#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 19 of 1
If this holds, and B is the inverse, then this formula https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy–Binet_formula should give us a linear combination of m × m minors is 1
ooh right
my algebra is shaky, is this a correct start to the argument that if $A$ is an arbitrary ring, $\mathfrak p$ is a prime ideal, $\mathfrak p_1 \subsetneq \mathfrak p_2$ are prime ideals of $A[T]$ that contract to $\mathfrak p$ in $A$, then $\mathfrak p_1 = \mathfrak p A[T]$? Not sure how to get a contradiction in the latter case
George!
I probably know no more algebra than you, but this looks correct (assuming A is commutative). I don't think you would get any contradiction though, p1 = pA[T] is a possibility since A[T]/pA[T] = (A/p)[T] is an integral domain and not a field, so pA[T] is prime but not maximal.
(OK, that only shows there has to be p2 bigger than p1 and prime, not necessarily that p2 also contracts to p, but taking s2 to be (X) and working backwards should give you an actual p2 = (p,X) strictly including pA[T].)
$\bQ[x]/(x^2+2) \cong \bQ[i\sqrt{2}]$ yes?
yes yes yes no
Hey everyone, i got a quick question here for exercise III.6.15 in aluffi’s chapter 0. to restate: Let $R$ be a commutative ring. Prove that a commutative $R$-algebra $S$ is finitely generated as an algebra over $R$ if and only if it is finitely generated as a commutative algebra over $R$. I don’t really understand what the difference between being finitely generated as a commutative algebra over $R$ is vs finitely generated as an algebra over $R$. We are assuming $R$ is commutative and $S$ is a commutative $R$-algebra so wouldn’t it automatically be the same thing?
iceberg56
doubtful lol - ah yeah I was hoping for something a bit nicer, so q_1 can be a bit bigger than p A_p[T] but still contract to p A[T]?
that makes sense but idk where to go from s_1 = s_2 (and A is commutative fwiw)
Oh I think s1 = s2 implies q1 = q2 implies p1 = p2
i was thinking that too but I wasn't sure if it's literally just contracting back
The first by Lattice Isomorphism Thm and the second by properties of prime ideals of localisations vs original ring
IG p1 = p2 would have to use that both p1, p2 are disjoint from A \ p
By the way, what exactly are you trying to prove?
uh this is a lemma in proving dim A[T] <= 2 dim A + 1
I mean, what is this?
Oh sorry i didn’t see the message where you explained what you were trying to prove
ah fair
Niceee
This is very neat
yeah i thought so until i realised my original proof of this lemma didn't work xd
what's the lattice isomorphism theorem btw lol
dont think i've had that term used
Ideal of R/I <=> ideal of R including I
to find the multiplicative inverse of $x+1$ in $\bQ[x]/(x^2+2)$ I have to find a polynomial $q(x)$ such that $(x+1)q(x) = x^2 + 2 + 1$ because then $(x + 1)q(x) = 1 \pmod{x^2 + 2}$, no?
yes yes yes no
not just x^2+2 on the right
you wanna find p and q such that
(x+1) * q + (x^2+2) * p = 1
why?
the same reason, if you go modulo (x^2+2), the second term dies and you get the inverse x+1
are p and q both polynomials
yep
why though? what's wrong with (x+1)q(x) = k*(x^2 + 2) + 1?
there may not be any solutions to that in general
hmm
how would I solve this though
i think you can use euclidean algorithm?
no this is wrong
@formal ermine what i would do is first consider x+1 in Q[x]
then find the inverse
the inverse is some big power series for sure
uh how would you treat A_p[T] as a localisation of A[T]? sorry if that's a stupid question
and then try and compute what it looks like when identifying by x^2+2
oh no I'm being silly nvm
you consider fractions
x + 1 has no multiplicative inverse in Q[x]?
it's (A \ p)^(-1) (A[T]) isn't it
it doesnt but it does in power series
wait just to confirm, you don't mean that k is a constant here, right?
I did mean that at first, but yeah a polynomial would also vanish :v
since you write q(x) and one place and k at the other, i was a bit confused
yes
got it
👍
you can use the extended euclidean algorithm
it's just like how you would solve 11x + 13y = 1
Troll solution:
1/(1+x) = 1-x+x^2-x^3….
= 1-x + x^2(1/(1+x)) but x^2=-2, therefore 1/(1+x) = 1-x -2/(1+x) so 1/(1+x) = (1-x)/3
Now ofc you can verify that this element really does work
how is that a troll solution
Infinite series are not legit in Q[x]/(x^2+2)
i forget when you want to use extended or not
it isnt a troll solution
Well, you can just start the proof by noting that the second equation holds
you can use that and then quotient to get same solution im pretty sure
idk what the quotient map turns into though
is there really a way to make sense of that? like actually using infinite series...
since sqrt(-2) has magnitude more than 1, i would have guessed otherwise
its like you have Q[x]->Q[x]\I induces Q[[x]]->idk
right, the evaluation maps only makes sense for x = 0?
you need a topology to make sense for other inputs
but yeah
this is in atiyah macodnald i think
i adic topologies
you could still do the same thing, but ofc in general this won't work...
