#groups-rings-fields
1 messages ¡ Page 17 of 1
okay
what does a nilpotent function do to rank space exactly?
shrink it by 1 dimension minimum each time
?
I think the easiest way to see this is to note that $H^i(\mathsf{C}(\mathscr{F})(A^{\bullet})) = \mathrm{ker}(\mathrm{coker} d^{i}_{\mathscr{F}(A)} \to \mathscr{F}(A^{i+1}))$. Then apply $\mathscr{F}$ to $A^{i-1} \to A^i \to K^{i+1} \to 0$, where $K^{i+1} = \mathrm{ker}(d^{i+1})$, and use right-exactness to consider $\mathscr{F}(K^{i+1})$ as a cokernel.
walter
oh that looks terrible
can you translate that from wtf to english
lol walter i thought you were answering this question on lin alg and was worried why you were typing for so long
xd
Yeah, it shrinks the dimension by >= 1 each time
In such a way that eventually get 0, of course
@south patrol can I ask what you used to study AA

i don't have access to lectures because i'm still in high school but i am studying group theory right now
from a introductory book
also I don't understand this question :o
I learned from both Aluffi's book and Dummit and Foote
i heard aluffi takes a category theory approach
yeah, he introduces some basics of the language for a sort of "unified" exposition
some people say it's done well, others disagree. to each their own i guess
What part is confusing?
I don't know how to show closure, existence of inverse and identity
I mean, a^n is the identity given that a^n = 1
Ok, so let's start with showing that the identity is in H
as for inverses actually, if we have $a^m$ the inverse is just $a^{n-m}$
Ayanokoji
What is n in this context?
the power of the element
in H the identity is just a^n no?
Oh, I think I see the confusion
H is the set of elements of finite order, meaning it contains the elements g of the group such that g^n = 1 for some positive integer n. That doesn't mean the same n holds for all elements in the group. Does that make sense?
Yes
how would I show that the identity is in H though
Well, can you think of a positive integer such that 1^n = 1?
I guess maybe in this context it's less confusing to use e for the identity element
e^anything = e though
Right, but we just need to show that there exists some positive integer n such that e^n = e
In particular, we can let n = 1 -- we know e^1 = e so e has finite order
i think i got it from here
thank you
Happy I could help đ
Also, maybe this is obvious to you but it tripped me up a little when I was thinking about it so I might as well point it out. You can also view the cohomology as the cokernel of the inclusion of the kernel into the image (which I think makes the whole ker / im thing easier to see). In particular, there's a corresponding result for left exact functors that is maybe worth writing out explicitly.
i dont agree with u on those roots
bruh
roots can be found by inspection
not wolfram
the hell?
1+i has modulus root 2
no way its 4th power has modulus 0
im so confused
ohjhh ok my bad i f ked up
im still kinda confused
right nvm ur good
yes the question is simple
Ye
The part I donât understand is why homology is the kernel of that map
Do you see why there's a well-defined map from the cokernel of the differential to the next group?
Yes
Right, lifting representatives is fine because the differential will send anything in the image of the previous map to zero. Then the kernel of this map is just the collection of classes whose representatives are in the kernel of the differential
what does it mean to be a subgroup
you have to show that all of the subgroup axioms hold
x, y in H implies xy in H
inverse in H
identity in H
show these all hold
how do I show that closure holds
what does x in H mean?
x in H has the property that for some element g in G gx = xg
wait do i use associativity property or something lol
probably not
uhhhhhh
sorry i don't know how to approach this
yes
x in H, y in H
gx = xg
so what is the only obvious thing you can do to modify xyg
oh
xyg = ...
xyg = xgy
yes
= gxy
then the next only obvious thing
so putting the start and end togethert
xyg = gxy
so (xy) in H
done.
when proving that something is a subgroup, we always start with two elements x and y in H
and try to apply whatever set operation it is to them
with some property
here the property is xg = gx
but in general youll have some property that both x and y have
and you want to show xy also has this property
and its typically done in a similar fashion
huh
sorry I'm a bit confused
gx = xg
what would it mean for x inverse to be in H..
moonside
okay
yeah
can you start from $xg = gx$ to get the above?
moonside
This is crazy to me
because
you can think of every commutative ring as embedded in a field
well, no, every integral domain
zerodivisor moment
wait
yeah just integral donains
this sucks
every commutative ring is in some integral domain though
but the right idea is that commutative rings are secretly just rings of functions over a topological space where the value at each point can be taken in a field
wait
no every subring of an integral domain is integral
The way in thinking of it is this
every ring has a maximal ideal, hence a prime ideal, hence quotients into an integral domain
haha sometimes I've heard the verb 'covers' be used here. Every ring covers a field
yeah this is funny tho lol
every ring covers a division ring I should say, and the division rings are fields when they are commutative
also rn im trying to understand how intersection of two affine opens is the same as fiber product over the scheme
i was told to think of how localization commutes with tensor product
and then glueing
that's just using the right universal property to describe the intersections
open embeddings U1 -> X, U2 -> X, the universal property for the fiber product is like the simplest thing that maps into X via factoring through both U1 and U2, and that's the intersection embedding to both U1 and U2
but I think putting all the pieces together correctly to show the actual universal property you'd need those facts about localization
setwise its more intuitive though, you pick out the elements of U1 x U2 that look like (u1, u2) where like, both of the ui are just the names given to elements of the Ui, but identified as fundamentally the same element of X. So you're really looking at one element of X and how its called in the subsets U1 and U2 that it appears in. The pair (u1, u2) is like a pair of nicknames for the exact same element of X. So it's the intersection
Prove the following:
Maps Y -> U are the same as maps Y -> X whose set-theoretic image lands in U
This shows that U represents the functor sending Y to maps to X which land in U
From this and the functorial description of fibered products you see that U x_X V represents the same functor as U\cap V
This is my unironic suggestion to see it at a high level
are noetherian rings at all related to the idea of localizations of a ring
What makes you think so?
they're near each other in my prof's lecture notes 
localizations and noetherian rings are both deeply connected with topological notions underlying all commutative rings and the foundation of algebraic geometry
but they are not so directly related by their definition
being noetherian for example is not a local property
It is
But not at points

Anyway no, I would not say theyâre related
Theyâre both related to ring theory, but I would not say theyâre related unless youâre trying to draw really weak comparisons
? am I wrong about what local property means?
