#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 20 of 1
One is that it’s literally defined as Q(sqrt(2))(sqrt(3))
In which case there’s nothing to prove
Another is the smallest subfield containint sqrt(2),sqrt(3), and Q
In which case the proof is near-immediate but it isn’t tautological
This would be more appropriate
We do not have the former definition
But unless you have a definition for it fixed then you can’t prove anything because something is undefined
I mean it is pretty clear using the containment of the three
We just didn't have a definition for multiple elements so I was not sure if that was valid
Do I need to prove this?
I mean you can’t prove anything until you have a definition lol
Like can you prove to me a zuppyshing is always abelian?
Not until I define what a zuppyshing is
My lecture notes make me cry
We don't use a textbook
So there's sometimes gaps like this
Anyway, thank you I am comfortable with this using the second definition
I mean if you had to pick a definition I guess I’d pick the one being smallest subfield containing
Which should be fine
I don't necessarily have to prove this the exercise makes use of this fact nonchalantly and I didn't want to just write "clearly" blah blah blah
But maybe I should

A somewhat wishy-washy question:
Why is it possible that $(Z_{p^{m+t}} \oplus Z_{p^{n-t}}) / Z_{p^m}$ is cyclic?
I have seen an example, however, it seems like we're recovering structure that didn't exist.
Namely, if $n>m+t$, then $Z_{p^{m+t}} \oplus Z_{p^{n-t}}$ doesn't have an element of order $p^n$ but its quotient does.
I think I might just be having a lapse in intuition
justAworm 🥺
Not possible
that's good to hear
The latter part
The order of the image of sometbing always divides the order of the thing mapping to it
So a quotient always has elements of lesser order
Awesome, I figured as much
zuppyshings
ikay
i think S3 is just all the permutations of mappings from {1,2,3} to {1,2,3}?
recite what makes a subgroup normal
n it can be represented as a cycle
Yes!
um the cosets form a group
ok finish sentence
wait theres more?
A subgroup N, of a group G, is normal if (what goes here)?
yep
this is also true
omg
idk T.T
We have a couple of definitions
you mean can be represented using cycle notation?
yes
ah ok
sry is cycle and cycle notation diff
gN=Ng or gNG^-1=N or similar things
idk i havent heard of cycle so i just called it that
yea that
that equivalent i think? im still a bit fuzzy on how
idt so
ok anyway
So if you take (1),(123),(132) and multiply by the right by any element g and the left by g^-1 it should be one of those three above
umm
yes please
firstly do you know how to compute cycles
my bad
follow where it maps too recursively
compute multiplication of cycles
i think we go from the right most cycle
in each cycle we see if our number shows up
if it does we take the next right number (or first if its the rightmost)
wait sry thats computing the output of the cycles
i think i saw about multiplication of cycles but no i dont rmb it rn
okay ill give an example
and ill break it down if u wanna
in S_6
(1 3 5)(2 4 3)
what does this equal
ok
i think ik lemme try
(1 3 5) (2 4
wait sry
smt died
halp plz
(1 2 4 5)
AH THIS?
close
D:
1 becomes 3
yeah
well you skipped my question but whatever
just track where 1 goes
yeah
wait i did?
so if f(1)=3 then shouldnt it be (1 3 ...)?
this
look at 1
we read from right to left
so
1 in (243) goes nowhere
1 in (135) goes to 3
we have “(13 “so far
yes
3 goes to 2 in (243)
2 goes nowhere in (135)
So we have (132
2 goes to 4 in (243) and nowhere in (135)
so we have (1324
sry my brain pain
yes
(1 3 4 7 8)(2 5 6)
(2 3)
yes
oh
yes here is why?
You can do it for finite extensions easily then glue those because finite extensions of K exhaust the entire field
I think
Induction
Or do something writing a transcendence basis, you should be able to do it for algebraic extensions pretty simply too
yeah nvm it would depend on what type of extension for K/F and K/F’
atlesst what i was doing
i was assuming seperable i think
Look it up in Dummit and Foote or something
lets say f:F->F' was a isomorphism
can we make a g:K->K such that g(x)=f(x) for all x in F and such that g is an isomorphism
You write down a set of generators
same q right?
Say there’s n
You first extend up when adjoining only one of them
This is simple to do
Then you do the other n-1 via induction
ok
Just look it up in D&F
D:
ur fine
can we move to a help channel
It’s somewheee in the field theory section
nah
now let ( 123) be the element of the notmal subgroup in the example you gave
D:
yeah
yes
hm?
remember we computed (12)(123) before?
(12)(123)(12)
when 1 goes through
we get like
(12)(123)(12) 1
(12)(123)2(12)
(12)3(123)(12)
yes
3(12)(123)(12)
yup
is this a proper notation or just weird lol
it helps you keep track
no
?