(1+x)(1-x) = 1 - x^2 = 3 - (x^2 + 2)
so (1-x)/3 is an inverse
that does make sense...
wait so to confirm, we will make the ideal (x^2+2) smol
so in a sense it would be power series in (x^2 + 2)?
and not x
like Q[[x]] is the completion of Q[x] at the ideal (x)
i dont know exactly but you define a metric for the topology by making numbers closer to x^2+2 very small
yes
this is true
but then i feel we can't use the identity for Q[[x]] as Q[x]_{(x^2+2) hat} looks pretty different
what is Q[[x]]
ring of power series with coefficients in Q and indeterminate x
Hmm this might be a simple way to do it in Q[[x]]:
Let u = 1/(1+x) = 1-x+x^2(1/(1+x)) as before, so u = 1-x-2u+ (x^2+2)u. Therefore u = (1-x)/3 + (x^2+2)u/3. Now multiplying by 1+x on both sides, 1= (1+x)(1-x)/3 + (x^2+2)/3. But this is now the equation we need in Q[x]
what's the easiest way of showing that $\bZ_3[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)$ isn't a field? do I just show that the ideal isn't maximal by giving an "even bigger" ideal?
yes yes yes no
show that x^2+x+1 isn't irreducible
by factorizing it
(or by simply showing that it will have a root by plugging x = 1)
rightttttt
thanks
sounds like a dumb question but in $\bZ_2[x]/(x^2 + x + 1)$ the inverse of $x$ is $x + 1$?
yes yes yes no
yep
-x-1 ?
1 = -1
:3
o
Slurp more like not char 2-pilled
wait slurp = shuri?
its slurps fault
hi
hi cat bread
just reading artin rn
groups
(R,+)
That’s a good group
what's a bad group?
Kinda schnasty tho
{e}, obviously
nu
was about to say R+ but forgot that can be read as positive real numbers
{e} very good group
What’s your favorite group?
What’s my favorite group… 
I have pretty favorite rings
But groups hmmmm
my favorite group is end(G)
the identity element kinda confuses me
if im in a group like (Z,+) how does the identity element work
the endomorphisms form a ring
end in a groupoid :3
So like it would be an element e so that
x + e = x = e + x
For any x in Z
What element does that?
oh so it doesnt have to be 1
Yah so
1 is the identity in (Q \ { 0 }, 1)
0 is the identity in (Z, +)
It’s a symbol in this case
ah
Like you can make a group out of automorphisms
so an identity can be whatever
So like take the set of bijections of like {1,2} to itself
This is a group but no element like is “the number 1”
as long as 1a=a=a1 holds
But usually groups are written multiplicatively
me wanna cat pill cat bread
Which is why ppl use 1 cuz like our intuition says 1a = a
That makes sense
But when groups are abelian (if you know what that means) often times people write it additicely
So we would say a + b not ab
And in that case ppl usually denote the identity as 0
Cuz we want 0 + a = a
(Q*, +) 
Technically we could use the symbol 1 still, but then we’d be saying 1 + a = a
And that looks weird
Does that make sense tho cat bread?
yes
:D
So I guess the last thing is
Because of this
Sometimes people use e for the identity
ea = a = ae
edentity
Like when we write 1 or 0 sometimes we think we are dealing with the actual number
But that’s not the case
Silence, panda
ChmonkaS
Vegeta
oooh
vector space 
1_V = 0 >.<
No.
No.
1_V = 0_W0
owo
I get what you mean
vector spaces have no units so...
maybe it's an algebra
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/496784958430380033/1045026234733707364/image.png how would you do this problem? is the kernel of the action just {1}?
ig what i dont understand is how the bijection that g represents relates to the binary operation of G
so i dont know how id show that the kernel is closed under the group operation of G
No
Action is a homomorphism from G to Sym(A)
And it's a subgroup for standard reasons
what standard reasons
How to find the generators of the normalizer of the subgroup <(12), (34), (5,6), (7,8)> in s8 ?
Yes, (S^{-1}A)[T] = S^{-1} (A[T]) in general for S a subset of A and viewed as a subset of A[T] on the RHS.
That's actually not really troll, you could phrase it as “if r is an inverse, then r = 1 - X + X^2r” which is true since (1-X^2)r = 1-X.
ofc you got that from the power series, but it's not wrong to use that to guess what to prove
I'm reading the proof about how a submodule of a cyclic R-module is also cyclic (when R is a PID) and I want to make sure I understand a specific step.
Volkenborn
When they write S=Iv, are they saying that since R is an R-module over itself, every ideal I of R is a submodule, so S=Iv since you are just restricting R to I?
S=Iv comes from definition of I
S=Iv because S is defined to be cyclic group generated by v so its elements are v^i. I is defined to be the ideal quotient of S. and by its definition multiplying I by an element in S gives you S.
Im guessing you meant to ask Iv=Rsv step?
Yeah, I know that it is valid to use these sorts of things to guess equations, i meant that the manipulations themselves are not valid. Maybe in the (x) adic completion of Q[x]/(x^2+2) they are legit?
X is a unit in Q[X]/(X^2 + 2) though…
Oh right lol
Does this seem like an appropriate way to prove the statement?
Yee looks great
Thanks man!
That stumped me for a long time and your idea really helped me.
I wanted to turn it into my default language to make sure I knew how to do it properly on my own.
