#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 22 of 1
r.(-a) + r.a = r.(a - a) = r.0 = r(0.0) = (r0).0 = 0.0 = 0 so r.(-a) is the inverse to r.a and because inverses are unique r.(-a) = -(r.a)
does that look gucci?
ooh lol you just meant torsion elements >.< i've been seeing a lot of derived functors lately, got confused >.<
Oh lol
Moving this from #discrete-math:
So I asked my prof this question and I'm not 100% sure why he replied yes, since he didn't justify it:
The question is: if $\alpha\in \overline{\mathbb{Q}}$, and $f$ is the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ and $f\cdot h \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ is irreducible and $f\cdot g \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ is irreducible, then is $h \pm g$?
My reasoning goes: suppose $x \in \overline{\mathbb{Q}}$, then we can construct a minimal polynomial $f_x \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$ for it. We can always multiply $f_x$ by $\frac{gcd(numerators)}{lcm(denominators)}$ to get something in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, and this must be irreducible.
However I'm not convinced. Thoughts?
This question stemmed from trying to extend Euclid's lemma to elements in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$.
OptimisticPeach
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If f is min poly and fh is irreducible, isn't h just 1 or -1? Since f is a factor
Or am I missing something
Minimal polynomial over Q, then h and h have to be polynomial in Z
They remove denominators such that the polynomial is irreducible
Okay yes fair enough lol
What’s a primitive polynomial
gcd of its coefficients is a unit
Then yes lol
yeah
$3x^7 + 5$ is irreducible by eisenstein's criterion, right? cuz we can just choose any prime number $\not \in \Set{ 3, 5 }$ and it will work, ye?
yes yes yes no
It has to be 5 as it must divide the last coef, but p^2 must not
ah ye
Let $I_1, \ldots, I_n \subseteq R$ be pairwise coprime ideals. Then there must exist $x_k \in I_k$ and $y_k \in I_j$ with $x_k + y_k = 1$. Thus $$1 = \prod_{k \neq j} (x_k + y_k) = \prod_{k \neq j} x_k + : (\text{terms with at least one factor } y_k)$$
Because the first summand lies in $\prod_{k \neq j} I_k$ and every other summand lies in $I_j$ (as $y_k \in I_j$), we get that $1 \in (\prod_{k \neq j} I_k) + I_j$. Thereby showing that $I_j$ and $\prod_{k \neq j} I_k$ are coprime.
is this proof correct?
yes yes yes no
just for funsies to show one trick that's unnecessary here, you can say for $f(x)=3x^7+5$ then $g(x)=x^7f(1/x)=5x^7+3$, which is eisenstein for p=3. f factors if and only if g factors. Point is you can apply eisenstein forwards or backwards on the coefficients basically.
Merosity
will come back to this tomorrow
another common trick is translating too, like if f(x) is irreducible so is f(x+1), specifically have showing cyclotomic polynomials are irreducible in mind as a good example here
just squeezing eisenstein for all its worth
what are cyclotomic polynomials
superrrr late but - isn't this the whole field?
to repost the question, i was asking about showing the Q or Z/p are contained in every field
minimal polynomials for roots of unity, like x^2+1 is the minimal polynomial for the 4th roots of unity
what's a minimal polynomial
the subfield generated by 1 is the smallest subfield containing 1. R contains the subfield Q which contains 1, so no it doesn't have to be the whole field
question
in the ring of Gaussian integers, how do you find the GCD of an integer an a complex valued number
i.e., gcd of 85 and 1+13i
euclidean algorithm
are q and r pulled from C or Z
Z[i]
so of the form ni where n in Z
a+bi
$a + bi, : a,b \in \Z$
sebbb
so my r and q of of this form then ^
Z[i] are the gaussian integers
it's integers adjoined i
yes yes yes no
with $z_0 = x$ and $z_1 = y$
yes yes yes no
you can easily see that this is just the euclidean algorithm
(>.<)

(a mod b means the minimal n under the norm s.t. a cong n mod b)
it's not "the" unless you're working with something like polynomials over fields >.<
the gaussian integers usually use a+bi -> a^2 + b^2, no?
yep
so wdym with this
like you give notation to something only if it exists and is unique
so there maybe like multiple n such that a = n (mod b) and they all have the same minimal norm
like say in Z[i] you'r dividing by 2 and the remainder is i, should you call it i or -i?
both have same norm 🙈
the gcd differs by a unit (-1 or 1 in Z[i]), so wouldn't it not matter?
the remainder doesn't though
wait are you saying the choice won't change the gcd (up to unit)? that's completely true
yeah only by a unit
I just mean irreducible, like x^2+1 is the smallest polynomial with 4th roots of unity as roots, but of course x^4-1 also has them as roots but is higher degree
maybe I wasn't formal enough in my definition lol
right, but the point i was making was just the notation is weird :p
ye
ofc everybody reading it will understand what you mean >.<
ah
okk
but it's similar to writing sqrt(2) and say you're not working in something like reals where there is a way to distinguish the two roots and prefer one for the notation
so for GCD of 85 and 1+13i do I write 85=q(1+13i)+r then work backwards ?
do you also wanna solve 85 * x + (1+13i) * y = 1?
do 85/(1+13i) and round both components to the nearest integer
then plug that in as q and solve for r
so mult by its complex conj ?
if the deg of r doesn't fulfill the property then round a different way (you have 4 choices at max)
yes
it will :p
because any alpha/beta is at most 1/sqrt(2) away from something in Z[i].
