#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 16 of 1
yea it should be pretty intuitive
henry have you done euler's theorem yet?
remind me
g^|G| = e for all g in G
seems intuitive, but no, i havent seen the proof yet
oh okay
if i did see the proof tho, this would imply that |g| ≤ |G| for all g ∈ G, right?
if G is finite
wouldn't make sense for non finite groups anyway lol, but ye forgot to specify that :p
yes
or stronger: the order of g divides the order of G
or more general (you can prove this via contradiction using euler's theorem, about 2-3 lines, could be a nice exercise imo): if g^n = e then the order of g divides n
makes sense
a nice corollary to this is that all elements except for the identity of groups of prime order are generators
isn't that just lagrange?
i’ve seen like 3 different versions of lagrange so idrk
lol
if |g| doesnt divide n, then you can kind of 'pull out' all of the g^(some number less than n) and if |g| doesnt divide n, youll be left with some g^x term that will not equal e, and e * not e = not e
not an actual proof of course but the general idea i hope
yeah kinda something like that
yeah you can use division algorithm on |g| and show the remainder must be 0
start like this: suppose the order of g is d and g^n = e. assume for the sake of contradiction that n is not a multiple of d, i.e. n = kd + r for a 0 < r < d
then use euler to get a contradiction and therefore imply that n is a multiple of d
anyone have a good link to a simple explanation of the basic syntax of proofs?
and what determines if a proof is rigorous or not
How would you characterize such a field, what techniques should be used? For example, if n=1 you just get the usual constructible numbers (if I'm not mistaken). If n=2, then E_2 is the smallest subfield of R closed under taking square roots (of positive elements) and cubic roots (you take the real ones)
I think this field will be uniquely determined because all subfields of R contain Q. You can make similar constructions in general for arbitrary fields. Let F be a field and K a subfield of F. Let P be a "family of polynomials". Then, define E to be the smallest field K<E<F satisfying the condition that for any p in P with coefficients in E, the roots of p that are in F are also in E
well yh it will be uniquely determined because you can construct it 'recursively' starting from Q
Sure, but in that case is there a nice characterization of E_n?. Say n=3 to look at a particular case
Can someone help me out here? Idrk what exactly the relation here is - like ik that in general, an equivalence relation is reflexive, symmetric, and transitive.. but idk how to show it for this one
For reflexive it is trivial: the epsilon permutation should do
For symmetric, you want to show that (f,g) being in R means that (g, f) is in R. Assume (f,g) in R, now you have sigma st f = sigma circ g
For transitive, suppose that (f,g) in R and (g, h) in R. What does this imply? || We can find sigma_1 st f = sigma_1 circ g and sigma_2 st g = sigma_2 circ h ||
what does st stand for?
such that
You might need to elaborate a bit more
But yes
yeah idrk how to do that..
Hmm
i lowk dont understand the relation itself
You're confused on the symmetric bit or the transitive bit?
$R$ is symmetric if for any $(f, g) \in R$, $(g, f) \in R$. Or, [ \forall f \forall g fRg \implies gRf ]
DerpZ
can i ask a question
well both, like how can i prove that they are
Well, first let (f, g) be from R arbitrarily
Now you need to show why (g, f) is in R
What does (f, g) being in R mean?
There is a permutation sigma in S_m such that...
that- yeah that
like $g = \sigma_2 \circ f$?
Levens
like.. a rearrangement of the members in a set?
a function that performs that rearranging
Alright, so what properties should this function have?
inject and surject
not really😔
DerpZ
So now $\sigma_1^{-1} \circ f = \sigma_1^{-1} \circ \sigma_1 \circ g$
DerpZ
Do you know why I can simply just say $\sigma_1^{-1}$
DerpZ
yeah, like a productive zero
Recall that $S_m$ is a group of permutations on $m$ elements
DerpZ
So if $\sigma_1 \in S_m$ then...
DerpZ
it has an inverse element
There we go
ahhh
Can you take care of transitivity by yourself now?
so sigma_2 is the inverse of sigma_1
ill give it a shot
so are we trying to find $h = \sigma_3 \circ f$?
Levens
what does composing permutations mean? mb english isnt my first language
$(f \circ h)(x) = f(h(x))$
pewdssssssss
f is related to g and g is related to h
so f = sigma_1 \circ g
and g = sigma_2 \circ h
so f = (sigma_1 \circ sigma_2) \circ h
so f is related to h
ohh alright, so there isnt really a need to define a third permutation
sigma_1 \circ sigma_2 = some other permutation in S_m
does someone know what this equivalence relation is? is just matrix obtained by elementary row operations?
I’d like to solve this problem but I’m kinda confused how to start it. So far, I have H={0,6} and K={0,4,8}. I tried doing the product of HK and I got {0} which does not make sense. Thank you in advance
How did you get 0
Are you multiplying the elements?
Here you need to add since the group is additive
Got it. So when I do the last addition, I mod it 12 right like 6+8=14 =2
yes
do you know about my question? @south patrol
I guess yeah it should be equivalence of matrices
i.e. A equivalent to B if there are invertible P and Q with A = PBQ
(Afaik for a PID to be able to prove this you do need to use operations other than elementary operations, though with a euclidean domain these would suffice)
so in this case, how does A become B ?
Hi folks, I’m trying to understand Cayley’s Theorem in the context of Dihedral Groups. The problem I’m given is to find the corresponding element of $rs \in D_4$ under the isomorphism guaranteed by Cayley’s theorem. Is it proper to say $\lambda_{rs}$, where $\lambda_{rs} (x) = rsx$?
Phil With Flex Tape
@molten viper here r and s are elements from D_4 correct?
Yup, r with order 4 and s with order 2
Yes lambda rs will be in S8
Hm ok
But that’s different than like, just interpreting rs as an element of S8 rather than S4?