(132)?
yeah
rookie mistake
its in our normal group right?
what was your original question
yes
look at N
now we just computed an example
but essentially ghg^-1 is in N for every g in S_3 and h in N
thats what it means to be normal
hm lemme process a bit
ah this?
looks a bit different tho
ghg^-1
wait no urs is different
hm
abuh
nani
ok sry
is n^-1g^-1ng is in N
we will worry about that commutator one another time
The image of conjugation of {\displaystyle N}N by any element of {\displaystyle G}G is equal to {\displaystyle N.}{\displaystyle N.}
N is a subgroup so multiplying the two is in N
sry what is this
ok mb
the second bulletin in the image you posted
gng^-1 is called conjugation of n by g.
OH WAIT WHAT
ok lol
ok um
now what tho
i dont quite get what we showed with the
hm nope
gng^-1 =n
so with that we showed n is a normal subgroup?
whats g about
OH wait n is a normal subgroup while n is a subgroup of g
ok wait'
wait where did
nah not this
gng^-1 is in N
1, 2, 3
so it can be another elemetn in N not n.
this is S3
i mean we wanna show N is a normal subgroup which is equivalent to showing
oh
so alternatively
a normal subgroup in this case is
N = {(1)}
or
N = G
so those are the trivial subgroups
ok cool
i think i get it now
thanks
💕
Breakthrough
Level up Spirit Immortal Layer 5
what?
you wanna prove that it's possible to recover K' from the minimial polynomial which you call m_{x, K'}
in other words, the map {intermediate fields} --> {monic divisors of m_{x, K}} is injective
as the right side is finite, this would force the left to be finite
how to prove "you can do it", or how to prove it
for the first one, you can try proving it, if the proof works out, then it means you just proved that you could do it :3

for the second, try relating K' with the coefficients of m_{x, K'}
(do the coefficients generate K'?)
well the only information contained in the polynomial m_{x, K'} is its coefficients
and one thing we know for sure is that this is a poynomial in K'[T], so at least all the coefficients are inside K'.
if you wish to recover K', from the polynomial, you gotta try something with the coefficients, as that's all you have
so lets define K'' to be the subfield of K' generated over K by all the coefficients of m_{x, K'} in K'[x]
they can be, but in this case you then would want to show that K' = K
if you can show K'' = K', then you're done!
ig you should try an example then
take K = Q and x = sqrt(i)
so x^4 + 1 = 0
this has intermediate fields Q(sqrt(2))
and Q(i), and Q(sqrt(-2))
what are the minimal polynomials of x over each?
yep!!
this is the minimal polynomial for i, not x = sqrt(i)
hehe :p
and that's pretty much the proof lol
yea, but the thing here is that K(x) is generated by a single element. this is all that makes the difference
if F/K is finite and generated by even 2 elements, then you can't show that there are finitely many intermediate fields
the standard counterexample is K = F_p(s^p, t^p) and F = K(s, t)
here the fields generated by s + ct will all have degree p. for any c in K
read this again :3
what is m_{x, K''}?
why does this example work?
because (s + ct)^p = s^p + c^p * t^p and this lies in K
so the minimal polynomial is has degree at most p
but it has to divide the degree of the extension [F:K] = p^2
why do you say so?
and i should say that no two c will give you the same intermediate field. if K(s + at) = K(s + bt) = K', say s + at and s + bt are both in K', which means (a-b)t is in K', which means t is also there and so s is also there, but then K' = F is a contradiction
and that m_{x, K'} lies in K''[T]
this is almost by the definition of K''
so you get that [K(x) : K'] = [K(x) : K'']
can you finish the argument?
yea, my bad... i was answering two things simultaneously >.<
yee
lol

Given y even, how can I show that y+i and y-i are coprime?
And also get the bezout identity
i.e. a(y+i) + b(y-i) = 1
(In Z[i])
if d divides both, then it divides their difference 2i
but as y is even, you get d also divides y
so d must divide i = (y+i) - y which is a unit, so d is a unit
What about getting the bezout identity?
just do the same computations as a euclidean algo
I'm struggling to do that in Z[i]
(y - i) = (y + i) - 2i
(y + i) = 2i(-ix) + i
where y = 2x
plug the value of 2i from the first equation
(y+i) = ((y+i) - (y-i)) * (-ix) + i
(1+ix) * (y+i) - (ix) * (y-i) = i
(x - i)(y+i) - x(y-i) = 1
ty
Wait, if you multiply this out you get xy + ix - iy + 1 -xy + ix = 1 - iy?
How would you find the splitting field of x^35-1 over F2
well, this polynomial is the product of the 5th and 7th cyclotomic polynomials in F2, because the characteristic 2 does not divide 35
why do you think this?
x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1 is the 5th cylcotomic polynomial right?
