because coset equality is the statement that the right thing inverted multiplied by the left thing is in H
Or equivalent to that statement
i fail to understand what you mean
if a group acts transitively on a set of $n$ objects, does it automatically act transitively on a set of $n-1$ objects?
Winston_Smith
ye
ShiN
Why is it so SMOL

Hey Ive been reading something and come across this. Does anyone know why or in what sense does the fact that if G/H is isomorphic to Z this means "G and H give essentially the same information"? And what would the quotient have to be isomorphic to for that to not be the case?
.
that's not really what this is saying, the two relevant facts here are that DivF/Div^0F=Z and PicF/Pic^0F=Z. Since PicF and Pic^0F are quotients of DivF/Div^0F by some equivalence relation, this is essentially saying that PicF is just like, Z-many copies of Pic^0F
The second part is not correct. You want to prove that for any a in E, there is a polynomial in K[x] that has a as a root.
g(h(x)) is not necessarily in K[x] is it?
You will probably have to write down a less direct proof
how is this deduction immediate?
hH = H iff h is in H, try proving it
You never define what b is, but nevertheless the composition need not be in K[x]
Do you want a hint?
ah in H for all h in H, then ah1=h2, a=h2h1^-1 in H?
let me try something myself first, if I still can't figure it out - then sure c:
If x=y then you can multiply both sides by y^(-1) to see that it is equivalent to xy^(-1) = e, where e is the identity
yeah this i got... but the paragraph after it
normal subgroup is the set of elements equivalent to the identity?
in the quotient group yes
taking the quotient G/N is basically saying: everything in N is now the identity
under this logic isnt every subgroup containing the identity element a normal subgroup?
because being in the same coset corresponds to an equivalence relation no?
every subgroup contains the identity element, so something's going wrong
it will be an equivalence relation but not a congruence
you want your relation to satisfy [a]+[b]=[a+b] for all a,b where [x] means the equivalence class of x
this is equivalent to being given by a normal subgroup
wdym
Look let's go step by step
Let's say you have a group G
you know what an equivalence relation is right?
Let's say we have an equivalence relation ~ on G
given an element a of G, call [a] it's equivalence class
now we'd like to somehow define multiplication of these equivalence classes
it would be natural to ask that [a][b] = [ab]
we need to check if this is possible
im following
because for some a~a' and b~b' it might happen that [ab] is different than [a'b']
then our definition wouldn't have made sense
because [a][b] must equal [a'][b'] since [a]=[a'] and [b]=[b']
yeah okay we have to make sure it doesnt depend on my representative and we need it to be normal for that to happen
yes
Ah so the key here is that the equivalence relation is a subgroup already
so we know the relation is defined
so ofc the group equivalent to e is a normal subgroup
right?
when you write G/H for H some subgroup of G the relation is given by a~b iff ab^-1 is in H yes
continue with your explanation sry for interfering
yes
can i think of normal subgroups as a generalization for 2 elements are equal if xy^-1 is e?
but instead we think of them as being equivalent if they're in a shared subgroup?
we think them as being equivalent if they're in the same coset
or is it not normal, just cosets
cosets are not subgroups except for the identity coset
mean this
Ah
then no
in G/N you have [a]=[b] iff ab^-1 is in N
yeah so i am right?
that is iff [ab^-1] = [e]
then a=b in the associated quotient group yes
I think i see it much better now
thanks a lot
ill need to restudy everything with this point of view
question
how do I show 2,3 are irreducible in Z[i\sqrt{5}] using norms
so I assume 2 = ab where a and b are both non units
then do I take the norms to conclude N(a)N(b)=4
but the norm of no such element of Z[i \sqrt{5}] has norm of 2
you can also show it more explicitly
a = u + isqrt(5)v and b = x + isqrt(5)y, so under the norm it's 4 = (u^2 + 5v^2)(x^2 + 5y^2)
forcing either N(a) or N(b) equal 1 which implies a or b is a unit
does my method work
tho
and i can show no element of Z[i\sqrt{5}] has norm of 2 or 3
so eeitheer both factors need by 2 or one is 4 and one is 1? but both cannot eual 2
since the solution wont be in Z
Is it usual to talk about "anticommutative polynomials"? By this I mean, for example, the polynomials R[x,y] where xy=-yx
yeah I'd need a hint please :v
If E/K is an extension, then a in E is algebraic over K iff K[a] is contained in some finite extension of K
And you can give them a non-discrete partial order!
do I do something with the minimal polynomial of a?
oh wait nvm
a needs to be algebraic in the first place for there to be a minimal polynomial
hmm
oh wait
I think I have an idea
is there some intuitive understanding for why there is no homomorphisms other than the null homomorphism between (Q,+) and (Z,+)?