You’re maybe conflating like
There’s a natural way to embed the dihedral group of 2n elements
Into S_n
By interpreting it as symmetries of a regular n-gon
The embedding of it into S_2n via the Cayley embedding is like
Way less natural
You’re literally seeing how an element permutes the group
I see
Well okay it’s natural but in a different way haha
Like the way you do the Cayley embedding “geometrically” is to draw say 8 points
One for each element g
Fix an ordering of the 8 elements so like g_1,…,g_8
Then label each dot with g_i
Ohhhhhh
Then when you want to see how g works as an element of S_8
You multiply g into g_i on say, the left
Ok I think when we proved it in lecture we used that indexing
Then this sends g_i to some g_j
But tbh, I got very lost
This is like say drawing an arrow from g_i to g_j and labeling it g
So you’re seeing how g shuffles up the g_i
For the natural embedding of the dihedral group into S_4
You’re considering 4 dots
And the square they form
And interpreting the dihedral group as the symmetries of that
Which you get by rotating and reflecting the square
There's a second subquestion for this one that I can't seem to find an approach for..
ii) Now let m = n. Show that for bijective functions $f \in X$
$$
(f, g) \in R \Longleftrightarrow g \text{ is bijective}
$$
holds.
Levens
yeah
idk😔
yeah
Can you define it for me
an injective and surjective function
Has an inverse?
I mean you can prove it from your other definition by just plugging stuff in
oh oh
But it’s easier if you just use that a bijection is a function with an inverse
ya i just found the other definition as u sent that
Okay
so
So now you have f = sigma•g
If these were like numbers or something
How would u solve for g
inverse of sigma on both sides
then we'd have g = sigma^{-1} \circ f
well to me ya, but on paper? it feels like somethings missing
Well
I mean you can prove it one of two ways
Ultimately you want to show the composition of two bijections is a bijection
Because f and sigma^-1 are both bijections
You can either do this by showing it’s injective and surjective by hand
Or you can produce an inverse using the inverses of the two functions you’re composing
I think it may be beneficial for you to write out both proofs
example of commutative Char 0 ring but not an integral domaiin?
i cant think of anything
Well
nvm lol
They will work if you take it over a commutative char 0 ring which isn’t an integral domain

So it won’t really help much
lol ye
But you could do another operation to a polynomial ring
And get an example
So how do you know to make new rings out of old ones
my only example of rings are Z Q R C and quotients
oh
Could you add zero divisors like that without changing the characteristic?
i need to quotient by a non prime ideal
if ab in (fx) then a and b is not in it
Sure
This should be “and” though
Not “then”
Let me think
(X+1)(X+2) = that
I don’t think that’s quite what you want?
oh

Z[X] still has Char 0
Sure
But we quotiented
And we already know we can destroy being char 0 after a quotient
and Z[X]/<x^2 + 3x + 2> still has all of Z
we can embed Z into that quotient
I think you would want to evaluate why that’s true
And write a proof
Ah, okay
So can you prove that?
(Thanks btw @ chmonky and @ levens)
yeah i can prove it
How would you do that?
Okay, what’s your map
identity on Z
inclusion map
Right?
Okay but the point that you’re kind of glossing over
Why is this injevtive?
Proving that is equivalent to showing the ring is char 0
Which is why I think you haven’t really proven it yet
good question
generally its ez to prove 1 to 1 for bijection
So what would it mean for n + <x^2 + 3x + 2> to be 0?
integers
n to be in the ideal. or n can be divided by it
Because?
smaller
ah
thank you very much
Anyway so now I’ll describe a few others
ok
First off, I would quotient by x^2
Since that’s pretty simple
And clearly gives a zero divisors
But your example is equally fine
Next up: consider the product ring R x S
If R or S is char 0 this is still char 0
But a product of rings can never be an integral domain unless R or S is 0
Namely, take (1,0)•(0,1) = (0,0)
Final example:
Consider the set of functions / continuous functions / smooth functions / whatever from say, R -> R
R the real numbers say
We can make this a ring by defining (f +g)(x) = f(x) + g(x)
And (fg)(x) = f(x)g(x)
this is a good example
Then this has zero divisors, take day a function f which is 0 at 0, but not zero, so say f(x) = x
Let g be zero away from 0, so say g(x)=1 if x = 0, g(x)=0 otherwise
Then neither of these are zero, but their product is
(Note that g isn’t continuous / smooth, so if you want examples for continuous / smooth functions you take like bump functions where the place they’re non-zero doesn’t overlap)
i see
hm
i also have another small question maybe you can help
i dont understand how A is equivalent to B there
do you know
same
Cook up a matrix that does it tho
do i need to explicity find them or can i just do it via elementary row operations?
I mean
or are they the same
hmm k
Like via row operations WLOG the first row is nonzero
Then by Column operations WLOG a11 is nonzero
Then you find some matrix which when you conjugate by it kills off everything but a11
Or something
i can do column operations too?
i think so
A matrix
You swap the ith and jth column
It’s still gonna be invertible
Idk tho I’m bad
i couldnt figure this one out
Suppose G - <a> is a cyclic group of order 12.
(a) Find all the generators of G. Explain your reasoning.
(b) Find all of the proper subgroups of G, and list their elements. Find all the generators of each
subgroup. Explain your reasoning. What are they asking in part b of the above question?
Bump
maybe I'm not explaining myself or you missed it or I'm just so obviously wrong and I'm blind here: #「ivory-tower-emeritus」 message
Oh I straight up didn't see oops
Idk man just feels too good to be true
If math has taught me anything that is if anything nice is happening that's because you're still dreaming
I think that answer potato was saying could be right, like you're taking the trace from one field to a subfield, I think that can work
like you can show it's fixed by the automorphisms it needs to be and not by the ones it shouldn't
Ohh I didn't fully comprehend it but now I do
potato
or maybe that is true and I'm being dense lol
ye so i looked it up and someone did what I did up to the bit where you say it's a generator lol
Like if you use the lemma I wrote about V^G = \sigma . V then that gives you a set of generators
i.e. sum_h h. zeta^i for all i = 1,...,p-1 all generate it
the issue is then reducing that to a single generator
and maybe we just got lucky with one of those sufficing
i can't think of any examples where you might need further linear combinations though
hm
Can someone help me with part b?
