#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 21 of 1
no problem, ur asking an actual question go ahead 
for instance, what is A for Q(x1,x2) = x1^2 + x2^2 + 2x1x2?
the matrix is n x n, and (x_1,...,x_n) is 1 x n
so the output is 1 x n, not 1 x 1 (which we need)
so that's weird
Wrong
show me the light pls
There's a typo? I don't see it
they haven't multiplied on both sides here
(x_1, .... ,x_n) is a row vector then
This would be a matrix consisting of 1's btw
How do you properly study group theory/algebra?
I'm struggling because it feels like studying random definitions/abstractions, each one taking a lot of time to understand. It also seems to be without any clear direction or objective, which makes it really hard to get myself to do it.
Is there anything I could learn about to get more sense of why I am learning all these things? Or any tips for studying in general?
This is my first abstract algebra course
So far we've only been doing group theory, up to group actions, Sylow groups, solvable groups
How to find the normalizer of subgroup of upper triangular matrices with 1's in the diagonals inside GL_3(Fp)
personally i've learned to treat abstract math like this a bit like how i would treat things as a kid: "why is the sky blue?" that is, you ask questions just because you can
while it can feel really out of pocket in a textbook, i think the perspective you should have is that many of these things are pursued after staring at these objects collectively over centuries
for example take a rubik's cube. you should be able to convince yourself that a corner piece can be in any corner or that an edge piece can be in any corner, but after a few years you might ask yourself if you can place oriented stickers and if it's possible for the sticker to be pointing in any of the four direction on the same location.
(while that's the end of the example you might also see that probably the most intuitive way to try and prove if this is true or not is orbits and group actions)
however i also wanna point out that
- hopefully you can see lots of intuition/motivation to why the idea of group actions can be important (you can imagine group actions as things that change states of objects/etc)
- Sylow groups are important at decomposing/analyzing a group (and therefore understanding things whenever groups arise) hopefully you can understand the motivation for this as more of a generalized tool you can use to understand structure
- Solvable groups will have some motivation much later. though right now they're probably extremely out of pocket
solvable groups will come up later in Abel-Ruffini Theorem, aka the infamous "There is no degree 5 quadratic equation" theorem
and they arise somewhat naturally
also for (1) you might not find many examples at first but remember that a group need not be finite, nor does it need to be the only property about a group.
for example the Lorentz Group is a group that is also a differentiable manifold. and it has a lot to do with the structure of spacetime in Special Relativity.
it acts as isometries on spacetime through, you guessed it, a group action. which leads to all sorts of things
So, I need to show that if every left coset is a right coset for a subgroup H, then H is normal. Any pointers?
What is your definition of a normal subgroup?
ghg^-1 \in H for all g \in G, h \in H
or you can swap the order
g^-1 h g
so rn I have aH = Hb, so should I write like ah = hb?
oh hmm....
You don't know that it's the same h
What I think you can show is that Hb=Ha
I don't, but there is an h with that property no?
Oh, maybe
I feel like I'd need to already know H is normal for this
Cosets partition
My thought was to try and show a = b
This is not necessarily true
You ultimately will end up using that if they intersect they’re equal
To show that aH = Ha or something
Well up to an element of H.
Sure
What you said
Like if every left coset is a right coset you have a bijevtion between the two giving something like
aH = Hf(a)
So cosets partition, but what does that mean for showing H is normal?
For f just some set function
could I do something with aha^-1?
It should be something like this
You also know that a is in aH, so a is in Ha and Hb (since Hb=aH)
cause if that's in H then we're done
That's it
same with b^-1 h b
Phil, since cosets partition and Ha and Hb have a non empty intersection, they must be equal
I see...
u an endomorphism
if deg(P0(u) )=d
then (ui) for i in [0,d-1] is a basis for K[u]
P0 minimal polynomial
Do you see how to continue from there?
can someone help me make sense of this proposition
I'll give it a shot and come back if I get stuck