Isn’t x^35-1 the product of the 1st, 5th, 7th, and 35th cyclotomic polynomials
yes, i had a brain fart and forgot that the trivial divisors exist
correct
How does this help
I assume these are all irreducible in F2 but how would you prove that
use that finite subgroups of F* are cyclic
the splitting field is an extension of F2, say it's degree is n.
okie maybe it is better to say it like this
the set of roots of x^35 -1 forms a subgroup
of order 35 inside F_{2^n}*
How do you know there aren’t repeating roots?
Yes ok
by lagrange 35 divides 2^n - 1
I am aware of this although I don’t totally understand why this applies to general fields
Yes
And the order of 2 is 12 right?
idk, need to check :p
2^4 = 1 mod 5
2^3 = 1 mod 7
right so if 2^n = 1 mod 35 then 3 and 4 both divide n
so 12 divides n
we'll now show that F_{2^12} is the splitting field
and use that group of units of this is cyclic
and pick a generator g
say 2^12 - 1 = 35 * m
g^{35 m} = 1
this means h = g^m is a root of the polynomial x^35 - 1
and order h is 35
so the roots are exactly {1, h, h^2, ..., h^34}
which means it does split completely
so done 

I’ll need to convince myself later that the derivative thing applies to arbitrary fields
in general, the same argument shows that the splitting field of x^r - 1 over F_p is F_{p^n} where n is the order of p mod r
yee it's a standard thing to check for separability
f doesn't have repeated roots (in its splitting field) if and only if gcd(f, f') = 1
because if you have a repeated root, then it's a common root of f and f'
f = (x-a)^2 * g
then f' is divisible by x-a
and converse is also true
writing it in terms of gcd is nice because it shows that separability can be checked inside your base field itself and doesn't require you to look at any splitting fields
but in our case f' = 35 x^34, which only has a single root 0
and it's not a root of f
so we could just have did that directly
oh i made a boo boo
ah yes, here i wanted r to be coprime to p
because if r = s * p^k, then x^r - 1 = (x^s - 1)^{p^k}
Ah because then you get 0
yea :p
but it's not a huge deal because the splitting field of that is same as x^s-1
and s is indeed coprime to p
Indeed

Thanks
Is the correct way of thinking about universal properties as characterizations of objects (in some context)? For example, a basis for an F-vector space is characterized by the usual universal property.
Yes
a couple of questions regarding notation: \
let $A, B$ be submodules of an $R$-module $M$. is $A + B = \Set{a + b | a \in A, b \in B }$? \
what does $M \oplus M'$ mean? \
we defined the direct sum like this: $$\bigoplus_{i \in I} M_i = \Set{(m_i)_{i \in I) | m_i \in M_i, m_i \text{ except for finitely many } i \in I}$$ I don't understand the "except for finitely many" part
@cloud walrus
oh
texit is dead again
the last one is this:
"außer für endlich viele" means "except for finitely many" fwiw
what language is that btw 
german
oh what part of germany?
muenster
(>.< my geography isn't that good, but i think that's the state containing münster, right?)
oh okie, i'll believe you 🙈
wait what the fuck
OH
münchen is in bayern
jesus christ
my geography is worse than yours

I live an hour away from münster
lol i my uni name has westphalia in it, so i assumed they were sort of connected 😂
anyway, what about my questions lol
ah yes :p
are grad schools in germany english based?
idk, i think they started this is like very recently.. this might be the second year of the program
you're writing two different things >.<
ahhhhh
yeh lol
it was this
but it's the same question
what does the except for finitely many mean
right
it means only finitely many m_i are allowed to be non-zero
so m_i = 0 is true for almost all i :p
I'll call M as the direct sum
ahhhhhhh
so notice that there are natural maps M_i --> M
and we want any element in M to be sum of finitely many things in images of these maps
as sum of infinitely many things makes no sense without topology
wait I have a question before that
I don't understand the notation $(M_i){i \in I}$ and $(m_i){i \in I}$
ah ok
another way to think of this is as a set function from a : {1, 2} --> A
similarly (m_i)_{i in I} is just a function m : I --> union of M_i (where ith thing lands in M_i)
collection
for a collection of elements people just say a set
why are they writing "Let (M_i)_i in I be a family of submodules" and not "Let { M_i | i in I } be a set of submodules"
ofc you can use the same word for collections of sets, it just becomes harder to read
so people prefer to call it family or class of sets
ah
but they just mean a set of sets
why are they using the tuple notation here
what's the M oplus M notation
but it doesn't matter much, as people know what you mean when you write {M_i}_{i in I}
it's this but when I has two elements
M⊕N = {(m, n) : m in M, n in N} = M x N
ahhhhhh M oplus N is just a fancy way of saying the cartesian product of M and N?
ig
but it means more stuff
okie lets go from start
forget whatever we said till now
(also do you know some category theory?)
no
hmm
okie so lets think it like this
say you have 2 R-modules M and N
and you wanna define a product for them
yes
what do you do?