which gives you |alpha - beta * q| <= |beta|/sqrt(2)
so N(alpha - beta*q) <= N(beta)/2
ah right
and if you're rounding you're gonna get the closest thing in Z[i], so it's sure to satisfy it
if you only take floors/ceiling, then you may have to fiddle it a bit
,w 85/(1+13i)
yee 1-7i works
and I take that and plug it in for q in 85=q(1+13i)+r and solve for r?
i get -7+6i
that is the division algorithm, now you repeat this with (1+13i) and r
and keep doing it until the remainder at some point becomes 0
is there a ring which is neither artinian nor noetherian
i cant seem to find one so im leaning towards no
polynomial ring over a field with infinitely many variables
commutative + artinian -> noetherian
iirc
been a while since i did commutative algebra
hi terra :3
hi 
oh shit yeah
all rings are commutative anyways
i don't know anything about non-commutative rings so i'm going to reduce this to just artinian -> noetherian
im assuming commutative rings anyways
let me crack open a&m and see
like i get DCC yeah
but does it have a nicer analogue like finitely generated ideals for noetherian rings
"A ring A is Artin if and only if it is Noetherian and of dimension zero.
the proof is not particularly long
6.11 says "let A be a ring in which hte zero ring is a product of maximal ideals. then A is noetherian iff artinian"
so maybe it takes a tiny bit of building up to
most of my proof is "as shown in class, R[x, ...] is not noetherian" and then contrapositive of that
"as shown in class" is more powerful than "proof is left to reader" 
tbf my prof did show it i just forgor
going back to this - am i right in saying that 1 generates Q (and in general, something isomorphic to Q in every (probably not actually every) field
ah then every infnite field
the point is to look at the characteristic of the field
maybe in more concrete terms, look at the map from Z into your field that adds 1 a bunch of times
but dont think i can use it

(because the characteristic of a field comes from the map i mentioned above)
oh wait you said you already know what it is
oop
It's a pretty difficult proof iirc
Isn’t this not a field
it is the fraction field of F_p[x]
yee round parenthesis are usually used for fields
like you would see Q(sqrt2) instead of Q[sqrt2] even though they mean the same thing
yup
in general for an integral domain D, you can carry of the "fraction" construction to put it inside its fraction field
How could one disprove that Z[i] form a field?
I get that all elements besides the units arent invertible but how could one prove this
disprove that it's not a field? so prove that it's a field?
find a nonunit
🤔
sorry
oh wait
this is the definition of unit
prove its not a field
find an element without an inverse
yeah but im in a linear algebra class and we havent done anything whatsoever with rings and this was one of my questions
a cheating way to do it is you know there must be a multiplicative inverse in like C
and so just pick a number whose multiplicative inverse in C no longer lies in Z[i]
ah
What I said is that when we have Im(z) = 0 then the gaussian integers are isomorphic to the integers
also remember that the integers alone dont have mult. inverses
pick a specific one
again, this is just by the definition of unit
but yes you can do something like 2, if that's what you mean
I just said fix Re(z) != 1, -1 and fix Im(z) = 0
huh
I didnt explicitely pick anything
the easiest way to disprove a "for all" statement is to prove a "there exists" one
yeah
if you prove there exists an element without an inverse you disprove that all elements have inverses
so just pick one, you dont need to be general
okay i get this but with what I said have I not just done that?
ngl, i dont know what Re and lm stand for, maybe prof specific notation
Real part of z
unless im having a goober moment
oh you never said this
wdym?
oh sorry yeah I meant fix the imaginary part to be zero and the real part to be anything but 1, -1. Then you can never find an inverse
oh nvm i thought you were using that z in your answer, it was just an example
im just saying that you're overcomplicating it
yeah okay
just next time just pick something
Yeah almost nothing has an inverse
shorter usually = better
Only 1,-1,i, and -i have inverses right?
yeah thats what i noticed
i can see how this is relevant but what is the kernel of this homomorphism?

.<
is that a good or bad face
neither :p
the image is generated by 1, so can't be all of Q
like if you keep adding 1 to itself, there are two possible cases. one where you loop back to 0, or other where you just keep going bigger and bigger
yeah im assuming that's the finite and infinite case, respectively
the kernel is (characteristic)Z
and the characteristic is gonna be zero or prime
in one case the quotient by the kernel is a field, and in the other a bit more argument is needed
that's more of a proof outline than a hint
sorry if it spoils a lot
i mean i've been stuck on it since yesterday, sleeping on it didnt help 
ohhhh wait so the Z/p case isn't necessarily only for finite fields
yee
that's the example i gave here
it just has to be an infinite field where the subfield generated by 1 is also finite
(im saying that's the kind of field that contains Z/p)
yea
you mean the image of Z --> your field is finite/inifnite
instead of the actual field being finite or infinite
I contain Z/p
Is there a nice way to represent the algebraic closure of a finite field
Like I know it’s just the union of them
But that is not nice
represent in what sense?
Like the elements of finite fields can be represented by polynomials in Fp mod irreducible polynomials
oh represent the elements?
Yeah
It’s another example of infinite characteristic p
But I have like no idea what it is
Even though I know what it is
You know what I mean?

you formalize this by saying it's a filtered colimit, if that's what you're asking
I just don’t have much understanding of the structure of it
but in any case working with elements of any algebraic field extension can be done by working with the corresponding minimal polynomials or something
fraction field of?