Yeah basically, they’d just need to justify why that means aha^{-1} is in H, since that’s the definition they’re using
(I'm actually gonna use b \in aH but I appreciate the help)
Yeah it’s the same thing dw
so if aH = bH, we have a few facts known
ab^-1 \in H seems most useful?
No the most powerful fact is that you’re given bH=Ha
And since bH=aH (this is what we proved above), you know that aH=Ha
You don’t need to
The identity works
no, in fact that's not true in general
You just need to show that aha^{-1} is in H
(Just wanted to point out that the observation above wasnt useful even when true)
don't we also have that ha^-1 \in Ha?
ah is in aH, so it is in Ha, so ah=h’a, and therefore aha^{-1}=h’ for some h’ in H. So aha^{-1} is in H.
Alternatively, since aH=Ha, you have aHa^{-1}=H, which is the same thing
Slurp already said all there is to it
the answer is taking shape, however slowly
It’s all good take your time
sure, maybe, but if you think ha = ah, it makes me suspsect you're not familiar enough with normal groups to understand that they're different from being in the center.
Let M be the set of all nxn matrices. Let A, B in M be related iff det(A) = det(B). How would you describe the equivalence class using quotients?
What are you talkig about? "if you think ha=ah", thats completelly meaningless
I see why this is true, but I have no clue how I'd come to that answer myself
Unless you mean that I think a and h commute
Actually I dont know if you said "you" generically or if you were reffering to me. I dont see the point in the comment anyways
I meant all equivalence classes if it wasn't clear
I think the more intuitive reason is the second one I gave there: aH=Ha so aHa^{-1}=H. And that means that aha^{-1} is in H. (The first reason is very similar, but a little overcomplicated)
It’s basically the set of equivalence classes of matrices with a single \alpha on the diagonal and the rest of the diagonal being 1
rhetorical you. and imo abstract algebra (and math in general) is best learned with what holds and doesn't hold in general, trivially or nontrivially.
i think being aware that the center and a normal group can be trivial is important
Essentially the idea is to find a simple family of matrices which can get you any determinant
And since determinants are multilinear, it makes sense to think of “multiples” of the identity (where by multiple I mean you just multiply a single row/column)
I'm not sure if I follow because shouldn't it intuitively be all nxn matrices with the same determinant in each equivalence class?
Oh well yes
That is what an equivalence class is
Then what is your question? Wdym by describe?
Describe, as in write a set
Well like if you need to find a representative for each equivalence class, these matrices give you that
Why the diagonal though?
Simplest type of matrix to deal with
The determinant is just the product of the values on the diagonal
$$E_d = {\forall m \in M | \det(m) = d}$$?
Quarky
well Ig the intended (?) answer could just be R/whatever ring/field now that I think about it
What about as a quotient?
Okay I’m not sure I understand. What do you want exactly? To describe the quotient set? This usually means to give a representative of each equivalence class, which I just did
are you trying to solve a problem given to you? or ask one of your own questions
if it's a problem, post the exact wording
if it's one of your own questions, then yea, what Slurp said
I basically want to write a set of the representatives of each equivalence class
then what Slurp had before was fine
Sure, that’s what I gave you then
I didn't really follow it
(ams) Matrices of the form
[ \begin{pmatrix} \alpha \ & 1 \ & & \ddots \ & & & 1 \end{pmatrix} ]
You see how the determinant of that is \alpha?
What about the other entries?
So using matrices of this form, you can get any determinant you’d like
0
So in the 2x2 case, it would be like \begin{pmatrix} \alpha & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}
Yep
okay, so i read this answer, and i understand everything up to the last step- that sigma(S) ≠ S shows that the action is faithful. i dont understand this
n/c
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
the reason it's erroring i think is because there's hidden \ before the [
markdown character escaping, if you know what that is
So then $E(\alpha) = { \begin{pmatrix} \alpha & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} }$ and the actual thing that we are looking for would be $\bigcup_{\alpha \in \mathbb{R}} E(\alpha)$?
n/c
(ams) By $E(\alpha) = { \begin{pmatrix} \alpha & 0 \ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} }$, do you mean the equivalence class given by this matrix? If so it should not be a union, it’s simply the set of all such $E(\alpha)$s.
that union would be the set of all representatives*
The union would be the set of all matrices
i took E(a) to be a singleton---not an equivalence class
No, I want the union of all representatives for each equivalence class
Oh then sure
But yes E(alpha) is just the one matrix
Then yes the union gives you a set of representatives
Thanks. Is there a way to do this using quotients though?
Like, taking M_2(R) / something to get what we want?
"what we want"
(set of representatives for each equivalence class)
then that already is a quotient
I meant, instead of explicitly constructing a matrix and taking the union of those matrices
I think they want a subgroup of M_2(R) where the quotient group is that partition
would you rather a homomorphism?
I know we can do something like M_2(R)/~ to get the (set of) equivalence classes, but how do we take exactly one representative from each class from then on without explicit construction?
Or do we have to do some kind of explicit construction?
?
It may be better if you’d send a link rather than an image
it sounds like you want a homomorphism
if so then just map all matrices to their representative (or even better map it to the determinant in the base field)
sorry, herehttps://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2692303/for-which-values-of-k-the-action-of-s-n-on-k-element-subsets-is-faithful
So you mean mapping all matrices with det d to (alpha 0 \ 0 1)?
with det(m) to ...
How would I write that though?
$$m \in M \mapsto \big(\det(m), 0, 0, 1\big)$$
or
$$m \in M \mapsto \det(m)$$
Quarky
the latter is not a representative (nor technically an explicit quotient)
but it is an isomorphism of the quotient
I would still have multiple representatives of the same determinant though?
So I’m not familiar at all with group actions, but I quickly skimmed the wiki article. And from what I understood a group action is faithful if for every g\neq e, gx\neq x for some x. And since they found such an S for each \sigma where \sigma S\neq S, then the action is faithful
name one?
The representative of each equivalence class is a matrix, so I'd have multiple matrices that have the same determinant
with
$$L~ : ~m \in M \mapsto \big(\det(m), 0, 0, 1\big)$$
?
no, if $A, B \in M$ with $\det A \neq \det B$ then $L(A) \neq L(B)$
If $\det A = det B$ then $L(A) = L(B)$.
Quarky
first I'd have to do L[M_2(R)] and then this is the set of representatives?
this is not the definition im used to- the one my book gave is that an action is faithful if every element in G acting on B represents a different permutation of B
maybe the definitions are equivalent, but i dont see how
Same thing because these are equivalently saying the map G -> Sym(S) has trivial kernel
Slurp basically said trivial kernel whilst you said the map is injective essentially
If L is al Lie algebra,I an ideal, L/I is nilpotent and the adjoint representation restricted to I is nilpotent, then can I conclude that L/ker ad_I is nilpotent?
Is this right?
remind me- how do you show that these things imply each other?
let f: G-> H be a map of groups. If f is injective then if f(x)=1, x =1; conversely if the kernel is trivial and f(g)=f(h), then f(gh^-1) =1, so...
When I see $(12)(123) \in A_n$, are these two different permutations?
Iced Sugar
or one permutation that is represented as a product of two permutations
This
It’s very common to see permutations written as the composition/product of cycles
Also this permutation isn’t even in A_n, it’s not even
yeah I am just reading the book
I see
for $(1,2) \in S_n and (123) \in A_n$
Iced Sugar
wait how do you tell if a permutation is even?
i know that it is even if it is an even number of transpositions but is there a way you can just look at a permutation and know that
without having to actually figure out what transpositions it equals
i mean you could write it in terms of disjoint cycles which is pretty easy
and cycles of odd length are even
cycles of even length are odd
so this is just always true
if it has 3 elements, the permutation is even
(Abc) is even always
3-cycles are even
(Abcd) is always odd
yes
because (a b c d e) = (a e)(a d)(a c)(a b) i think
and you can write cycles like this for any length
What are examples of extensions F<K<E with F<E purely transcendental but F<K not purely transcendental?
Is the example Q<Q(x^2+y^2,x^3,y^3)<Q(x,y) an example?
Thanks so much for the write up! I will check out the things you mentioned 🙂
Isaacs disagrees
I don't know transcendence bases yet, but thanks.
Shit, what I meant was "finite order => 2 or less", my bad.
the parity of a permutation is the parity of the number of even cycles
i.e. a permutation is even (odd) <=> it has an even (odd) number of even cycles
Alrighty, part 2 of my confusion
I know that |H| = |G|/2. I need to show every left coset is a right coset.
With H a subgroup, to clarify
Hm
You know how many cosets there are right?
There's only 2
Well it's all the elements of G not in H yeah?
Right
What about Hg’ a non-trivial coset
In fact actually let’s just do Hg
This is non-trivial if gH is non-trivial

