#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 23 of 1
(here all tensor products are over R, where A, B are R-alg)
if $a\otimes b = a'\otimes b'$ and $\alpha\otimes \beta = \alpha'\otimes \beta'$, saying that $(a\otimes b)(\alpha\otimes \beta) = (a'\otimes b')(\alpha'\otimes \beta')$ is equivalent to saying that for all bilinear maps $\phi: A\oplus B \to N$ we have $\phi(a\alpha,b\beta)=\phi(a'\alpha',b'\beta')$ when $\phi(a,b)=\phi(a',b'), ~~\phi(\alpha,\beta)=\phi(\alpha',\beta')$
but this just seems wrong to me
right, if you just think of bilinearity this may seem very mysterious
think in terms of tetra-linearity?
the multiplication (A⊗B) x (A⊗B) --> (A⊗B)
should be a 4-linear map A x B x A x B --> (A⊗B)
right but why should i need to think in terms of 4 linear maps?
shouldnt i be able to check well definedness like this by taking sums of simple tensors instead
oh also typo
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
that is true, but i never thought verifying well-definedness directly 
i agree what you're suggesting sounds more elegant, it's just i cant figure out where this is going wrong
yea doesn't look like a wrong start, lets think about it 
i feel one has to do something like
consider maps phi(- * x, - * y) and phi(- * x', - * y')
we want to say these are the same maps assuming x⊗y = x' ⊗y'
since multiplication in A and B are bilinear, these maps stay bilinear
hmm yeah
basically somehow connect "distributivity" as it's just bilinearity to the outer bilinear structure
yeah they are the same map cause you get a map from A oplus B to the module of bilinear maps from A oplus B to N by sending x,y to phi(-*x,-*y) no?
so we have like psi(x,y)=phi(-*x,-*y)=phi(-*x',-*y')=psi(x',y')
and then we conclude
which i guess justifies talking about tetra linearity
wait i didn't understand how you got the middle equality
i get the middle one from the outside ones
like psi(x,y)=psi(x',y')
from x otimes y = x' otimes y'
ah okie
and then that gives middle
i dont think so?
okay thanks it makes more sense now why you should think tetra linearly
i think what you just did there is combine the tetra linearity into tensor hom adjunction with two bilinearity

not sure i see where i used tensor hom
(A⊗B) ⊗ (A⊗B) --> N
((x⊗y) ⊗ (a, b)) --> phi(xa,yb)
the data of this map is same as
(A⊗B) --> Hom((A⊗B), N) = Bilin(A, B; N)
(x⊗y) --> phi(- * x, - * y)
right i see
first map lives in $Hom((A\otimes B)\otimes (A\otimes B), N)$ and second lives in $Hom(A\otimes B, Hom(A\otimes B, N))$?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
is that what you're saying?
yee
coolio

thanks for the help 👍
so with your technique id use associativity of tensor product right?
yep
cause i want a map A otimes B otimes A otimes B to A otimes B and i can get that fom A otimes A otimes B otimes B to A otimes B
or i think it's also nice to verify the universal property when you take product of n things at once
which is given by the bilinear maps associated to the algebras A and B
you're also using commutativity
fair enough
oh btw a warning
so even though A⊗B has maps from both A and B
A --> A⊗B by sending a --> a⊗1
A⊗B isn't really the coproduct
unless you're working in the category of commutative R-algebras
because the elements a⊗1 and 1⊗b always commute in A⊗B
so tensor product is like taking direct product in groups, even though the algebras themselves may be non-commutative, the way we're putting them together doesn't let A and B interact much
wdym here?
(a⊗1)(1⊗b) = a⊗b = (1⊗b)(a⊗1)
ah right
compare the situation to groups with direct product and semi-direct product
the semi-direct product inherently introduces non-commutativity
right yeah
but direct product keeps the multiplication in both groups separate
could i view this as the identity from A oplus B to A oplus B not being bilinear?
because if it were then id have an isomophism between A otimes B and A oplus B right?
not sure i understand
it's not a very useful comment haha nvm
.<
btw i realized while talking about non-commutative algebras that i sadly changed the order here :p, should have been x*- and y*- or something
right fair enough
Hello, can anyone tell me what Conrad means with Aut(L) for a field L in these notes? https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/galoistheory/artinschreier.pdf
The way I was taught Galois theory was always to start with a field extension L\K and to then set Gal(L\K) as the K-algebra automorphisms of L.
My best guess is that Aut(L) is the group of ring automorphisms of L, and in that case Gal(L\K) should be a subgroup of Aut(L).
probably just field automorphisms
you can show that any field automorphism fixes the prime subfield, say K of L, and then you can think of this as Gal(L/K)
Can anyone help me see why this formula makes sense?
M is not assumed to be right H modules
i'm guessing that tensor without subscript means tensor over the field k
so isn't this just the associativity of tensor product?
$k[G]\otimes_{k[H]} (M \otimes_k Res(N)) \cong (k[G]\otimes_{k[H]} M) \otimes_k N $
texit is sad? 
k[G]⊗_k[H] (M ⊗_k N) = (k[G]⊗_k[H] M) ⊗_k N
hopefully that is legible
Also why is M x Res(N) = MxN
My keyboard sucks so I’m not writing otimes, hopefully it’s clear from the context
oh because Res(N) is just N right
you're just restricting the action
as k-vector spaces nothing changes
yea
Nice tks