What notation do you guys use for the exterior algebra in latex?
why is there no way for a function to preserve the structure of the group
$\wedge$ or $\bigwedge$
ТТеŃŃŠ°
(Q,+)
small wedge if it's inline, big wedge i treat like a \sum or \prod symbol
yeah, so I had this problem, when you are in equation mode bigwedge is too big
Im using \textstyle{\bigwedge}
that probably belongs in #latex-help
No, its algebra notation question. I can fix size, but if you are in equation mode you just write \bigwedge(V) for the exterior algebra of V?
the left seems too big to be standard, thats why I was asking, tho I may be wrong
especially because the size gets bigger in equation mode
i would go with personal preference. i don't think there is a standard
the one on the right looks better inline
but it doesn't look as good if you're using the wedge symbol like you do \sum or \prod (i.e. writing something like a wedge over vector spaces V_i)
how
Hint: for any a in Z_n, a + ... (n times) ... + a = 0.
Can you please ping me next time
Anyway what do you mean by giving them a non-discrete partial order
ok so n phi(1)=0 and phi(1)=0, but why did we need the embedding hypothesis?
Because that's the statement lmao
Fwiw
If the kernel is zero then it's injective, so there are only two possibilities
i mean can we find any homomorphisms other than null, that are not injective, from Zn to Z?
(since Zn is cyclic)
I wouldn't even know that this message exist if I didn't decide to browse in here
can we prove it without the injective hypothesis?
can we prove that the only homomorphism from Zn to Z is the trivial one
let a in E. because a is algebraic over L, there exists an f(x) = sum_{i = 0}^n b_ix^i in L[x] such that f(a) = 0. it follows that a is algebraic over K(b_0, ..., b_n) and we therefore have [K(b_0, ..., b_n, a) : K(b_0, ...., b_n)] < infty. we have [K(b_0, ..., b_n) : K] < infty as b_0, ..., b_n in L are all algebraic over K. using the degree theorem (don't know the english translation), we get [K(b_0, ...., b_n, a) : K] = [K(b_0, ..., b_n) : K(a)] * [K(a) : K] < infty. therefore a must be algebraic over K.
is this correct? and if so, is there a more elegant proof to it?
nvm i think i did that xd
U proved it without the injective hypothesis didn't you
yep
Yeah that's essentially it, looks good
oke great
By only considering one element at a time you can reduce to finite case
Oh, sure, i just didn't want to bother because some people might be bothered by pings.
If G is a preordered group (as in G is a group that makes + monotone) and is finite then if a is a non-zero positive so will be -a because a has finite order. Therefore the preorder will not be antisymmetric because a>=0 and a<=0 but a is not 0. So there are no finite antisymmetric preordered groups aka finite partially ordered groups other than the discrete ones (x>=y iff x=y)
No, I love being pinged, please always ping me
I see what you mean now. Thanks
haha okay Blitzkrieg :)
Did you check the book ordered groups and topology?
Just call me Blitz
I've never heard of it, but there's a topological functor from the category of preordered groups to the category of groups
so there's some relation with topology, for example given adequate morphisms of groups into/from ordered groups you can also put final and initial orders
It deals with some algebraic topology but first chapter or so is free of it and deals with some cool theory of ordered groups
You might be interested
Does it use ordered groups later in the book?
Ordered groups are the main point of the book
Topology refers to knot theory and orderability of fundamental groups of spaces, mostly
by Adam Clay right?
Yep
seems to be more about total orders but still interesting, thanks
It is
an intuitive way of understanding this?
i mean i think i can see it clearly on a cayley graph
let me make a little drawing for you fishe
If you kill all stuff that "aren't injective" you get bijection with the image
ah. makes sense
i wonder what's the motivation for left-orderable groups tho. For bi-orderable (even if not total) we can think of such groups as the automorphisms of some object in some preorder-enriched category, which makes them seem natural.