Give me a few minutes to figure out how to prove this
so if I take some arbitrary gh \in gH
hm.
My dude
You told me gH = H^c
Because it’s everything in G not in H
Why doesn’t the same logic apply for Hg?
It totally does 😅
Anyway this is all you need
There’s literally not enough space in G for it not to be true
don't they give you the non-linear (i.e. a = -1) one though
what Im asking is to show its irreducible
Oh okay so if a isn't any of those then it's irreducible, sure
There’s a long simultaneous eqn way to do it (suppose you have a factorisation (x^2 + bx + c)(x^3 + dx^2 + ex + f) and then expand our and equate, showing there’s no integer solution to the simultaneous eqns you get)
nvm I think I got it
yeah
the restrictions are actually pretty strong, but for some reason I was just looking at one of them (since actually, its probably enough, but without the other equations is harder xD)
Anyone please? Thanks.
is there even a nice way to say when something isn't purely transcendental?
i remember that Luroth's theorem says that any non-trivial intermediate extension of k --> k(x) is automatically purely transcendental
I think the example Croqueta works
Q(the three things) could only have transcendence degree <=2
because additivity
And then you should be able to say that if s field extension is generated by a_i, then you can take a transcendence basis out of that
and it equals 2 as the other extension is algebraic
Yeah, something like this
The point is then like something is algebraic over Q(some subset of the 3 generators)
Or something
But I’m not 100% sure
I was trying to come up with an example with two generators, though this must be impossible no?
in the case of an intermediate subfield of Q<Q(x,y) I mean
yea, i think that would be a transcendence basis, but i'm not sure this will be enough to show that it's not pure. by definition a transcendence basis only has to generate the field up to an algebraic extension
My intuition was that Q(x^2+y^2, x^3,y^3) cant be generated by less than 3 elements. I think that's the case no?