F_p(x)
yea, because this guy has a transcendental element
while algebraic closures are algebraic by definition
You mean transcendental with respect to Fp right?
yep
yee
Actually Fp/Fp
I'm manually computing the roots of the Lie algebra sl(3) and this question came to me:
In a semi-simple Lie algebra, do two linearly independent simultaneous eigenvector of the adjoint actions of the Cartan subalgebra necessarily generate different roots?
A similar but not identical statement is false: "two linearly independent eigenvectors have different eigenvalues". This can be false for example, when the eigenvalue has geometric multiplicity 2
question about that discussion from earlier about Z/p and Q in a field - what about negative values of Z
actually wait
char cant be negative
Indeed
Can I get some help with this problem?
ring without identity
rng
An ideal generated by a is intersection of all ideals containing a
That's true for non-commutative too. Artinian rings are noetherian
(More specifically left-Artinian rings are left-Noetherian, right-Artinian rings are right Noetherian)
Therefore, given that a is in this ideal (intersection of ideals is an ideal), derive what needs necessarily to be a subset of it
Then show that what's left is indeed an ideal
This will show it
So the proof starts showing that for an artinian ring R, J(R) is nilpotent
Then R/J(R) is a semisimple ring, and is both Noetherian and Artinian by Artin-Wedderburn
And over a semisimple ring, being a Noetherian module and Artinian module are equivalent to being finitely generated, so since each J(R)^i/J(R)^{i+1} is an Artinian R-module and thus an Artinian R/J(R)-module, it is also a Noetherian R/J(R) module
Now if 0->M->N->P->0 is an exact sequence with M, P Noetherian then so is N
Inductively show that for each j in N, n≥0, that J(R)^n/J(R)^{n+j} is a Noetherian R-module
(Here J(R)^0 is taken as R)
Now take r such that J(R)^r=0 and then R=J(R)^0/J(R)^r is Noetherian as well
So if we started with left Artinian ring, R is Noetherian as a left R module, so left Noetherian, similarly for the right Artinian case
im being asked to determine if there exists a ring $R$ and a multiplicatively closed subset $S$ of $R$ so that $S^{-1}R$ is noetherian but $R$ is not noetherian.
sebbb
Sure, take a non-noetherian domain and its field of fractions
Q[x, ...] is my goto non-noetherian ring
Mine too 🙂
oh i remember proving a long time ago that polynomials over a domain are also a domain
i think
Yeah, that's right
and Frac(R) is noetherian bc it's a field right...?
Yeah ! 😀
Frac(R)? i hardly know her!
i was just thinking, is it true that if a group has at least one element of order 2, then the order of the group is even? because if |g|=2, then {1, g} should be a subgroup of G, and then lagrange's theorem
well you have to assume finite group first
then probably yeah
does this also hold for any |g|=n?
the converse is also true, which might be a nice exercise, though it's a direct consequence of a thm you might not know
Yes this is correct
whoops
This is lagrange applied to <g>
i.e. a group of even order must have an element of order 2
might also be a nice exercise to show that an abelian group has even order
my one problem with DF is that its like "alright, heres what blah blah blah means" and then throws you directly into 54 very hard exercises
lol i tried and failed to self study out of dnf this past summer
and i didnt like the linear algebra in artin
ive spent a month reading ~40 pages
i spent the better part of two months reading 100 pages of munkres
this is the painfully universal experience of trying to learn math 
especially alone
stick with it
the ability to stick with things like that is a skill
oh i am entirely resigned to losing interest in the next month
still, even if you dont feel like you make much progress, you're still at least developing the skill of sticking with hard things
yea, i just tend to have short-lasting hobbies
depends on what you want out of it that's just my two cents
dnf is probably not the most engaging thing for a "short" burst of studying though
@next obsidian can i get that hint from yesterday
im embarrassed to say i didn't get it
it was showing that for $R$ a noetherian ring and assuming that $\phi: R \to R$ is a surjective homomorphism, this is iso
sebbb
there's probably some short pf by contradiction
Let f be a surjective morphism with non-trivial kernel. Find a surjective morphism g whose kernel strictly contains the kernel of f
Then conclude

Yeah it takes like hours to understand a single page when reading new stuff
totally and entirely stuck on this problem. I just have no idea how to start - normalizers confuse me
how do you normally show that two sets are equal
G (upside down U) H = G -> G = H?
i'm looking for a simpler answer
forget groups for a second
how do you show two sets are equal?
by showing they have the same elements?
yes
that's where you can start
show that N_H(A) and N_G(A) cap H have the same elements
so an element of the first is an element of the second, and an element of the second is an element of the first
each is a subset of the other
etc.
("cap" means the upsidedown u)
i wouldn't write the symbol ≤ until you actually know that N_H(A) is a subgroup of something (first part of the problem), but yes, that is true
again all you really need to do to prove it is show that the two sets have the same elements
well, in previous problems, it been shown that N_G(A) is always a subgroup of G
and the definition of N_H(A) necessitates only elements in H
"(note that A need not be a subset of H)"
what do you want to use N_H(A) ≤ N_G(A) for anyways?
ah, true
Group actions; I get them but I don't get them. Is it just the permutations of elements of a set? Can someone give me an example of a group acting on a a set that is not a group. I know the definition but I don;t really see why it's important
alright, i worked out the problem the long way and it makes sense. just out of curiosity, how could we prove that N_H(A) ≤ N_G(A)? obviously its a subset, but i cant think of how to show that its a group
Is it just the permutations of elements of a set
you could look at it that way. a group action of a group G on a set X is a homomorphism G -> {bijections X -> X}. in practice we usually care about more than just bijections from X to X (we usually care about X with extra structure, and groups whose elements act by bijections on X preserving that structure).