what does $\operatorname{dim}_{\bK}(\bL)$ mean
i believe in mathemagic
i feel stupid asking this but can someone explain quotient groups in terms of quotient rings? i understand the latter pretty well but I'm getting confused by the former, even though it seems simpler. like, what would it look like to mod out the dihedral group by r?
do you want intuition or the formal definition
probably intuition
the latter is a particular case of the former
where you have x+J where J is an ideal for the latter, you have xH for the former, here in multiplicative notation
H being a normal subgroup
The process is the same - we consider an operation on the sets of the form xH
just like you did on the sets of the form x+J
This operation being (xH)(yH) = xyH
i wonder if part of my confusion is just that i don't really understand what a normal subgroup is... are they basically like the ideals of a group? when is a subgroup generated by an element normal? or is that not something you can always do in a group, in the way you can just create a principal ideal from any element of a ring?
alr, I'll say it how I understand it, but be aware that you might not get it
a normal subgroup is a subgroup N where $gNg\inv = N$ (for all g in G)
i believe in mathemagic
this definition naturally arises from when you attempt to define a group structure on G/N
What you really are doing is dividing by an equivalence relation, and asking when the operation inherited on the equivalence classes forms a group
normal subgroups are what represents those admissible equivalence relations
and you can prove this!
ideals for rings are precisely the same in this sense
they represent those equivalence relations but for rings this time
in general we won't have any particular subsets that do so, but you can still divide by an equivalence relation
this is the comfyness of rings and groups
hopefully i'm not completely misunderstanding you, but are you sort of saying that the way we define ideals is such that the operations on a quotient ring actually make sense?
yes, this is the only way you can do this
it has to be a quotient by an ideal
but coming back to groups again
If H is a normal subgroup of G, then you can see that H is normal when H commutes with every element of G, xH = Hx.
So when you're doing (xH)(yH) interpreting it as the set {xh_1yh_2 : h_i are in H}, you have xHyH = xyH^2 = xyH
so you want this commutativity to be able to get y on the front here
so maybe that helps a little for why it should be normal subgroups
okay that actually makes a LOT of sense. like for $(a+I)(b+I)=ab+I$ we need closure under multiplication and the ideal property $aI,Ib=I$.
nilpotent nix
aI and Ib will only be subsets of I in general, but yeah
right right
okay the definition seems a lot more motivated now
You can try this:
For which equivalence relations ~ we can define product on G/~ such that for two equivalence classes [a], [b] of ~, [a][b] = [ab]?
and G/~ forms a group
you'll find that the answer is precisely, when a ~ b iff ab^-1 is in H for some normal subgroup H of G
same for rings but with [a][b] = [ab] and [a]+[b] = [a+b]
note that then the equivalence classes are precisely the classical cosets, that is elements of G/H
i'll definitely try this.
the thing i'm still wondering though is when we can say that the subgroup generated by an element is normal?
Like, imagine you have some elements $G_0$ and you consider $H = \langle G_0\rangle$ the group generated by $G_0$. Then $H$ is normal iff $xgx^{-1}\in H$ for all $g\in G_0$
Blitz
what I deleted was wrong btw
so here you get that subgroup generated by g is normal iff xgx^-1 is a power of g for every x
so the subgroup generated by r in the dihedral group would be normal right?
yeah because s will reduce if you conjugate by something with s
so there will be some power of r left
okay that makes sense. and then Dn/<r> would just be {e<r>,s<r>}?
yep
okay okay i think i'm starting to understand it haha
thank you so much @chilly ocean
this was incredibly helpful
Want to double-check something: if R is a UFD, K is the quotient field, then if f,g are coprime in R[x], they are coprime in K[x].
Let p be a common divisor in K[x] and write f=f'p and g=g'p. Factoring out content we get f=c(f')c(p)f''p* and g=c(g')c(p)g''p* with f'',g'',p* in R[x] and since content is unique up to units of R, we get that c(f')c(p) and c(g')c(p) are in R (since content of f and g is), so f=f'''p* and g=g'''p* with f''',g''',p* in R[x], i.e. p* is a common divisor in R[x]. Since (f,g)_R=1, this means p* is a unit of R, therefore p is in K, i.e. (f,g)_K=1.
yee that looks correct
Thanks, just wanted to be sure.
btw, i find that version of Gauss' lemma a little cumbersome to use. you can look at this cuter version
Say D is a UFD and F its fraction field. Let f and g be two polynomials in D[x], then
f divides g in D[x]
if and only if
f divides g in F[x] and
c(f) divides c(g) in D
so in this light, Gauss lemma is literally comparing the mysterious D[x] to the nicer UFDs F[x] and D. And because of this, it's not then surprising that D[x] also becomes a UFD.
(sorry i was just bored and wanted to message something
)
the forward direction follows by definition and that content is multiplicative. and for backward, if you write g = f * h for some h in F[x], then c(h) = c(g)/c(f) in D, so h is also in D[x]
in the above version you save some usual "clearing the denominator" type argument
so with this, the proof of your statement is a little easier to write down. if f and g had a common divisor p in K[x], then you could without loss of generality assume it lies in R[x] and is primitive by replacing p with p/c(p)
now it's clear that c(p) divides both c(f) and c(g), as c(p) = 1, therefore p divides both f and g in R[x] :3
while i said so many things, maybe one more remark. it's best not to use the notation (f, g)_R for gcd(f, g)_R
the left could be confused with the ideal generated by them and in general UFD coprime doesn't imply that the ideal is (1)
how do you prove that a ring is a factorization domain
im being askede to show that F[x^2, x^3] is a factorization domain but not a ufd
the not a ufd part is easy, there are non prime irreducibles
but can i just take for granted that it's a f.d.
is there a more constructive proof? what does g_-alpha look like?
More specifically, if v in g_alpha, can we construct some vector in g_-alpha in terms of v?
show it noetherian
existence of factorizations is equivalent to the fact that any chain of divisors will eventually end at an irreducible
or said in terms of ideals, any increasing chain of principal ideals will stabilize
what does $\operatorname{dim}_\bL(\bK)$ mean
i believe in mathemagic
what are L and K?
fields
if you have a map L --> K of fields
then K gets the structure of an L-vector space
and you can take the dimension of this
sorry i'm a little sleepy :p
:O
,ti det
65 members found matching det!
Page 1/4
========
1. JudetheDude#7115
2. dethfromabove#6149
3. xX_FanDeTosel_Xx#7223
4. detaomega#3672
5. DoctorVendetta#8928
6. spacekadet#8395
7. The Detective Duck#6776
8. LemonadeTree#4463
9. please request a new nickname (snotdetectTentoes#2276)
10. DudeTheDude#4029
11. Detovan#2170
12. detiszero#6621
13. Detective_Toothpick#7298
14. NoDeThEoNe#7725
15. mickey shaklton detective mode#5048
16. SpaceCadet#2908
17. lividEternity#2276
18. DETERMINATION#1411
19. Detroit#8615
20. sparklecadet#5318 ```
Please type the number corresponding to your selection, or type `c` now to cancel.
,ti det#7067
This user hasn't set their timezone! Ask them to set it using ,ti --set.
,ti sebb
The current time for stμ₂dying is 06:10 PM (EST) on Sat, 03/12/2022.
illuminator3 is 6 hours ahead, at 12:10 AM (CET) on Sun, 04/12/2022.
Member selection timed out.
somewhere in land
east coast
ah ye
yee
(also uniqueness of factorizations is equivalent to non-zero primes = irreducibles)
it's like 12 midnight
bc i forgor those things
you were the one who lives in germany, no?
for 2 years at least ig
like Q --> Q(sqrt2) is an extension of fields
and any element above can be written as linear combi of {1, sqrt2}
so dimension as a Q-vector space is 2
what more intuition do you want :p
How do you not know that and are studying field theory? Pick a linear algebra book please (you will enjoy it)
yee
I'm in an algebra 1 course but didn't know linear algebra was a perquisite
field theory builds on basic lin alg concepts from the begining
its fields over fields
lol
wait how long is your algebra1 course?
I noticed
2 more months
oh i havent studied field theory explicitly like that
Like he can pick most of the concepts in the fly I believe, but still, he can just pick a lin alg book
and they're doing groups, rings, fields, everything?
my basic algebra classs barely got to rings
And then, you look at field elements as linear operators, and so on
yes and galois
yall built diff
Except intro AG instead of Galois
ive liked my baby steps teaching in algebra
Anything with the name Galois > anything else. I think this criterion is pretty accurate, not sure
my alg1 in undergrad was just linear algebra
then alg2 was just group theory, alg3 was rings and fields, alg4 was modules and galois theory
we did modules within 2 lectures
tf
same here
I had LA 1 and LA 2 before
that's wack
We did modules in LA 2
idek what a module is
what year are you, if you dont mind me asking? @formal ermine
Then more advanced module theory in Algebra
10th
high school?
yes