Well like it depends yeah?
The nice thing is in most situations (sometimes needing a finiteness hypothesis) itâs equivalent to say it holds at all points and holding on an open cover
But in this case they disagree so what âlocalâ means is kinda not clear but usually it means at primes I think
But I like to specify what sort of local it means
Like affine-local
Is a term ppl use
And (locally) Noetherian is affine-local
But cannot be checked on stalks
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
ok sure, I was using 'can be checked on stalks' but I guess the topological definition should be wrt open covers oops
Yeah
Thatâs what makes it nasty when they donât agree
Again usually with some amount of finiteness you can spread out something from a stalk to a nbd so they agree often
But sometimes that means assuming things are Noetherian so it doesnât really@work when wanting to ask if Noetherian is local 
lol nice. well that was a good way to scare off someone asking an honest algebra question :\
I know that the group R/Z is isomorphic to the unit circle by the first isomorphism theorem
By considering the homomorphism (x,y) ⌠(exp(2pi i x), exp(2pi i y)), we also have R^2/Z^2 â S^1 x S^1, right?
If you use the âobviousâ copy of Z^2 (R^2/Z^2) â (R/Z)^2
So thatâs another way to see that isomorphism
ah ok, the question's asking me to show R^2/Z^2 â [0,1) x [0,1), so I was worried I was doing something wrong since it seemed too easy
Hm is this as topological spaces though
no just groups
cause that is different to just using isomorphism theorems
Wait but [0,1) as a group
what does that mean
I am confused lol
i assume modulo 1
Oh hm okie
Any hints on how to find the order of the normalizer/the generators of the subgroup $H = <(12), (34), (5,6),(7,8)>$ of $S_8$? I thought of using orbit stabilizer thm but I got stuck on finding the size of conjugacy class of H
ru0xffian
Hey, I have a question about this result that âwe see at onceâ
For reference, this is from the modules over principal rings section of the modules chapter in Langâs algebra (pg 150)
Iâm pretty sure that given such a direct sum decomposition, the y_i are independent as (y_i) being cyclic implies it is isomorphic to R/(a). Therefore it has a as an exponent and so there exist a_i such that a_iy_i = 0 for all I
However, if the y_i are independent, Iâm not really sure how to show that we can construct that direct sum decomposition :/
It suffices to show that every element on the module in the LHS is uniquely a sum a1y1 + ⌠+ am ym
Take two representations of an element on the LHS, subtract them, and apply independence
Ah right that makes sense, thanks so much
npnp
Any conjugate of H will be another subgroup of the same form <(ab), (cd), (ef), (gh)>, (i.e. a subgroup generated by four disjoint 2-cycles) and all such subgroups are conjugate since going from one to another amounts to "relabeling" the 8 elements of the underlying set, which can always be done via conjugation. So there's only one orbit. To compute its size you need to count how many distinct subgroups there are of this form. Probably something involving the multinomial coefficient?
How would i got about finding the generators/relations for $S_3$?
henryduke
Im not great with generators/relations, i dont really understand how to derive them
No, a monoid is a set with an associative operation with the existence of an identity
It does not mean that elements have inverses
It makes it possible to define what inverse even means, but it doesnât ask that everything be invertible
No
Consider Z
Just by example you see that this is not true
Or maybe Z\{0} under multiplication
If itâs finite
Then the answer is yes
No
Cancellation is equivalent to saying the map x -> yx is injective for all y
(Multiplying on the left)
But this doesnât mean 1 will be in the image
Taking Z for example again, multiplying by 2 is injective but doesnât have 1 in the image
But this gives a proof for finite monoids, because then an injection is also surjevtive by pigeonhole
So 1 is in the image, so yx = 1 for some x
What does divisibility mean here?
Then yes
By taking c = 1
No
Again, take Z as an example
Lol
This is on page 860 of Dummit and Foote. Could anyone explain why it's true? CG is a group ring and G is a finite group.
It says it's a vector space. It's clearly an abelian group. Can you guess how you might multiply by an element of C? Maybe first think how you multiply by elements of CG.
I think multiplication by an element of C looks like scaling in each component, so we could just define the action of C to be this scaling?
that seems to give a vector space structure
but Iâm not sure why the dimension is at most n
i got that the lie algebra is made of matrices of the form
x 0
0 y
and of the form
0 z
0 0
but I'm confused because these don't constitute a space closed under addition
How did you go about computing the Lie algebra in the first place?
How did you even get something that isn't a vector space?
G looks 2-dimensional so its Lie algebra should be two-dimensional too
rakko
@spice whale
hm
yeah i was doing something weird with like saying D(A*A²) = D(A*)A² + A*D(A)A + A*AD(A)

yeah no clue either
my main problem is trying to prove the converse
or related
Have you never seen a differential equation before?
like i got that DA(0) = a b
0 2a
I'm not sure what to set up
...
a(t) = 1 + at works. So does a(t) = exp(at).
how did you get these
I take a matrix $$M = \begin{pmatrix} a & b \ 0 & 2a \end{pmatrix}$$ and I want to show that it is of the form $A'(0)$ for some curve $$A(t) = \begin{pmatrix} a(t) & b(t) \ 0 & a(t)^2 \end{pmatrix}$$ in $G$.
rakko
In this case, the differential equations you need to solve are relatively simple, so you can just write down A(t) that works.