Can someone give me an example of a group acting on a a set that is not a group
symmetry groups acting on {1, ..., n} are an immediate one. you've almost certainly seen other examples no?
but I don;t really see why it's important
group actions pop up literally everywhere and they help us understand a lot about groups
the problem concludes that N_H(A) is a subgroup of H, so in particular it's a group
all you need to do to prove it is use the fact that N_H(A) = N_G(A) cap H (which you proved)
something something the intersection of two subgroups of G is a subgroup
ah, i see how to do this
TTeppa
thanks for the help
Chmonkey.
Ur back
probably not at your level
How do u show a group of odd order is solvable?
No, maybe I should try that
I can do it when the order is prime
Do u think that’s a good first step?
prolly
Ok sounds good
Thanks
think harder I guess? Idk
I don't want to be rude
start by showing that a finite group has a finite order
Bro straight up asking for a proof of the odd order theorem on the heavens above
Try showing that every non-abelian finite simple group has even order

Hi, this is the proof i'm writing for the proposition stated in the screenshot. I'm trying to do the last part but i'm a bit stuck
ArtyLeAardvark
I'm fairly certain that the only elements of $\mathbb{C}\mathcal{S}n$ that is invariant under conjugation of $\mathcal{S}{n-1}$ is $X_n + t$ where $t$ is some element in $\mathbb{C}Z_{n-1}$, but i'm struggling to show it
ArtyLeAardvark
Why are monothetic groups necessarily abelian?
It's probably a density argument but I need help formalizing it. Do we use nets?
Certainly the dense cyclic subgroup is abelian
xy = yx for all x, y from the cyclic group
now assuming they mean Hausdorff topological groups
this means that g(x, y) = xy and f(y, x) = yx agree on a dense set
and as such are equal
this is commutativity
you can use nets, yes, but it's a standard result for Hausdorff spaces
it's usually phrased as "a continuous function defined on a dense subset has at most one continuous extension to the whole space"
ahh i see
so if the space G is hausdorff, and two continuous functions f and g agree on a dense subset of G, then f = g?
yes
but note that here G isn't the group we are concerned about
but a product of it with itself
yes G x G
but the codomain for the maps is still G
it seems we only need the codomain to be hausdorff: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1084018/if-two-continuous-maps-into-a-hausdorff-space-agree-on-a-dense-subset-they-are
yeah
now if H is this dense subgroup, then note that H x H is dense in G x G
because cl(H x H) = cl(H) x cl(H) = G x G
closure of product is product of closures
can someone give me an example of a ring which does not satisfy the ascending chain condition?
Say, I have a group, represented as a list of permutations. How can I find a minimal generating set for this group? Are there algorithms for that?
(Minimal, as in cannot be made smaller, but not necessarily the smallest)
k[x_1,x_2,x_3,...]. Then take the ideals (x_1), (x_1, x_2), (x_1, x_2, x_3), ...
what is k?
A field
ahh so all polynomials with coefficients in a field with an arbitrary number of variables?
Yeah
that makes sense that it would not be finitely generated lol
Indeed 
doesn't have to be a field
can be a ring
probably should have realized that any example would be something like that haha. im trying to review noetherian rings.
(non-zero ring)
how would I show $$R \text{ is a field} \implies \text{every finitely generated } R\text{-module is free}$$
it's sad that I barely know any linear algebra
oh you have finitely generated
in that case do "min spanning set"
so no need of zorn
especially because my course just started with field extensions and are assuming prior field theory knowledge
what's a spanning set
a generating set, but the word span is used in the context of vector spaces
module theory without lin alg 
basically start with a spanning set, keep on deleting elements until the set doesn't span it anymore
span it?
other elements of your vector space can't be written as linear combinations of these anymore
how do I show that something is linearly independent
assume a linear combi is zero
such that not all coefficinets are zero
get a contradiction
could I also just show that $f_{m_1, \ldots, m_n} : R^n \to M, (r_1, \ldots, r_n) \mapsto \sum_{i=1}^n r_im_i$ is an isomorphism?
yes yes yes no
yee, same thing
because then $\Set{m_1, \ldots, m_n}$ would be a basis
yes yes yes no
surjetivity is equivalent to showing the set spans
and injectivity is same as showing linear independence
ah
lol
<sarcasm>
in the lecture
we had the example "Example 3.5.7: (a) If R is a field, then every R-Module is free, every vector space has a basis"
do you reckon I can just reference that and call it a day 
</sarcasm>
ok back to the actual thing
but more importantly, why are you studying modules before studying vector spaces >.<
ik it doesn't matter, but still >.<
how do I know that such set exists
modules are so cool
(btw you don't need commutativity here, just assuming it's a division ring is enough)
cuz your vector space is finitely generated. which precisely means there is such a finite set
that's why the "deleting" algo will eventually end
I actually have to show iff (already did the other direction)
whut 
right
so we have a finite generating set
if you're only looking at commutative rings then it explains the statement :p
they want me to show $R \text{ is a field} \iff \text{every finitely generated } R\text{-module is free}$ as a homework, I already managed to do $\if$
yes also that
is texit sad? 
so we just have to show that it's linearly independent and we're done yes?
