#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 15 of 1
Volkenborn
ker phi does not need to be 0
<= might work by induction 
for example the 0 map squares to itself but has nonzero kernel
any projection operator from linear algebra generally has nonzero kernel as well and squares to itself
OK, but if that doesn't work how do I use the idempotent condition of phi in the problem statement? Sort of stuck on that.
Like that should have something to do with the kernel but I am having trouble putting my finger on how I need to bridge those two together.
do you know about exact sequences?
Kind of? How would I use them?
you can construct a split exact sequence to do this
you can also just do it a little more manually if u prefer tho
I'd prefer this way, I don't think my textbook has presented exact sequences at all.
The problem is from Advanced Linear Algebra by Roman
basically, M = ker(phi) \oplus im(phi) if each element of M is uniquely a sum m + n for m in ker(phi) and n in im(phi)
so you just have to play around with the relation phi^2 = phi to figure it out
npnp
as another hint, it may help to think about the geometric interpretation of projections in linear algebra
what is this homomorphism?
what would be the natural hom from Z to Q for example
inclusion?
nah that's silly lol
im not sure actually, forgive me if it's a common example, but im assuming it'd be fraction related
Okay maybe that was a bit of a confusing thing ll
But what what is the natural like "Inclusion" R -> S^-1 R
obviously needn't be an inclusion if we aren't working with domains etc as said in the statement
Why is the Krull dimension of a PID that's not a field equal to 1? If it's not a field and there's a strict chain of prime ideals starting in P, then since P is prime it's also maximal and can only be strictly contained in the whole ring so shouldn't it have dimension 0?
there is one prime ideal which isn't maximal
oh duh, (0)
Is there any reason to write 'K[X]' with a capital 'x' instead of 'K[x]' ?
maybe to remind new students that polynomials are formal objects and not functions, otherwise no
sometimes it looks cooler
semi related to previous question but i also dont have a strong understanding of what a noetherian/artinian ring are
is a noetherian ring kinda like a weaker PID?
sorta but its quite a bit weaker because noetherian rings don't even need to be integral domains
nor commutative
hmmm i guess there's no point to thining of it like that then
there is probably better intuition but i just think of it as a nice ring where nice things happen
it's not being very nice to me i dont think
maybe this is a silly problem to have but ACC feels kinda like a contrived condition ig
but then again i felt like that about group axioms when i first started learning this so
the duality of man
I remember asking some people why Noetherian rings are useful to study when I first learned about it so I'll try to recall some of their answers. They may not make sense immediately (they certainly didn't for me!) but hearing that it isn't an arbitrary condition to consider is usually motivation enough for me:
-
The category of finitely generated modules over a Noetherian ring is abelian, which can be nice to consider from a module theoretic/representation theoretic perspective.
-
Noetherian rings have just enough structure to allow for a well-behaved ideal theory. For example, every ideal contains a product of prime ideals. As a consequence, if you impose some additional structure on your ring then you can ensure every ideal factors (uniquely) into a product of prime ideals. These are called Dedekind domains and are useful in algebraic number theory.
-
A lot of constructions preserve when a ring is Noetherian, such as taking polynomial rings, quotients, completions, and localizations. Many of the rings we study just end up being Noetherian, so we might as well use that property to gain a better understanding.