wdym product
exactly, what do you mean by that
Not to confuse it with classes though

Funny coincidence in nomenclature
ain't no way
ofc we can be naive and say look at the product as sets, M x N and define the structure of an R-module on this
timo mein erdkunde ist auch nicht mehr das was es mal war 😭
yeah
this usually works for all usual algebraic objects you study at the start, because they're just sets with some extra structure
hm it would probably help to know some linalg
the direct sum is a lot more intuitive there imo
but there is a dual notion of a product, called a coproduct
and it maybe a little different to deal with them at the start
for example coproduct of sets is their disjoint union
(finite) coproduct of abelian groups or R-modules agrees with the product
but this notion is a little tricky because coproduct of groups can be weird
it's called the free product
dual notion?
yea
Reverse the arrows
just from the example, it might not directly look like product and coproduct are related at all
but once you try to give a nice general definition of both, they are just duals of each other
Products and coproducts always come with some maps
what is a coproduct
And they are dual because if you reverse the arrows then you get one from the other
first let's define a product
what does it mean to be a "dual of something"
let's work in the case of groups for now
the product of G and H is an object G x H such that you have group homomorphism G x H --> G and G x H --> H
Arrow meaning a map, in the category theory language
and G x H is universal in this sense
universal?
a universal object mapping to G and to H
which means if you have a third group K which also maps to G and to H
This might get a little confusing
then you can uniquely factor it through G x H
oh wait texit is dead
hmm
how do i draw diagrams 
lol that's a better idea
i was gonna compile locally
@formal ermine can you read this diagram?
you lost me here
try reading it from here :p
you don't need to understand anything before that
what is a universal object mapping
think it like an object satisfying certain properties, but only those
basically doing the required thing in the most efficient way
'an object'?
if you have two groups G and H, what does it mean to fine a universal group which has maps to both G and H?
read it as group for now :p
i shouldn't use any weird words which might confuse you even more
give me one last chance :p
Say G and H are groups. We want to define what G x H is completely using groups homomorphisms and not talking about elements at all
so one nice thing you want from G x H is to have maps to both G and H
(the projection maps)
well, it's universal object in some category
projection map?
I don't know category theory
but describing this category would be troublesome
haven't learned it yet
((a, b) -->a and (a, b) --> b)
so it's better to say, it satisfies the following property called the "universal" property
mhm
all the things det is talking about here can be perfectly formalized in the language of category theory
yep, and if you try to understand it now, it might give you reasons why one likes to think categorically
so the first question is, does having maps to G and H determine G x H (upto isomorphism?)
and the answer is clearly no
Okay maybe. Imagine you have some sort of structures and maps between them.
You want to figure out how some basic objects in them, like products and coproducts look like.
This is what category theory helps you with
because there are sooo many groups that have maps to both G and H
For example, you might want to see what product/coproduct of uniform spaces is. And this can indeed be done
for example, for the trivial group {e} also you have group homomorphism {e} --> G and {e} --> H
and certainly you don't wanna say {e} is the product of G and H (if at least one of them is non-trivial)
so what extra conditions should one require such that we do characterize G x H uniquely (up to isomorphim)
and one answer to this is the following
this diagram says that G x H has maps to G and H
but it does so in the most natural way
what is K
which means that if K is any other group also mapping to G and H
basically trying to pretend to be a product
So you might think that in the categorical definition of product there is some arbitrary choices here.
But the isomorphism is in fact pretty rigid, so no need to worry about that
then there must be a unique group homomorphism K --> G x H such that the diagram commutes
does that sort of make sense?
I understand the diagram but it makes no intuitive sense to me
okie so let's see it in action
let's show that the usual way to define product of groups satisfies this property
well - basically we're taking the product and seeing it in terms of properties of what it means to be a product in terms of admissible maps
I was just trying to learn about universal stuff and here det is giving a master class, perfect timing 
Think about how you make a function R -> R^n, you define it by saying how you mapninto each component
if you have maps g :K --> G and h : K --> H, can you come up with a map f :K --> G x H such that K --> G x H --> H is g and K --> G x H --> H is h?