wait what?

We do this in HS in germany
ahhh ok ok
Dunno about y’all
ye
I thought you were in uni
Im surprised you stuck with math after doing numA
Well then, its nice that you get exposed to confusion

German curriculum seems hot
lmaoooooo
my prof was soooooooo nice
it was her first semester at the uni
and she did at least 10 arithmetic errors per lecture
She just like me fr
Meirl
me uwu

Me too
what does the notation Q --> Q(sqrt2) mean
bro but is germany allowed to do this?
inclusion map
what's that
Yes

like when A is a subset of B, so you define the function i : A --> B given by i(a) = a
does --> mean something different than ->
okk
nu metal
other places should copy germany >.<
yes
gute idee
it would be so much nicer if i learned more abstract alg by now >.<
In my country the school system is so rigid. It rewards the avarage
it was the same in my undergrad institute
and then?
so it explains the notation
.<
like my keyboard doesn't have the subseteq symbol
so i jsut use the inclusion map
.<
in field theory tho, its very usual that we use arrows with a hook $\hookrightarrow$
Croqueta
injective?
because field homomorphisms are either injections or trivial
only injective!!!
(try to figure out why if you didnt know)
Uh
0 is NOTTT a field
Reality can be what I want
(oh lol i thought you were gonna start a war :p)
haha
what does the notation Q(sqrt(2)) mean?
I swear I remember it from somewhere
it's on the tip of my tongue
take rationals, throw in sqrt(2)
now make it closed under +, -, *, /
make a field out of it
throw in as?
algebraic copy
the smallest subfield of C containing both Q and sqrt(2)
what's a subfield