I don't understand the deleting elements to make it minimal part
you have a finite generating set. pick the subset of smallest size which still generates the module
(you can do that because natural numbers are well ordered)
why are we doing that
cause if you have redundancies, then it no way would be linearly independent
like consider R^2 with {(1,0), (0, 1), (1, 1)}
that's a finite generating set
yes
i said it like that earlier because that's how i think about it... "remove stuff until ..."
I can intuitively see why but I can't put it into words
because if you consider the module Z, then {2, 3} is a minimal generating set as neither {2} nor {3} manages to generate it
but {2, 3} is still not a basis
does Z even have a basis
try showing linear dependence would imply there is a smoller generating set
yea, {1}
R^n is a free R-module in general
with the standard basis {(1,0,...) etc}
if k_1n_1 + k_2n_2 + ... + k_mn_m = 0 then k_mn_m = -k_1n_1 - k_2n_2 - ... and therefore the set would not be minimal as one of the elements is a linear combination of all/some of the other ones?
(k_m \neq 0)
not exactly
keep that above example in mind
M = Z, m = 2, n = 3
{m,n} is a minimal generating set
but it is dependent
3m-2n=0
in this case we can't remove elements to get a smaller generating set
but in the case of fields this can be done
why
think a little >.< you're almost there >.<
what does this and a field tell you
we can divide by k_m

isn't that what I said though
and we couldn't do that here in Z
ah i didn't read divide then >.<
oh I forgot to say that, sorry
well
thanks! I understand it now 
what does $\mbb{L} \oplus \mbb{K}$ in the context of field theory mean
wolframalpha
$\Bbb{Z}[i] / (1+i)$
it's like Z[i] but i equals -1 (i am joking)
because i think i is not a free variable
it's probably sqrt(-1)
.<
Z[i]/(1+i) should be F2 right
The field of two elements ?
Z[i]/(1+i) = Z[x]/(x^2+1, x+1) = Z[-1]/((-1)^2+1) = Z/2Z
completelly ignore me
definitely this is useless
im gonna delete so the bs I said doesnt confuse anyone
Could you elaborate a bit on this plz lol
correspondence theorem essentially
Aha I see third iso theorem then is used here
if R is a ring and a, b are elements, then
R/(a, b) = (R/a)/(b)
basically one can quotient one after the other
its so nice
so here if you look at Z[x]/(x^2+1, x+1)
and if you first quotient by x^2+1, you get
(Z[x]/(x^2+1))/(x+1) but under the isomorphism Z[x]/(x^2+1) the ideal (x+1) corresponds to (i+1)
so this is Z[i]/(1+i)
now try going the other way
This is from third iso theorem?
yep
the more general version which you have seen says that if I is an ideal contained in J, then
R/J = (R/I)/(J/I)
third is fractions 🙈
Yes this is the version I’ve seen
yea, just take J = (a,b) and I=(a)
Aha!
and i'm just writing the ideal (a, b)/(a) in the ring R/(a) as the thing generated by b, so (b)
i should be more careful and write it ([b]) or something
but you get the point i hope >.<

is there an easier way of showing that the image and preimage are submodules other than just checking that all of the properties hold?
that's already so easy though
it's too much effort for me
like
writing that much
it's at least 5 properties each 
if you have a module map M -> N you could say the pre-image of a submodule N' of N is the kernel of the composition M -> N -> N/N'
if you already know that kernels of module maps are submodules
nah haven't shown that yet lmao
stop being lazy and just check the properties if you really have to
i dunno of a quick way to check that the image of M -> N will be a submodule of N like this. just do it lol
(and that quotients of modules by submodules are modules)
you already know most from when you probably studied abelian groups. you just erally have to check that they're stable under the action
but yea, stop being lazy >.<
as in rn in M for r in R and n in M?
do people actually go through the lists of properties like these and check them outside of homework assignments
(i do >.<)
(
)
(i checked in all gory details that the sheaf hom and sheaf tensor product are adjoints)
(but ofc took the naturality on faith uwu)
yee
okk
I think this is formal
Like I think you can derive this from the usual statements over opens combined with sheafification
Maybe
So I get that in the case for algebras, introducing a group for grading is useful so that the degree function has some structure. But does that add anything in the context of vector spaces (without a vector product) ?
i would just like to say, as someone who doesnt know most of these words, this sentence sounds ridiculous
math coins weird terms
"sheaf"
the sheaf terminology comes from agriculture
huh
just think about how weird group theory terminology (which you now know) must've sounded to you before you started learning it
at least "centralizer" is better than "sheaf"
lol but i did that when i barely understood how to work with a sheaf, so felt like checking a huge mountain of details :p
how do I show that for any element in the preimage of a modul homo the stable property or w/e holds
like it'd be easy to show for the image
cuz r.f(x) = f(r.x)
but we have f^-1(x)
what is f^-1
like the map may not be an isomorphism
do you mean the whole coset mapping to x?
because that may not even contain 0 (unless x = 0)
Let M and N be two R-Modules and f : M -> N a module homomorphism of R-Modules. Let M' subseteq M and N' subseteq N be submodules. Let m in f^-1(N') (preimage of f under N') i.e. m = f^-1(x) for some x in N'
wait
that's wrong isn't it
the m = f^-1(x)
f(m) = x for x in N'
that's the correct one lol?