like how a map from K to G x H splits into two maps K to G and K to H
Like you write a function f:R -> R^n usually like (f_1,…,f_n)
This is an example of this, you’re making an object for which maps into it are just maps into the constituent parts
(lol 3 people trying to explain the same thing at the same time in 3 different ways 🙈)
meanwhile @formal ermine is confused :p
didn't this all start with just the direct sum
I just wanted to give an example
yep 😂
it's educational
indeed, however will it solve the problem at hand
ig :p
@chilly ocean I know you're just trying to help, and I am very thankful for that, but you always shoot pigeons with canons
like I said I know no category theory and you started talking about category theory :p
it will end with why the coproduct in R-modules is that weird thing and why we require only finitely many to be non-zero
everyone started talking about category theory, not just me
as opposed to product in R-modules where we don't put the extra condition of almost all being non-zero
anyway, let's get back to this :p
What det is saying can be understood without any category theory. But it will suggest the importance of arrows

with the usual construction of G x H (as a cartesion product and then defining the group operation)
we can define f : K --> G x H by syaing f(k) = (g(k), h(k))
and you can see that it does commute
in fact this definition is forced on you
because we want the composition K --> G x H --> G to be g
so this tells you that if f(k) = (a, b) then a must be g(k)
RYC NO
similarly the other composition tells you b = h(k)
(does that make sense? >.<)
(if not we'll try again later
)
cat pilling is important 
Z/2Z
the trivial group 1, I call it the dust group because
"All go unto one place; all are of the dust, and all turn to dust again."*
(jk i am not that pretentious)
dust maps to everything
I think infinite groups are better because you can give them a non-trivial Hausdorff topology
They are not
whuts your favorite topological group
Solenoid
PSL_2(7)
General linear groups over finite field are pretty cool
discrete topology see if I care
Personally I think topological rings are better because they have an interesting multiplicative structure
what is it? 
it's an inverse limit of circles
with the bonding maps being taking some power > 1
it's a whole family of topological groups
it can be realized in R^3 as well

maybe, but topological groups already force a bunch of properties that one would care about
like homogenity
but rings are interesting too. Questions like, when is C(K) homeomorphic to C(L) for compact Hausdorff spaces K, L, for instance
well, for me it'd be more about topological vector spaces
you need to prove that any K-hom is surjective, so you write L as a union of roots of polynomials with coefficients in K (L\K is algebraic) and you know that any K-hom acts transitively on the roots of any fixed polynomial since that's a finite set and K-homs are injective
In contexts like category theory, do you use the epsilon relation $\in$ to express membership to a proper class (just ignoring the problems it might cause)? If not, what expressions are used to express that an object "belongs" to a proper class ?
Let $\mathfrak{sl}(n)$ be the special linear Lie algebra, it has dimension $n^2 - 1$, the adjoint action $\mathrm{ad}_H$ of some $H \in \mathfrak{sl}(n)$ has codomain $\mathfrak{gl}(\mathfrak{sl}(n))$, what's the dimension of $\mathfrak{gl}(\mathfrak{sl}(n))$?
ah it actually has codomain $\mathfrak{sl}(n)$, nvm
when can I have my tex bot back?
oh nice
i guess this is also nicer even in the finite case right? cause no appeal to dimensionality at all
(i was gonna say you can just reduce the problem to the finite case but it's just a longer way of doing what you did lol)
By "acts transitively on the roots of any fixed polynomial", don't you mean that it sets roots to roots in a bijective fashion though? Maybe it's using the word "transitively" in a different sense to what I'm used to though, but here this is just one fixed map rather than a group of maps
yes I was kinda sloppy with my language, I didn't want to write "the restriction-corestriction of the K-hom to the roots of a polynomial is a bijection" and I couldn't find a way to word it as well as you did
Ah sure, no worries, just checking
i didn't even realise joe's statement was true until he pointed it out lol
i think it's something that should be taught in any introductory galois theory course
Let a be in L, you want to show a has a preimage under your K-hom f. Collect all the roots of the minimal polynomial of a over K in L, say {a_1,...,a_m}. Then K(a_1,...,a_m)/K is a finite extension and its mapped by f into itself, because f sends every a_i to some a_j (this is the key observation here, it's trivial if you think about it for a second). This is a finite-dimensional vector space and f is injective (as a field homomorphism of L into L), so it's an automorphism of K(a_1,...,a_m)/K and a has a pre-image.
Does anyone have a clue why if m is even p should be 2?
p^e = m deg g
dw
Yeah, i got it as you typed it out.
Nah, it's fine, maybe someone will find it useful.
I see you a lot on this channel, you a student?
He’s a spud
A what?
Never heard that word before.
I am indeed
What level/country?
Same, but Germany.
Noice, pleased to meet you
rip
Same, same. What uni (unless you're worried about doxxing)?
You’re less cracked than I thought
:(
I mean I've only been doing math properly for 2 years
Case of switched majors?
Pffft I bet you did further maths
ye
Don't tell me.
but eh
You were a filthy code monkey before weren't you.
I wasn't actually
Physics?
Who was a fucking journalism major or something.
Or that.
(i think)
It’s very funny for me to imagine CS people at your uni Potato
It feels so out of place like
yeah i mean it is meant to be good at CS but it does feel out of place lol
Shouldn’t you only be teaching things that have existed for like 800 years or something
Witten attended the Park School of Baltimore (class of '68), and received his Bachelor of Arts degree with a major in history and minor in linguistics from Brandeis University in 1971.[10]
He had aspirations in journalism and politics and published articles in both The New Republic and The Nation in the late 1960s.[11][12] In 1972 he worked for six months on George McGovern's presidential campaign.[13]
lmao
I really don't understand what this technically means. Specifically, I have this question: Say H is in the Cartan subalgebra, and v is an eigenvector of ad_H, then is v also a simultaneous eigenvector? i.e. is v also an eigenvector of ad_H' for all H' in the Cartan subalgebra?