idk what half of that stuff is but it's stuff i've like vaguely heard about and is at least nice to know
thank you walter
i'll just trust it hesitantly for now
like i know it's not irrelevant i think i just need time with it to really trust it
that's fair
noether and i just aren't there yet
But yeah, I mean Proposition 2.1 becomes straightforward in Noetherian rings. I just view it as a bit of structure we can tack onto our ring without losing much generality
these are my prof's lecture notes i just thought it was funny that he jumps from saying its proof is straightforward to that
where does hilbert's basis thm fit into this? is it just a way of creating new noetherian rings to extend those "nice" things
Yeah, Hilbert's basis theorem shows that taking polynomial ring still preserves being Noetherian. This is one of the most common ways of constructing new rings so it's very good and useful that we get to keep this property
It's also useful in algebraic geometry. The fact that polynomial rings over, say, fields are Noetherian implies that if you have a set of points which are the solutions to an arbitrary collection of polynomials, then in fact they are the solutions to a finite set of polynomials
ok semi silly question, how is having a maximal ideal different from ACC
just because you have a maximal ideal doesn't mean that all the other ideals are contained in that ideal. It's also not the case that there can't be an infinite chain of ideals between a given ideal and the maximal ideal containing it
Oh, just because you mentioned it earlier, I'll add a brief remark about artinian rings
The descending chain condition ends up being quite strong. In fact, it actually implies the ascending chain condition (which is non obvious) so in particular all Artinian rings are also Noetherian. Furthermore, an Artinian integral domain must be a field.
what is a basis that respects a direct sum decomposition?
Just indexed such that the block matrix makes sense
is any element of a coset a representative element in the quotient group?
i'm pretty sure this follows from the fact that cosets are disjoint
moreso from the equivalence relation
https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/ringtheory/noetherian-ring.pdf reading this and im wondering, how are noetherian rings usually taught or presented?
my prof taught us ascending chain condition and then proved finitely generated ideals as a result but the latter seems both more to-the-point and intuitive
i guess this agrees with tht but finite generation seems much easier/palpable
prove the equivalence of the 3 statements and then define noetherian by any of them :3
or equivalently define it using one of them and then prove the equivalence. it's usually not a problem because most people will do this proof right after the definition as all these 3 statements are used very often
this seems to imply that ad_y is closed on the orthogonal complement? Why?
Can you have rings with uncountably many ideals?
{f : Z -> Z}, pointwise addition and multiplication
this is a ring? think it has uncountable ideals if so
Another equivalent condition to being noetherian if you learnt the chain condition is that every ideal is finitely generated. I personally find that characterization of noetherian rings to sound a lot more useful than the other one.
Why not? Let X={x_i : i\in I} where I is uncountable, and consider the polynomial ring in uncountably many variables R[X]. Each (x_i) is a different ideal
I agree. I think the most natural context to introduce noetherian rings is in linear algebra over rings. Modules are just vector spaces except that the set of scalars is a ring. So in general you cannot divide by scalars. Vector spaces are pretty nice, but modules are tricky. Many of the usual properties of vector spaces do not carry over to modules, but we would like to determine when properties of vector spaces kind of carry over to modules with some restrictions. Finitely generated modules are kind of nice, but submodules of finitely generated modules need not be finitely generated, and this sucks (non-noetherian rings are an example). Let M be a finitely generated R-module. Every ideal of R is (isomorphic to) a submodule of M, therefore if we expect that every submodule of M be fintiely generated, then R should be noetherian. Surprisingly, this is also a sufficient condition.
Is Spec(k[x,y]) = Spec((k[x])[y])?
k[x][y] = k[x,y] for k a ring?
For k an algebraically closed field
which is a ring
yeah
Without choice, does [\prod_{i\in \bN}\bR] have any maximal ideals besides (I_k = {(x_i)_{i \in \bN} \mid x_k = 0})?
孙山
@coral shale wait do the prime ideals correspond (bijectively) spec(k[x,y]) <----> spec(k[x]) x spec(k[y])
Not in a natural way: the prime ideals of k[x] and k[y] are maximal so speck[x] and speck[y] are just k by weak nullstellensatz. However (x-a,y-b) are not the only prime ideals of spec(k[x,y])
True for mSpec though (would just be a rephrasing of weak nullstellensatz)
cool
But if we take a disjoint union say Spec(A) \coprod Spec(B) that would be nautrally in bijection with Spec(A times B)
wait is \coprod_{i=1}^{\infty}\Spec(Z/2Z) in bijection with Spec(\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}Z/2Z)?
If the minimum size of maximal algebraic independent sets in K is 0, why can't there be a larger maximal algebraic independent set?