Do you know the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups?
Great, then it should directly follow
so the generators are 1, 5, 7, 11 right?
Are you talking about part a?
yes
for part b, <1> =G are so it is not a proper subgroup right?
0 is the identity
got it, so when I did other generators, only 11 is a proper subgroup does that sound right to you
oh I see
So all those other generators you gave those are the whole group
Because they all have orders coprime to 12
so if the generator gives the whole group, it is not a proper subgroup?
Yes, by definition of proper subgroup
If H is a proper subgroup of G then H is a subgroup of G and H != G
ok, thank you
I personally use Gallian
A friend I know used D&F for self study
What's wrong with Dummit and Foote anyway
Are you intending to self study?
Never tried nor do I know anyone who did so I can't comment
Have you actually tried it and found it "too easy"?
Let's move this discussion to #book-recommendations
Is the euclidean algorithm not equivalent to polynomial long division? and also when can you perform the euclidean algorithm?
I thought your ring had to be a euclidean domain in order for you to do the euclidean algorithm but you can long divide polynomials of two variables (\mathbb{C}[x,y])etc... and that's a ring that is a UFD and not Euclidean
You should not be able to
@sharp peak This and the following conversation may be relevant.
As long as you're working over an integral domain, you can divide by any polynomial whose leading coefficient is a unit.
The precise statement is in the image I replied to.
And the relation to Euclidean domains is clarified in the conversation there.
@chilly ocean
So you know how all integral domains have are isomorphic to some quotient by a prime
what is corresponding theorem for ufd,pid,icd,gcd
Im guessing it has to do with length of prime that gets quotiented
Off the top of my head, no idea.
same
There isn't necessary going to be a theorem of ideals for any of those. The theorem for integral domains and fields is that a commutative ring with identity is an integral domain iff 0 is prime, and a field iff 0 is maximal. Simultaneously by zorn every commutative ring with identity can quotient onto a field, supporting the idea that these notions of primality and maximality are 'nice', as opposed to what you're searching for.
I'm rephrasing your question now as "whats a type of ideal such that a ring is a ufd, pid, etc iff 0 is of this type".
I don't think there's any nice characterization of these because the structure that is necessary in these kinds of domains is, roughly speaking, happening too deeply outside of 0. While fields also have this flavor 'finding structure (multiplicative inverse) outside of 0', I am thinking this is not so deep outside of 0, because the role of the 0 ideal is still that it contains all non-units, and is therefore clearly an important ideal to look at for determining if a ring is a field. The reformulations as maximality is a somewhat trivial consequence of that intuition. Contrast this with definition of the special domains you've considered. Does 0 have a starring role in these definitions? Not really, not as special as in the definition of integral domains and fields.
can someone explain to me the minimal polynomial
what does it tell us
i know its the smallest polynome that a matrix evaluated in this polynome is 0
but whats the relation between this and the characteristic polynomial and proper values
and whats the relation between this and other matrices that evaluated at this polynome is 0
and whats does it tell us about a given matrix? if we have a minimal polynomial what info could we extract?
grass
Well actually nevermind haha (deleted my msgs)
This guy has some really insightful lectures online
This is mostly mathematics lectures for graduate courses on algebraic geometry, commutative algebra, and group/rings fields. There are also a few math talks at an undergraduate or high school level and a few short courses on other topics such as complex analysis, theory of numbers, modular forms, category theory, representation theory.
For th...
found out he won the fields medal
I recommend his group theory lectures, super duper gentle
Is the tensor product of the sign representation with itself still the sign representation or is it the trivial representation?
It’s the trivial rep, as the trace of the product with itself is the square of it, and (-1)^2 = 1^2 = 1
how does localization connecr to UFDs
Amazing thanks
So characters of tensors just multiply?
Yes
I'm currently trying to do e. I've proved that ord(Z) = p or p^2 (so it is not trivial). I know why G is abelian if ord(Z) = p^2 (because then G = Z and boom)
But why is G abelian if ord(Z) = p?
Consider the quotient group G/Z(G)
^
Alright, so the quotient group would have p elements if ord(Z(G)) = p. How does that imply cyclicity?
Because what can the orders of non identity elements possibly be?
Ah! Only p
And then that implies G being abelian because the center is cyclic
Thank you!
I'm having a hard time showing that $F : R \to R, x \mapsto x^p$ for $R$ a commutative integral domain and $\operatorname{char}(R) = p > 0$ is a ring homomorphism
illuminator3 (I/you)
specifically the $F(a + b) = F(a) + F(b)$ part
illuminator3 (I/you)
do I need to use the binomial theorem or something?
Have you tried using the binomial theorem?
Do that, and then carefully look at the binomial coefficients you expect to vanish.
Argue that they do.
(You must use the fact that p is prime in doing so.)
Isn't sigma f basically the whole point of it? You want a hom K -> M which induces a map K[x] -> M[x] sending f to smth which splits
if F/K and F'/K are two splitting fields for a polynomial f in K[x], then take sigma : K --> F'
that should be it
struggling with this problem. It seems intuitive, but I can't find a way to formalize it.
any insight?
what's the context
i assume youre trying to prove rs = sr^{-1}? If you want to prove it algebraically you have to write r and s as permutations of {1, ..., n}, like the book says. The rotation r would just be shifting everything either left or right, so either (n, 1, 2, ..., n - 1) or (2, 3, ..., n, 1) depending on how you label vertices and whether the rotation is CW or CCW. If you draw a picture then you should also be able to figure out which permutation s corresponds to. Since permutations are just maps of {1, ..., n} you should be able to work out explicitly what rs and sr^{-1} represent
(i) basically says that if f splits in a field extension M / K, then the splitting field of K should be a subfield of M.