What uni would that be?
Not for me to say
I'll show you mine if you show me yours :^)
Wbu, bro, what's your hustle
feds in abstract algebra
He buys domestic building products and exports it to Japan
Is he alein? Why's the forehead?
Because he has the P H E N O T Y P E
What's everyone up to, algebraically-speaking? I'm browsing some chapters in Isaacs' Algebra and planning on reading Neukirch's ANT.
uh i am finishing up and reviewing some galois and rep theory shenanigans
I did a dive on GT recently, finally got the hang of the basics (I think). Isaacs is a fantastic text.
Does somebody know this though, sorry for the previous screenshot
Nice
I am reading “The Cotangent Complex of a Morphism”
I can only tell you what simultaneous diagonalisability is, Lie theory is not my cup of tea, sorry.
Sounds ravishing
It’s quite something. It also has an incredibly funny typo on like the first page
The names of the maps are supposed to be shifted back one lol
And here I was thinking it'd be something like an inappropriate word.
What level reading is this meant to be?
Level 2
No, I mean you an undergrad/grad or smth else
1st year graduate
Nice. I was speaking to a professor here the other day and apparently in Europe (or at the very least Germany) graduates (aka PhD students) aren't expected to take classes, just do research.
Because in Europe you do a master’s first
True, I didn't think about it before, but you guys don't have one.
For you it's both in one.
For the most part yes
I believe it ought to be that they share a common eigenvector, not necessarily every eigenvector
but that's just me going off linear algebra, idk much about lie algebras
I mean, if they're simultaneously diagonalisable then they have a common basis of eigenvectors, so I expect they must share all eigenvectors, no?
Just possibly scale them differently?
I don't remember what the requirement for SD was, wasn't it just there's a fixed basis and it's an eigenbasis for each operator?
each diagonalizable and commute
Or was there a requirement that they have the same eigenvalues?
That's one of the equivalent formulations.
Although then they'd probably end up being similar
yeah same eigenvalues would imply similar because doing the change of basis would just give the same matrices, right?
In the words of our prophet Keith Conrad (PBUH) "We are interested in conditions that make a finite set of linear operators simultaneously diagonalizable: there is a basis in which the matrix representation of each operator is diagonal."
So it's basically a fixed direct sum decomposition of the vector space and each operator just scales every subspace however it wants.
That is what I think is the definition, and then my question is: given a eigenvector of a specific linear operator, does it also have to be a simultaneous eigenvector?
I believe it must then be an eigenvector for all the other operators, just possibly not with the same eigenvalue.
Because EV for 1 operator => it's in one of the direct summands => all the operator are scalars on this summand => EV for all other operators as well.
Yepyep that makes much sense!
really stuck on 10a here- any tips?
awesome, thanks
You know what, I retract my earlier statements.
Was just thinking about this, let {x,y,z} be a basis of V, let f be diagonal 1,2,2 and g diagonal 0,-1,3 (both wrpt this basis), then y+z is a 2-EV of f, but it's not anything for g.
I think I might have erred here, didn't consider what happens when eigenvalues "get mixed up".
Does anyone know what he's talking about here? Do you know whatsoever of any specific degree 2 subfields of C besides R, never mind being realclosed? Are these some AoC shenanigans?