Let m be a maximal ideal. For $a \in m$ define $S_{a} = { i \in \mathbb{N} \mid a_i = 0}$. Define $F_{m} = { S_{a} \mid a \in m}$. It can be shown that this is an ultrafilter on $\mathbb{N}$. If m is not of the form that you gave, it will infact be a non principal ultrafilter, but there are models of ZF where there are no non principal ultrafilters on $\mathbb{N}$ so we see that atleast some weak form of choice is needed.
chmonkeynumber1fan
Thx
Is $\langle a, b \mid ba = a^{-1}b\rangle$ virtually abelian?
rob
It's isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z} \rtimes \mathbb{Z}$ with operation $(m_1, n_1) \odot (m_2, n_2) = (m_1 + (-1)^{n_1}m_2, n_1 + n_2)$
rob
since it looks like n_1 being even would make it abelian, then Z rtimes 2Z would be a subgroup of finite index I guess
how do you show that for any g, x in a group G, (x g x^-1)^n = x g^n x^-1
?
Try explicitly writing it out for say n=2 and n=3
induction, work out what n=2 and n=3 by hand if you don't see it
whoops sniped
gotcha
is there any intuition to how a generated group will look like?
I have an intuition for $\gen{x}$
illuminator3 (I/you)
but I'm missing one for all of the other cases
e.g. $[G, G] \coloneqq \gen{aba\inv b\inv : a,b \in G}$
illuminator3 (I/you)
All "words" in the elements in the generating set and their inverses
words?
Essentially all finite products of elements in the generating set and their inverses
There is no good intuition for what this kind of group "looks like" in general that I know of, and I would argue at all.
ah
thanks
depends what you mean by "look like". You could always look at the associated cayley complex to get some sort of a geometric intuition but idk if it's very useful most of the time
The problem is that the cayley graph can be arbitrarily complicated, so I don't think there's really any hope of being able to visualise that in general
I have to find all invertible elements of the ring
Z[sqrt(3)]. I know they correspond to integer solutions of
a^2 - 3b^2 = 1 (I proved this already)
but now I don't know how to explicitly find all of them, I know sqrt(3) + 2 generates an infinite set of solutions, but I don't know if there are solutions that have another form. Does one proceed here with ring theory argument or would you need more number theory for this one?
Can’t you like
Write out general forms of elements
They look like a + bsqrt(3)
Then multiply two of these
Or maybe that’s how you got to that equation
i believe that leads to what stockfish gets
I mean
well
Why not then say like it’s things of the form a + bsqrt(3) where a = +-sqrt(1 + 3b^2)
So you need 1 + 3b^2 to be a square
Or I guess not

Wait duh a is an integer
So yeah
Okay so you want to solve 1 + 3b^2 = c^2 so you need b^2 = (c^2 - 1)/3
misread
if u is a unit, then look at v = +- u * (2 + sqrt(3))^n some integer n such that 1 <= v < (2+sqrt(3)) as real numbers
show this implies v = 1
one way to do this is by noticing that 1 < (v + 1/v) < 3+sqrt(3), so if v = a + sqrt(3)b, then 2 <= 2a < 4.7ish and so a = 1,2
which means b = 0,1
so v = 1 or 2 + sqrt(3)
the second one is obviously bad
as v < 2+sqrt(3)

so every unit is a power of (2+sqrt(3))
(upto +-1)
.<
i had to edit all of the messages >.<
why me make so many mistakes >.<
scheme theorist back in action I see
I don't fully get the line of reasoning here, what do your initial assumptions of the form of v add to the equation. well I see the idea, I'll try to work it out thanks
How is this scheme theory?