Ignore that message. That only works if you already know the Lie algebra is that.
Let me think for a moment on the matrix exponential thing. I am not so sure anymore.
Ok, yeah, I just needed a sanity check. The matrix exponential absolutely works here.
how undelete message?
Generally if G is a Lie group and H is a Lie subgroup, the one-parameter subgroups of H are those of G whose initial velocities lie in the Lie algebra of H.
Taking a(t) = 1 + at works, but then you won't get a one-parameter subgroup for A(t). (This isn't required, but it is nice.)
can't
ask a mod 
To show that Z has no composition series, is it enough to say "Z has no simple subgroups" or am I missing something?
suppose it does
every subgroup of Z is normal anyways
so suppose 0= a_0Z subs a_1Z subs... subs a_nZ = Z such that ai+1Z/aiZ is simple for any i <n
Thanks, I know the rest.
I just wanted to double-check (if there were a composition series, it'd have to end with a simple subgroup, but there are none in Z).
If you have a composition series, the penultimate element G_1 in the chain has to be a simple group, since the quotient G_1/G_0=G_1/0=G_1 is assumed to be simple.
Every non-trivial subgroup aZ of Z has the non-trivial subgroup a^2Z. Isn't that enough?
its that ai+1Z/aiZ is of prime order --> a group is cyclic so if d|order of group then g^d is a subgroup of order n/d where g is a generator
I don't know what you're talking about, what do subgroups of Z/nZ have to do with this? Yes, Z/pZ is the only simple cyclic group, I'm talking of something else.
If 0=G_0<=G_1<=...<=G_n=G is a composition series, then G_1 has to be simple. Z has no simple non-zero subgroups, the end.
it being a composition series means Gs are normal subgroups of Z such that Gi+1/Gi is simple
G1 has to be normal
and it is
are you confusing that the G_0s themselves have to be simple?
Gi+1/Gi are not subgroups of Z
@glossy crag
Man, what are you babbling about, I don't understand.
Forget the normality condition for a moment, Z is abelian so everything's normal.
define a composition series for me please
A finite tower of subgroups G_i, each normal in the next one (something that loses meaning in Z), such that the consecutive factor groups are simple (or such that every G_i is maximal in its successor, whichever).
From this definition follows that if 0<=G_1<=...<=G_{n-1}<=G is a composition series, then G_1 is a simple group.
Explain to me how that's wrong.
G1 is the trivial group
0=G_0<=G_1<=...
or G_0 yea whatever
G_1 is simple, yes?
G1/G0 is
....
G_0 is 0, so G_1/G_0 is isomorphic to G_1
Hell, you could even say they're equal
Having a composition series is equivalent to saying it's Arti and Noeth. Is Z Arti?
I know that much, I was talking about an "elementary" proof, not involving chain conditions.
it being a composition series also says each subgroup is a maximal proper normal subgroup of the next
well I believe it does imply then
Yes, and? I'm saying G_1 is simple, you're telling me I'm wrong and replying with something irrelevant.
Because if aZ is a non-zero subgroup then it has the non-trivial subgroup a^2Z.
and?
And that makes aZ not simple. Every subgroup of Z is of this form, what else is there to say?
yea
okay cool
this should work ig
idk i just thought of contradicting it havingf a composition series by orders
Man, you wasted like 15 minutes of my time with this...
of the factors themself
Z Is not simple and any nontrivial subgroup is isomorphic to Z
Or that, whichever.
indeed
yea brain fart
mb
Happens to the best of us.
Still havenât figured it outâis what I said on the right track?
yeah seemed to be on the right track I think you have the correct action in mind, so now try to think if you can come up with an n-dimensional complex vector space that these vector spaces are sitting inside. That guarantees the dimension is \le n
Is one able to restrict the direct product theorem, if H, K normal to G, H intersect K = {e} then HK isom H x K to...if HK is a subgroup of G, H and K normal to HK and H intersect K = {e} then HK isom H x K?
The proof we use seems valid for both cases but I'm unsure
hi there! Would anyone have any advice on how to prove this surjectivity? Also, does the fact that A is an integral domain have any weight on part (a)?
how I'm reading that is that the mapping takes a polynomial in A and maps it to the constant coefficient
Indeed.
So if you're given a in A, what polynomial can you pick that gets mapped to a?
As long as the constant coefficient is a, yes.
The constant polynomial whose only term is a works.
I suggest you work through the exercise and see if you use the fact that A is an integral domain or not.
sounds good!
A hint for part b, if you need it, is ||use the answer to part (a)||.
It's pretty much a one liner if you know the right theorem.
okay so about that
for (a), the ker(h) would just be when our constant coefficients are 0
Right.
so something like x^2 + 2x would be in there
try the isomorphism phi:HxK -->HK; phi(h,k) = hk
Here's a hint: ||if the constant term is zero, you can factor out x. What ideal does this look like?||
Sure let me try! $ker(h) = {x \in A[x] : h(x) = 0}$?
oh wait
haha that doesn't help
x in A[x]?
x isn't an arbitrary element of A[x], so the set on the right doesn't make a lot of sense.
It is true that x is in the kernel of h, though.
This is what we used to prove the original theorem, which to me, appears unchanged if u restrict to the subgroup HK
try to prove it
post it here
i will tell you if there is any mistake ( if i can haha )
One way to write "p(x) is in the kernel of h" is that p(x) can be written as x times something.
okay thank you (._.)