its the same
f(m) = x for some x in N' is equivalent to saying f(m) in N'
yeah but I said m = f^-1(x) everywhere lol
but you corrected :3
yeah but I already wrote it down in my notes lmao
oh oopsie
ok now I'm stuck at showing that it's closed
we have a,b in preimage of N' then f(a) = x, f(b) = y for x,y in N'
nvm
got it
I'm stupid
there's another simple way
since you've already proven that kernel is a submodule
i shouldn't call it simple, since it's exactly the same... just that you don't have to write these twice
no we haven't
ah okie, i thought that this question said image and kernel >.<
and terra has said what i was gonna say anyway :p
UWU
uwu
sniped
can someone provide an example of a module that isn't free (doesn't have a basis)?
also my prof mentioned that there are noncommutative modules with bases that have a different number of elements. could someone provide an example of that too?
thanks 🙂
Z/nZ over Z
For the noncomm thing, I have no idea it is some cursed shit I pretend doesn’t exist
The Wikipedia page on the "invariant basis number" gives an example of such a ring, namely the ring of column finite matrices
Question
the answer is an unfortunate negative
Is Z[i]/(i) just the trivial ring w 0
what do you think?
Since if an ideal contains a unit it’s the whole@ring
And (i)(-i)=1
So i is a unit
So the ideal generated by i is all of the Gaussian integers
i was given the definition for the krull topology on Gal(K/F) by the open subsets U either are empty or their a union of sets of the form \sigma N where N is a subgroup of Gal(K/F) corresponding to an intermediate field and \sigma is an element of Gal(K/F). How can you show for example this is closed under unions?
…
You defined it as a union of sets of a certain form
A union of unions of sets of a certain form is in particular a union of sets of a certain form
i'd need to know the union is a subgroup of the galois group
why are you saying "..."
or is this just an attempt at being rude
(i generally assume people are being nice here so sorry if i messed up that assumption)
anyways i guess you're right
i dont need to show it's a galois group
and it's simple as you pointed out
so thanks for that i guess, just no need to be rude man
do you klnow how to show these sets are also closed?
the \sigma N i mean
Something like this
this is awesome! thanks 🙂
would V=F[x] work for this example?
Did the same a few days ago
We can do this without Hausdorffness. The function f: G×G->G sending (a,b)->aba^-1b^-1 is continuous.
Let e be the identity of G. The preimage of e under f ,say K, is a closed set containing Z×Z, where Z denotes a dense cyclic subgroup of G. As Z dense in G, Z×Z is dense in G×G (easy to check) so K=G×G, thus for all a,b in G, f((a,b))=1.
Thus the commutator subgroup [G,G] is trivial, so G is abelian
Does someone have an example of a fg k-algebra which is a domain, and for which the integral closure is not isomorphic to a polynomial ring?
Unless I’ve been doing it wrong, all the examples I’ve had to work with I ended up with a polynomial ring
(My examples were k[x,y,z]/(y^3 + y^2x^2 + yx^2 + x^3z) and k[x,y]/(y^2 + x^3) if someone wants to tell me I did it wrong)
k[x,y]/(xy-1)
Right, that’s integrally closed correct?
You just used Hausdorffness though
{e} won't be closed in general
Unless G is Hausdorff
Yeah localisations of normal domains are normal.
Where is a localisation involved here 🤔
k[x,y]/(xy-1) is isomorphic to S^-1k[x] where S={1,x,x^2,…}
Ah right yeah
It's all equivalent for topological groups
I didn't say that G is Hausdorff because idk.
I said it to differ from the case where no separation axioms are assumed
Obvious point but I’ll say it anyway, hausdorffness is necessary because otherwise we could take any non-abelian group with the indiscrete topology, and not that 1 is dense in it.
How useful is the result of Shafarevich that says that any finite solvable group is the galois group of a finite field extension of Q?
You may replace "solvable" by abelian if you want
So I think this is a beautiful result and is interesting on its own, exemplifying the complexity of the Gal(\ol Q,Q) (I think), but I was wondering about applications
why is $f(x)$ irreducible $\iff$ $f(x + 1)$ irreducible
pure for president
nvm
lol that seems way easier now that I've written it out
yeah got it
y = x + 1
.<
ye i guess the map R[x] -> R[x] evaluating polynomials at x+1 is a ring auto lol
to make it slightly more fancy
Is there a good description of the automorphisms of R[x] in terms of the automorphisms of R?
No
When R is a field, then it should just be given by an automorphism of the field and a choice of linear polynomial to send x to. In general it should be pretty bad. For example if R=Z[t_1, t_2] then we can define an automorphism of R[x] by sending t_1 to x, x to t_1 and t_2 to istelf. The restriction of this map to R maps has image outside of R so it looks like it would be hard to describe in terms of aut(R).