Yeah, I’m not sure
I wanted to say something like something with a transfer or something like
Because there’s some algebraic aspect over the purely transcendental extension
It can’t be purely transcendental
i was looking at some stackexchange answer about certain extension not being purely transcendental, it wasn't like completely easy and people are using some clever stuff there
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/5285
it's this one if you're wondering
nice pfp 
if we can fit this inside a purely transcendental extension, you'll at least get an example you're looking for
people using elliptic curves lmao
uwu 
What are presentations useful for?
Why do you think thats possible?
not sure lol :p
for groups?
they let you easily construct maps out of that group
Yeah
I was thinking about the following problem: Given extension F<K such that all elements of K not in F are transcendental over F, can you find a field E such that F<K<E and F<E is purely transcendental?
For presenting groups
Like giving a map from D_n --> G is equivalent to giving two element r and f in G such that r^n = f^2 = (rf)^2 = 1 in G
As stupid as it sounds, that's why they are useful xD
concise way to express the group relations
yea i was thinking something similar but didn't get any far
I was gonna say that the presentation tells you everything you need to know about the group, effectively speaking. But I think that's not true, or at least the question is way more subtle
See the word problem
You can read Keith Conrad's exposition, its pretty nice
@warm wyvern
Transcendence is difficult really
apparently luroth's problem is solved for n=2
Imma read that tomorrow
I have questions about the word problem too but I think I need to read a bit more first
Think about this problem: The Burnside problem asks whether a finitely generated group in which every element has finite order must necessarily be a finite group.
So beautiful
(maybe you know it already, idk)
but dont look the solution!
me wanna spoil 🙈
gn stack
GN zane lel
Can someone help me with part a?
first list down all the subgroups
and check what all among them are normal
(you can save some trouble by using standard propositions like, subgroup of index 2 is normal, the center is normal, trivial and full group are normal etc)
Probably dumb question : is every module a quotient of 2 free modules ? It's obvious that every module is a quotient of a free module by a module but I don't see a reason for both to be free.
Hmmm
No this is not true
If this was the case then every module would have projective dimension bounded by 1
I can’t really give a better justification without invoking some non-trivial homological algebra
But it is true over any PID for example, but this is because submodules of free modules are free in that case
You can come up with explicit examples over a polynomial ring in 2 variables though, for reasons I also again can’t quite prove rn, k considered as a k[x,y]-module cannot be the quotient of a free module by another free module
Thanks! What knowledge of homological algebra would this require ? Might not know it but I can reflect on that when I get there
Hmmm
Technically the definition of projective dimension
Do you know what an exact sequence is?
If so, I can define stuff, I just can’t provide an example of why there’s something with projective dimension > 1
Yes
Okay so the projective dimension of a module M is the smallest integer n such that there’s an exact sequence
0 -> P_n -> … -> P_0 -> M -> 0 with the P_i projective modules
Or infinity if none exists
It’s the minimal length of a projective resolution
If you don’t know what projective means, just pretend I said free
So if M was the quotient of two free modules you have an exact sequence
0 -> P_1 -> P_0 -> M -> 0
So the projective dimension of M is bounded by 1
So it would suffice to find an M with a projective dimension > 1, and the easiest way (for me to think of) to prove one exists is to find modules M,N such that either
Ext^2(M,N) ≠ 0 or Tor_2(M,N) ≠ 0
Because one can show that if the projective dimension of M < n then Ext^k(M,N) = 0 and Tor_k(M,N) = 0 whenever k>= n
So in particular, if the projective dimension is <= 1, then these dudes have to be 0
The reason this is (IMO) easier is that one has tricks to compute Ext and Tor
So it’s really easy to find M,N such that this is true
Alright I see. I think I should have the tools to understand this, just need to familiarize again with stuff I had forgotten from my homological algebra class, thanks!
Np!
Also:
I ran an argument through my head and I’m pretty sure if A is Noetherian and finite dimensional, if dim A > 1 then it’s impossible to have this property be satisfied
I imagine it would also be impossible for infinite dimensional A as well, but I can’t justify it, it just would be weird if it existed IMO
(Then again an infinite dimensional Noetherian ring is very weird)
(Looked up a theorem, I can justify it when A is local Noetherian, without needing to assume it’s finite dimensional)
Ooo, don’t need local either
Sweet
So for a Noetherian ring of dim > 1, this property cannot be satisfied
Ok yeah if it has finite order then it is true
By some galois cohomology stuff
Do + and * share the same identity or different?
"if xy = 0 and x is nonzero, then y is zero"
In what algebraic structures is this property true?
domains
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domain_(ring_theory)
I see, thanks!
In algebra, a domain is a nonzero ring in which ab = 0 implies a = 0 or b = 0. (Sometimes such a ring is said to "have the zero-product property".) Equivalently, a domain is a ring in which 0 is the only left zero divisor (or equivalently, the only right zero divisor). A commutative domain is called an integral domain. Mathematical literature...
those are called rings without zero divisors
"domain" is just cooler
Domains without zero divisors
more confusing too...

Mathematical literature contains multiple variants of the definition of "domain"
I think it's domain that's the confusing one?
I know, that's my point. I'm an elitest and I like to confuse people 😈

I didn't know integral domains have to be commutative
wikipedia >> some authors
wikipedia is written by the community :p
but also, in a vector space, when x is a scaler and y is a vector
ah but here x and y live in different things >.<
i assumed both x and y have "same footing"

they both live in some vector space


Do vector spaces exist by themselves or do they only start to exist when people construct them a.k.a. think about them in their minds?
neither? They always exist as long as someone thinks about them
hmmmmmmm
did they not exist before 1888?
they didn't