G/Ker(phi), as a set, is the equivalence classes of the relation a ~ b iff phi(a) = phi(b). There is then a bijection between these equivalence classes and the image of phi ā this should be obvious. The isomorphism as groups basically just comes from the fact we're working with groups.
yep. its clear now
thanks a lot
When i was first learning group theory someone showed me a drawing like this which helped me a lot
Proof by picture:
Its saying that the kernel determines the homomorphism completely. This is because phi(a)=phi(b) if and only if phi(ab^{-1})=1, that is, iff ab^{-1} is in the kernel. Thus if two homomorphisms have the same kernel, then the images are the same... (up to isomorphism I guess)
yeaaaah i just had imagined this from the explanation of boytjie
thanks for the picture tho now its stuck in my head
Ah very cool
we can construct the whole homomorphism from the kernel
yes
i didnt see it this way
No!
isomorphically yes? unless Im missing something
like thats first iso lol
ah he said function.. ok. But well we are doing algebra
But notice that this is only possible because elements in a group are invertible
any Z->Z sending 1 to anything other than 0 have same kernel but are not same function
i meant homomorphism ofc
the function, not "any" function
right
what the kernel determines is the image up to isomorphism as a group
determining the image up to isomorphism is not the same as determining the whole homomorphism
i m refering to croqueta's message, the first sentence is false
I was speaking informally here
let $K$ be a field and $f = \frac{X^3}{X^2 + 1} \in K(X)$ we know that $X$ is algebraic over $K(f)$. how does that help us in showing that $K(X)/K(f)$ is an algebraic extension?
i believe in mathemagic
but I guess it would have been clear if I said image.
But you would still have to add "up to group isomorphism...", kind of annoying
Who determines those things other than us mathematicians
Computers, sometimes š¤·
Computers are humans too
well pray they'll give them to you
Wdym. My anime AI waifu has all the rights
She is an exception. I'll allow her rights.
humans are made by humans so they're artificial so humans are AI
this is a very strong result
They're not anime though
There's an even stronger similar result for finitely generated abelian groups
so freakin weird tho
i just fail to see how abelian does anything
Interestingly once you go into non-finitely generated abelian groups we can no longer give them any nice characterization
Z is abelian
How is it weird sorry
This is an unusual take, that Abelianity is weird
hold on people
lemme explain
like with cyclic groups, it represents some rotation
Abelianity is in fact a very nice property that makes things super neat (and this theorem demonstrates that to some extent)
For non-abelian groups the order matters, but for abelian ones it doesn't. So if you have generators a, b for a group, if it is abelian every element is of the form a^n b^m. But for non-abelian ones is much more complicated: you can have weird sequences like abaabababababbb
So you're asking what symmetries do Abelian group represent?
Well this theorem answers that
To describe it as weird I'd first have to say how natural numbers and their definition is weird
Products of "cyclic" symmetries
Commutativity is nothing
free product moment
that thing confused me for a while
what does it mean for matrices for example that AB=BA, what does it imply about the nature of A and B and their relationship
God gave the natural numbers to confuse humans
I means they have no relationship essentially.
This is the best interpretation
Not really
it doesnt tell us much
ok now i see why the theorem makes sense
I know its strong
I once had an idea. That makes abelian groups significant among groups. From a universal algebra perspective
Go on then blitz
Something to do with congruences?
In my head the nicest property of Abelian groups is that every subgroup is normal
Nah. I'm not ready to reveal this great idea
Nooooooooo
blitz is full of secrets
also abelian groups = Z-modules
That I am
so abelian groups are "vector spaces over Z"
z-modules?
what
The theory of modules generalises what is nice about Abelian groups
ok i am not ready to go into it lol i have finals in 3 days
You know what a ring is, right, fishe?
yeah
We can be brief
Well a vector space is an abelian group that has multiplication from a field, right?
yeah
And a field is in particular a ring
So a module over a ring R is just the same definition, but with a ring rather than a field
yes every element has an inverse
So a Z-module is with multiplication from the integers Z
And you can work out that this is just every Abelian group
That's all Dishwasher means by this
a module is an abelian group that has multiplication from a ring?