Isn't this just saying every non unit is contained in a maximal ideal?
it is not, it is just trying to use unnecessary abstractness for something that apparently didn't need an abstract solution
oh so the broad idea is similar to how you show in group theory that if g^n = 1 then order of g divides n
you look at the remainder and argue that it's weird
so here if you think of 2+sqrt(3) as "the fundamental" unit
then given any other unit, we try to get a smoller unit
something between 1 and 2+sqrt(3)
and argue that this is bad
Yeah my maximal ideal thing was a pretty crap idea, I only said it because maximal ideals of Z[x] are known so it’s realistic to classify the maximal ideals of this ring
if u was negative then we replace u with -u and it's still a unit
now since 2+sqrt(3) > 1
you can multiply by a suitable power to get v in that range
ig i wrote it in a very messy way >.<
but this is the idea i'm following
this was on sheet one of my algebra course, I uh... but that's cool that we know this I guess, I would like to know too
so Z[sqrt(3)] = Z[x]/(x^2 - 3) right?
Prime ideals of this ring then correspond to primes J of Z[x] containing x^2 - 3
But we can just write J down
Also for reasons that may or may not be obvious to you, J has to be maximal
So we want to look at J = (p, f(x)) where p is a prime number and f is irreducible over Fp
hmm this does seem tricky though
thanks, I see the broader picture, I guess fiddling around with the inequalities you wrote will work out eventually
is there an elementary way to see this, or did you have dim Z[x] = 2 in head?
reality check: wait how do you prove again that Z[x] is a ufd, this would follow from that fact right?
That's what I had in mind but I'm pretty sure there's easier ways to see it
you compare it with Q[x] and use gauss
Does finite ring extension preserving dimension count as elementary?
bc Z < Z[sqrt(3)] is finite
i read about dimension theory a while ago, and i forgot a lot of it already 
right
Idk though
I'm not sure how much more elementary you can get
Like if you know stuff about stuff
You could say oh it's a dedekind domain
So what you want is for f to be a lift of an irreducible factor of x^2-3 mod p
yea lol
So for p = 2 it’s obvious and for p = 3
Agreed okay
But that’s why I asked when 3 is a square mod p
Right
So this method is just a NT thing
yeah I mean I think it's going to be quadratic reciprocity man idk
this happens when p = 1, 11 mod 12 i think
idk, I found it kind of a cool application, since via basically just the definition of a ring you can prove this equation has infinitely many integer solutions
If R is localized first at S then at the image of T, then this is the same as localizing at TS. So is every element of (TS)^(-1)R of the form r/st for s in S and t in T?
yes, ST is the set of products s*t for s in S and t in T
the reason this double localization thing is true is because (r/s)/t = r/st lol
I think I just proved it via univ property and didn’t look back 
I mean I guess lol
Oh
Chmonkey you just made me realize something
I think a certain functor is strong monoidal
Omg did u come to grips with ur sexuality?
I meant sapiosexual since you like to jerk off with category theory so much heyooooo got ‘em lollll ownedddd
Internalized cat phobia

will fear of category theory ever go away
what in the abstract algebra is going on here
Yeah!
It's a very fun field
I have been doing a lot of category theory recently
With triangulated categories and stuff
what about it is fun (genuine question)
I mean it would depend on your taste in math, I guess? Why is analysis or algebra fun?
I like how natural everything feels. You define things in the right way and a beautiful theory pops out
I like how it emphasizes the perspective that mathematical things are defined by how they interact with one another
I like how it provides the right tools for generalizing old ideas to new contexts
I can be more specific if you want me to give examples or w/e
I personally find math the most motivating when it allows me to answer a classical question, or lets just say. The best way to motivate a new layer of abstraction to me is to give a problem in the current layer i.e. a question I understand with my current knowledge, whose solution requires something new in order to solve it.