vector spaces are so passe
I didn't even exist back then 💀
you did, you just changed your form
no because it wasn't them
it was particles that make them up
what makes us humans is not only what are we made of but also how are we made of
humans aren't sets 
I’m made of better than you
wtf aren't everything sets
humans are sets, but they inherit a structure of a human being
just like how groups are sets but they have the structure of a group
Humans are vectors
where is the #math-philosophy channel? 
Also things exist before you think about them
nope
it's an illusion because if you think about something then you already visualize so before you even think about something you think that it exists
but it only comes to motion after it appears in your brain
What if you don’t have a brain
Like a plant
A yellow flower
Why can’t the flower be happy
🌻 😦
🌻 😃
what does it mean for a flower to be happy?
why are we talking about happiness in the first place
but happiness as a concept only exists because you think about it
it's you that gives it a description
my brain hurt 
You give it a description but it exists before it’s described
Just like with physical objects
Ok let’s say someone comes up with the concept of vector spaces and then dies
not as how you describe it
Does the concept still exist
that's a complicated question and the answer depends on multiple factors
which your situation doesn't exhaust
you guys should stop hurting det
It is not the suns fault if you stare into it and blind yourself
What might these factors be
well first of all let me mention how your question is unclear in the way you phrase it
They don’t tell anyone else
it might exist but in what way does it exist
if you think about it, you can mean multiple things and you can say what I explain here is wrong based on what you are currently thinking about
As a concept?
but if we dive deep into it there's really nothing there apart from semantics
that's still not clear enough
What’s an example
it can exist to someone, it can exist as something written down
it's all different
but it could still be described as existing as a concept
Well we’ve been discussing whether there is an existence of things that is beyond thought
If no one has thought of something, you’re saying it doesn’t exist
So I’m asking if you’d say it exists if someone thinks of it and then dies and no one thinks of it anymore
if you want to be technical with it then of course there can exist such things
but did anyone saw 2 walking around?
in some, maybe obvious to some meaning, in the platonic meaning of the word
no I don't think it does, it's complete crap
no, that was in specific context
no
if it's not written down anywhere etc. etc.
it doesn't exist in other peoples conscious for sure
in the contexts that I decide I don't need to specify meaning of the word
So if someone writes down the rules for a vector space on paper and then dies and no one thinks about it or sees it?
but the meaning is still important of course
it doesn't exist for anyone
but it exists as a piece of paper
what's the point here
I would like to understand your perspective
alright but now I'm going to post an exercise to change the course of discussion
Exercise: Show that any subset of A^omega can be recognized by a (possible infinite) Buchi automaton in which all the states are final
we've already stretched it by discussing philosophy
let's talk about algebra or not
What is your favorite algebra
real numbers
this kind of conversation is completelly useless. To be able to think you need a body, that was formed by X processes, etc. Oh, but if you don't think about it (or no one else does) then it doesn't exist? Well, then that's Descartes paranoia, and you cannot say anything interesting from that position
also I think Descartes, in his method of perfect reasoning and after the cogito ergo sum, he asserted the existence of god. LMAO
you've missed the point and you think you're smart
so, if im understanding correctly, the orbit of an element of a set under a group action is just all of the other elements that elements can "reach" using the given group action?
also why revive a discussion that I said doesn't fit in this channel already
yep
good intuition for it
I'm sorry for being rude with my first response. I didn't think about it clearly and I just said what was on my mind.
let's just not discuss philosophy in this channel
is it true that the centralizer of r in D_8 is {1, r, r^2, r^3, sr^2}?
D=====8
thank you for your helpful insight, matt
sr² doesn't work idt
ah, so it doesnt
thanks
what about the centralizer of s in D_8? is it {1, r^2, s, sr^2}?
of course, my answer made no sense anyways because of Lagrange's theorem
5 doesnt divide 8
this looks right
double checked it's correct (not counting that sr^2 in the first one)
is there a term for when two separate terms have the exact same centralizer?
I’m pretty sure this is true iff g and h commute
that's true
for a centralizer of an element there can be multiple representants but not everything serves as a representant
I don't think there's a term but I found this characterization https://math.stackexchange.com/a/799971/476484
What am I missing here: I have an algebra A, (finite, associative, unital) over a alg closed field and an A-module M. Since A is an algebra, M is a vector space. What is preventing M from being a free module? I have a linearly independent subset of M, its basis. And it appears to be as if this generates the module as I have a copy of the field sitting inside A that I can act by. But I know that not all modules are free so what is the obstruction here?
all vector spaces are free
so by definition any module over an algebraically closed field is free
right but I have an algebra, and not all algebra modules are free, since they would then all be projective, so something im writing doesnt make sense
M isn't necessarily a vector space here unless im mistaken
no it's not nvm
ah no it is
it is
but it's not a module over that field
or at least that's not what youre considering
free over the base field doesnt mean free over the algebra
M isn't a vector space over A because A doesn't necessarily have inverses or commutativity
yeah but they were saying vector space over the base field of A im pretty sure
okay i think this is what im missing
we don't get linear independence over A right? I might act on a basis element and end up on another basis element
the issue is with linear independence
yeah
aha okay
the extra elements in A can add relations
does Z[sqrt(d)] being noeetherian follow directly from Z being noetherian
by hilbert basis theorem
im asking bc the theorem is about Z[x] but im not sure if that x has to be some "variable" or it can be anything, such a square root
It's Z[x]/(x^2 - d), and Z[x] is Noetherian and that's preserved by quotienting.
It's a quotient of the polynomial ring Z[x].
oh so im kinda right but not enough
What is the Pythagorean theorem really? How does it create a field extension?
how would you show the normalizer part of this? i still dont fully understand normalizers
the normalizer contains all elements whose right cosets are equal to their respective left cosets
$N_G(A) = \Set{g \in G | gA = Ag}$