If p(x) is in the kernel of h, then p(x) has no constant term. This means that we can factor x out; this, itself, means precisely that there exists a polynomial q(x) such that p(x) = xq(x).
Does this remind you of anything?
Any certain kind of ideal, perhaps?
đ
it's prob pretty obvious but I want to make sure
I want to say <x> here, but that seems wrong immediately
That is exactly it. <x> is the set of all polynomials of the form xq(x) for some q(x).
So we at least know that the kernel of h is contained in the ideal <x>. Is it equal to <x>?
(What's the constant term of an element of <x>?)
ahhh, so then we know that ker(h) = <x>
so then for (b), we know that from the 1st isomorphism theorem (I think that's what it's called)? that A[x]/ker(h) is congruent to A
and ker(h) = <x>
oh wait that's about groups. But I think there's a matching one for rings too
There is.
The first isomorphism theorem in this case will say that A[x] / ker(h) is (ring) isomorphic to im(h).
What happens when you use your answer to the first part?
Yeah.
Since h is a surjective ring homomorphism, then im(h) = A?
Exactly.
whoop whoop!
So you have the answer to the second part.
yep that makes total sense! And since ker(h) is an ideal, then it has that absorption property, so we use that to "factor out" an x term and show that <x> is our kernel
just one last question if you don't mind
I am not particularly sure what this means, but I feel confident that you know how to prove that ker(h) = <x> so I won't press on it.
(If I asked you to give an airtight proof, you could.)
fair enough. I get the idea, I think I just need to word it better haha
yeah I thin kso
I'm having a little trouble starting off the surjective proof. So normally you would take an element from your co-domain and show that something in the domain maps to it
but like with polynomials I'm not sure how to word that, if you know what I mean
Just do this.
like we could take the constant polynomials, that maps to itself
That's all you need to do.
oh and that's enough to show it's surjective? Oh yeah I guess it would
since all of the codomain would be accounted for then
Right.
awesome, I appreciate your help! I'm going to write this up real quick đ
Given a in A, you only need to find one p(x) with h(p(x)) = a.
Just one is good enough for surjectivity.
oh right!
Also, you were worried about whether or not you needed A to be an integral domain here. Did you use this fact at all?
nope not at all haha
Yup.
just a red herring đ
Indeed, though I suppose if the question asked for evaluation at another value a besides 0 you would need it to be an integral domain to show that A[x]/(x-a) cong A under this
All rings are integral domains anyways.
then my marriage is an integral domain too, since we used a ring
Lol nice
Ringed spaces were invented when Grothendieck listened to Beyonce
He liked it so he put a ring on it
lol
does someone know where the term "ring" comes from? its actually so random
I believe it comes from a German word
I'm probably wrong but I think the german word for integers is 'zahlenring' so it sort of just came from shortening this
hold on I looked this up the other day
and according to an online translator, "zahlenring" means "number ring", roughly translated
same energy
aaah
The german word would be âganze Zahlenâ
in the dihedral group with 6 elts (D3 or D6 whatever), the set {x^0,x^1,...,x^5} would contain the set {x^-1,x^-2,...,x^-5} right?
would {x^0,x^1,...,x^5}={x^-3,x^-2,...,x^2,x^3}?
as in... x is a variable of an element in D6. would those sets be the same/contain each other for all x in the group
Yes, what you've written will just be the subgroup generated by x
Since the order of x is <= 6
just want to make sure i'm understanding. and since the order is 6 we have that {x^0,x^1,...,x^5}={x^-3,x^-2,...,x^2,x^3}? and because the group is finite the subgroup generated by x is the same as the subgroup generated by x inverse?
okay cool thank you. i'm coding a program for a research project related to word maps on dihedral group, and it would be easier to consider word maps that are products of the form x^kc where k is nonnegative and < the order of the group instead of -order<k<+order. feels wrong to just completely disregard inverse terms but since any power of the inverse is a nonnegative power of the elt i guess it's okay 
Is this correct?
Volkenborn
I'm studying the proof to the above theorem, but the book I'm reading states that the reverse direction (M noetherian + finitely generated ---> R is noetherian) is obvious.
I'm not sure how this is evident. Maybe it's because you can take some ideal $\mathcal{I}\subseteq R$, and since [\mathcal{I} M={\sum_{i=1}^nr_uv_i~|~r_i\in \mathcal{I}, v_i\in M}] is a submodule of $M$, then maybe you can make some kind of ACC with the different ideals $\mathcal{I}_k$?
Volkenborn
I'm probably overthinking this, why is this super simple?
R is a finitely generated R module
Youâre assuming that every finitely generated R-Module is noetherian or not
R is one of these finitely generated R modules and then you have that submodules correspond to ideals etc
I'm a complete idiot, thanks @elder wave
I'm told that it is clear that the free abelian group generated by the columns of the first pic mod the free abelian group generated by the columns of the second pic is equal to Z/nZ. Why is this clear?
\claim $R$ is isomorphic to the localization of $\Z$ at the set $\Z \sans\ang{2}$
sebbb
i posted this a while ago, it's obvious by defn that they're the same but how do you do this "formally"
what is R
oop forgor to post that, it's subring of Q where all elements have odd denominator
Oh okay
like they're literally the same by defn no
Hm I think they probably are under most constructions of Q lol but uh
You can just manually define a map between the two in the "obvious" way anyway
But yes the proof is not very enlightening lol
this being a map from R -> Z \times Z\ (2)
i wonder if this is stupid but is there any connection between group actions and localization? group actions could be defined as special maps from products into a group and localization is kinda the opposite, being defined as a map from a ring into a product that includess that ring
I think you mean Z/(2)
ah
goober question - how is localizing "adding inverses"? we're only doing doing that for a subset of a ring when we localize it right?
if that's a dumb question then what's a better question to ask
Youâve added inverses for a subset
connecting this to local rings now then, if im understanding my notes correctly, localizing a ring R at the complement of a prime ideal gives a local ring (ie one with a unique maximal ideal)?