The problem I had when I guess just seeing small pieces of cat theory thus far is that it just takes bits of it that either seem very general for no reason or that are specifically tailored for that field you're using it in. I just haven't felt like I got a new tool that gives me more insight. I know that's not true and that it's supposed to be useful/powerful, I just never came across that in my courses
Sure, I don't think that category is universally applicable to math
I think if you think it's general for no reason then you probably haven't seen the math that requires its use
I do homological algebra and this is the field that literally led to the invention of category theory
the pieces of algebraic topology I saw do seem like they could use category theory, as the diagrams just get so huge at some point
There are things in algebraic topology and commutative algebra that fundamentally cannot be stated without talking about the "Ext" and "tor" functors
Eg the universal coefficient theorem for cohomology
These are objects which are (1) defined by an abstract categorical process, called deriving a functor, (2) can still actually be calculated in explicit cases, and (3) show up very naturally in algebra as kinds of obstructions
And I want to be clear like these aren't specialist tools within these fields, they're usually taught in a first year graduate algebra course and are on most qualifying exams
Even like the tensor product of two modules is hard to think about without thinking about it categorically (ie by its universal property instead of its elements), and that's one of the most fundamental things in algebra
True
Yes the tensor product was always easier to think about lile this, but what problems are these objects used for. What do they help us prove/understand?
Not the tensor product. But what you talked about
You can use homological algebra to study Banach spaces
I have no idea what I'm talking about, but Wiles's proof did use category theory no? I say this because Stockfish commented about classical problems
Maybe I just made this up completelly xdd
I was hoping for a slightly more specific answer than that. But sure I guess
Maybe. Not like I can read it or sth💀 but I guess that would be cool if the proof did have to partly rely on purely cat theoretical objects
Wiles proof extensively used category theory

All modern algebraic geometry is built on a very categorical foundation
The stuff wiles was doing especially so
Ext and tor? As I said, look at the universal coefficient theorem
If you continue doing algebraic topology, algebraic geometry, or commutative algebra you will run into Ext and tor all of the time
The proof used cohomology for grothendieck topoi!
See the comments here https://mathoverflow.net/q/35746/136523
I was just reading this
Explicitly, here's how Ext and tor show up
You have a short exact sequence 0 -> L -> M -> N -> 0
So roughly this means M is a module containing L as a submodule and with M/L = N
You then tensor with some new module P
The sequence 0 -> L (×) P -> M (×) P -> N (×) P -> 0 will not generally be exact
It's exact on the right but the first map won't always be injective
That does sound pretty cool. But at the same time that also sounds like it would take years of studying for this thing to even become remotely readable for me
But we can exactly measure how much it falls to be injective using the modules Tor_i(L, P), Tor_i(M, P), and Tor_i(N, P)
Yeah, this is a very complicated example
I think it's fine to say category theory doesn't seem necessary to you right now
This I remember from commalg
Right
So how about this
Let A be a ring
I, J ideals of A
In general we don't have IJ = I cap J, yeah?
It would be useful to have a nice criterion somehow, or be able to measure it in a sort of computable way
And with the mathematical path I'm taking rn unfortunately not in the future either.
Well it turns out (I cap J)/IJ is isomorphic to Tor_1(A/I, A/J)
What path are you taking?
Chmonkey took his first AG class just to say he didn't like it
More operations research related math atm. I.e. combinatorics, probability and just linalg mixed with probability stuff.
Oh fun
Then yes I'd agree
The stuff you were posting above seemed like algebraic number theory and I was skeptical (that you would not need category theory)
This does seem like a cool fact
In linear algebra, there is the natural isomorphism between a vector space and its double dual
I know there are people that try to formulate problems from that field in category theoretic ways (there always are these kinds of people) but it hasnt been popular so far
There's a natural transformation V -> V^** but it won't be an isomorphism unless V is infinite dimensional
I don't have a very positive view of applied category theory
oh okay, my bad.
It seems like people start with the question of "how can we apply category theory to this?" and then just define a bunch of things
Instead of doing anything novel
Yeah. Thats what I felt like too. Its never been about finding patterns or phenomena in the subject to develop a new technique/formalism, which is what research should be about
Right. I think it's wrong to assume that's what all uses category theory look like though
It was invented because of naturally occurring problems, but those problems were in algebra, algebraic to topology, and algebraic geometry. You do not need it for everything
Well at least in the field I mentioned
Yeah it does have more natural applications in some parts if language processing and various other fields. Its just that in certain fields they simply try to force it because they can
I guess the field that looks most appealing if I happen to change seems to be topological data analysis. It's probably of great use there
I got ghost pinged
👻
Let $\omega$ be a primitive 10th root of unity, where $\omega \neq 1.$ Find the minimal polynomial of $\omega^{24}+\omega^{34}$.