yes yes yes no
one thing that you might already instantly see that if $G$ is abelian then $N_G(A) = G$
yes yes yes no
because you can just do $$gA = Ag \iff gAg\inv = A \iff gg\inv A = A \iff A = A$$
yes yes yes no
one thing that you might already immediately see is that*
What's an algebra? 
Is it a well defined term? Or is it just a blanket term for an algebraic structure that doesn't have a proper name?
In mathematics, an algebra over a field (often simply called an algebra) is a vector space equipped with a bilinear product. Thus, an algebra is an algebraic structure consisting of a set together with operations of multiplication and addition and scalar multiplication by elements of a field and satisfying the axioms implied by "vector space" an...
I think they are reffering to this
Ah
Can you link me which paper you're referring to?
I found a list of their expository papers but non of them had "presentations" in the name 
Nooooo
I got spoiled 
nope
that's not what Corqueta said
here the element
[1 1]
[0 1]
has infinite order
Croqueta was asking if you know every element has finite order and that the group is finitely generated, then does it imply that the group is finite
Oof
so you didn't get spoiled 
Read further
[-1 -1]
[0 1]
And
[-1 0]
[0 1]
Also generate that group
And both have order 2
yea, but Croqueta says you want all elements to have finite order, not just the generators
happens :p
quick gutcheck, S_0 is isomorphic to S_1 right
as they're both just the trivial group with one element
just checking im not being really stupid
how are you defining S_0?
yea that should be right
I mean, I'm assuming the case here is asking about permutations of an empty set
of which there is one
{ø}->{ø}
ah yes
how can we show that Tor(M) where M is an $R$-module over a domain is closed under M's group operation (let's call it +)?
like for $a,b \in \operatorname{Tor}(M)$ and $r,s$ being their respective elements that send them to $0$, there must exist $x,m \in R \setminus \Set{0}$ such that $0 = mr.a + ls.b = x.a + x.b = x.(a + b)$. but this gives us no actual way of finding the $x$, does it? like we have $x = mr$ and $x = ls$ but that doesn't really help us, no?
yes yes yes no
If p ∈ F[x] is irreducible, then the field G = F[x]/(p)
contains F as a subfield, and p has a root in G
Can someone please explain what p has a root in G means.
Like if I say 5 has a root in Q
wtf does that mean.
suppose, for the sake of a concrete example, G = Z2[x]/x^2+1 = {0,1,x,x+1}
what does (x^2+1) has a root in {0,1,x,x+1} mean?
oh frick
x^2+1 isn't irreducible
give me a sec.
suppose G = Z2[x]/x^2+x+1
the elements are still the same right?
still, my question is, what does it mean?
5 is not an irreducible polynomial, and what would even be the field here 
p is a polynomial with coefficients in F. you can also pretend that it's a polynomial with coefficients in G as F is a subfield of G
so all it's asking you is if there is an element r in G such that p(r) = 0
yep
ok why is it not stated as that then?
because if you plug in x (more precisely the coset of x in F[x]/(x^2+x+1))
Why is it just "p has a root in G"
could you give an example with fields I'm more familiar with
like the exact statement but in reals
if that's possible.
ok
and consider p = x^2+1
OK
p is irreducible, in particular has no real roots
OK
but the extension R[t]/(t^2+1) does have a root of the polynomial x^2+1
in fact R[t]/(t^2+1) is isomorphic to C, the field of complex numbers
if you plug in x = [t]
it evaluates to [t]^2 + 1 = [t^2 + 1] = [0]
(by brackets, i just mean the coset containing that element)
are you able to do an example without the / polynomial thing or is it not possible
like if it was a number of something
Z / 7
Z mod 7.
didn't get you. the goal of doing that is to get a bigger field where your given polynomial does have a root.
First, am I right to say the elements of this G is precisely {[0],[1],[x],[x+1]}
p "has" a root
like I don't know where the Y comes from.
Ok x^2+x+1
has a root in {[0],[1],[x],[x+1]}
I don't know what that means
to have a root in a field.
can I pretend {[0],[1],[x],[x+1]} that these are like numbers
it means to have an element such that your polynomial evaluates to 0 >.<
in Z/2Z, the only elements are 0 and 1, and none of them satisfy x^2+x+1 = 0 when you substitute them for x
but in the bigger field you have some extra elements now
and [x] there does satisfy our given polynomial
because [x]^2 + [x] + 1 = [x^2 + x + 1] = [0] = 0
any abstract algebra book should have this
is there anything online
my book only mentions it once
and there's nothing else.
I want to make a substitution of what you're saying.
So you said in Z/2Z, the only elements are 0 and 1, and none of them satisfy p(x)=0. Eg p(1) != 0 and p(0) != 0
but you say in G = {[0],[1],[x],[x+1]}, p([x]) = 0, so there's an element in G such that p(something in G) = 0
I think I kind of understand now.
I think my question now is what is the point of that.
Is that not like saying 7 = 0 mod 7
yes it is!
but the point is that F[x]/p is a field
as p is irreducible
what you've proves is that you can always add an element to your field satisfying a certain irreducible polynomial
for example, what was the first definition of C that you saw?
it was elements of the form a + bi, where a and b are reals
and then you formally defined how to add and multiply
from this theorem, you easily get that you can add an element to R such that the polynomial x^2+1 now can be factored
so this is the simplest way to get extensions of a field
if you still know any resources online could you send it.
what would you say is a good book on abstract algebra in general that includes what we were talking about
any book that works for you is good lol
wait I have question if I do Z/x^2-2 do I get Z[sqrt2]
O
Ok so Z[x]/(x^2-2)
gets me Z[sqrt(2)]
so it gets me the set S = {a+bsqrt2: a,b E Z}
oh 😦 what happened >.<
it's the polynomial ring quotiented by x^2-2
so the elements look like [a + bx]
where a, b are integers
wait Z isn't even a field
how can I do anything.
The theorem needs it to be a field
you don't need to look at higher powers as dividing by x^2-2 will leave a remainder which is a linear polynomial
right, but as long as you have a monic polynomial, quotienting the polynomial ring by that gives you a bigger ring where the polynomial has a root
🤯
i say this because, if you work with say Q[x]/(x^3-2) then it's isomorphic to Q(cbrt2), Q(cbrt2 * w) and Q(cbrt2 * w^2) where w is a complex cube root of 1
so it's not really clear what Q[x]/(x^3-2) "gets you"
Ok ignore the integer case because idk what's happening. What if I look at rationals.
if I have W = Q[x]/(x^2-2) = {Q U (ax +b)} and you say this is isomorphic to Q[sqrt2] = {a+bsqrt2: a b in Q}
idk what {Q U (ax +b)} means
you're already counting them when a = 0, right?
like for G before I had {0,1,x,x+1}
OH
you right
so just {ax+b} like you said before
cosets of them, but yea
yea
more precisely, there is an isomorphism Q[x]/(x^2-2) --> Q(sqrt2)
kinda makes sense
I appreciate your time. thanks!
I understood a lot better than when I asked the question
I will still look into it further, but thanks for the headstart.