I havenât been able to think of one, I feel like Iâm missing something here
Are there any useful techniques or theorems for proving a ring is integral over another? I'm interested in the case of a quotient and its base ring.
An inverse limit of graded vector spaces/algebras is formed degree-wise. On the other hand, graded vector spaces are just comodules over certain monoid bigebrae.
So are there any sort of general description of inverse limits of comodules over co-/bigebrae, or conditions under which they exist? (It not obvious even in the case of infinite dimensional cogebrae over a field that they should exist)
koaaa
yes
how is k[x, x^{-1}] usually defined? it seems like you can define it as k[x, y] / (xy - 1), or as the image of the evaluation map k[x, y] -> k(x) that sends f |-> f(x, x^{-1}), or as the localization k[x] at {1, x, x^2, ...}. these are all equivalent, but is any of these more convenient? also, is there an obvious way to see that these are equivalent?
ig this most commonly appears as a localization, so that's most natural in some sense?
you think of k[x] as nice functions on a line
and then k[x, x^-1] are nice functions on the line without the origin
and what you're doing is more or less the "obvious" way to prove they are equivalent 
I have a question, say K and N are groups. is the intersection of K and N also a group? and why
i.e. construct a simple map in one direction and show it's a bijection 
are K and N arbitrary groups? or subgroups of some fixed group?
(in the former case, talking about intersection is kinda weird, and you shouldn't expect it to behave nicely...)
oh sorry, they are both subgroups of another group, say G
thus, same binary operation
yep, in this case it will form a subgroup.
try thinking about what all things you need to check
all of them should follow quite easily from the fact that both N and K are subgroups
ohhhh that's a nice insight, thank you! i will try to da a subgroup test on it
In the definiton of D, are m,n and r arbitrary?
yep
(btw you have those relations for each choice of m, n, r and you're going to quotient by all such elements not some specific m, n, r)
what do you mean by this?
oh you mean these?
i mean the module D is generated by all choices of elements, m, n, m', n', r in M x N x M x N x R
ah I see, thanks
i felt the word "arbitrary" could mean like you're choosing specific elements
just wanted to say that explicity
also, in this case wouldnt a general coset look like r\delta(m,n)+D?
det
under very special cases this finite sum would collapse into a single term
for example, if one of your module is a quotient of R by some ideal
det
I still havent really parsed the idea of tensor products
will try to understand that after i finish with this proof
yea, the construction of the tensor product is really weird
and you would never use the construction. only thing it tells you is that it exists
the real use of tensor product is its universal property
I see
which says that any R-bilinear map M x N --> P can be thought of as an R-linear map M â_R N --> P
so dealing with these harder maps, is same as dealing with simpler maps but from a complicated source
thats a nice way of thinking about it

what's $\Set{\frac{f}{g} | f, g \in \bK[x], g \neq 0} = \bK(x)$ called in english
yes yes yes no
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
fraction field of K[x], field of rational functions over K (in the variable x), etc
ah ok thanks!
is there anything special to it? like why does it have its own "symbol"?
the notation is quite useful in field theory ig
say you have two fields K contained in L, and a bunch of elements alpha_1, ..., alpha_n inside L
then K[alpha_1, ..., alpha_n] is the smallest subring of L, containing K and those elements, while K(alpha_1, ..., alpha_n) is the smallest subfield of L containing K and those elements
ah
this doesn't look like abstract algebra
looks like some kind of algorithm so maybe in #numerical-analysis
lecture notes have this basis for special lie algebra sl(2)
why does the E disappear here?
It should say (Îť+2)Ev
The point is Ev is also an eigenvector of H
ahh, that makes much sense, given the context below
thanks!
A fellow KC chad, I see...
I found them pretty readable tbh, tho nothing beats KC. I pray that he releases a proper textbook in my lifetime, preferably on algebraic NT (or w/e the fuck else, I'd read anything by him).
dummit and foote is too verbose in my experiemce
takes some time to sit down and read
That's true, but they're also pretty thorough and have lots of examples.
yes
For more advanced stuff, check out Isaacs' "Algebra", I think if you like KC, you'll like him, he's an incredibly efficient expositor.
The man is a godsend to anyone studying algebra. I wonder, are there equivalent personages in other fields (e.g. analysis or probability theory)?
Ye idk
On that note, reading about Krull-Schmidt, can anyone explain this last step to me, I'm blanking? How does $\prod_{i=1}^nK_i=\prod_{j=1}^mK_j$ imply n=m?
Nvm, I think I got it. There's a previous characterisation of internal direct products, wherein directness is equivalent to $K_i\cap\prod_{j=1}^{i-1}K_j=1$ for all i>=2, so that would imply K_j is 1 for j>n.
A few questions:
How would one prove that Q and R under addition are not isomorphic?
How does multiplication or addition work on R^2?
One is countable, the other isn't, there can be no bijection between them.
Coordinate-wise.
Well, how multiplication works on R^2 depends on context XD
Are chains and cochains just the same thing but different notation/relabelling? I don't yet see the point in distinguishing between the two
Pretty much, it's strictly cosmetic. There are situations where degree goes up (e.g. differential forms), so it's more convenient to use cochains than flip everything.
ah, so orders of infinity.
what does coordinate-wise mean? (x,y) * (a,b) = (xa, yb)?
For example, if we had a projective resolution P2 --> P1 --> P0 --> M and we applied Hom(-,D), its more convenient to call the result a cochain complex?
Just because of how the indices work out
If that's what you mean by R^2 (direct product of R with R), then yes. All depends on your implicit meaning of "R^2".