Ah
The theory of modules is very nice. Noether first proved the first isomorphism theorem for modules, in fact.
I'll tell you since I don't do algebra anymore.
The idea is to look at the free algebra generated by n elements. This creates an increasing family of equational classes. For groups this sequence consists of two elements, abelian groups (n = 1) and groups (n>1)
Ha! I like that
very cool boytjie thanks a lot
And Abelian groups are those that are quotients/subobjects of products of F(1)
a good point Blitz
I wonder if this is easily generalisable
For rings it's the same. Lattices seem to form an infinite family though
For semigroups it's the same, right
Yeah
And Lie algebras... yes those would be the Abelian Lie algebras
free algebra as in Z[x]?
Ah no
This is in universal algebra
Blitz means "algebra" as in "algebraic structure"
in the language of universal algebra, e.g. a group would be an "algebra"
It's a horrible name imo.
what does "free" mean in this context?
Yeah
I know that's an annoying answer
But e.g. the free group is the free algebra in the variety of groups
i know
The Kleene star is the free monoid
to do basic arithmetic we need a field right?
Wym by basic arithmetic
number theorists ded
free algebra relative to what variety?
.
gcd, smallest common multiple...
the variety with just 1 constant?
I don't know what this means
Fixed equational class
but which equational class?
WHOOPS WRONG MESSAGE
Can be anything
No. gcd/lcm is trivial in any field.
gcd(a,b) = 1 for all nonzero a,b in any field.
the euclidean algorithm then just requires a ring?
The idea is that given variety $V$ we construct a countable sequence $$V_1\subseteq V_2\subseteq ...\subseteq V$$
Blitz
No, it fails for general rings.
it requires more. it requires an euclidean domain
it requires a euclidean ring
If you want to define the gcd/lcm in general (and have it possibly be nontrivial) the most general context I'm aware of it being in is a UFD.
This gives us "distinguished" equational classes in V
remind me whats a UFD
Unique factorisation domain.
The ones that seem the most important
a ring with something
ring where you can do prime factorization
No, the euclidean algorithm will not be defined in general.
ah yeah its not
Talking about the quotient and remainder is not meaningful
god i get lost in the formalities and forget to make sense of what i am saying
this is always possible, you can at least put every V_i=V. But i don't see what's the purpose of it?
Aiyah
Uh
Blitz is defining V_i to be the variety defined by the identites of the free algebra on i elements.
If I'm not mistaken(!)
identities?
Then e.g. V_1 = Abelian groups when V is Groups
The one generated by it but it's probably equivalent
I got into it a bit recently lmao
I work around a lot of semigroup theorists
and they're interested in varieties of semigroups
So I just kinda picked things up
Quasivarieties I suppose
yeah I mean like
This guy I know is comparing the identities of a few semigroups
And he's cinched a particular one between two semigroups of tropical matrices
Exterior algebras are not unital right? Like v*v=0
Didn't even know there were ppl studying it
Yeah lol, in the UK there are a couple of places
They are
The copy of the base field is the only case that doesn't happen, Croq
Remember it's like, k + V + V^2 + etc (where k is your field)
I guess I saw a book from it once and a pretty experienced user on math.se from semigroup theory
So its like Th(Z) except you only allow formulas that are universally quantified equations
Yes that's right. Universal algebra is weakened model theory
But it should be noted that it gives us a pretty nice theory (c.f. Birkhoff's HSP theorem)
thats a really interesting theorem
I know right
Can you imagine something like that for model theory? Lmao
It's very strong
You can replace products with subdirect products etc
Im confused, I thought the main property of the exterior algebra was v*v=0 for all v in the algebra, so in particular, 1x1 wont ever equal 1. Why is the exterior algebra of a vector space unital then?
Huh ok how do we do that
the thing is constants have grading 0, the stuff from your vector space lives in grading 1, etc... so it's not really weird like you're thinking
Only for v in V
isnt for example <(1,1)> as subgroup of Z² a subdirect product of Z and Z?
Try inspecting the definition of the multiplication again. It's totally true that v wedge v is zero, but it isn't always true that when we multiply we take the wedge!