i mostly read Aluffi
didn't mean to send that
(oh dw, i didn't even read it :p)
yea that one
Ok thank you

I will obtain it in a particular way
but I am taking a small break as I study for finals
Yes I find it very interesting, and eventually I want to understand interactions with algebraic geometry

i am learning about etale cohomology, i think it has relations to group cohomology for galois groups
but at the moment i only know the definitions :3
of etale morphishm, etale sites, etale sheaves etc
Yeah, my prof told me that Galois cohomology is the specific case of etale cohomology applied to a point (?) I kinda forgot :p
yee, that makes sense
i don't really know any algebraic geometry yet, but when I eventually learn it everything will make sense 😃

why do ad_E and ad_F look transposed to me?
they aren't transposes tho
right, thanks!

but uhhh sanity check: the first column of ad_E should be all zero, because ad_E (E) = [E, E] = 0?
ikr...
how is a "row representation" formally distinguished from a "column representation"? I thought "column representation" was the only one used...
I mean, do they have formal names?
it only depends on how you wanna write your functions
usually we write f(x) for, f applied to x
that's why matrix * column vector = column vector is used
if you write (x)f, as the image of x under f
then you would prefer row vector * matrix = row vector
(that's actually a good notation >.<)
(only that you're not used to seeing it)
one argument for its favor is that you don't have to always flip back and forth between drawing diagrams and writing equations
as we usually draw diagrams left to right
A --f--> B --g--> C
wow, neat
in this notation the image of a, would be (a)fg
this really sells
another thing which you can do to break that weird symmetry is that
notice that an element a in A, is really a function a : * --->A
from the one element set
😂 true, and?
so if you treat an element a, as the function then, the image of a under f : A --> B
is just the composition af
composition as fuck indeed!
that gives you a function * --> B
🙈
ofc you can do this last thing in the usual notation as well
f(x) is just f composed with the function x : * --> X
but the order is reversed as usual
anyway, these are soft issues. ignore them :p
for matrices, you could always take transpose of the whole equation to convert from one to other
stupid question - given a ring R, is the fraction field Frac(R) what you get from localizing the whole ring...?
yes integral domain
yep, and in that case the non-zero elements form a multiplicative set
(equivalently localizing at the prime ideal (0))
my next silly questions is how a localization that isnt Frac(R) differs from Frac(R)
like localizing a ring R at a subset S isn't necessarily a field is it
yea, if R is an integral domain, it won't be a field unless S = R \ {0}
for integral domains, localizations are subrings of Frac(R)
for non-integral domains, you need to be careful with inverting zero-divisors as say if you invert 3 in Z/6Z you get Z/2Z
one way to see that is by writing Z/6Z as Z/2Z * Z/3Z
inverting 3 is now same as inverting (1,0)
so inverting 0 in a ring kills that entire component
and you're left with Z/2Z
ok i see that
but im still having a bit of trouble understanding Frac(R)
localizing a R - {0} means that that has to be multiplicatively closed
yep
oh well i guess it already is by defn of a ring
my qualm was gonna be with the fact that not every r in that necessarily has an inverse
nu, definition of an integral domain
ok but still - not every element has an inverse so what happens to elements that dont
in general complements of prime ideals are multiplicatively closed
they get lumped into an equivalence class i guess?
didn't get you
when localizing at R - {0} i mean
you adding reciprocals of every element (except 0)
so that does make every non-zero element invertible
r/s is non-zero if and only if r is not 0. in this case s/r makes sense and is an inverse
my immediate question is then why i care about this
in my profs lecture notes, UFD's immediately follow this
not sure if they're related at all
they are
first fraction fields are nice
they completely formalize the construction of going from Z to Q
one place where they are really useful is as you say... for UFDs
you have this theorem that if D is a UFD then so is D[x]
and proving this directly can be hard
what you do is look at F = Frac D and compare D[x] with F[x]
and since F is a field, F[x] is a euclidean domain
which is ofc a UFD
:O
then there is this one important lemma by gauss which tells you how to go back and forth between factorizations in D[x] and those in F[x]
love how you just know this off the top of your head
later ones are when i taught someone else :p
first one was fake tho
oh i can see another reason to care about fraction fields
so do you know how to prove that det is a multiplicative function?
so the setting is that you have a commutative ring R, and so you define the map det : Mat(n, R) --> R in the usual way
why does this satisfy det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
tbh, i don't like this proof much. but it can be a really useful way to think
i mean i know it's a homomorphism
of underlying monoids?
eugh
but to prove that, you need to prove that det is multiplicative >.<
the cool thing is that proving it for fields is enough to prove it for arbitrary rings!
which may seem surprising
here i'm not even asking that R is an integral domain
(but hopefully for those, you already see a proof as you can embed them into Frac R)
the idea is that, you look at det in the integral domain D = Z[a_ij, b_ij] where i,j vary over {1, .., n}, so in total there are 2n^2 variables
pick A = (a_ij) and B = (b_ij)
if you prove det is multiplicative for this specific D with these specific matrices, then you've actually proven it for all rings and all matrices!
because given any R and matrices (a'_ij) and (b'_ij)
you can define the map D --> R
which sends a_ij to a'_ij and b_ij to b'_ij
and since det in the end is defined by a huge polynomial formula, it will commute with ring homomorphisms
(another way to say that is det is a natural map between the functors Ring --> Monoid, given by R --> Mat(n, R) and R --> R)
so it reduces to show it for this D and these A, B
but now D is an integral domain!!
so you can embed it into its field of fractions F and prove it there
(in fact D is a UFD, which is why this method can be really powerful)
so all this above stuff reduces to prove that det is multiplicative for matrices over fields
and for this you can follow your favorite proof. the first one i saw is the one i don't like much :p. it reduces to prove it when A is an elementary matrix and checks it by properties of det and how actions of elementary matrices work
notice that this elementary matrix proof only works for fields, as over general rings you can't decompose any invertible matrix as a product of elementary ones

okie me will sleep soon

good night
Good night uwu :3
math is wild
yea, it can be very awesome behind all of its complex patterns
I don't know I guess it means something about how apples grow on bookshelves
trying to prove this - my idea is to take the kernel of phi and define a chain of ideals containing it, and then show that it's contained by the empty set (like the maximal ideal has to be the empty set) so it has to be empty too but i cant seem to get this to work, any ideas?
also det sorry i went afk
still super helpful as always tho 
show that the kernel has to be trivial
idk, if I say what to do the entire problem will be trivalized
think harder I guess? Idk