But you can't say this exactly since L isn't necessarily a subfield of M, but rather something that is isomorphic to L. So what I said above would be more correctly stated as: if L / K is a splitting field of f and M / K is a field extension such that f splits in M, then there is a field homomorphism tau: L -> M extending the identity K -> K. Then we have M / tau(L) / K, where tau(L) is the isomorphic copy of L.
Even more generally, you want to be able to consider when K is only isomorphic to a subfield of M. The way you do this is to consider maps sigma : K -> M
Isn't this one of the cornerstones of galois theory
Maybe what Frank said is what u were concerned about
remember all field homomorphisms are injective and so these are basically just embeddings of fields
basically you just want to consider things up to isomorphism and while being precise about it
Also for this like
if F is some field and we form some extension K of F, then we can view polynomials in F as polynomials in K by applying sigma to the coefficients
Of course, if F is actually a subfield of K then this is just the obvious inclusion of F[x] in K[x]
Very often in field theory shenanigans it's convenient to not have to worry about actual set theoretic inclusions so you can form extensions more easily
Well the in particular is just taking L and M to be splitting fields
Because i) shows the map K -> M extends to a map L -> M and ii) shows that this extension is an iso
ahhh yeh got it
thanks
another question
is this argument true?
Let $R$ be a PID, then for any $x \in R \setminus \Set{0}$ the ideal generated by $x$ will be maximal iff $x$ is irreducible. \
\
Proof:
[
\begin{align}
(x) \text{ maximal} &\iff (x) \text{ is not contained in any } (d) \neq (x) \
&\iff x \text{ has no divisor } d \neq x \
&\iff x \text{ is irreducible}
\end{align}
]
illuminator3 (I/you)
Compile Error! Click the
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Hello guys, lie algebra question again.
So by wikipedia, a Cartan subalgebra over C can be defined as a maximal abelian and ad-diagonalizable subalgebra.
i.e. there exists no containing subalgebra which is both abelian and ad-diagonalizable.
However, my lecture notes defines a Cartan subalgebra over C only as a maximal ad-diagonalizable subalgebra.
Additionally, my lecture notes also points to the fact that every ad-diagonalizable subalgebra is abelian.
This makes me wonder whether the two definitions are equivalent.
Indeed, with the fact, (maximal ad-diagonalizable) entails (maximal ad-diagonalizable and abelian). Can be seen by proof by contradiction.
But how about the other way around?
Is showing that the coset operation for groups is well defined as simple as ghN=(gN)(hN)=(g'N)(h'N)=g'h'N for gN=g'N and hN=h'N?
Seems fine ye, though ofc the first and last equality are justified by normality of N as a subgroup
It’s not really clear how you proved that x is irred
In a PID, there is no distinction between prime and irreducible elements
you can use that if you like
ghN = (gN)(hN) ? Is that not just the definition of ghN ?
No, it's not
I guess not, yea
ghN is simply (gh)N like the coset
You need N to be normal here
e.g. if N is normal then you can do gNhN = ghNN =ghN
which feels abusive but does work when you go through it all lol
What is ghNN ? Where do the parenthesis go?
Is it subset multiplication (ghN)N?
Well okay maybe that is abusive but when i write ABCD i mean the set of products abcd where a in A, b in B etc
if you use this convention then the parentheses actually don't matter
yeah that's what I used
I probably forgot to specify that d isn't a unit
is there a standard notation for the set of join prime elements of a lattice?
I want to show that if we have G a finite group, H a subgroup, and R the complete set of representative of the left H-cosets, then the multiplication map $\pi:\mathbb{C}[R] \times \mathbb{C}[H] \to \mathbb{C}[G]$ given by $(a,b) \mapsto ab$ induces a linear isomorphism $\mathbb{C}[R] \otimes_{\mathbb{C}} \mathbb{C} [H] \to \mathbb{C}[G]$.
Évariste Galois
It should be trivial to see that $\mathbb{C}[R]$ is a $\mathbb{C}$-module. So, using the universal property, we can find a unique linear map $\alpha: \mathbb{C}[R] \otimes_{\mathbb{C}} \mathbb{C} [H] \to \mathbb{C}[G]$ such that $\pi = \alpha \circ \gamma$; where $\gamma$ is the universal complex bilinear map associated to the tensor product above.
Évariste Galois
I struggle to see a way to show it is an isomorphism.
show surjective, and use rank-nullity to get injective (by showing both sides have same C-dimension)
If anyone is interested. I have determined that those two definitions are equivalent. The reverse direction relies on a proposition that an ad-diagonalizable subalgebra is always abelian. An interesting note is that, the less wordy definition without the "abelian" is a logically stricter requirement. Due to how quantifiers work.
Homology of R-modules: the nth homology module of a chain complex is Z_n/B_n where Z_n is the kernel of the out map and B_n is the image of the in map. This quotient only makes sense if B_n is a normal subgroup of Z_n right? My textbook doesn't mention anything about existence of these things so maybe it's easy to see and I'm just missing why that's true?