Is the minimal polynomial $x^{4}-2x^{3}+4x^{2}+8x+16$?
Sapphire Gaming
That is an interesting way to write 2w^4
It should +2 but other than that you should be correct
What are the prime ideals in \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}Z/2Z
Is it just 1, the product of the zero ideals
This is a lot more non-trivial than that.
Prime ideals in this ring are in a bijective order-preserving correspondence with ultrafilters on the index set.

I am trying to show that \coprod{i=1}^{\infty}\Spec(Z/2Z) in bijection with Spec(\prod{i=1}^{\infty}Z/2Z)
It’s not true
This is not as scary as you make it seem! That ring is Hom_Set({index set}, Z/2Z), ie the powerset ring of the index set
If we remember the duality between ideals and filters of a boolean algebra the bijection falls out
Also both orders are discrete, ie everything is maximal, so while it is order preserving that's not very interesting
How would you show that it is not true without mentioning ultrafilters
You probably don’t
You could maybe compute the global functions or something of the infinite disjoint union if you’re crazy and show it isn’t the product of Z/2Z? Idk if that’s true tho lol
The reason why I say that is cause the question comes from earlier questions in the problem sets for my AG class
So I presumed it wasn't too bad
It's not true I think
Yeah it's not
This is fundamentally correct
Doesn't mean you can't solve the problem adam
We have a countably infinite number of prime ideals on the left hand side. And the right hand side is??
The left hand side doesn't have prime ideals, it has points
But yes, this will work!
Try to figure out a way to show there are uncountably many primes of the countable direct product
(in fact there are always 2^(2^κ) ultrafilters on a set X of infinite cardinality κ)
Neat.
It only feels scary because I never think about anything like these things.
Yeah, I get that. I think people overestimate how scary anything logicy is
You can get cool stuff from logic, eg you can prove the algebraic closure of a field exists very cleanly using ultraproducts
(or basically equivalently by the compactness theorem)
Since the right hand side is quasi compact and the lhs is not quasi compact then we get that there cannot exist a bijection?
how is tr_C different from tr_{C^n}?
context: I think my professor is abbreviating this:
nvm I think it's a typo
Is every element not contained in some maximal ideal?
I want to know if I can always find a maximal ideal that does not contain any given nonzero nonunit element.
ok that makes a bit more sense 
that shouldn't be possible in a local ring
If the ring is not a local ring, then might this be true?
It is true in no ring since any ideal containing 1 is non maximal
I have my doubts, one can probably construct examples from this idea to generalize it
I think username0000 meant it should also not be a unit
Well then in any field the statement is vacuously true lol
it's also true in Z, but not true in local rings for example
Yeah so if you have a non zero non unit x (x) is not the whole ring, so it can be enlarged to a maximal ideal
In a local ring anything outside the maximal ideal is a unit so your ctr example doesn’t work
you can take the product of two local rings, then it shouldn't work either
Volkenborn
But if M is an R-module, don't these two conditions (finitely generated and free) mean that M just has a finite basis?
Why is the given information sufficient to show that M is a vector space (since the base ring is then a field apparently)? Surely there are free modules with finite basis with a non-field base ring.
Am I missing something obvious?
There are, the point being that if that is all there is then the base ring is a field
Oh so if there is no additional structure imposed on the module (besides finitely generated and free) then the base ring is a field?
I don't immediately see why that is obvious though
Well notexactly. The point is that if R is not a field it will have some finitely generated module that is not free
It will still also have finitely generated free modules in addition
Ohhhh, that makes sense, thanks @gritty sparrow.