The proof of the primitive element theorem gives the precise condition on a
the element cbrt(2) + a * omega should have degree 6, so you want it to have 6 different conjugates by separability
call the set of embeddings of K into some algebraically closed field S
then you have the polynomial f(x) = product_{s, t in S} {(s(cbrt(2)) - t(cbrt(2)) + x(s(omega) - t(omega))}
where the product is taken over s not equal to t
(or if you want, for every unordered pair {s, t} with distinct s, t)
f(a) = 0 if and only if cbrt(2)+a*omega doesn't have distinct conjugates
so only the roots of f are bad values of a
and now can you easily see what are the roots of f as its already completely factored
👍👍👍
that's an interesting question
its the other way
roots are x = -(s(cbrt2) - t(cbrt2))/(s(omega) - t(omega))
ofc if the denominator is 0, this won't be a valid root
conjugates of cbrt2 are cbrt2, cbrt2 * omega, cbrt2 * omega^2
and conjugates of omega are just omega and omega^2
mixing matching gives you all the s, t
it doesn't :p
i realized that later
at least for the case when you want to fuse together two generators into 1
but that strategy is nice
say you wanna fuse together 3 generators into one
you could actually use a + bx + cx^2
and again if you define f like above, you'll get that all but finitely many values of x will make this a generator
but if you iterate the condition for 2 generators, you only get the generator of the form a + bx + cy
idk where this is useful, but i find it nice 
yea
true, there are like 6 choose 2 things
but you can convert it into a condition involving only the conjugates
like s(cbrt(2)) is just another conjugate of cbrt2
in general, if x is not -(alpha_i - alpha_j)/(beta_i' - beta_j') then you're happy
or something like this
one proof of the primitive element theorem avoids talking about the different ways to embed K, and directly asks you to pick x different from these finitely many values
it makes the proof shorter to write ig, i feel it makes it much harder to remember the idea
this is one of the first proofs of the theorem i read
but i don't like it much, to me it feels like a nice trick
remembering this one line basically makes it easy to write down everything else
if you follow what this proof is saying, then you just need to avoid 3 values of a
cbrt(2)/(omega - omega^2) * (1 - 1)
cbrt(2)/(omega - omega^2) * (omega - 1)
cbrt(2)/(omega - omega^2) * (omega^2 - 1)
the above thign should also just say the same after you only look at the elements which end up staying rational
like you could just apply s^-1 to the thing as it's already rational
and this will make it
- (cbrt2 - T(cbrt2))/(omega - T(omega))
where T is now s^-1t
now there are only 3 different values of T, as you want the denominator to stay non-zero
in the end it's the same computation
since we're done so much, lets finish it as well :p
so you don't want x to be
0
-cbrt(2) * omega^2
cbrt(2) * omega
oh and the last two are not rational
so you were right from the start
any non-zero rational works 
Prove that the group $({2, 4, 6, 8}, \times \bmod{10})$ is cyclic
45
for this, would it suffice to show that $2$ is a generator?
45
because we kind of have $2^n \bmod{10}$
45
i.e. $2 \times 2 \mod{10} = 4$, $2 \times 2 \times 2 \bmod{10} = 8$, $2^4 \bmod{10} = 6$
45
gotcha
well 2^1 mod 10 = 2
your group has no neutral element
It does have one
oh yeah mb lol
But the 2^1 thing has nothing to do with it
how would I go about finding four proper subgroups of a cyclic group of order 12?
I am not entirely sure about what constitutes a cyclic group of order 12
a group which has a generator with 12 elements?
every element can be written as $g^n$ for a $g$
yes yes yes no
we say $g$ generates the group
yes yes yes no
so ${1, g, \hdots, g^{11}}$?
45
fwiw a cyclic group of order 12 only has 4 non trivial subgroups. iff G is cyclic then for every divisior d of |G|, there exists only one subgroup of order d
right, because the order of the element is equal to the order of the cyclic subgroup
so since it's asking for "proper" subgroups I can't include the identity or the group itself
yes
how do I go about finding them
you can look at for example $\bZ/12\bZ$, this group is $\Set{0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11}$ and a cyclic group of order 12
yes yes yes no
thanks, i'll try that
I need to show that for each $n \in \mathbb{N}, \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z}$ has a unique subgroup with order n. I found that $\frac{1}{n} \in \mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z}$ generates a subgroup $U$ of order n. I'm struggling a bit to show the uniqueness. I've tried assuming that there exists another subgroup V of order n, taking $x = \frac{p}{q} \in V$, then somehow showing with Lagrange's theorem that x must lie in U. I don't know whether this is the wrong approach or whether I am just too dumb to finish this off.
MatrixMaker
There is a math stackexchange thread about this but it hasn't really helped me https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/66145/mathbbq-mathbbz-has-a-unique-subgroup-of-order-n-for-any-positive-inte
AH, maybe if I say that $ord(V) = n \implies \exists v \in V: ord(v) = n$
MatrixMaker
but that's not true in general, ah
all subgroups in Q/Z by gcd property are cyclic maybe that will help you
thanks, I will try showing that it is cyclic first
what does the set of torsion elements tell us about the module
it is very explicit
well
In itself, the set of torsion elements is already interesting
But it is a submodule and a direct summand of the module M
In some cases
If a set of linear operators is simultaneous diagonalizable, I wonder if \textit{the set of simultaneous eigenvectors} is unique.
Rigorously:
Given a set of simultaneously diagonalizable endomorphisms on a finite dimensional vector space V, the definition of simultaneous diagonalizability guarantees the existence of a set of eigenvalues corresponding to a basis consisting of simultaneous eigenvectors. Now for each eigenvalue $\lambda$ denote the eigenspace $E_\lambda$. Then is the disjoint union $\bigsqcup E_\lambda\setminus {0}$ all the simultaneous eigenvectors? i.e. Is it possible to have another vector not in the disjoint union, such that the vector is also an eigenvector of all the linear operators?