1st isomorphism theorem if you need to cite it specifically
By decomposition you get that M=Z/(q_1)+...+Z/(q_n) where q_1,...,q_n are prime powers that divide the order of M, say p^k-1. But you still don't know if the q_i are coprime, so you cannot conclude that this is cyclic straight away. It seems to me there's no point in looking at the structure theorems, because you have to do some extra work, which is like proving it without the structure theorems in the first place
Am I missing something?
sure
for M = F*, this means x^n - 1 has |F*| roots
yes
but you do not need the structure theorems for this argument
that's what I was saying
Let n be max(n | n is the order of some element of G), then x^n=1 for every element in G, but G is a field, so x^n-1=0 has at most n solutions
yea, structure theorem is a general result about modules over a pid, so ofc if you're looking at any finite subgroup of F*, then you definitely have to use something about the field
the first part isn't obvious
yep
like you don't need to talk about modules
you just use the euclidean algorithm or something I think
nah, it's a litlte bit more complicated than that
you first have to prove that for if there is an element of order n and and element of order m, then there exists an element of order lcm(n,m)
and the standard proof of this first shows this when gcd(n,m) = 1
and then given general n, m uses the prime factorization to find divisors n' and m' of n and m such that gcd(n', m') = 1 and lcm(n, m) = n' * m'
oh I see, so the structure theorem immediately gives you that
yep
I was just assuming that and saw no point
and even more directly if you use the invariant factor decomposition
M = Z/d1 + ... Z/dr where d1 | d2 | ... dr
the element of maximal order is (0, 0, ..., 1)
which is dr
yep
because by the field theory stuff you will have dr >= |M| = d1*...dr
which is only possible when M = Z/dr
thanks
was there an expression to say that a^n=1 in the case where n need not the order of a? Like saying it with words
something like a belongs to the exponent n or something, but idk if that meant that the order of a was n
n annihilates a
ah k
or just n kills a
yeah I guess that's cool
very violent terms >.<
that's standard terminology of a module
and in my context, im working with Z-modules, though defining (n,a)-> a^n
one of my professors uses the word "survives" when talking about stuff that doesn't get annihilated xD

topology/algebra question
B' is the closed ball in C, center ak,k and radius the sum on the right
why are eigenvalues of a matrix A contained in Dk
I have no clue, this seems out of the blue
Killing forms
what's a proper value of a matrix?
eigenvalue
sry🤦♂️ i used the french name
In mathematics, the Gershgorin circle theorem may be used to bound the spectrum of a square matrix. It was first published by the Soviet mathematician Semyon Aronovich Gershgorin in 1931. Gershgorin's name has been transliterated in several different ways, including Geršgorin, Gerschgorin, Gershgorin, Hershhorn, and Hirschhorn.
np
another question... if i show you this equality between endomorphisms, is there some property you can deduce quickly
with alpha a number
that if I take G(x) = x o g - g o x then G^n(f) = alpha^n f ?
i did not get the discussion part
left side is [f, g], right side is alpha f and G(x) = [x, g]
why do they have small norms... we have no condition on the norms
they don't in general
but if they do, then the Gershgorin circle theorem tells you that the eigenvalues are close to the diagonals
how did you deduce this?
and wdym by [f,g]
by induction
commutator
so basically, this G is a linear transformation in the vector space of endomorphisms
and your equality tells us that f is an eigenvector of G with eigenvalue alpha
Does anyone have an idea for the first part? I was thinking about inducing a representation from the subgroup H = <r> to Dn. Although I'm a little confused about how I should think about this basis.
[fg] is gfg^-1f^-1
no?
wel... not really
you're just saying that because you are thinking about groups
and commutator is a more general concept
whats commutator for a function
Ive never heard of it i just wikied it rn
it's more a commutator for a ring, you know
the ring of endomorphisms of a vector space
or more precisely an algebra
Ah i see
anyway, if you think about this in terms of matrices A, B
[a,b]= ab-ba
then commutator [A, B] = AB - BA
and whats it significance
how :p ... ok if its 0 then theyre commutative... otherwise do they indicate something?
space of matrices with [A, B] forms a Lie algebra so that might be somehow significant
not really, but think as if they do
I would suggest to do it directly. just show that the images of r and s in GL(V) satisfy the usual relations, R^n = S^2 = (RS)^2 = id
that's what I do
how did you see this quickly?
or did you see it before
hmm ok ill give it a try.
ok so what do they mean by axes?
I don't like when people call me a genius after I haven't done literally anything
but out of politeness.. thanks I guess
It's kind of vague and I wouldn't sink into what they're saying.
They're just stating a point that one disk can have multiple eigenvalues
fine... its coming more in context tho not for this question only
How do I even find the images of r and s?
they're given to you 
i just denoted it by R as pi_e(r) was too much to type :p
that's what generators and relations are good for. you can very easily construct maps out of groups defined via them
yeah I'm not sure I understand too well how I would obtain the image from R v{m }= v{m+1}
and the other equation given
so you need to check that R^n is the identity map on V
this can be done by checking that on basis elements
where you could use the definition of R on v_{k}
does this make sense?
Yeah it does
R is the image of r under the group homomorphism
recall that constructing a group homomorphism <X|R> --> G only requires you to find a set function X --> G such that the relations are satisfied
this is what I had forgotten
how does the second row cover both a and b?
.
if a and b are eigen values
this is the example in the wiki page
I managed to show what you said, thanks alot!

How does uniqueness follow tho?
it's because D_n is generated by r and s
if you tell where r and s go, image of everything is determined!
ahhh and thus any other such ones will give the same homom
understood. I need to freshen up my group theory
Am I being stupid, how is V isomorphic to $V \oplus V$? They have different dimensions no?
ΣAC
are they taking countable to mean not finite?
right that clears things up, i was like uh 1+1 is not 1
yeah my courses have usually said finite sets are countable
yea, the book should have just wrote countably infinite
whats the obvious map here? v goes to (v,v)? but this isnt surjective surely
ah so can i send a basis of V "diagonally" to V+V?
pick a basis (v_0, v_1, ...) and define the map
v_n --> (v_{n/2}, 0) when n even
v_n --> (0, v_{n-1/2}) when n odd
diagonal won't be enough, as that map isn't surjective
here by "obvious" i meant a natural map
i meant as in like cantor diagonal argument
you would do that for to get a bjection between N^2 and N
and not N and {0, 1} x N
but yea, you could do that :p
and so it would just be this
got it thank you
I have two versions of the density theorem here. My question is why does the first one only state surjective, and the second one has isomorphism. I'm not sure what extra condition makes the second one an isomorphism
Ohhh, ok thanks. Is it easy to see why the additional condition for group algebra C[G] implies isomorphism?