I think you know a lot of AA lol
I prefer to close it under the operation, cuz the complex (real) numbers are weird
is it just Q adjoint sqrt(2) or?
definitionally speaking I mean
yes
ahhhh
mate (dont know your name sorry), remember how we constructed the complex numbers?
Try constructing Q(sqrt 2) in the same manner
yes
From quotiening in Q[x] by some ideal
Q[x]/(x^2-2)
does Q(x) just mean Q[x] but for fields
Q(x) is the field of fractions of Q[x]
is a ufd necessarily a pid?
but in this case, Q[sqrt 2] is already a field, so we just write Q[sqrt 2]=Q(sqrt 2)
nope
wait im delusional

k[x,y],Z[x] is ufd but not pid
oh yeh yeh, I had the set inclusion in my mind reversed
,av croqueta
INTERIOR CROCODILE ALLIGATOR
"above"?
Croqueta
usually people draw field maps like
Q(sqrt(2))
|
Q
oh but a ufd must be a pid right
above here just means Q(sqrt2)
All Euclidean domains are PIDs, all PIDs are UFDs
wait what am I saying

thats what I wanted to say
that's what i meant too lmao

ok so Q(sqrt 2) has the basis {1, sqrt 2}. where does Q come into play
im just mixing myself up
bc of this
the coefficients for 1 and sqrt(2) would come from Q
ahhh
dim_Q(Q(sqrt 2)) = 2?
I think implies arrows work better for mental pictures, instead of set inclusions
like Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3)) over Q(sqrt(2)) will have basis {1, sqrt(3)} as the scalars now come from Q(sqrt(2)), so this also has dimension 2
oh wait
wow im having a moment