Oh everything is abelian 
When is the algebraic multiplicity greater than the geometric multiplicity for an eigen vector
what goes wrong
If you have m linearly independent vectors with eigenvalue Lambda, you can extend this set to form a basis for the whole space
Then, the characteristic polynomial is det(A-Ix) where A is the matrix representation of your linear operator with respect to your basis
and A has the top mxm upper-left-corner (after a suitable rearrangement), a diagonal matrix with Lambda as its entries. Those correspond to your linearly independent vectors of eigenvalue Lambda
One perspective on this: if $V$ is a vector space over an (algebraically closed) field $F$ and $T: V \to V$ a linear transformation then we can factorise the minimal polynomial $m_T$ into irreducibles as $m_T = \prod_{i=1}^{n}(x-\lambda_i)^{r_i}$ and correspondingly decompose $V$ into $T$-invariant subspaces by $V = \bigoplus_{i=1}^{n} \ker((T-\lambda_i I)^{r_i})$. Now the snag here is that that the algebraic multiplicity of $\lambda_i$ is $r_i$, the dimension of $\ker((T-\lambda_i I)^{r_i})$, whilst the geometric multiplicity is the dimension of $\ker(T-\lambda_i I)$. This means the algebraic multiplicity $\ge$ geometric multiplicity and yet inequality may not hold in general because of the possibility of the $r_i$ being $> 1$
potato
how do I show that if f and g are endomorphisms on G then f(x) + g(x) is also an endomorphism
this seems stupidly simple
So ultimately, in a sense, it comes down to the fact that End(V) may have nilpotent elements, which perhaps motivates studying nilpotent operators e.g. in jordan normal form
definitions
but I can't figure it out
read the definitions
Try to show that f + g satisfies all the necessary properties to be an endomorphism
f(x) + g(x) is G -> G because + : G -> G and both f and g are G -> G?
same thing
Besides, being an endomorphism is not the same as "being G -> G"
just read the definitions
The important thing here is being an endomorphism, not just a function G -> G
wut
that's how my homework defined an endomorphism
oh wait
no it didn't
I'm sure it didn't
group homomorphism
read the definitions
I forgor
How do we make sure that the generalized eigen vectors are independent?
and form a basis
Not sure what you mean
Oh like do you mean like how do you prove the assertion I made that you have that decomposition?
ker(A-lambda I)^n gives us generalized eigen vectors
Indeed
Which form a basis
so i am asking why?
Of ker (A - lambda I)^n?
Of the whole space
So yeah isn't that basically just asking why the decomposition I gave holds
yeah
no
no i get that each subspace is disjoint from the others
what i dont get is how we make sure to get vectors that form a basis to each subspace
I'm still not sure what exactly you mean by that like
We can form a basis of each generalised eigenspace like
Since it is a vector space we can just pick a basis
Then whenever you have a direct sum decomposition, you can string together bases of each direct summand to form a basis of the whole space
Linear independence follows immediately from the definition of direct sums
Or do you want me to justify this
$\operatorname{End}(\bZ_2) = \Set{\operatorname{Id}, n \mapsto n + 1, n \mapsto 0, n \mapsto 1, 0 \mapsto 0, 0 \mapsto 1, 1 \mapsto 0, 1 \mapsto 1}$?
are those all
illuminator3 (I/you)
If we have a group of order $p^2$ what can we tell about the order of its elements?
mns
p is prime tho
well the order of any element must divide the order of its group
by lagrange
but does it guarantee us that there's an element of order p^2 since the division would yield 1?
it doesn't
if there exists an element of order p^2 then the group is cyclic
p being prime doesn't affect anything?
it means the order of the elements can only be 1, p, or p^2
also some additional info: the group must either be $\bZ_{p^2}$ or $\bZ_p \times \bZ_p$ (cartesian product)
okk thanks
illuminator3 (I/you)
struggling with the idea of generators and relations- does a value being in the generator set mean that its inverse is also used for the generation?
so $\mathbb{Z} = \langle{1}\rangle$ and not $\langle{1, -1}\rangle?$
i know the carat symbols are supposed to be different, i dont know the code for them
thanks
Croqueta
In group theory you usually include the inverses yes
so Z=<1> and Z=<1,-1> are both correct
henryduke
okay, and theres no relation needed?
no
@restive birch $\gen{g} = \Set{g^n | n \in \bZ}$, you can see that it includes inverses and the neutral element too
illuminator3 (I/you)
i'm still having trouble with what $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ means exactly. Is it a set of sets of numbers, grouped by the number mod n, or is it just a set of all of the numbers 0≤a<n?
henryduke
henryduke
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it's Z but in mod n
so the numbers 0,1,2,...,n - 1 (assuming addition as operation)
and if you do a + b you gotta mod n at the end
so 2 + 3 = 5 = 1 (mod 4) in Z/4Z
so its just a group of n numbers under addition, with an additional rule
maybe? what are those again
$x \circ G = \Set{x \circ g | g \in G}$ is a left coset of G
illuminator3 (I/you)
okay, so like, all of the possible outputs of an operation x when applied to elements of a set G?
yeah, something like that
G/H means all possible left cosets of H where the x is in G
$G/H = \Set{g \circ H | g \in G }$
im confused
illuminator3 (I/you)
where $\circ$ is just some binary operation?
henryduke
wait, are we talking about sets or groups?
groups
but remember that a group is just a set with an operation and some conditions
so cosets are defined by groups? thats probably why i havent come across them yet, im at the beginning of the section on groups
cosets come right after subgroups, usually
yea, those havent come up yet
subgroups are chapter 2
(working through Dummit and Foote, per the server's recommendation)
ye then just go with this 'definition' of Z/nZ for now
nice
I'm in an algebra 1 course at uni right now
so its just a special form of addition on a set {0, 1, 2, ... n-1}
does that work for now?
yeah
it gets a bit more tricky with multiplication
because not every element will be invertible
only those that are coprime with n, right?
yes
so $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}^{\times}$ is just multiplication on the set ${a\in\mathbb{Z}|0\leq{a}\<n, (a,n) = 1}$ where $(a,b)$ is the greatest common factor of a and b
henryduke
?
multiplication mod n
right
you usually write gcd(a, n) btw
makes sense
also $\bZ_n = \bZ/n\bZ$
illuminator3 (I/you)
and multiplication mod n is $a \times_n b = a \times b - cn$ for some $c \in \mathbb{Z}$ and such that $ (a \times b) - cn \in \mathbb{Z}_n$
henryduke
Idk this isn't normally how I would define the operations, seems a bit confusing to do it like this
But then idk if you have done quotient groups
he hasn't seen subgroups yet
Oop
but even though its clunky, does it work?