Any chance you have a hint I could use for part (b) of the same question?
My idea was to show the same relations hold for the induced representation. However I haven't found a way to.
another q - I want to calculate the height of (T, 2) in Z_(2)[T], I guess you just need to argue that every prime ideal strictly contained in (T, 2) is principal (then principal ideals are of height 1 since we're in noetherian ring that's an integral domain) but it's not coming to me why that's true
we obviously don't have anything like bezout which was my first thought
sorry i was in a lecture
Let G = D_n and H = <s>
so you have the one dimensional representation. Then this induces an [G:H] dimensional representation
det
so you already know that this is a representation of G, no need to check that the relations are satisfied
to show that this is isomorphic to the old representation, find a careful basis of this such that the action of G matches exactly like above!
can someone help me with the injection proof?
I dont quite understand what they want with injection from S -> S
Ive only had like injection from a set on the natural numbers before for example
If f(z_1) = f(z_2), then z_1 = z_2.
Show this for all z_1 and z_2 in S.
That's what it means to be an injection.
ahh okay
@vocal patrol and not expressed in notation: a function is injective when every output only ever is mapped to by at most 1 input. i.e. two inputs can't map to the same output
any hint on how I would do this? \
\
Let $R$ be euclidean and $x, y \in R \setminus \Set{0}$. Let $z_0 = x, z_1 = y$ and $$z_{j + 1} = \begin{cases}z_{j - 1} \text{ mod } z_j, &\text{if } z_j \neq 0 \ 0, &\text{if } z_j = 0\end{cases}$$. Show that an $n \in \bN_0$ exists such that $z_{n + 1} = 0$. Show that $z_n = \operatorname{gcd}(x, y)$ if $n$ is minimal.
yes yes yes no
first, for general euclidean domain the notation a mod b makes no sense
for a notation to make sense, it should represent something and only one thing
here a mod b represents a whole class of elements
but i'm sure you want a particular element which is small with respect to the euclidean valuation
but the problem is, in general this is not unique!
it's on my homework sheet
even for Z it is not unique, but we usually fix that be demanding it to be non-negative
okie, then how did they define it?
they didn't lol
.<
yea i understand what you're trying to say
but i feel one should be careful about what they write
like when we do integers we can say 100 mod 11 = 1 or we can say it is -10
no one stops us
but anyway, that's just a rant :p
the euclidean algorithm doesn't really depend on the choice
and it will give you the gcd (upto a unit) whatever the choices you make
oh is that a different version of the euclidean algorithm
for Z, we usually insist the remainders to be non-negative
but other than that, it's cool
for example, if you don't want that assumption, then you can often finish the algo faster
98 = 9 * 11 + (-1)
11 = (-11) * (-1) + 0
so gcd(98, 11) = -1
as compared to
98 = 8 * 11 + 10
11 = 1 * 10 + 1
10 = 10 * 1 + 0
in either case we get that gcd up to units is 1
okay so for the first thing we needa show can I just show that $z_{j + 1} < z_{j}$?
yes yes yes no
(unless z_j = 0 of course)
< doesn't make sense in general euclidean domain
oh
and polynomials k[x] we use degree
whatever it's called
ig its called euclidean valuation
d(z_{j +1}) < d(z_j) ?
yep!
more precisely z_{j+1} = 0 or that
some people define d(0) = -infinity to avoid saying this
so anyway, after each step the size of the remainder reduces
and since size is a natural number it can't reduce forever
this would show that the procedure ends
now you need to show that it produces the gcd at the end
give that a thought, else i'll spoil you :3
only thing I could think of that it's literally the euclidean algorithm which we've shown to give out the gcd
like we have $x_{n - 2} = q_{n - 1}x_{n - 1} + x_n$ for the euclidean algorithm
yes yes yes no
if we take that mod $x_{n-1}$ we get
yes yes yes no
$x_{n-2} \text{ mod } x_{n - 1} = x_n$
yes yes yes no
we don't needa mod the right side because d(x_n) < d(x_{n - 1})
$x_{n-2} \equiv x_n \pmod{x_{n - 1}}$
yes yes yes no
yes
better :3
and that's the recursive function w/e we're dealing with
we just showed that this algorithm will end
but we will have to show it's gives out the gcd of the original two things
I mean like
we've shown that it's "equivalent" to the euclidean algorithm (at least the one we introduced in the lecture)
we also showed that it terminates in the lecture (gotta read up on the proof again later)
so can I just use those two facts?
yeah we've already proven that the euclidean algorithm terminates a couple of weeks ago
I mean
but did you show that the last non-zero remainder is the gcd
ah, then nice
Over a field F of char p, if the polynomial P(x)=x^p-a has no roots, for some a in F, then it is irreducible right? This polynomial is purely inseparable, so it splits as (x-z)...(x-z) where z is the pth root of a. Say P(x)=f(x)g(x) with deg f=n and deg g=m, f,g polynomials over F. Then z^n and z^m are both in F, with n+m=p and so gcd(n,m)=1, so by Bezout, we can write xn+ym=1, from where it follows that z is in F
sorry this was very sketchy and even reused variable names lmao
wait why gcd(n,m)=1 and why does that imply z is in F?