This is possible iff the element is not in the intersection of all maximal ideals.
The intersection of all maximal ideals is called the Jacobson radical, and I don't think it's often {0}.
IDK anything about Jacobson radicals, but hopefully this leads to Googlable results about when it's {0}.
Are there any epis in (Comm)Ring other than quotienting by ideals and localisation?
More precisely and concretely, given a (commutative) ring S and a subring R such that any two homomorphisms to any other (commutative) ring that agree on R must agree on S (ie coincide), is S necessarily a localisation of R?
Finding the minimal polynomial of c seems pretty hard, is there a way to show that Q(5^(1/7)+7^(1/5))=Q(5^(1/7),7^(1/5))
in a boolean algebra, what is the intuition for the ordering of the induced lattice?
is it just a <= b if we can derive b from a? This seems close to right, but not exactly
Hello, i dont understand a single thing i had written down. Could someone help me understand why 1 + 0 = 0 ? (both pics are related)
say * is a law on E. If i have x*e = x and that e = 0, why would 1 + 0 = 0 and not 1 + 0 = 1 ?
I have no idea what you wrote down either
the translation and rotation contributes to that
please just translate it manually
well, it is about neutral element of a law on left or right side
law?
E is a set, * is the internal composition law of E and e element of E. If we have $\forall x /in E, x*e=x$ then e is a neutral element of E on the right side
🖤𝓼𝓪𝓫𝓮𝓵𝓵𝓪⛓🌹
the star
oh that's called the operation
right
are we working with groups?
is there such "neutral element on left and right side" ?
yes
alright
you mean double sided neutral element, or?
and in my case, we have x*e = x
i dont know
im confused
why did i write 1 + 0 = 0
we supposed e neutral on right side
i dont get it
probably
all the rest was fine until i saw this thing
thank you either way chief !
You don't want to find that by hand lol
By multiplicativity of the degree, you just need to show that the degree of 5^(1/7)+7^(1/5) is strictly greater than 5 and 7. Like 35 only has two prime factors, so there are not a lot of possibilities. EDIT: This is for showing Q(5^(1/7),7^(1/5))=Q(5^(1/7)+7^(1/5)), to show that your number is algebraic, you just need to see that the second field is contained in the first
then you will be done
I'm not sure how straightforward is that tho
I don't understand why $\bR[x^2 + 1] \cong \bC$. like I get that $\bR[x^2 + 1] = \Set{p(x) + (x^2+1)q(x) | p(x),q(x) \in \bR[x]}$, but how is that the complex numbers?
illuminator3 (I/you)
Not $\bR[x^2+1]$, rather $\bR[x]/(x^2+1)$.
that's the same though
The set ${p(x) + (x^2+1)q(x) | p(x),q(x) \in \bR[x]}$ is equal to $\bR[x]$ because 1 and x^2+1 are coprime, and $\bR[x]$ is definitely not isomorphic to $\bC$ (because it's not a field).
Ocean Man
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
what's the set representation of $\bR[x]/(x^2+1)$
illuminator3 (I/you)
C
You are just quotiening out by x^2+1, which means that x^2=-1 and x is something independent of R
That's just the usual i
Ocean Man
$$\bR[x]/(x^2 + 1) = \bR[x]/\Set{(x^2+1)q(x) | q(x) \in \bR[x]} = \Set{p(x) + (x^2+1)q(x) | p(x), q(x) \in \bR[x]}$$
illuminator3 (I/you)
What you wrote down is some subset of $\bR[x]$ (actually the entirety of $\bR[x]$, but that's not important), what you're looking for is the quotient ring $\bR[x]/(x^2+1)$.
Ocean Man
but isn't R[x] the ring we're generating an ideal from? not R?
because x^2 + 1 is in R[x]
Yes, it is, but once you've generated the ideal you quotient R[x] by it and get something new.
are the cosets for rings different than those for groups?
No, it's the same thing.