Mattuwu
Well, you're gonna need some conditions on the operators definitely
You can have trivial examples like taking 10 different multiples of the identity, since any basis is a simultaneous eigenbasis
Then you can make that slightly less trivial by using block matrices which are all multiples of the identity on some subspace, say, to one again create multiple different simultaneous eigenbases
And so on
Maybe I've misunderstood what you're saying though
like I'm not sure what you mean by "the eigenspace", when all the operators will (presumably) have different eigenspaces in general
Interesting, this is really counterintuitive
what's gonna be my best way of saying these 4 cosets are isomorphic toZ4 when taken as a group?
Show that coset (2) has order 4
Ok so for finding real closed non-isomorphic subfields of C, it should suffice to find two elements a, b of order 2 in Aut(C/Q) which are not conjugate
thanks!
I still didn't get much further here. Could I have some more pointers?
Right now, I'm trying to assume that U is any subgroup of order n, then I pick $a = min{q \in (0, 1]: q + \mathbb{Z} \in U}$
MatrixMaker
then a should be the generating element of U, but I don't know how to proceed showing that.
Suppose there is some r in (0, 1] which is in the subgroup, not a multiple of a
Show that some power of an element of order n is of the form [1/n] in Q/Z
Since this has order n this show all subgroups of order n are generated by [1/n] and are equal
[] here refers to the equivalence class in the quotient
Where is this from
Omg, I did it. Thank you @quiet pelican @next obsidian @ember field
Interesting, makes sense. You can drop the order 2 condition, I think, since every non-trivial automorphism of C has order 2 (it's redundant). But do you know of any specific automorphisms of C besides conjugation, much less ones non-conjugate to it?
Isaacs' Algebra
Late to the party, but you could do it like this: first show that if x is an element of Q/Z and you write it as a fraction m/n in [0,1) with m&n coprime, then the order of x is n. This can be used to show that \langle 1/n \rangle is the unique cyclic subgroup of order n. If H is now your arbitrary subgroup of order n, bring all the elements of H to a common denominator a, say. This embeds H in the subgroup \langle 1/a \rangle, making H cyclic (as a subgroup of a cyclic group). But H has order n and is cyclic, so H=\langle 1/n \rangle.
||I mean you can't really describe any, the existence of nontrivial non-conjugation automorphisms relies on choice and is nonconstructive||
THanks
The trivial automorphism is a conjugation as well, right?
Also, that's interesting and unsatisfying at the same time 
Oh
Oh, yeah ofc
Why does that conjugation and aga^-1 type of conjugation have the same name?
Eh don't think there's any good reason lol
Well there can't really be one due to C being abelian as a group
But usually being conjugate implies some sort of symmetry between things which is definitely the case here
I see 
this is beautiful
It is not true that every non-trivial automorphism of C has order 2. We can use axiom of choice and transcendence bases of C over Q to produce such automorphisms
Ok wait this is the same as producing a real closed field K of cardinality same as R, such that K is not isomorphic to R
(The question originally asked to be clear, not the automorphism thing)
This is because alg closure of K, say K', will also then have cardinality |R|, and is a char 0 field. By using transcendence bases, we can show that two uncountable alg closed fields F, F' having same cardinality and same characteristic are isomorphic. So we can identify K' with C via such an isomorphism, and then get a field isomorphic to K as a subfield of C with dimension |C:K|=2
Taking K to be the hyperreals works
How to find the normalizer of subgroup of upper triangular matrices with 1's in the diagonals inside GL_3(Fp)
My homework says "Prove $A_n$ is normal"
Iced Sugar
what is An?
A_n usually refers to the alternating group on a set of n elements, or the set of even permutations of a set of n elements. The question seems a bit incomplete, as one refers to a subgroup as being normal. I assume the full question is to show that A_n is a normal subgroup of S_n, the symmetric group on a set of n elements.
oh yes
that is what the real question says
yeah ima have to study that because idk what the set of permutations of a set even is
ah yeah, it would be helpful to understand what the symmetric group is first. One way to think about it is as the collection of bijections from a set to itself, with the group operation being composition
there's a general theorem that if H is a subgroup of G with index 2, then H is normal in G. You could apply that here if you know the orders of A_n and S_n
another method is to recognize that if you conjugate an element of S_n by another element of S_n, the cycle structure is preserved
is an exterior algebra this? $$E = \bigoplus_{k = 0}^n \bigwedge\nolimits^k V$$
Neamesis
in the wiki they've said stuff about quotient of a tensor algebra or smth i dont get that 
it is
you obtain this from the tensor algebra by taking a quotient wrt. to v+w \otimes w+v because of alternating stuff
I think the point is basically just that like
You can either quotient stuff out from tensor products and assemble into the exterior algebra, or you can quotient stuff out from the tensor algebra first and then recover exterior powers from the grading
Fortunately the construction isn't very involved so it is fairly clear these r equivalent
oh hey a tensor algebra is like a fock space (or rather i guess the fock space is a tensor algebra) 