also i don't immediately see why z^n and z^m are in F
n+m=p, so gcd(n,m)=1 or p. If its equal to p then n=0 and m=p, so the factorization is trivial
Vieta
like (x-z)...(x-z) n times is in F[x]. Multiply everything out
ah okie
if (n,m)=1 then there exist integers x and y such that xn+ym=1, and since z^n and z^m are in F, z^{xn}z^{ym}=z^{xn+ym}=z is in F too
hmm makes sense

but ig you can also give a slightly shorter proof by looking at the coefficient of x^{n-1} instead of the constant term
its easier if you focus on the constant term
say P(x) = f(x) * g(x) where f and g are monic
then f(x) = (x-z)^n
and this should be in F[x]
this means the coefficient of x^{n-1} which is nz is in F
and 0 < n <p so n is invertible in F
which means z is in F
ig oen benefit is that i don't have to worry about reducing the power back to 1
but i have to clear out the coefficient instead
yeah yours is easier
idk I just thought about the constant term
its always fun to apply Bezout tho

is $31 - 2i \text{ mod } 6 + 8i = 1 + 8i$? (det pls don't yell at me for using that weird mod notation
)
yes yes yes no
that's what I'm trying to do
euclidean algorithm in the gaussian integers
I think you can check this stuff in wolframalpha or something similar tho
couldn't find it anywhere
I found the formula $a + bi \text{ mod } c + di = a + bi + (c + di)\ceil{-\frac{a + bi}{c + di}}$
yes yes yes no
but apparently it doesn't work 100% of the time or something?
then you will also learn programming meanwhile and you will make sure you know every logical step
I already know programming
so write it out, it doesn't take that much
it should be the lowest integer
wait idk what you just wrote
for integers I would just repeatedly subtract b from a until I can't no more
you will compute a/b and then approximate it with an integer, say q and then compute a - bq = r
here you have two gaussian integers, which i'll call alpha and beta
so you wanna compute alpha/beta
this is same as (alpha * beta conjugate)/|beta|^2
now approximate this to the closest gaussian integer q, and compute alpha - beta * q
try computing (31-2i)/(6+8i) for like in your example
just to make sure im not making an oopsy (my proof seems legit but im not trusting myself right now), in a UFD a prime ideal is of height 1 iff it is principal right?
hewwo @wooden ember 
hellu
thought i already did this, but i cant remember how
You need the ideal to be nonzero, but yes
is this true in general btw?
naw
that a non-zero prime ideal contains a non-zero prime element
you can have principal ideals that arent of height one
lemme think of an example if im not being stupid
ig i assume that factorizations exists, then every non-zero prime ideal will contain irreducibles
but they may not be prime 
me no know commie algebruh >.<
which in particular says a principal ideal must be of height 1 in a domain
i dont know the theorem either but ive heard it pop up a few times
just to be clear, phi is a homomorphism here

yee this is true
you need to prove that phi(g)^-1 = phi(g^-1)
which is same as showing phi(g) * phi(g^-1) = 1
Does the group $\textup{Aut}(\overline\bQ/\bQ)$ have a name?
Croqueta
Lmfao
That’s the absolute Galois group of Q
It’s like, the central object of study in NT

And we know very little about it 
but like i just didnt know the name lol and tried searching for a wikipedia entry and didnt succeed
Let 5^{1/7}=x and 7^{1/5}=y. To show Q(x,y)=Q(x+y) isnt the following argument sufficient? Consider the tower Q<Q(x)<Q(x+y)<Q(x,y). The full extension has degree 35, [Q(x):Q]=7, and since Q(x)!= Q(x+y), if Q(x+y)!= Q(x,y), Q(x+y) will lie strictly in between Q(x) and Q(x,y), but [Q(x,y): Q(x)]=5 is prime, so that's impossible (by multipilcativity of the degree again).
is this argument fine?
Maybe I'm missing something, but isn't showing that e.g. Q(x,y)/Q is of degree 35 and that Q(x+y) isn't Q(x,) harder than just explicitly showing that x and y are in Q(x+y)?
but if I assume that the argument is correct, right?
I dont know how you would explicitly show that anyway, if you mean by that an expression involving x+y that will equal x or y
uhm maybe its not that bad actually
uwu
UwU

0ᆺ0
OwO
^.^
^oᆺo^
^w^
OwO
.<
where can I find lang algebra pdf with bookmarks?
You could bookmark it yourself. It doesn't take that long.
I did bookmark the first part like some time ago when I was bored
but it does take time lmao
or i don't know how to do it then
i cant believe theres not a circulating pdf of lang with bookmarks tbh
Is the definition of the free group functor such that F(id_X):=id_FX or can this be shown?
you need to prove that
to be a functor you need send objects to objects and morphisms to morhpism such that composition and identity are preserved
so if you're claiming that taking free groups forms a functor, you have to show all that
So to show that is suffices to show that it makes this diagram commute.
But it's unclear to me why F(id_X) couldn't map a generator x_i to a different one x_j
the commutativity ensures x_k maps to x_k
I am trying to show it commutes
okie, so first lemme ask, what does the functor do on morphisms?
say you have a function f : X --> Y
what's Ff : FX --> FY?
I guess you would want to define this to be the map induced by f.
and what is the map induced by f?