Was Hom(-,D) the contravariant one? If so, then yes.
Yeah contra, the point being people decided to give cochains their own name and notation bc that form of chain came up enough to warrant doing so?
Exactly.
Great thank you
help, I super don't get this...mostly the remark in the second screenshot. How is the Lie bracket taken? The lie bracket is alternating, so F^2 = [F, F] will have to be zero, and F^3 = [F, [F, F]] = [F, 0] = F0 - 0F is zero again, and every power thereafter is zero?
btw are you greek? I like how you just typed lambda
Are you asking what the explicit lie bracket on matrices is?
I just have a Greek keyboard on my phone haha
Or are you asking about F^n
Which yeah I would assume is nested lie brackets
but how are they not all zero for n >= 2?
Hmmm
i don't really understand what they're saying in the blue underline. but F^n(v) is definitely application of F, n times on v. so F(F(...F(v)...))
that's indeed what the next lemma says
v^(n+1) is F applied on v^(n)
maybe, when they say squares of F-matrices are 0, they're talking about [F, F] = 0 and not F*F
but it's definitely phrased in a very confusing way
and everything looks good to me in the first image
because E increases the eigenvalue
and you can't have infinitely many distinct eigenvalues
so if you keep applying E many time, you'll eventually find some v_lambda which becomes 0 on application of E
I think remark 5.3 is saying that F(F(v lambda)) can be nonzero 0, despite F² and [F,F] being both 0 and that can seem surprising. The axioms of lie algebra representation require that A(B(v)) - B(A(v)) = A,B, and you can't deduce F(F(v)) = 0 from them. If you try to apply that to F and F you get 0 = 0 instead
I may have left out crucial context, this is talking about representation
yeah I thought that
if you were to misread it and think it's a group representation then you would get F(F(v)) = 0 (despite the algebra not being a group ?)
here is with more context
so it's saying to not jump from [F,F] = 0 or F²=0 to F(F(v)) = 0 because that would be wrong
where the V refers to, I think this V in definition 2.24
yeah you want [phi(F),phi(F)] = phi([F,F]) = phi(0) = 0 and not phi(F)² = phi(F²) = 0
as in you take lie brackets and not matrix multiplication
wait what does F^2 mean if not F o F?
so when they wrote down H v_lambda = lambda v_lambda in equation (4), they actually mean phi(H)(v_lambda) = lambda v_lambda???
it means phi(F)² because it's F applied to the representation
but phi(F)² isn't related to phi(F²)
so it's not 0
despite F² being 0
yes
đľâđŤ
oh i see. i was thinking of F as sitting inside the universal enveloping algebra
that totally makes sense now
because like the matrix of F in the lie algebra is like
[1 0]```
yes
in general there is no meaning to multiplying together elements of lie algebras
so if you even think F²=0 you are going the wrong way
yea, i remember using the notation f for the element in the lie algebra and F for the thing in the universal enveloping algebra
oh they do say 2 x 2 matrix, i didn't read that >.<
my bad
ah yeah that rules out the enveloping algebra
thanks guys, that helps a ton. Sometimes I wish I could just call my instructor anytime and ask stupid questions.
just to double check my work/understanding, if $f : A\timesB \rightarrow B\timesA$ is defined by $f(a,b) \rightarrow (b,a)$, then $f$ would be an isomorphism, and therefore $A\timesB$ and $B\timesA$ are isomorphic?
uhh... bot?
yeep
yeah
texit is sad >.<
texit is down
This is simple enough that you shouldn't need to write it in LaTeX.
Not everything needs to be TeX'd.
,tex $\text{hello}$
how would i go about either of these problems? this stuff is breaking my brain
Checking that something is a subgroup is routine.
You should have a list of properties to check it against.
Second part is iso theorem
the book hasnt even talked about what subgroups are
I genuinely doubt that.
its probably intuitive tho
in this case you just need to check that the operation is closed
what's exercise 26 of section 1
just a group on the same operation, that is contained in the bigger group?
(sorry couldn't resist :p)
hello, I can't read
serves you right
that's exactly what a subgroup is
alright, that makes sense
I think they should learn what a subgroup is from their own book instead of having everyone come out of the woodworks to try and get their second of fame.
maybe it's explained in exercise 26 of section 1
You can't take my second of fame from me like that
@restive birch a subgroup is a subset of the entire group with the following properties:
- the neutral element is in the subgroup
- the inverse of every element of the subgroup is also in the subgroup
- if a and b are in the subgroup then ab is in the subgroup
subgroups are indeed defined in exercise 26 of section 1
yep, my bad
Why are you reading their book for them?
that wasnt my main question tho, i was asking about the question as a whole
i can guess what a subgroup is, but i still dont understand how to solve the question
do you have an idea of proving how phi(G) is a subgroup of H?
i can try, hold on
if you have a formal definition of both subgroup and homomorphism, then it should just be applying the definitions
ah, yep, makes sense- and if my understanding is right here, then if phi is an isomorphism, phi(G) would not only be a subgroup of H, but would be equivalent to H? or am i missing something?
only if phi is surjective
phi(G) is yet another notation for the image of phi
but if phi is an isomorphism, it must be surjective
right?
oh yeah I apparently didn't see that part in your message lol
yeah
an isomorphism is a bijection
yep! a neat way of saying this is phi is surjective <==> the image is H. you also have an analogous fact that phi is injective <==> the kernel is trivial.