Hi ! I'm interested in deeper topics in abstract algebra 🙂 If you are too I'd love to hear about what made you love this field so much
Join me here if you're interested, to avoid spamming #math-discussion message ❤️
ive done all of this one but the last part- i cant think of an example
I think it's likely you'll find an example with any two elements of a group that don't commute so think of a simple non-commutative group
even bigger hint: ||think of S_3||
S3 is the smallest non-commutative group, so simplest examples will be there
take any non identity x and look at y = x^{-1}
the problem only asks for x and y such that the order of xy does not equal ..., not does not divide ...
so you don't have to work hard
how do I find a homomorphism between $\bF_4$ and $\Set{\begin{pmatrix}a & b\b & b + a\end{pmatrix} | a,b \in \bZ/2\bZ}$
i believe in mathemagic
use that F_4 is a 2-dimensional F_2 algebra
say F_2[x]/(x^2+x+1)
so every element in F4 looks like a+bx
and {1,x} is a basis for F_4 over F_2
you can write the multiplication by a+bx (which is a linear transformation on the vector space F_4) as a matrix
that should hopefully be the above matrix
what's an algebra
vector space where you can also multiply
or rings where the notion of "scalar multiplication" makes sense
this is for a homework and we haven't properly started field theory yet lol
basically when rings and modules hug each other 
oh okie
the actual homework is to show that the set is a field under matrix addition/multiplication
wew gave me the hint of showing that a isomorphism between that and F_4 exists
that's where I got stuck
(btw you could also show the isomorphism by defining the map other way around, only problem is that you would need to first show that the given set of matrices is closed under + and * etc, and then you can define the map F_2[x] --> algebra of matrices, by sending x to the matrix corresponding to a=0,b=1 and then verifying that this matrix indeed satisfies x^2+x+1=0)
why x^2 + x + 1 = 0?
so that you get the quotient map F_2[x]/(x^2+x+1) --> the matrix algebra
this would be surjective and both sides will have the same size, so also injective
but i feel this is the morally correct way of doing it
was able to do it with more of wew's advice
just gotta show that x^2 + x + 1 over F4 is irreducible
not sure how to do that
Just need to show it has no roots tbf
how?
Like why is that enough?
no
Well f4 has only 4 elements
over F2
over F4 it factors
yes
I read the exercise wrong lol
"check whether x^2 + x + 1 in K[x] is reducible or not"
x^2 + x + 1 = (x + a)(x + a + 1)
🙈
question, why is it when working with Gaussian integers, when we divide we round
we round to get the nearest gaussian integer
think about it geometrically
when you divide two gaussian integers, the result lies in Q(i)
and to bound the remainder, getting the closest point in Z[i] would be better
if you just take the floor, the difference could be at most the diagonal of a unit square
which is sqrt(2)
but when you round, you can make sure to be within sqrt(2)/2 of some point in Z[i]
by the floor you mean round down?
when you translate this to norms, you get
N(remainder) <= 2N(divisor)
in the first case
and
N(remainder) <= N(divisor)/2 < N(divisor)
in the second case
yep
normally in Z, we just take the floors to keep the remainder positive
but you can reduce the size of the remainder if you're okay with getting a negative remainder
you can force the remainder to be in the range (-divisor/2, divisor/2]
which is "better" than just [0, divisor)
i see makes sense, cause when i rounded up I got a negative integer as the real part

seriously doe
what do we gain from identifying monomorphisms/epimorphisms in Ring, Grp, Ab, etc?
nothing 

the proof that epi iff surjective in Grp was weird
aluffi says it's cumbersome
it is
you have to specifically construct the two weird homomorphisms
and they weren't easy in anyway
some stupid maps into weird symmetric groups
if G' --> G is epi, with image H, then the inclusion H --> G would be epi. another simple reduction is that G is the smallest normal subgroup containing H, else H --> G --> G/N is zero when G --> G/N is either the projection or 0
so if H was not G, then it's index is at least 3
now you you construct those weird maps

iirc it was something to do with the symmetric group on the right cosets H\G, and one of the map would physically swap two distinct non-trivial cosets Ha and Hb
ig its nice to know that epi in Grp are surjective, but dunno if that's any useful 
is identifying mono/epis useful in general?
or are they just convenient terms and a nice generalizations?
i think they're nice
i can only give you one example though
do you know what an abelian category is?
(its basically a category where you have 0 objects, kernels, cokernels, monos are kernels, epis are cokernels, (finite) product and coproduct agree, etc, all nice things happen just like in Ab)
but the thing is even though you would construct such a category by piecing together sets, the notions of epimorphisms and surjective may not be same
the only example i know and care about is that of sheaves on spaces
for example, if you let F be the sheaf of holomorphic functions and G be the sheaf of non-vanishing holomorphic functions both on the complex numbers
then you have the exponential map exp: F --> G
this map isn't surjective on sections as for F(C*) --> G(C*), you have the non-vanishing function z on the right, and you're asking if there is a global holomorphic Log defined on C*
but it is locally surjective
and epimorphisms in the category of sheaves exactly do that
is locally surjective just surjective on stalks?
i should learn a little bit about sheaves
yeaaa
i think the above example also gives a reason why one should care about sheaf cohomology
running into situations where i want to compute homology with local coefficients
oh yeah, clerk talked to me about this not too long ago
i think it was like, if you have local surjectivity then the next question is when you have global surjectivity - that is, when can you glue your local sections together into something defined on the whole space
det, I'm doing intro algebra 😭
wtf are sheaves 😭
.<
fwiw, there's an exercise in chapter 9 of aluffi that is exactly about this lol
but you've probably got a little while before that 🙂
informally, given a topological space X, a sheaf is like a data of all the nice functions on the all the open sets of X
wait, isn't that the homological algebra chapter?
yeah
oh 
i haven't read chapter 9 so far >.<
i gave up after he started talking about triangulated categories :p
nope
fix that
it's ok, I did everything except the last two sections of chapter 9 because I don't like his indexing for double complexes
or like, I get annoyed that the squares anticommute because it's too much stuff for me to keep track of 
i just do my silly little total complex 
algebraic geometry here I come 
or AT, sheaves are used there too, I think
so you're an algebra person?