(a,b) is common enough notation
You can explicitly define it through.operations on equivalence classes
I've never seen it and it can be quite ambiguous imo. but yeah, it doesn't really matter what notation you use at the end of the day, as long as you define it properly
Let $R$ be a PID, then for a $x \in R \setminus \Set{0}$ we have:
$$\begin{align}(x) \text{ maximal } &\iff (x) \text{ is not contained in any } (d) \neq (x) \text{ where d is not a unit}\&\iff x \text{ has no divisor } d \neq 0 \text{ where } d \not \in R^\times\&\iff x \text{ is prime}\&\iff x \text{ is irreducible}\end{align}$$
is that correct?
illuminator3 (I/you)
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an element $p \in R$ is prime, if $p \neq 0, p \not \in R^\times$ and from $p | (xy)$ always follows $p | x$ or $p | y$
illuminator3 (I/you)
i think its fine
oke thank you c:
So I'm trying to do c. If ker(f) = {e}, why does that imply G is isomorphic to f(G)?
First isomorphism theorem
Also there’s no part e on the picture you sent
Ah I meant c
yeh iso theorem time
I'm not sure I follow why
if f : G -> G' is a homomorphism then G/ker f is isomorphic to the image of f
Bc then $G/ker f \cong im f$, so that $G \cong im f = f(G)$
if you now have G' = G you get that G/ker f is isomorphic to f(G), but you know that ker f only contains the neutral element, so it simplifies to G being isomorphic to f(G)
Micos
im stuck on this dont rly know where to go from here thought about using counting formula but that doenst rly help
how is G_s defined?
G_s is the stabliizer = {g in G | g*x=x}
First part: consider the size of the set ||{gs = s, g in G, s in S}|| in two different ways
Second part ||apply orbit stabiliser to the LHS||
does it suffice to show that the Union across all s in S of G_s = that set and similarly the Union across all g in G of S^g is presicely that set
Yes
And that the intersections Sg \cap Sh and Gs1 \cap Gs2 are all empty
But that second part is trivial
how do I show that $\operatorname{gcd}(3, (1 + i\sqrt{5})) = 1$ in $\bZ[i\sqrt{5}]$?
yes yes yes no
I can't really use euclid's algorithm because we're not in a euclidean ring
Use the norm in the complex numbers, N(3) = 9, N(1 + i sqrt(5)) = 6, so any non unit divisor has norm 3, but it’s easy to see there’s no elements with norm 3
ye that's what i was finna do ig
I only know the term from numerical analysis
N(x + yi) = x^2 + y^2
ah
Interesting, it’s quite standard to use that N to help with divisibility in subrings of C
yeah we randomly started using it but never defined it lol
You were probably assumed to be familiar with it
what does "norm 3" mean here?
N(z) = 3
so any non unit divisor has norm 3,
why?
As it must divide 6 and 9 (as N is multiplicative, N(xy) = N(x)N(y)), and can’t be 1, as anything with N(z) = 1 is a unit
uh I don't quite get the line of reasoning
so we have N(3) = 9 and N(1 + isqrt(5)) = 6. why must the gcd divide both of these norms?
Suppose x divides 3 and x divides 1 + i sqrt(5). Then 3 = xy so that N(3) = N(xy) = N(x)N(y) so that N(x) divides N(3) and similarly for 1 + i sqrt(5)
It’s always multiplicative
Just write it out in re^i theta form
And calculate out
N(ae^(ix) * be^(iy)) = (ae^(ix) * be^(iy))^2 = (ae^(ix))^2 * (be^(iy))^2 = N(ae^(ix))N(be^(iy)) like this?
wait nvm no
that doesn't make sense does it
Almost, just drop the e^ix and e^iy in the middle two, using that N(a e^i theta) = a ^2
so we have N(a + bisqrt(5)) = a^2 + 5b^2 = 3
b has to be 0 because otherwise we'd already be overshooting by at least 5
so a^2 = 3
but that has no integer solutions
correct?
Yes
is it valid to say sum across s of G_s = {g in G | g""s=s, s in S} = {g""s=s | g in G, s in S } = {s in S | g"*"s=s, g in G} = sum across g of S^g
You need sums in the 2nd and 4th terms
I assume you just forgot to write them
Oh wait I can’t read
It’s fine
how do I conclude that therefore 2(1 + isqrt(5)) and 6 must have no gcd either? is gcd(xa, xb) = gcd(a, b)?
do i need to put order's around the sets cuz the sets are not identically equal or wait r they ... maybe im just not grasping what the set {g*s=s | g in G s in S} means
gcd(xa,xb) = x * gcd(a,b)
Since we’re working in a non UFD, you probably want to check all factors of each number
I would put orders in
Actually, this is an example where it fails, as 2 and 1 + i sqrt(5) divide both, but their product doesn’t, so there is no gcd
As demonstrated, this doesn’t necessarily hold outside a UFD
sorry for the second part how do you go from |G| / | O(s) | to |G| * n orbits in S
i get summing order of orbits across all of s gives the order of S but then you are left with (sum over S of |G|) / |S|
sum over S of |G| should just be |G| * (elemnets in S) which is |G||S| so the resulatnt sum should just be |G| not this |G| ""n
they want me to go from gcd(1+isqrt(5), 3) = 1 to gcd(2(1+isqrt(5)), 6) = 1
How does your course define gcd?