the first fact holds for all functions (not just in groups) but the second fact requires the algebraic structure. you may recognize it from linear algebra
the extent of my linear algebra knowledge is exactly 7 3b1b videos
haha fair. it is an extremely useful criterion for checking injectivity
if 3b1b talks about rank nullity that's one way to think of it (i can't remember if he does)
im in multivariate in school right now, so we'll be learning a bit of linear algebra soon, hopefully that'll help
i would recommend learning abstract linear algebra before abstract algebra, it's like a warm up to a lot of the stuff you'll see in abstract algebra
in school you'll probably see matrices and stuff, but theres a way to do linear algebra without matrices or coordinates and stuff
phi is injective <==> the kernel is trivial
this is a good exercise imo
remind me, what does trivial mean here?
it's { e }
only the neutral element
(a good linear algebra book imo is axler's linear algebra done right)
i would, but im really enjoying reading through this textbook, and taking a 250-page detour in linear algebra first is a hard sell
you can totally do abstract algebra without full linear algebra knowledge
watching 3b1b's series is enough imho
i should finish that
i should probably also understand why the calculations for 2x2 determinants work
it's just basic geometry
i remember he showed a diagram at one point, but i was way too tired at the time to pause and work it out
sure, it's up to you. the stuff i'm referring to is less like matrices/determinants/gaussian elimination, but more like vector spaces (a specific example of a group), linear transformations (a specific type of group homomorphism), subspaces (a specific type of subgroup), etc. it's just a suggestion
i can go back and do that now
isn't a vector space more like a module
yeah well but it's also an abelian group :)
i think i have a relatively decent understanding of vector spaces/linear transformations from the 3b1b series
but yeah it's a module. i would definitely recommend learning linear algebra before modules
@hot lake @rustic crown why is V necessarily equal to the span of these vectors? Is it possible that F^k = 0 for some k < dim V?
its by irreducibility, the span is stable under the action E, F and H
wait i don't see any irreducibility assumption in that image
from irreducibility, the span of v lambda by every possible chain of E F H has to be the whole space
@rustic crown irreducibility is mentioned in the next page, maybe it's a typo here
We call V an irreducible finite-dimensional representation of sl(2) if it is generated by a highest weight vector v_lambda, that is, v = span {v_lambda ^(n) | n >= 0}
ah they make it into a definition of irreducible ?
weird
irreducible means there is no smaller space that is still a representation (stable by the actions of E F H)
the space generated by v lambda and all possible applications of E F H is one
so irreducible means it is equal to the whole space
and in this case
H can't make anything new
and E only goes backwards
so F is the only one making any progress
at this point I should just send the lecture notes đ
without the assumption of irreducibility that statement is false
it's on page 17
you can look at the representation V_1 â V_2 say
this is generated by v_{-1}, v_{1}; v_{-2}, v_{0}, v_{2}
the highest weight vector is v_{2} but the span we're looking at only picks up V_2
Im having trouble with the first part of question 14 here. any tips?
Is x^2+y^2-1 irreducible in C[x,y] ?
yes, you can try Eisenstein's criterion by viewing x^2 + y^2 - 1 as a polynomial in x with coefficients in C[y] (which is a UFD)
mightve asked this before but how are UFD's related to local rings/localization
is it true that phi(k * g^-1) under G is equal to phi(k) * phi(g)^-1 under H, if phi is a homomorphism from G â H?
i don't think they have any serious relation
Yes.
phi(kg^{-1}) = phi(k)phi(g)^{-1}.
I don't know what the "under G" and "under H" parts mean, though.
as in, the operation * being done to the different elements is the operation of G in the first section and that of H in the second
im sorry i put 16 extra characters


I was going to say that you don't need to specify that a group operation is being done if it's the only possible thing it could mean in this context, and that when people do so they usually don't say "under G" but rather "where * means the operation of G".
I literally just didn't know what you meant. I'm sorry if I came off as aggressive.
its just kind of convention ig
me is >.<
given that its harder to convey tone through text alone, different punctuation has taken on different meaning
Yes, and a simple direct argument is possible. Assuming otherwise, you can easily reduce to the case where x^2 + y^2 - 1 = (ax + by + c)(dx + ey + f). Comparing the coefficients of x^2, y^2, and the constant term, you get d = 1/a, e = 1/b, and f = -1/c. Comparing the coefficients of xy, x, and y, it follows from that that a^2 + b^2 = 0, a^2 = c^2, and b^2 = c^2. So a = b = c = 0, a contradiction.
Eisenstein's criterion does indeed give a faster solution, but here's in case you'd prefer a lower tech solution for whatever reason.
ig we can also use the fact that monic polynomials with deg =2, 3 are irred in D[x] if and only if they don't have a root. here D is any integral domain i believe. which is probably abstracting out the work you just did 
They arenât super related, but hereâs a super surprising fact which does involve both
A_S is what you might have seen as S^-1A before
Hair
can anyone explain this to me in a non-formal way?
I don't understand what it's saying
A polynomial acts on V by letting x act by your operator.
Write down a few small examples and it should be clearer.
For example, 1 + 2x is the operator I + 2T.
The map sends a polynomial to the associated operator.
hmmm this makes a little more sense now that you explain it like that
So phi_T(1 + 2x) = I + 2T, in symbols.
phi_T(1 + x^3 + 12312312x^4) = I + T^3 + 12312312T^4.
etc.
How is phi_T(polynomial) an endomorphism?
ohhhh okay
I don't think I have a very good 'math' brain 
I can't read these textbooks :/
group theory is by far the hardest math challenge I've faced so far. Idk how yall do it
So $\varphi_T(a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 + \cdots + a_nx^n)$ would be $$a_0I + a_1T + a_2T^2 + \cdots + a_nT^n \in \mathrm{End}_K(V).$$
that looks awful
rakko
It takes time.
what's your favorite type of math @chilly ocean ?
Hard question since the runner-ups are so close, but I would say some kind of differential geometry is best for me.