Where you asking me?
Yeah
ok Ill check the definitions more rigorously
What was your question?
So what's the precise setup, bc I can't see how we'd do this in general
do you need some extra conditions?
Like
You get product of algebras
Do you need there to be a prime substructure, or whatever you'd call it
Hmm?
So what I mean
I think you're trying to think about irreducibility
For the direct sum of abelian groups it works because we have the identity in every group
No. That's not true.
Well it doesn't need to be a direct sum but that's just a prime example that comes to mind
Let me see if I understand. This is the minimal substructure of Prod_i A_i such that the projections into each A_i are surjective; is this right?
Doesn't have to be minimal in any way
Finally
Oh, is this not unique?
Nope
Ah well that clears things up
Interesting. I suppose I should look at Birkhoff's proof
In the branch of mathematics known as universal algebra (and in its applications), a subdirectly irreducible algebra is an algebra that cannot be factored as a subdirect product of "simpler" algebras. Subdirectly irreducible algebras play a somewhat analogous role in algebra to primes in number theory.
This is connected
I just now that Birkhoff theorem can be restated in few ways
This will likely take me some time to appreciate
It's in Sankappanavar if you want to see
I'll try and get my hands on a copy. Whereabouts in it?
It's free online
ok I think I got it. The identity is just the identity from the field right? Because the field also lives in the algebra, as vectors

Idk where exactly but that's what I read from UA so must be there
What u guys think about "A first course in abstract algebra by Fraleigh"??
For being a first introduction to abstract Ɣlgebra
It's fine.
It's not the best book out there if you're reading it cover-to-cover in my opinion
It was the first time I saw groups, and for that it's good, in my opinion.
However as always with these things: don't worry too much about the book, and just start reading!
whats the motivation behind ideals
For this same reason, the symmetric algebra is also unital right? In fact, if B is a basis for the vector space V, I think the symmetric algebra S(V) is just (isomorphic to) F[B], where the elements of B are taken as variables
The same as for normal subgroups. You can quotient by them.
yey i am the first one to talk 9/12 on the abstract algebra channel. what a nerd
(Also they're submodules of the ring but shhhh)
ts 12 am for me, forgot theres time zones
happy tomorrow
9/12 
9 december
What's on 9th december?
yeah but they dont look like normal subgroups...
it's a very important day
because its today
and today is usually the only day there is
Because rings don't look like non-abelian groups 
Today? Today is 8th
lol
Let me tell you a secret about algebra
Normal subgroups are the things we quotient by, but they don't tell you the full story.
In reality we quotient by a certain kind of equivalence relation, called a congruence.
Ah
Yeah
The fact that congruences and normal subgroups are in correspondence is remarkable
and very nontrivial
not any equivalence relation?
š 
Kinda trivial tbh
Not just any, because we need things to actually respect the group structure
Lol I think it's nontrivial if you've never seen it before, but I agree in principal
Anyway
The point is
this but nonironically, it's a good exercise to try proving it yourself
for rings
congruences correspond to ideals in rings
and that's why they're really the same thing
idk what congruence exactly is tho
n.b. I mean two-sided ideals
xy^-1 is in H?
A congruence on a "thing" A is an equivalence relation on A which is also a "sub-thing" in AxA
a~b if ab^(-1) is in H
Congruences are equivalence relations so that the natural operations on the quotient make sense
If*
replace "thing" with the appropriate structure (group, ring, module)
ah shit
Waw
i like it but its too abstract
Remember what I said about the first isomorphism theorem?
A congruence is the thing we quotient by.