The map that linearly extends f to words on X
"linearly" is a weird word :p
I think so as well, but I see a lot of people use it
So I guess it's a consequence of that that the identity maps to the identity
the point is, by the universal property of free groups, to define a map from FX --> G, you just need to give a set function X --> G
and like you say, the map FX --> FY is obtained by extending the map X --> Y --> FY
to get the square
yee
so what i was saying was, that by definition of F on morphism, this diagram is forced to commute
I understand, I was being stupid and not thinking of what the definition is for mapping general functions between sets.
Well I think one way to do it is to relate the min poly of y over K with the min poly of y over L [possibly after passing to a Galois closure of M]
(at least that's what I did when this was on my homework as well xd)
Is it true that the only representable G-action is the action of G on itself by left multiplication ?
you can define the separability degree of an extension L/K [L:K]sep as the number of ways you can extend the inclusion K→Ω (where Ω is an algebraically closed field containing K) to L. You can check that [L:K]sep = [L:K] iif L/K is separable and [L:K]sep is multiplicative
by representable do you mean that you are viewing a G-set as a functor 𝓑G→Set ?
you have only one representable functor
If BG is the group as a category, then yes
yes
so you have only one representable functor (spanned by the point of 𝓑G)
which is indeed the right G action on G
but you have many representable functors
a representable functor here would be a G-set isomorphic to the right G-action on G
I believe that these G-sets are exactly G-torsor (it means that they are satisfying the property that the action of G is free and transitive)
what
doing what
yes, this is a strategy of proof
your idea using a primitive element might work as well
I think you don't need primitive element theorem though like
(sorry here I meant one functor represented)
If you can show y is separable over K then you can show any element in M is separable over K
yes, the strategy I suggest doesnt use primitive elements
oh ok
Yours would be my preferred way too XD
Tbh I am now scared there is a flaw w my argument lol
Tbf I think it is okay
okay so yes it turns out the question I had required a specific type of field extension lol
well it assumed the smaller extension was galois
not sure why lol
it does :(
i think the key thing is basically given an irreducible polynomial in K[x] then like you can like turn it into an irreducible poly in F[x] by making it stable under the action of Gal(K/F) lol
but obviously if you don't have a galois group that doesn't work
anyway you made me realise an error i made w my hw (basically a step i didn't justify which turned out to be fine but needed justification lol) so i have just corrected my submission XD
Do you want to show it only for finite extensions? It also works if we don't assume so
Do you know anything about the degree of separability?
If not, I would personally use the primitive element theorem
$L = K(\alpha), ; M = L(\beta) = K(\alpha)(\beta)$ for some $\alpha \in L, ; \beta \in M$. We get $\operatorname{irr}(\beta, L)$ divides $\operatorname{irr}(\beta,K)$ and you know that $\operatorname{irr}(\beta, L)$ is separable by assumption. Suppose that $\operatorname{irr}(\beta, K)$ is not separable, then the characteristic of $K$ must be greater than zero since every irreducible polynomial over a field with characteristic 0 is separable. Now being inseparable is equivalent to: $\operatorname{irr}(\beta, K) = f(x^p)$ for some irreducible $f$ and the divisibility from before implies that $\operatorname{irr}(\beta, L) = g(x^p)$ for irreducible $g$ and the characteristic for $L$ is also $>0$, so again $\operatorname{irr}(\beta, L)$ inseparable, which is a contradiction, so $\beta$ is separable over $K$
lewis
oh
that's the minimal polynomial
prob had different notation
If you didn't have the theroem I used yet, it is quite easy to show:
f irreducible over a field K: if char(K) = 0, then f is separable and for char(K) > 0: you have the equivalence that f is not separable iff f' = 0 iff f = g(x^p) for some g
Say K<L=K(a), then [L:K]sep is very explocitly counting the number of distinct roots the minimal polynomial of a has
Embeddings and their extensions are a recurrent theme in gield theory
And the degree of the minimal polynomial of a (over K) is the degree of the extension
I'm reading this:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Root_system
In mathematics, a root system is a configuration of vectors in a Euclidean space satisfying certain geometrical properties. The concept is fundamental in the theory of Lie groups and Lie algebras, especially the classification and representation theory of semisimple Lie algebras. Since Lie groups (and some analogues such as algebraic groups) and...
doesn't 2 entail 3?
oh I see..
Hey I’ve been trying to teach myself Galois Theory, does anyone have any advice on how to approach this?
how can a polynomial be irreducible in $\bQ[x]$ but reducible in $\bZ[x]$? like, if it's irreducible $\implies$ its roots lie outside of $\bQ$, but since $\bZ \subset \bQ$ they'll also lie outside of $\bZ$, no?
yes yes yes no
It can’t be?
Roots lying outside of $\mathbb{Q}$ only means that the polynomials doesn't have linear factors in $\mathbb{Q}$
ImHackingXD
Any factorisation of a polynomial in Z[X] is also a factorisation in Q[X] so reducible in Z[X] => reducible in Q[X]
No
Oh wait
yeah and since Z subset Q it doesn't have linear factors in Z either, no?
||2(x - 1)||
Ye
||Factors in Z[X], but 2 is a unit in Q[X]||
I know that $x^5+x^2+1$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{F}_2 [x]$, so $\mathbb{F}_2 [x]/x^5+x^2+1$ is a field. Can it be written as a direct sum of fields?
ImHackingXD
I don't know if the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups could be applied here
I don't think there is a direct sum of fields...what definition are you using?
I'm not saying there is, I'm asking if there is or if not if there is a reason why it can't be written like that
Definition of which part exactly?
direct sum of fields
A better way to say this is that that the direct sum of fields is not a field.
I guess the usual, the field can be written uniquely as a sum two elements of other fields
If you do the usual Cartesian product with the operation defined pointwise, then it won't be a field since (0,1)(1,0)=(0,0), and thus not even a domain.