I don't think so tbh
what kind of person are you
I like applications so I'll prolly lean to analysis
implying algebra has no applications...
but I haven't done enough math to be sure
applied algebra -> algebraic number theory
implying analysis has more
🤨
they're also more interesting 
||cope||
(optimization and ML my beloved)
you should learn design theory
or something useless like that
number theory is applied everything >.<
it's actually not useless
oh, I actually hate combinatorics LOL
you said you like applications
combinatorics and graph theory seem like they have the most applications, kinda
bruh
I would've imagined statistics would hold that title
altho this is pure math dominant server so you guys might not even consider that a part of math
🙈
I don't, I hate statistics
mathematical statistics is part of math to me, though
and is kinda fun
is this commutative algebra?
yea :p
imagine learning that in a lecture >.<
and the prof saying "assoicated primes of M" instead of "Ass(M)" everytime :3
homomorphisms and Ass 
the prof better be saying ass(M)
is there any sort of intuition that makes the semi-direct product construction feel less artificial?
like, understanding that it generalizes the direct product (they are equal when the map is trivial), what makes it the correct generalization
yee there are many intuitions
i remember discovering the construction on my own while trying to find out what Aut(D_n) was :p but don't ask me why i cared about Aut(D_n)
maybe a good way to think about that is by looking at affine linear transformations
you know that GL(n, k) is a nice group of linear automorphisms of the vector space k^n
but you would could also define other automorphisms which may not preserve 0, but are still linear-ish
basically a linear transformation followed by a translation
these would look like f(x) = Ax + b where A is a matrix in GL(n, k) and x, b live in k^n
a good exercise is to figure out a way to compose two such maps
f(g(x)) = f(Ax + b) = B(Ax + b) + d = BAx + Bb + d ?
yep!
and one nice way to write that is by looking at n+1 x n+1 matrices
[A b]
[0 1]
the product of matrices here, corresponds exactly to the group operation above
Yes
i have seen this in GL2 referred to as the the affine group
anyway, that was just a cute little observation
I also got this same intuitive notion while understanding semidirect products
semi-direct products just do the exact same thing but more abstractly
so here you had two groups, (GL(n, k), *) and (k^n, +)
and one group naturally acts on the other!
i think i see, on the second coordinate it is just multiplication in the subgroup K which in this case is GLn? which is here the BAx term
So a nice example of semidirect prod is "translation maps" between groups, which are bijective maps f:G->G such that ab=cd implies f(a)f(b)=f(c)f(d)
GLn acting on K^n by matrix multiplication?
Each such map can be written as f(g)=a \phi(g), a in G, and \phi in Aut(G)
Then from the definition it is clear that the set of such translation maps forms a group, say Tr(G)
Given a, \phi for f and g, we try finding it for fg
And note that Tr(G) is a semidirect product of G and Aut(G)
so say more generally you had groups H and N, such that H acts on N, i.e. there is a group homomorphism H --> Aut(N).
then you can define a nice group operation on N x H, by taking
(n, h) * (n', h') = (n * (h.n'), hh')
Chmonkey

I have a problem: Prove U(9) is isomorphic to Z(6). I get why it is, U(9) has 6 elements and is cyclic, but it just saying that it has 6 elements and is cyclic enough to rigorously prove it?
find a generator of U(9)
Yes, all cyclic groups oc the same order are fairly trivially isomorphicn
So that should be fine but yes to show its cyclic you probably found a generator and giving that allows you to write an explicit iso
this was my first thought, check that they have the same cardinality but then realized theres nothing obvious preventing U(9) from not being cyclic
WellI mean they said like they know it is cyclic
ah i did not read the whole sentence haha
okay yes all cyclic groups of the same order are isomorphic so thats a rigorous proof
more explicit is sending a generator to a generator
im not too sure how to show that extension of scalars is well defined for a tensor product
like how do i know that I have a well defined structure by just defining it on simple tensors
nvm i got it
maybe looking at bimodules would make the situation more clear for you. as they would be a little more rigid
i think i get it now
say you have an (A, B)-bimodule M and a (B, C)-bimodule N, then M ⊗_B N is naturally an (A, C)-bimodule
i just need to get used to thinking about tensor products in terms of their universal property
do you think this can help for this next one im on right now? That the R-tensor product of two R-algebras is naturally an R-algebra
nah, that's a little different
im honestly not sure how to even define the product
guess on elementary tensors and use universal property 
if i try to make it seem natural it doesnt distribute
and if i try to make it distribute it doesnt seem natural
ah okie, take a look at an example then
k[x] ⊗_k k[y] = k[x,y]
an element on the left side is an k-linear combination of x^i⊗y^j
which under the isomorphism is mapped to x^iy^j
right but then the product would mandate a tensor b * a' tensor b' = aa' tensor bb'
is it really that naive?
so with this example what do you think should be the definition of (a⊗b) * (c⊗d) in A⊗_RB
cause this intuitively doesnt feel like it would play nice with bilinearity
yea lol
thing is even when im looking at well definedness on two simple tensors
it seems weird
like
yea, to get well definedness you always have to go back the the universal property
in this case you're constructing a bilinear map (A⊗B) x (A⊗B) --> (A⊗B)
so naturally one should consider (A⊗B) ⊗(A⊗B)
hmm okay ill give that a shot