dim_K(L) = min. amount of elements from L needed to represent L via linear combinations with coefficients in K?
ok epic
that's what I was looking for
thanks!
the subring of Q[x] where the constant term is an integer is a weird ring
wait I think maybe saying "min" is well-defined, but it is not obvious that all bases have the same cardinality
thats what I wanted to say
if $\bL/\bK$ is a field extension then $[\bK : \bL] = 1$, yes?
i believe in mathemagic
I think that doesnt make sense
maybe a weird question
You usually write L/K to mean K --> L, i.e., that L is an extension of K. So in that case, I dont think you can generally talk about K being a vector space over L
but is the fact that a gcd exists in a euclidean domain a consequence of the fact that they exist in UFD's
[K:L] is just another notation for dim_L(K)
^
yes I know
but we just saw an example where the dimension was 2 >.<
my class has gone ED -> PID's -> UFD's
and we proved that gcd's exist in ED's and that seemed to be like the defining characteristic of an ED
L/K is a field extension means K subseteq L, no?
Yes
but now im realizing that they must also always exist in a UFD
You can think of it as L "lying over" K
And you read [L:K] from left to right as the dimension of L over K
wait me no understand
my thing?
if L is the extension why you looking at [K:L]?
thats what I pointed out
because I was wondering what it's equal to
i'm too sleepy >.< sowwy
👆 
"K being a vector space over L"?
thats what we have been talking about all the time
defining?
K is a field, but if it contains another field L, then you can trivially think of K as a vector space with scalar field L
liek
idk what your words mean :c
maybe rather it characterizes an ED
the fact that the euclidean algo works
like it's in the name lol
oh euclidean algo is very different than just existence of gcd >.<
you also have
ED -> PID -> UFD -> Bezout domains -> GCD domains etc
I was gonna type an example of the real numbers as a vector space over Q, because I think thats a baffling example. But I think that would confuse you more
I could give you the basic concepts of linear algebra, but its better if you pick a book (seriously)
[R : Q] = inf?
You can see the pinned messages in #book-recommendations or ask there
uncountable!
lin alg after an algebra course?
(Im trying to help btw, idk if Im sounding rude. But linear algebra is important, thats what Im trying to say)
yes I know you're just trying to help
He is in high school
I greatly appreciate that
ah
The basic definitions of linear algebra are not difficult. I would suggest that you pick a book (or some notes) and look at the basic definitions: vector spaces, linear independence, bases, etc. It wont take you a lot of time
also, if you go to classes, I think you can just ask the profs there, they will probably point you to good resources, to learn some of the material that you might be lacking
isn't a vector space just a module but instead of a ring it's a field
Lmao
usually people say "modules are like vector spaces but over a ring"
yes
what does "K is a vector space over L" mean? K is an L-module?
yes!
what operation do we use
what do you think?
K is already a field (i.e., it already has defined operations), and L is a subfield of K
I'd guess addition? because a field under multiplication isn't an abelian group
for vectors, yes
imagine learning modules before vector spaces and doing field theory in between 
this is scary
what about scalar multiplication (i..e, multiplying the elements of the ring (in this case your field L) by the elements of the module (in your case K))?
oh nvm I was thinking something wrong here
yeah it's obviously just multiplication
yeah thats it
r.m = r * m
you could sometimes define some other operations if you wanted, but if you are interested in studying K, then it makes sense to just look it in that way, which is a natural one
the point now is that vector spaces are nice
thats why you look at K/L in that way
if you knew linear algebra you would know 
wouldn't an L-module over K just have the basis { 1 }
(is my terminology with L-module over K correct here? I want to say K is an L-module)
no
You would say K is a module/vector space over L or K is an L-module
both are fine
no
you have already given examples yourself
It is one tho when K=L
but not in any other case
ok I think I'm mixing up L and K
so we have L/K meaning K subseteq L. then if K is an L-Module it would have the basis { 1 } because we can write any m in M as l * 1 for m = l in L?
If K is an L-module and L is not equal to K, then that module won't align with our interests in field theory
if it is even possible to give such a module
because scalar multiplication is exotic
In K you have 1, which is your identity. If K is an L-module and if x is in L and not in K, then you would have x*1 in K
if you can define such a scalar multiplication I mean
so x*1 wont be equal to x
(that assuming you can even define such a scalar product *, which in general wont be possible I think)
wut
if K is an L module
x*1 would be in K
yes
oh
but x*1 not equal to x, because x is not in K
thats what I was trying to say, hopefully its not too confusing
not in K
dont worry
;-;
more important question is
why you guys using L as a subfield of K
that feels so wrong ;-;
L/K >>> K/L
I dont even write field extensions as L/K, I prefer to use K<L
and actually, my preference for letters is F<K<E
K is a subfield of L here
yeah fr
yeah that's why I got confused a couple of messages ago
cuz my lecture uses L/K too
like, when you just have one extension like L/K, I think the / might be more aesthetic, but when you have towers and fields with many adjoint variables 
do we have $\bQ(\sqrt{2}) \cong \bQ \oplus \bQ$?
i believe in mathemagic
as vector spaces over Q yes
yes
As fields, direct sums dont make a lot of sense I think
yeah
I mean there's the direct product of fields, where u can define a field structure on but that is a different one to the original one
But thats not a fields
The problem is
you would also say $\bQ(\sqrt 3)\approx \bQ\oplus \bQ)$ as vector spaces
Croqueta
and $\bQ(\sqrt 2)$ and $\bQ(\sqrt 3)$ are not isomorphic as fields (they are as vector spaces)
Let $\bM/\bL$ and $\bL/\bK$ be two field extensions. Then the following holds $$[\bM : \bK] = [\bM : \bL] \cdot [\bL : \bK]$$. Proof: If either of them are infinite, so is the product. We can safely assume that they are therefore finite. We have $$\bM \cong \underbrace{\bL \oplus \ldots \oplus \bL}_{[\bM : \bL] \text{-times}}$$
what does the L oplus ... oplus L mean
In this case, they are talking about M as a vector space if Im not mistaken
they are simply saying that M has dimension [M:L] over L (which is the definition of [M:L])
ahhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
I think I got it
so L oplus ... oplus L is just { (x, y, z, ...) | x,y,z,... in L } which is isomorphic to M under phi : (x, y, z, ...) -> b1x + b2y + b3z + ... for some basis elements b1, b2, b3 in M?
For every vector space V over a field F, there exists an n such that V is isomorphic to F^n
this is just saying that every vector space has a basis. So you can think of vector spaces of dimension n over F as the vector space F^n, thats why vector spaces are nice
But F^n wont be a field in general. For example, think about R^2 (R is the real numbers). How would you define an inverse of (0,1)? This is not zero, so it should be invertible. Multiplication will be something weird, not the natural componentwise operations.
Linear algebra is beautiful
Thanks, that's pretty neat
I recently learned that polynomial rings are free objects in the category of R-algebras:
$$Hom_{R-ALG}(R[X], S) \cong Hom_{SET}(X, \hat{S})$$
Ie, $R$-algebra morphisms from $R[X]$ to $S$ correspond to length $|X|$ sequences in the underlying set of $S$.
Can we reflect this result into the category of Rings?
Mars Industrial
I am thinking I can show
$$Hom_{RING}(R[X], S) \cong Hom_{RING}(R, S) \times Hom_{SET}(X, \hat{S}) $$
Mars Industrial
bro is typing the magna carta
am not, I am just having to revise because I don't know wtf I am doing lol
Okay, I think I can show
$$ Hom_{RING}(R[X], S) \cong \bigcup_{\alpha \in Hom_{RING}(R, S)} Hom_{R-ALG}(R[X], (S, \alpha))$$
Mars Industrial
I think it’s equivalent to a choice of algebra structure on S and then an element of S
Namely, if you consider R -> R[x] -> S this makes S an R-algebra
So looking only at what the coefficients do
And then for that fixed choice of coefficients you then take a single element S for what x does
Maybe that’s what you wrote?
Ah it is
I didn’t see the thing you unioned over
To what I wrote, let $f \in Hom_{RING}(R[X], S)$. Restrict $f|_R = f . j_R$, where $j_R : R \to R[X]$ is the canonical embedding.
Now $(S, f|_R)$ is an R-algebra, and so is $(R[X], j_R)$. But now $f$ is just a morphism from $R[X]$ to $(S, f|_R)$
And to go the other way, we can just use the forgetful functor to turn algebra morphisms into ring morphisms
Mars Industrial
This is interesting it’s almost like a map into S and a choice of base point in some sense
right, just an R map, and a base point (really a X-point, for arbitrary set X). And in fact the whole point of R[X] is that it lets you add this |X| level of freedom to an ordinary R map
Yes
To finish the proof, I think we can do:
$$\bigcup_{\alpha \in Ring(R, S)} RAlg(R[X], (S, \alpha))$$
$$\cong \coprod_{\alpha \in Ring(R, S)} Set(X, \hat{S})$$
$$ \cong Ring(R, S) \times Set(X, \hat{S})$$
Mars Industrial
The second step feels kind of illegal. I'm appling the free object property in RAlg, which makes all dependence on $\alpha$ go away. So I turned it into a disjoint union to keep the actual structure
normal
idk if you're saying that this kinda thing is normal or joking about the fact that "normal" gets the same kinda treatment with meanings getting lumped on it
there are always n-versions of famous lemmas, and you can always ignore all of them
but either way 
both
you don't have to worry about what random crappy authors choose to call gauss' lemma, it's better to focus on collecting tools that work on the kinds of problems you care about, and agressively yet dispassionately ignore everything else
aggressively yet dispassionately ignore everything else
i like that lol