Because that’s the first example used of where it doesn’t exist in a lot of places
i think my assumption that Sum of S of |O(x)| is wrong this looks like question looks like a backwards way to prove burnisde lemme
where X/G is set of orbits
i dont understand the reasoning tho you sum x in first the orbit and then sum across all the orbits
is that it?
|Orb(x)| is constant for x in the the same orbit
And there are exactly |Orb(x)| elements in Orb(x)
Let $R$ be an integral domain and $x_1, \ldots, x_n \in R$. An element $d \in R$ is called greatest common divisor of $x_1, \ldots, x_n$ if $d: |: x_i$ for all $1 \leq i \leq n$ and if $d' \in R$ with $d': |: x_i$ also holds true for $1 \leq i \leq n$ then $d': |: d$.
yes yes yes no
Yeah, then we have that 1 + isqrt(5) divides d, and 2 divides d, but there is no number with those properties which divides 6, so there is no gcd
And that is the standard way
so we have the following conditions for our gcd?
d | 1 + isqrt(5)
d | 2
d | 6
yeh
so we have d | 2 => d = 1 or d = 2 but neither of those divide into 1 + isqrt(5)
No, the first two should be the other way around
why?
2, 1 + isqrt(5) take the role of d’ in the definition
wait
we have d being the gcd of 2(i + isqrt(5)) and 6 => d | 2(i + sqrt(5)). but if d divides an even number then d has to be even itself, so d | 2 and d | i + sqrt(5) => d = 1 or d = 2 but neither of those divide into i + sqrt(5). is this wrong?
Since it’s not a UFD, we don’t have that d|2(1 + isqrt(5)) => d|2, and we wouldn’t even have that in a UFD
right
I don't quite understand what we are contradicting here
N(d) divides N(6) = 36, but also 4 =N(2) divides N(d) and 6 = N(1 + isqrt(5)) divides N(d) so 12 divides N(d) so N(d) is 12 (as can’t be 24 (as doesn’t divide 36), or 36 (as must divide 24 = N(1 + isqrt(6)))) but there is no element with norm 12
d is the gcd?
Yes
how did we get N(2) | N(d)?
As 2 | d
why do we have that again
oh
because 2 divides both of our x_is, right
N(d) | N(6) = 36
4 = N(2) | N(d)
6 = N(1 + isqrt(5)) | N(d)
12 | N(d)
4 | N(d) => N(d) = 4k
N(d) | 36 => N(d) in { 4, 12, 36 }
6 | N(d) => N(d) in { 12, 36 }
12 | N(d) => N(d) in { 12, 36 }
how are we eliminating 36?
Because it must divide N(2(1 + isqrt(5))) = 24
ah
N(d) | N(6) = 36
4 = N(2) | N(d)
6 = N(1 + isqrt(5)) | N(d)
12 | N(d)
N(d) | N(2(1 + isqrt(5))) = 24
4 | N(d) => N(d) = 4k
N(d) | 36 => N(d) in { 4, 12, 36 }
6 | N(d) => N(d) in { 12, 36 }
12 | N(d) => N(d) in { 12, 36 }
N(d) | 24 => N(d) = 12
ahh
yes
thank you so much for this and the past answers!
Let $G$ be an abelian group. Prove that the set of elements of order $2$, together with the identity element, i.e. $H = {a \in G : a^2 = e}$, is a subgroup of $G$.
Ayanokoji
yes
Ayanokoji
so you just need that all elements have inverse
and $a^{-1}$ is $a$ itself
Ayanokoji
yes
hence H is a subgroup
thank you
Let $G$ be an abelian group and $H = {x \in G : x^3 = 1}$. Prove that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.
Ayanokoji
for this, $H = {1, x, x^2}$. Hence we don't need to worry about closure because any element composed with another element will yield another element in the group (order of the element is equal to the order of the group). The inverse element of $x$ is $x^2$ and the inverse element of $x^2$ is $x$. Similarly, the identity is in the group, hence H is a subgroup of G.
Ayanokoji
no.
H = {1, x, x^2} makes no sense at all
Let G = integers mod 12 under addition
H = {x in G : x^3 = e} is still well defined
But H explicitly written out should not have any 'x' in it.
@chilly ocean
Maybe you're confused with set builder notation?
perhaps, sorry for the late response
how would I go about proving this then?
yes
um, x = 4
only?
so H is the group of elements of order 3
Yeah, and that doesnt necessarily have exactly 3 elements
it could be 1
or more than 3
eg. for integers modulo 5
H = {0}
As for more than 3, i think we need an example other than modular arithemetic
well, you need to show the 4 axioms
so start with closure, perhaps
H = {x in G : x^3 = e}
closure, inverse, identity
ok so
and all you know is x^3 = y^3 = e
take x, y in H
and a piece of important info is needed to show this
how would I do this?
well what do u know about things that live in H
more precisely a in H if a^3 = e
so you need to show (xy)^3 = e
(i would avoid saying order 3 for reasons here)
how does the 1st equals work
you claim xyxyxy = xxxyyy
oh
which is not necessarily true in any group
Ayanokoji
yh but there is something u can do, related to
i'm not sure what that is
read the question
You are given 2 pieces of information
G is abelian and the definition of H
the definition isnt making sense, how can we say X1 and X2 are disjoint, and if they are disjoint then why do we need the second union in the relations of the push out
g1 and g2 just need to be 'of different symbols'
Maybe it helps to understand pushouts in simpler categories first?
but then what's the purpose of the second union in the relations
phi1 and phi2 won't ever be same then
it's identifying the copy of G0 in G1 and G2 respectively
hmm this feels familiar. algebraic topology
oh so there's an underlying isomorphism
det
you want this diagram to commute, and the object you put at the bottom right should be universal with respect to this requirement
if G_0 was the trivial group, you're basically asking what is the universal group which contains both G1 and G2
(in the category of sets, this would correspond to the disjoint union)
but here, we take presentations of both groups and put them together
i havent done category theory yet, but i guess i understand what they might mean
ah okie, just ignore that word then :p
If G_0 is a non-trivial group, you would also like to identify the copies of G_0 you get in the free product
that's exactly what the extra set of relations do
for group theory when do i use the star sign and the circle sign for a binary operation
i just started it today
but X1 and X2 are disjoint so why would there be any g with phi1(g) = phi2(g)
G0 -> G1
G0 -> G2
You can have G1, G2 disjoint but these homomorphisms work?