yeah
If you have that, the first iso thm becomes really clear
I have trouble with this statement, I don't think it's true
isnt it tho the same as yours
Let me think for a moment and see if it works
wdym
Univeral algebra does it
it needs extra conditions that just being a subthing of AxA
You'll have to forgive me if I'm wrong but I think this is precisely what it means for the operations to respect the equivalence classes
Yeah, I think so too. At least in general
For example saying that a ~ b and c ~ d implies ac ~ bd, well, I think it's clear
if A and B are algebras, A is unital and B is not unital, then any algebra homomorphism between them is just trivial right? If so, Im confused about the universal property of the symmetric algebra, since it is unital, but we have linear transformations from V to an algebra, which is not required to be unital, that we have to factor through an algebra homomorphism
I admit I don't see what extra conditions it would need
those 2 tho seem like very different things
then it's more than being a subthing of AxA
not all subthings of AxA are equivalence relations
maybe you should note that I said it is also an equivalence relation here, @chilly ocean
There other equivalent property to be a normal grupo too
the condition g+H = H+g for subgroups of rings is automatic
how are they the same thing in the point of view of congruences
so ideal just adds a new condition to be compatible with multiplication
If you want to work this out on your own, it's not hard to prove. But unless you want to go through these definitions I suggest you take the intuition and leave the details behind.
i want the intuition
The intuition is they're what you can quotient by.
Hmmm... actually yeah. I think you're right after all
any example for what goes wrong when we quotient by some random ring
Try and see
the fact that i cant come up with any examples is sad
Or more to-the-point, look at the definition of a quotient ring and see where we use that it's an ideal.
lets take the ring Z
Mmm not a great example
cause any subring is already an ideal?
Yes, any non-unital subring of Z is an ideal
Z[x]?
isnt it the same thing as Z
Well any subring of Z is also an ideal
i mean that any subring of Z[x] is also an ideal
Z[x] is a good example but I also think that just Q or R are easier examples
Any subring of Z is Z. Especially 0
but it seems not
Z is a subring of Z[x]. Is it an ideal?
They are talking about non-unital rings
Lol
because of 0 its not
I don't like this question mark
Maybe you should check the definition of an ideal again and try and find if it is or not
its by mistake?
OK well, why would 0 mean it's not an ideal?
ok so lets take Q
im not sure xd
Z
OK this is a good chance for you to learn I think. Prove or disprove: "Z is an ideal of Z[x]."
Sure. Now you need to think about why quotienting by this (go check the definition of a quotient ring) doesn't work.
for Z to be an ideal, az for any a in Z[x] should be also in Z
which is not true
it has nothing to do with zero
right?
Well remember the first part of the definition of an ideal.
Q/Z, then (x+Z)(y+Z)= xy+Z
right?
That's how we define the multiplication, yes
I will let you know that the problems will occur with this multiplication
I will also give you a strong hint. Let x = 1/2.
x*y^-1 is in Z is the equivalence relation?
y^-1 is not defined.
Multiplicative inverses do not exist in rings, generally.
OK forget about the equivalence relation.
The quotient is done. The equivalence classes, if you must know, are the cosets a + I.
Your task is now to figure out why Q/Z isn't a ring
and I've given you a hint: the multiplication has issues.
(1/2+Z)(2+Z)=1+Z=Z while (1/2+Z)(Z)=1/2+Z
No.
I hope we've already established that Z is not an ideal of Q. Maybe you should convince yourself of that.
Again, what we're here to show now is that problems arise when we then try to quotient Q by Z.
wdym
It's a subring. In particular, all ideals must contain 0.
Now back to the content here. You decided to write these equations up here. So what's up with this?
So in fact 0 is important; every ideal must contain 0.
i meant above that if Z was an ideal, then we wouldnt have had this problem
Well yes, but I'm asking: why is it a problem
so the problem arizes from the fact that multiplying Q by Z gives something outside of Z
OK so you don't seem to be seeing what I'm seeing here so I'm just going to point it out
yeah plz
Multiplication isn't well-defined anymore! It's not a function!
Z = 2 + Z
so (1/2 + Z)(0 + Z) = 1 + Z = Z as you mentioned
but then also Z = 1 + Z
So (1/2 + Z)(0 + Z) = 1/2 + Z
But 1/2 + Z is not equal to Z!
This is what fails when you take something that isn't an ideal. Multiplication is no longer well-defined.
Exercise: show that multiplication is well-defined in a quotient ring iff we quotient by an ideal
i guess because (1/2+Z)(1+Z) wouldnt have been possible
okay i shall
Shouldnt A be unital here too?
?
K(X) is the field of rational functions fwiw
wait isn't it like really trivial lmao
X is the root of a polynomial in K(f)
so K(X)/K(f) is algebraic
no?
I reckon so

joke