ok i was talking about this before but i'll ask again - what exactly does Frac(R) look like
i understand that it's localizing a ring R at everything except 0
and localizing is "adding inverses" to elements of a subset of R
but if R isn't a field and you localize at pretty much all of R but not every element has an inverse how are giving elements inverses
is it like giving elements formal inverses? Like when we construct the free group with generators x, y, z, first we have to magic up a neutral element, then add x^-1, y^-1, and z^-1 to the mix, then do a whole bunch more tedious stuff besides. Are we treating the inverse-free elements like generators for some larger set we're building?
not sure i follow
the best way i understand it rn is actually like we're reducing the ring with the equivalence relation we get from localizing
but idk if that's accurte
@pastel cliff, wait, the elements of S^-1R are just pairs (r, s) in RxS, where for the purposes of arithmetic, r acts like a numerator and s acts like a denominator. Ie, so we have nice stuff like (r1, s1) * (r2, s2) = (r1*r2, s1, s2), just like these things are trying to pretend they are rational numbers
*numerator lol
can we pretend these are like rational numbers? Step 1 - make this bigger ring of rational pairs. Step 2. Quotient together equivalent pairs, where (a, b) ~ (c, d) if (a, b) = (cf, df) for some factor f.
wait, I guess that gets us where you are, without much way of seeing how these should be different from rational numbers
@pastel cliff it seems you feel we are reducing R, so you are not sure where we get extra elements from. But are you seeing that to localize R relative to S, first we make R bigger by passing to RxS? And then we do something to reduce that?
Does your sense of ominous foreboding start before or after that point? 
ohhhh i guess that's a better way to think of it
i keep forgetting that S^-1R is just R x S
and the equivalence relation exists on that
RxS/~
but it does reduce RxS right
where ~ is.. {verbally vomits}
ok my main concern is where noninvertible elements of R end up after making it over to R x S
do they get lumped into the equivalence class of some invertible element and thus become invertible that way
i tried thinking about this with Q and/or R but i dont think that works
or wait
eh no nvm
I guess an illustrative example is what happens to the noninvertible elements of the integers (aka all of them) when we do this to obtain the rationals
oh so Frac(Z)?
ig that shows that this is wrong
Yeah, I think there they get lumped according to numerator/denominators which are relatively prime
almost it's like the real interesting story is happens once we being to add invertible elements - does each invertible element get mapped to a unique equivalence class, or can they get they get squished together?
i am a fan of nuking the mosquito myself
this seems so fanciful and whimsical

unrelated but noetherian-ness tells us that any collection of ideals of a ring has a maximal element - is this enough to assert that the number of ideals containing some other ideal must be finite...?
i would think not because of Z
but i feel like something of that nature could be true
number of ideals containing (0) :^)
wait doesn't Z show us that the # of ideals containing v is finite? If w > v, then w divides v. But v has finite # of divisors
except (0), that example is cursed
there's gotta be a way to finagle this from the ascending chain condition, I've seen all sorts of BS pulled from that hat
that's what i thought yeah

I don't get why the last statement here follows? Sorry, noob at abstract algebra
[F : Fp] = n means that the dimension of F is n as a Fp vector space. In other words, its the direct sum of n copies of Fp
@pastel cliff suppose v is a sub-ideal of infinite ideals$ w_1, w_2, \dots$. Then construct ideals $u_k = w_1 \cap w_2 \dots \cap w_k$. Then $u_k$ looks like it might be an infinite chain descending down to v. But that is illegal!
Mars Industrial
is that convincing? I think that could fail if there is M such that u_k = v for all v > M.
Like say v = (24). If w_1 = (4) and w_2 = (3), then already u_2 = v. Is there some kind of way we can backtrack and pick a better w, such that u_k > u_k+1?
Take Z[x]: the ideals (p,x) satisfy no inclusion relations for primes p and each contain (x) if I’m not mistaken
I don’t think this works in non artinian rings
thank you! I was wondering if polynomial rings give us a counterexample, but could not visualize or manipulate its ideals well enough to see!
ok forgive me but what's the definition of Normal subgroup? do we require gHg' ⊆ H or it's an equally?
Like is ⟨b⟩ normal in F(a,b) / ⟨aba'=b²⟩