I'm thinking of taking differential geometry next semester actually
it seems interesting but I'm worried that since I struggle with abstract alg so much that maybe I shouldn't take it
I'm guessing it's more applied than pure/abstract tho right?
Depends on the type of differential geometry.
It's very much a "pure" subject but has a ton of intersection with "applied" ones.
yeah that's why I think it'd be so interesting to take as a class
(or learn about on my own at some point)
Right there with you. Ive spent nearly 2 weeks reading through just 20 pages of group theory with exercises. shit hurts my brain
it's just so abstract like... I don't know where I'm at or what I'm doing lmaooo
I agree, its kinda hard to orient yourself without examples
are you taking a class or self-studying?
Self
impressive
I'm taking a class rn but the professor usually just references the textbook, which has few intuitive examples, so it's a struggle
Whats the textbook?
im working through dummit and foote rn
I've heard of that one
Its got some examples, but not many
does it have solutions as well?
To the exercises? Maybe, but i dont think so
feel like it'd help me to just see the answer to all the exercises
I wasnt able to find them anyways
oof
Is Q[x,x^-1] integral over Q[x]? At first i thought so because you can just multiply any element of the former by x^d to eliminate any negative terms, but that would mean your polynomial is not monic....
there are no nontrivial integral elements in the field of fractions over any integral domain UFD
i don't think this is true. (-1+sqrt(-3))/2 is integral over Z[sqrt(-3)] for example (root of x^2+x+1)
oh hmm
but i think it's still true Q[x,x^-1] is not integral over Q[x]
well x^{-1} isn't integral I was just trying to think what's the quickest generalization of that kind of thing
ok I think it's that n^-1 isn't integral whenever n is a nonunit in an integral domain?
hmm maybe that's only over UFDs
what book is this 
(DF10.4.25) Let $R$ be a subring of the commutative ring $S$ and let $x$ be an indeterminate over $S$. Prove that $S[x]$ and $S\otimes_R R[x]$ are isomorphic as $S$-algebras.
locally cpt HD Abelian cofe (bad
i need help on this 
so my thoughts so far are i want to show that S[x] satisfies the universal property that the tensor product does so that they're isomorphic
for R-algebras and not just R modules
that is
i want to find a bilinear map from S \times R[x] to S[x]
i think this map should also be surjective
then given any bilinear map from S \times R[x] to some R-algebra L, i should fine a corresponding S-alg map from S[x] to L which that makes thigns commute
my hunch is that the bilinear map here should be just to send (s,\sum r_ix^i) to \sum sr_ix^i
i dont feel too sure that this will actually span S[x]
its definitely bilinear
Elements of the tensor products are sums of these
So spanning is actually easy, a polynomial Sum s_ix^i is mapped to by Sun (s_i (x) x^i)
Anyway, thereâs a lot of higher-level ways to view this, and Iâm not sure what the most useful way for you is hahaha
Maybe the best way is to just come up with the map like you did
But you can see it functorially too, and prove both of these are the free S-algebra on one generator
Or recognize that tensoring with S is the extension of scalars and see what that univ property is
Etc etc
oh wait we are supposed to view S\times R[x] as Z module right
in the construction
or no maybe i confused
Uhhh
oog
No?
yeah i think im confusing with something from before pain
I mean idk
The map you induce from the tensor product is a priori only linear
You have to see by hand that itâs a ring map
Matsumura
let me drop the universal property im using here for tensor product
To induce the map you need to use that itâs R-bilinear
If youâre like doing stuff over Z-youâre only using normal bilinearity which isnât good enough to induce a map from the tensor product over R
so here S\times R[x] is an R-module and i have R-bilinear maps out of this into some R-algebra L
and from this i want to find an S-algebra map from S[x] to L
corresponding
to whatever i start with
Sorry what are you trying to do?
You already described the map from the tensor product to S[x] right?
im trying to show that S[x] is isomorphic to S\otimes_R R[x] as S-algebras
by showing that S[x] satisfies the universal property
No this wonât be enough
o
this will only ever get an isomorphism as like, modules
i see
I mean you could then examine the map from the tensor product
And see by hand that itâs multiplicative
But thatâs painful
You should exhibit a map S[x] -> S (x)_R R[x]
You can do this by viewing the latter as an S-algebra via the S on the left
So you only have to specify where x goes then extend multiplicatively and additively
So say like, sx
Where do you think that would go?
s (x) 1_Rx maybe
Well that doesnât quite make sense in the tensor product
oh i see
But it like kinda does
i should write it like 1_S (x) 1_Rx
Yeah exactly
So do you see how the tensor product is an S-algebra?
Say we wanted to take an element
Sum s_i (x) f_i(x)
How do we multiply an element sâ into it?
To have it be an S-algebra
Or alternatively: whatâs the ring map S -> S (x)_R R[x]
ok let me see
so i was thinking about this cus i saw how the tensor product of R-algebras is an R-algebra
i was thinking about viewing S as an R-algebra or something
Right
Thatâs how you form this
And get a ring
But to make it an S-algebra
You have to only use the fact that S is here
You extend scalars
Cuz thereâs a priori no way to multiply stuf in R by things in S
so should s' times [Sum s_i (x) f_i(x)] be Sum s's_i (x) f_i(x) ?
Yeah!
in my head s' looks like s' (x) 1_R
Yes
Cuz it all just happens in the left
Okay so now
Specificfuinf tjat x goes to 1 (x) x
Determines a ring map from S[x]
Because like you send f(x) to f(1 (x) x)
This makes sense because
1: we know how to take powers of 1 (x) x)
i see
2: we know how to interpret the scalars
Now itâll be important to actually know the map
So write down what Sum s_ix^i goes to
Sum s_i (x) x^i