Oh but what you said is different
Ok but, how do I know there are no two specific fields such that, somehow, their direct sum becomes $\mathbb{F}_2 [x]/x^5+x^2+1$?
?
OK never mind, maybe you meant what I described
I'm not sure I understand your question here.
ImHackingXD
If I'm understanding you correctly, what you wrote is a field so it can't be the direct sum of two fields.
Or even more simply, it's a domain, but the direct sum of two fields is never a domain so that can't be the direct sum of two fields.
go through chapters 5 and 6 of lang, and do all the problems
berkeley's math 250 has problem sets for you as well, if you want a specific order
that's how i did it, and that implies it's the Best (TM)
What are good texts that focus specifically on multilinear algebra?
Based logic
What’s L_i?
Is this the left-derived functor?
yes
I don’t think it’s true?
You need like one of F or U (can’t remember which rn) to like
Send projectives to projectives
Assuming that like you basically see that applying U sends a projective resolution of any object A to a projective resolution of U(A)
Oh nvm
This is fine
So I think this falls out of a Groth Spectral sequence for one
But you can just do it by hand
So fix a projective resolution P^• of an object A
Then the left-hand side is U(H^n(F(P^•)))
But note that an exact functor commutes with homology
So this is the same as H^n(UF(P^•))
But this computes L_i(UF)(A)
Yes
Write down a SES
0 -> A -> B -> B/A -> 0
Apply an exact functor F
Then you know that
0 -> FA -> FB -> F(B/A) -> 0 is exact
But this identifies F(B/A) with the cokernel of FA -> FB which is FB/FA
For $G$ a group, $H \subseteq G $ and $ K \triangleleft G$ subgroups, is it an abuse of notation to write $H/K$ for $\phi(H)$ with $\phi : G \to G/K$ the canonical epimorphism?
...........
Because something like $1/K$ seems funky
...........
This is standard notation
1/K doesn’t make sense here because you want H > K
Oh I see
You want H > K
Cool thanks
asking this again because I didn't quite understand it last time
how do I do modulo in the gaussian integers?
e.g. $(31 - 2i) \text{ mod } (6 + 8i)$
yes yes yes no
so
I have to find the smallest $s \in \bZ[i]$ such that $\frac{(32 - 2i) - s}{6 + 8i}$ is also in $\bZ[i]$?
yes yes yes no
if that's the case, then this program should do the trick, no?```py
num = complex(input("number: "))
modulo = complex(input("modulo: "))
upto = 1000
for rp in range(upto):
for ip in range(upto):
next = complex(rp, ip)
divided = ((num - next) * modulo.conjugate()) / (modulo * modulo.conjugate())
if divided.real.is_integer() and divided.imag.is_integer():
print(next)
exit()
nvm it gets stuck in an infite loop between 25i and 1+8i
Complex division is available in python you don’t have to do conjunction
epic
I'm getting a different result now lol
F
I'd say I'm fairly decent at coding already
NOOOOOOO
IT'S STUCK IN AN INFINITE LOOP AGAIN
do you know euclidean algorithm?
that's what I'm trying to do right now
Also
yessir
/ gives you float value
Why are you only considering positive ones?
One positive one negative could also work
Also I’m tired otherwise I would have tried
thanks
this was the issue
I've been struggling with this for the past 2 hours
Just part of coding
Yah
if G is commutative, then this is trivial, no
Not much of a question when G is abelian since then all subgroups are normal
any subgroup is normal
Sniped
Yeah, i was asking if it was true when G isn't commutative
Hint: ||If H is a subgroup generated by x_i, then H is normal iff g^-1 x_i g is in H for each i and g in G||
no need to, it's in spoilers
what's a characteristic subgroup again. Invariant under any automorphisms?
for that, what I said still works tbh. Just replace inner automorphism with arbitrary one
Its description tells you it’s characteristic
Oh, conjugation shuffles the generators
Or, wait
What's it called to multiply some element with another element on the right and its inverse on the left? lol
conjugation
ok, I'm not bludgeoning any terminology then lol
But my idea is that if g has order n then xgx^-1 also has order n
So xHx^-1 has the same generators as H which means they must be the same
yeah, good direction
well, if you have to, you can just look at what H looks like in terms of its generators
and that conjugating has the property that product of elements conjugated by the same element individually, is a product of those elements conjugated as this one big element
so basically, that it is a homomorphism
that's why Chmonkey mentioned characteristic subgroups, maybe it's a bit clearer to look at this in terms of automorphisms in general
am I confusing you?
One second, I'm just parsing that lel
Oh, so a conjugation is an automorphism
And H is a characteristic subgroup
How do we know it is tho?
Yep. The map which associates to an element its conjugate is called an inner automorphism.
a special kind of automorphism
well, $h\in H$ is of the form $h = x_1^{n_1}\cdot ...\cdot x_k^{n_k}$ where $n_i\in\mathbb{Z}$ and $x_i$ have order $n$
Is there a non commutative artinian ring which is noetherian?
Just had an exercise showing artinian implies noetherian in the commutative setting
i assume you mean not noetherian?
(Or a weaker question, we can allow the ring to be left artinian but not left noetherian, so say right noetherian)
Oh yeah mb
so apparently a right artinian ring is right noetherian and similarly for left
It is fairly tricky, but I forget how it goes. I may come back with a sketch proof in a bit.