I don't want to be rude
If you think about it for >=2 hours and still can't get it then ping me and I'll give you a hint (which will kinda spoil the problem but oh well)
i moved on to other problems i'll come back to it in a bit
was my idea somewhat right tho? ngl i was just kinda forcing in some usage of the fact that it's noetherian
I don’t think understand what you mean by the maximal ideal being the empty set
Like, that doesn’t make sense
At some point you do have to use that R is Noetherian
ok different question - being asked to prove that any field must contain $\Q$ or $\Z/p$ for some prime $p$.
sebbb
idek where to start there tbh
start with 1 and look at the subfield it generates
or if you prefer, start with the unique ring homomorphism Z --> F, and examine possible options
another hint: ||what's the characteristic of your field to start with?||
If we say that something is integral over a ring is this the same as saying that there exists an integral extension of a ring?
the first one is specifying what is integral over the ring, the second one is just saying there is something integral over it
yes, on further reading I believe if we have an integral extension of a ring then all the elements of the ring are integral over the subring and like you said something being integral over a ring just describes that something being integral over a subring.
"if we have an integral extension of a ring then all the elements of the ring are integral over the subring"
this is just the definition of an integral extension
If you want to find a polynomial subring of a polynomial algebra in general, is the most reliable way to do it to just follow the proof of Noetherian normalization and construct a sequence of integral extensions until we get down to a polynomial ring, or are there contexts where there are quicker methods
What?
Is this how you characterize inversion of elements in a monoid? Ofc then you would have to show that such a G exists
Yee looks good
The situation for rings makes it confusing, because you have zero
that extends to rings just fine no?
for noncommutative setting that's still fine no?
Maybe. Idk I never encountered it in the wild till now.
We probably can't use the usual fraction construction ig
mmh I think Im still confused
wait nvm Im not
uhm no Im still am
the idea is that if as=bs does not imply a=b, and you want to invert s, then a and b should have the same image
but what is that image? Like is it necessarily the identity?
This isn't really a problem because when you forcefully invert weird elements like zero divisors, the ring just collapses. For instance if you inverted 0, then the localisation you'll have 0=1, which means it's zero
in a ring you would consider the ideal rs=0 for r in R, and then send such r to zero, so if as=bs, then the image of a and b are the same. But what is it?
yes
but you give no other information as to how a/1 and b/1 interact with other elements? Like, would a/1 x=x for some other x necessarily or something like that?
ok no
I guess the image of a is independent of everything else and is only subject to the relation a=b whenever as=bs in the orignal monoid. And that's the whole point
Yep
Wait we were doing rings >.<
hehe :p
I was only worried about the multiplicative structure of the image of the ring R, and these are monoids
thats why I said monoid, but could have said "ring" ig
not a big distinction though there are less monoids coming from a ring than there is monoids, so some theorems might not hold true
Ah yes
For a moment I forgot psi (above) is a monoid homomorphism from M, so how the images of a and b will interact with the rest is given precisely by psi, and thats it
Im asking this cause I’m struggling to find a polynomial ring of which k[x1,x2,x3,y1,y2,y3]/(x1x2x3 + y1y2y3) is an integral extension
There’s probably a smart change of variable to make but I’m struggling
So far I’ve got that the residue class of y3 is integral over k[x1,x2,x3,u,v] with u and v given by y1-y3 and y2-y3 (and here I’m taking the residue classes obviously)
But not sure how to express that algebra as a quotient of a polynomial ring
Guys I need a reality check
Is being a UFD equivalent to
(integral domain + (prime <=> irreducible))
I know being a UFD implies this, but does the reverse direction hold?
For a non-commutative ring we can localise with respect to a multiplicative subset satisfying either the left Ore condition or the right Ore condition
Point is, there is a general construction called localising a category C with respect to a left multiplicative (or a right multiplicative) system S of morphisms which is basically a universal way to turn morphisms in S invertible. So basically the category S^-1C we obtain, say we denote it D, has a functor F from C->D which is essentially surjective and turns morphisms in S into isomorphisms, along with the universal property that any functor G: C->E turning morphisms in S into isomorphisms, factors uniquely through F.
Now treat a ring as an additive one-object category and localisation of categories reduces to localising a ring
For a non-commutative ring, the left multiplicative system condition is just left Ore condition and similarly for right Ore condition
Ok I guess I should state what the right Ore condition is:
A subset S of a ring R, closed under multiplication, satisfies Right Ore condition if:
- For a in R, s in S, there exists t in S, r in R such that at=sr.
- (Not required when R is a domain) If a in R, s in S such that sa=0, there exists t in S such that at=0.
Left ore condition defined similarly
,, \begin{align*}\operatorname{Tor}(M) &= \Set{m \in M | m \text{ is a torsion element}}\ &= \Set{m \in M | \exists r \in R \setminus \Set{ 0 } : rm = 0}\end{align*}
yes yes yes no
Is R commutative here? If so just take x=rs
omg I'm so fucking stupid lmao
yeah
R is commutative
I forgot that lol
thanks
No
You also need the ascending chain condition on principal ideals
Or alternatively (equivalently) that every element can be written as a product or primes
gracias chair person
this seems more than simple but how can I show that the inverse of a torsion element is also a torsion element?
Use the same ring element
yeah I thought about that already but then I'd have r.(-a) (for a in Tor(M) and r in R its w/e)
is r.(-a) = -(r.a)?
it'd seem too good to be true
Yes
it's directly from the properties you demand of r.m