the usual definition is gHg ^-1 ⊆ H for all g in G, but this implies the opposite containment so in fact equality does hold: replace g with g^-1 to get g^-1 H g ⊆ H, which is equivalent to H ⊆ gHg^-1
not true for the example I gave
equality
basically you want the quotient map G --> G/H to be a homomorphism, whatever this forces your H to be should be the definition of normal
that means two things, G/H is a group and the map preserves the operation
because of the map, the group structure on G/H is forced on you
but like Bungo says, since you're asking that condition for every g, in particular g', you get the reverse inclusion as well
ahh i see your question now
i think you made a boo boo with the definition of the normalizer
N_G(H) = {g in G : gHg' = H}
here you can't make that a subseteq
because a priori you don't know if for every g in N_G(H), the inverse g' also lies in N_G(H)
i don't think we can say anything about a'ba, which is the whole problem
yes
this example actually comes up in covering spaces
it apparently gives an example of a covering transformation which is not a deck transformation
i should really learn some algtop >.<
for that I require that H to be not normal
What are you specializing in btw
Cause i used to think it was comm alg until you said you didn’t know comm alg
i'm trying for alg geo and arith geo right now
and i'm learning comm alg as i need it in ag
Arith geo is what ngroupoid does right?
what about you, are you also gonna do some AG? 
Idk yet it’s too early to tell
Im doing a decent amount of algebra focused courses this year and next year I’m doing more analysis focused ones
i just know AG would be useful for anything lol, so might as well learn it :p it's also fun
Yeah it does seem pretty fun
complex analysis was the only analysis course i liked :p
Complex analysis is awesome
Tbf I say analysis focused but idk if differential geometry counts as analysis
It’s just geometry ig
yea
But yeah I’ve still got plenty of time before I decide what I wanna focus on 👍
i was doing a masters to get some extra time to decide >.<
idk how my batchmates from UG made a decision so quick
they literally had a 3 year UG and then directly a PhD
Isn’t that what usually happens in the us?
until a year ago i didn't even know how to properly cross a road in india
Ah you’re in India
i was :3
crossing roads here is so easy
literally you can walk without looking at the street 
Lmao yeah I’m used to that too
what did I just hear

cross the autobahn with your eyes closed
make a run for it and pray
bro i was so surprised that the cars would wait for you to cross the road even when there is no traffic light
lmao
i always feel like they can go on ahead >.<
sorry what
yeah it's like that in germany
🫥
det have you ever used the öpnvs?

the big roads with no speed limit
just call it bus then wtf?
it's also trains but like where the busses drive
i was searching for that sticker "oh so i see now, (understood nothing)"
but didn't find it >.<
where it go
purged
either your bus comes 10 mins early and you gotta stand in the rain waiting for the next one
oh it was there
or your bus comes 5 mins late, resulting in you missing your connection
there's no inbetween

i used to be scared travelling more than a kilometer in india
here travelling is so easy >.<
why
the morning busses are usually on time
In Netherlands they’re on time 😎
because roads are scary for me >.<
i always arrive 5 min before at the bus stop, cause i don't trust my walking speed
currently like 3.5ish km i think
but if you only count the walking distance it's like 100m + bus + 100m
I see
oh wow
the only way i crossed roads in india was to wait for someone else and follow their shadow >.<
my school is 3.2km away, my uni 7 km
only one :3
I basically live in my uni 😎
so cool
Very handy
i wish they did that here
hostels
i hate to go out of my room 
It’s just the student dorms are very close to campus
I also hate to go out of my room. Way too cold out there
But if I could I'd be hopping around
can't stand sitting here
The cold never bothered me anyway
frozen reference
Does anyone have intuition for projective/injective modules?
if you do AG then apparently projective modules are vector bundles over something. Idk the details and I'm yet to read AG
yeah. They are kind of like the canonical modules in which you either embedd or are a quotient of
it's time to see what calculus i can do, to test the limits and break through
Oh that's a really nice intuition! It matches with the intuition for the particular case of free groups too. So how do projective modules and free modules differ in general?
projectives are direct summands of free
and injectives are direct summands of cofree
Does this also hold for the category of all groups?
oh projective objects in Grp?
or something analogous
yeah
never thought about those
because the main use of projective/injective objects is to get projective/injective resolutions
and because of those nice extensions/lifting properties the quasi-isomorphisms which one cares about, become an easier to understand condition which is that of homotopy-equivalence
surely projective/injective resolutions can be defined in Grp too
right
Wait, cofree module is a thing?
Oh, direct products of Hom_Z(R, Q/Z)
(According to wolframalpha)
have to think about this... so the same proof shows that free groups are projectives, with the fact that epimorphisms of groups are surjective, but i only see that projectives are retracts of free, and not exactly direct "summands".
yee
so like Z is a projective Z-module, and projecitves are closed under taking arbitrary direct sums
and for any projective you have a surjectiveion Z^{⊕A} --> A
and moreover if you base change your situation by tensoring with R⊗_Z then you get other free modules
similarly, you can make a parallel for the situation of injectives
Yes that is true
Well in groups not every semidirect product is a product, so maybe it would be semidirect summands instead of direct summands?
Q/Z is an injective Z-mdoule
and you can use hom to base change
and you also you have that other thing
if A is injective then you can embed A into (Q/Z)^{Hom(A, Q/Z)}
similar to how you can projective from Z^{⊕Hom(Z, A)} --> A
and using the injectivity of A you also get that it's a split injection
do you get semi-direct product(ands?) directly?
say G is prjective and F a free group that surjects to G
so we can form an exact seq
1 --> K --> F --> G --> 1
and the F --> G admits a section
In Grp, split extensions are equivalent to semidirect products
ahh rightt
same in Ab too, just all of those are products in Ab
nice
hi, can someone help me with question 1.2? I managed to do 1.1 without a problem but I literally have no idea about 1.2
from 1.1(3) I know that the iff statement is true for one way but I don't know how to show the other way around
what s your definition of R-module?
For each r in R the law of composition gives you a function from M to M
maybe you can try using that
what book is that, looks old
Module Theory: an approach to linear algebra, T. S. Blyth
what's a trivial intermediate field? either the field itself or the extension field?
a bit silly to ask but "quotienting" by an equivalence relation just means applying it to a ring right
still thinking about the localization stuff from yesterday, in particular R x S/~
not sure if this is what you mean but you quotient by one by declaring two elements in the ring to be equal if they are equal under said equivalence relation
when localising on some multiplicative subset S you basically add multiplicative inverses for elements in S
think about fractions and how you would usually reduce them
am i wrong in saying that every element in S must have in inverse then? since it's mult. closed
no that's correct, the point of the construction is that every element of S becomes a unit
this means that we get a local ring when localizing at a prime ideal (why?) and local rings have nice properties
K[M] is the ring, and K(M) is the field
R must be a ring here?
sounds about right
in general when we talk about K[A] we mean the of polynomials in A with coefficients in K
but A don't have to be independent variables or anything
like how K[x] is the ring of polynomials in x
yes
why do we have K(M) subseteq Q(K[M])?
K(M) is the smallest field containing both K and M right
actually idk if this isn't an equality