I would like to prove that the kernel of the norm map in finite fields $N(a)=\prod_{j=0}^{m-1} \sigma^j(a), \forall a\in \mathbb{F}{q^m}^{\times}$ is of the form $\left{\frac{x}{\sigma(x)}: x \in \mathbb{F}{q^m}^{\times}\right}$. I have already shown that all the elements of this set are contained in the kernel, and that the kernel has $\frac{q^m-1}{q-1}$ elements. How could I show that the set $\left{\frac{x}{\sigma(x)}: x \in \mathbb{F}_{q^m}^{\times}\right}$ also has $\frac{q^m-1}{q-1}$ elements?
ImHackingXD
A brief summary of the proof. We have a canonical maximal nilpotent ideal called N(R) of any artinian ring. Then R/N(R) is semisimple and has very nice structure, in particular is noetherian. By considering the layers R/N, N/N^2, etc (there are only finitely many) we can argue that the whole thing is Noetherian.
N(R) is called the nilradical if you want to look it up
Yeah I know the nilradical
That doesn’t sound too bad but are you sure this works for the non commutative case?
Yes.
This is in-spirit the same as the commutative case
You just have to fiddle with the nilradical and how it works
Yeah the proof we had to do was prove the nilradical is a nilpotent ideal, say the ring has finitely maximal ideals then use that to show it’s of finite length as a module over itself
Still fiddling around with the last part
Ur too young to know this word
Pretty sure this isn't even a devissage
But smh my prof mentioned devissages last year
I mean
How could you ever hear of devissage? In how I know devisssage it’s a technique when you’re proving stuff about coherent sheaves lol
i dont get this, namely the x * y in (xN)(yN) and the line below that
why does that need to happen for the cosets to act like a group
also how is that equivalent to (xN)(yN) = xyN
You want to make sure that your binary operation in the group is unaffected by cosets
So the cosets xN and yN need to multiply to another coset
Naturally this should contain x and y which are in the two original cosets, which multiply to the coset with xy
sry wdym unaffected by cosets
If you multiply two elements in coset A and coset B
You want to get something always in the same coset
x is in coset xN and y is in coset yN
xy should be in the product of the cosets
hm
i think i got it now
by relating it to modular arithmetic
thanks
ok next
whats S3
A_n is a (nontrivial) normal subgroup of S_n

idk
whats A_n
the subgroup of even permutations
To argue this, I’m looking at a descending product of maximal ideals that eventually reaches 0. To conclude that this is a composition series can I say that a successive quotient is a R/m vector space for some maximal ideal of R (since it’ll annihilate the quotient) and this is artinian and northerian so of finite length
And thus I can extend my previous chain to be a composition series?
It seems correct to me but a hint given on the exercise is to use that the property of being artinian is inherited by sub and quotient modules, which I’m not using here
Yes you are
In each subquotient
You need that to be of finite length
Otherwise you’re pasting together things which aren’t finite
So you need to use that an Artinian vector space is finite dimensional
Yeah
When looking at the Schur Orthogonality relations. I am a looking for a few clarifications on whats actually happening.
-
Is basically what happening is (i) all inequivalent irreducible unitary representations such that all their entries are orthogonal and (ii) for a given inequivalent irreducible unitary representation, the only non orthogonal entries are when they the same in which case the inner product is 1/n?
-
Would this imply that all irreducible unitary representations of degree d have an orthonormal set ${ k\phi_{ij} | 1\leq i,j \leq d}$. And it would make sense for k to be the square root of d since then since all equivalence classes can be defined by representatives $\phi^{(1)}, \ldots, \phi^{(n)}$ with orthonormal sets for each phi in L(G) which implies that the sum of dimensions is less than or equal to the order of G due to linear independence in L(G). So there are finitely many equivalence classes?
ohNoiAmHere
The Galois conjugates of any x in L over F are a subset of the conjugates of x over K
Like, the roots of the min poly of x over F are a subset of the roots of the min poly of x over K
And by assumption all of the roots of the min poly over K live in L
Just ignore that
If you don’t know the term
S3 is the group of permutations of 3 things
They showed that every root of the minimal polynomial of x over F lives in L
This might be a really random trivial question, but I need this to show something way bigger: \
If we have a ring $R$ and a prime ideal $P \in R[x]$ and intersect $P \cap R$. Is this prime in $R$?
lewis
Yes, go prove it, it’s very easy
okay, nvm, i answered my own questioi
oh god...
For some reason, I couldn't prove it, using the definition of being prime
but you can just consider the embedding $R \to R[x]$ and the preimage of prime ideals are prime
lewis
Lmfao
i feel so dumb rn lmao
You really ought to be able to prove it directly
Like this is how I view it
But surely it isn’t that hard?
Like assume x,y in R such that xy in P\cap R
I'm just super lost right now 😂 For some reason I had problems with showing that it is in R
Oh yikes...I realize now what I've done wrong
Now x and y are also in R, so whichever one is in P is in P\cap R
well yeah...
I've been doing too much commutative algebra that I forgot how to do basic things like these
Thank you haha
Hahahaha np
Gal group of Splitting field
How does one go about proving that $(\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}))(\sqrt{3}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ without assuming one knows that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ is of the form ${a + b\sqrt{2} + c\sqrt{3} + d\sqrt{6}|a,b,c,d \in \mathbb{Q}}$?
Skid
Defintion? Like no matter what your definitions are it should pop out near immediately
We are using that Q(s) is the smallest subfield containing Q and element s which is isomorphic to Q[x]/((p)) where p is an irreducible polynomial with root in Q(s)
Subfield of what
Well in this case it is R
And then how do you extend that to Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
I don't know
Well you have to figure out what the definition of that is that you’re using
Or you won’t be able to make any progress, idk what to say