this means that you look at the free group generated by x, y and then quotient by the normal subgroup generated x^-1y
so you want to force them to be equal
Like G1 and G2 may even be isomorphic copies, but that doesnt stop them being disjoint
if G1 === G2 then you'll find {phi1(g) = phi2(g) | g in G0} = G0 (assuming the 'same' homomorphism)
ofcoure there is no g such that those things are already equal, they live in different groups afterall
oh so they mean phi1(g) phi2(g) ^-1
yee!
you want to force this element to become identity in the pushout
so you add it as a relation
but writing relations by using "=" is a normal abuse of notation
the standard presentation for D_n is like < r, f | r^n = f^2 = e, frf = r^-1>
yeah but i wasnt expecting them to use both of those notations together lol
which ig properly should be written like <r, f|r^n, f^2, frfr>
yeah that makes sense now, thanks!

do you really have to brute force this???
so say we want to brute force the existence of the additive identity, in the worst case we have to check all 4 elements to really find it
to check one element would require you to compute a * e and e * a for every a and check whether this is indeed a
that's 4 * 4 * 2 ig?
same number for multiplicative identity
lol
i think its more of a combinatorics exercise than really asking someone to verify it by bruteforce
k
why did ya delete the question >.<
cause i think i just got it but yea...
Given the free group Z<a,b,c>, when we look at the subgroup Z<a-b+c, a-b-c> and we apply a "change of basis" by subtracting the two generators to get the subgroup Z<a-b+c,2c>, what exactly is going on?
More specifically, how can we guarantee that we haven't refined our subgroup any? Surely, one can just check and prove for this case that we're good, but I'm moreso interested in the Linear Algebra mechanics at play, since it's definitely a bit more nuanced than when we're allowed to have R as coefficients.
as long as you do operations which are reversible, you're good
here, you subtract again to get back one of the old genrators, (a-b+c)-2c
you can 'guarantee' by checking both inclusions ig
And I'm assuming the set of operations that consist of adding or subtracting the generators, when iterated, span the "reversible" operations?
i think for abelian groups, yep, but when you have a more complicated ring which isn't a PID, then you also would have other operations like multiplying a set of generators by an invertible matrix
yee, by units!
basically in the end i think you want to see whether the matrix map that sends one sets of generators to other is invertible or not
in your case the matrix was
[1 0]
[1 -1]```
and the question that you're asking is same as "is every invertible matrix over R, same as a product of elementary matrices?"
for euclidean domains this is definitely true
it might fail for PIDs as well, i'm not super sure
Ah, there it is! thank you!!
question got buried so asking again
By Cauchy's theorem, any even order group would not be simple right? excluding o(G) = 2. Because then there would be an element of o(x) = 2 and you can make a normal subgroup {e, x} that way which isn't trivial or G itself.
then why did I just read that o(G) = 60, 168, 360, etc. are exceptions
am I missing something maybe?
No
Simple means no nontrivial normal subgroup
There’s no reason the subgroup you make there has to be normal
ooo mb, that's why it felt wrong (@_@;) I kept wondering why gag^{-1} just didn't necessarily feel like it'd belong to {e, a} unless it's from Z(G)
(Also note this argument would actually show no finite group is simple besides the prime order onesif it worked)
worth mentioning that in S_n, all 2-cycles are conjugate to each other, so the subgroups of order 2 are very far from being normal
same is true in any group of order 2k where k is odd, if it contains more than one subgroup of order 2. In that case, the subgroups of order 2 are sylow subgroups, which again are all conjugate to each other
Groups are weird
Why does ord(sigma) divide k here?
k is in the kernel if and only if sigma^k = id
you wanna show that k would be divisible by ord(sigma)
this happens if and only if ord(sigma) divides k
more abstractly, if g is an element of a group G, then g^n = e is true if and only if n is divisible by the order of g.
(if you haven't seen the proof of this, argue as follows. assume g^n = e, and since we need to show it's divisible by ord(g), it makes sense to look at the remainder on division by ord(g), say n = ord(g) * q + r, with 0 <= r < ord(g). Show g^r = e, and think what this really means :3)
Hi det 
A thought popped into my head, I noticed that the first isomorphism theorem rather useful to show various isomorphisms. Im wondering whether every G/N isomorphic K will have some surjective homomorphism from G to K with the kernel being N?
The natural map G -> G/N has kernel N, so yes.
ooo ic thats pretty cool
Is there some fundemantel reason other than the proof on why if f is nilpotent then x,f(x),f^2(x),...,f^n-1(x) are independent
i mean what does f exactly do to a vector
if they weren't you'd get into a cycle, as it were
some vector would be repeated and would occur from then on
What do you mean by "other than the proof" - which proof are you using
I guess one way is to see that if T is an endomorphism of an F vector space V, then the polynomials p(t) in F[t] with p(T)(x) = 0 form an ideal J. This is generated by t^n, where n is minimal such that T^n(x) = 0
(J certainly contains t^n and doesn't contain any proper divisor of t^n by hypothesis)
Hence any polynomial p with p(T)(x) = 0 must be divisible by t^n and thus x, Tx, ..., T^n-1 x are all independent
Or you can do the standard way of multiplying it by T until you kill off all the terms but one, lol
not this one, the one where we compose lambdax +lambda f(x).....+lambda f^n-1(x) by f to show that each lambda =0
ye so this ig
wait why are they hence independent
Any polynomial p with p(T)(x) = 0 must be of degree >= n (in particular divisible by t^n)
yeah