this is an equality
but they are saying "we obviously have ..."
but I don't get why it's obvious
why did they write subset then
oh right
Q(K[M]) is a field
so what they're saying is that since Q(K[M]) is a field, contains K and M, we have K(M) subset of Q(K[M])
I think the point here is that they want to prove the equality, you just didn't write enough context
(to confuse us perhaps?)
"We obviously have ...." this is the entire context
ah ok this sounds simpler than I thought
"Because K(M) is the smallest intermediate field that contains M, we even have K(M) = Q(K[M])"
alright
actually I don't understand why K(M) = Q(K[M])
I now get why it's subseteq but not why it's equal
an element of K[M] will be of the form k_1m_1 + ... + k_nm_n
where k_i are in K and m_i are in M
right
uh why
well now we get into another loop
wait
is the generated ring by K and M over L the same as the polynomial ring of M over K?
I actually said something wrong
an element of K[M] will be of the form k_0+k_1m_1 + ... + k_nm_n
where k_i are in K and m_i are in M
actually I said it wrong again
lol
they'll be sums of elements of the form, some element of k times non-negative powers of elements of M
I'm thinking of modules for some reason and we have rings here
my bad
so this is correct?
I'm not sure what that terminology entails to be 100% sure to say if it's correct
all I can say is that since M and K both exist in L, they obey the same laws as laws in L
so there's no independence going on
now let me get back on topic
this is just the same as { sum_i k_i m_i^n | n in N_0, m_i in M } ?
since Q(K[M]) consists of quotients of two elements in K[M], we need to have it in K(M)
well no because
If you have something like Q[sqrt(2), sqrt(3)] for example
there will be sqrt(6) there for example
as a product of sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) which are in your "M"
so those are more like how you have polynomials with multiple variables
xy+zx, x^2y
and so on
right
but this definition is essentially just the same as a polynomial ring?
it isn't because you have powers of the exact same element
bumping this for myself cuz i need to get to this
I don't get it
but im looking at this cuz i finally realized how UFD's and the idea of localization come into place
what do the elements of K[M] look like
this might be a bit tricky if you don't know how the ideals look after localising, if you need a hint for the prime ideal part let me know
well it'd be notationally heavy
but fortunately we aren't using what they look like idk why I said that
?
I always like to know what I am working with you know
i have a proof in prof's lecture notes, but im working backwars
like he introduced localizations then went on to talk about UFD's and i thought it was kinda random
@formal ermine just read this
but, if i understand correctly, if we have a UFD (call it R), then usnig Frac(R)[x] and the nice properties we get from localizaton we can show that R[x] is also a UFD
ah
so im going back to the localization stuff i glossed over before
wait
no
I don't get it
so an element of Q(K[M]) looks like a/b for a,b in K[M]
yeah
why does it need to be in K(M)
ah and because division is closed
so we have K(M) subseteq Q(K[M]) and Q(K[M]) subseteq K(M) therefore K(M) = Q(K[M])
ok thanks!
should have said that earlier, that would save us some time 
L/K is simple if [L : K] is prime?
my reasoning is that if [L : K] is prime it has no intermediate fields, therefore the smallest field that contains a in L but not in K must be L
yee, that works
(in fact as long as you have finitely many intermediate fields, the extension is simple, assume the extension is finite for safety lol, idr the exact hypothesis)
why does $\bK[x]$ contain a polynomial with $g(a) = a\inv$ even though $a \not \in \bK$?
i believe in mathemagic
you need a to be algebraic for that
this is before the definition of an algebraic number
the context is:
Let L/K be a field extension and a in L. Then the following statements are equivalent:
(1) K[a] is a field
(2) There exists a polynomial f(x) in K[x] with f(x) \neq 0 and f(a) = 0
(3) The degree [K[a] : K] < infty is finite
the proof for (1) => (2) uses this
and these are the equivalent definitions for a to be algebraic over K
yes
this is Proposition 4.1.5
and Definition 4.1.6 says that any element a in L is algebraic if it fulfills one of those conditions
this is talking about localizations - what is that homomorphism it's referring to?
yee so do you agree that a^{-1} lives in K[a]?
the smallest intermediate ring that contains a
with coefficnets in K
the embedding, r - -> r/1
nu, that's K(a)
this is K[a]
I am so confused
for every element in s this maps to an invertible element
ring?
maybe i shouldn't call this embedding since it's only injective for Domains
but you get the point
wut
blitz told me it isn't
whut
then noninvertible elements obv dont have an inverse
okie so i'm not saying K[a] is the polynomial ring
i'm saying K[a] = {g(a) : g in K[x]}
sorry but that sounded funny
the water is wet