I thought $G/I = \Set{g + I | g \in G}$
illuminator3 (I/you)
That's right, what you wrote down was something else.
illuminator3 (I/you)
^ that's just applying this definition, no?
Because {p+q(x^2+1)|p,q in R[x]} and {p+(x^2+1)|p in R[x]} are two different things.
One is a subset of R[x], the other is the set of equivalence classes of some relation.
that one was before quotening out
?
Yes, this is correct.
Hi sorry for the absence. Yeah I understand that you have the basis of the trivial and standard representation. And it is possible to have a general formula for those basis. But I was wondering if it were possible to have something similar for the sign representation?
then $\gen{x^2 + 1} = \Set{q(x)(x^2 + 1) | q(x) \in \bR[x]}$
illuminator3 (I/you)
just think of it algebraically
Yes, but what you had written before was some set of polynomials (that happened to be all of R[x], although that's beside the point.
This is the set of cosets wrpt to the subgroup (x^2+1)
The notation g+N is meant to be taken symbolically, you don't actually write out what N looks like.
x is sent to "something" that will satisfy x^2=-1 and is linearly independent of 1 over R (meaning, you will have a field of dimension 2 over R). That's just C
illuminator3 (I/you)
it does?
x is sent to "something" that will satisfy x^2=-1
why?
I have never heard that word
in algebra sets are not really relevant, so idk why you worry about set representations of C if you are doing algebra
The set representation is every complex number a+bi corresponds to the coset $(a+bx)+I$
Ocean Man
it's confusing if both of you are talking at the same time
i.e. 1 complex number corresponds to a whole multitude of polynomials, namely all the ones that look like (a+bx) plus something times (x^2+1)
You wanted the literal set representation, this is what it is.
This is not something deep
if you know what a quotient is, it should be obvious
I know what a quotient is and it isn't
x^2+1 is "sent" to 0, agreed?
Say you have an element g, a normal subgroup N of G and by some happenstance g^2 lies in N. Then the coset g+N will have the property (gN)^2=1.
ok so, just go to your book and look the definitions
OK, I'm excusing myself from this in order not to confuse things further, you do it @rotund aurora
I'm looking at the lecture script
I'm taking an algebra course
Im not going to explain this to you, because I think any book out there would do a much better job than I would do. You are asking what quotients of rings are
0 + (x^2+1) is one such coset
yes
yes
so work modulo n. Then a=b modulo n if and only if a-b is divisible by n. This is to say, a-b is in the ideal (n) of Z. Agreed?
yes
Then we do the same thing in general for any ideal I of any ring R. We say a=b modulo I if and only if a-b is in I
yes
then x^2+1=0 modulo (x^2+1) because x^2+1 is in (x^2+1). And x^2+1=0 implies x^2=-1 (this should be proven, and you really want be able to make this kind of operations, this is why we quotient out by ideals and not by subrings)
why is working in (x^2+1) like mod x^2+1
"mod" is just a way of talking, but it is the same as in modular arithmetic
You have a ring R and an ideal I. Then, you define a relation $\sim$ by $a\sim b$ if and only if $a-b\in I$. This turns out to be not only an equivalence relation, but a congruence
Croqueta
ah
I think I get the idea [Q(5^(1/7)+7^(1/5):Q] is clearly not 1, so I need to check 5^(1/7)+7^(1/5) is not a root of of some 5 or 7 degree polynomial in Q[x] right?
Meaning, that if $a\sim b$ and $c\sim d$ then $a+c\sim b+d$ and $ac\sim bd$
Croqueta
ye
and well, in $\bR[x]/(x^2+1)$ you have $0\sim x^2+1$, since $x^2+1-0=x^2+1\in (x^2+1)$, and since this relation is a congruence, $x^2\sim -1$
Croqueta
And that's essentially it
still don't get how quotening out gives us C
Because this quotient ring is generated by our "new" $x$ and $x^2=-1$, so all elements of $\bR[x]/(x^2+1)$ have the form $a+bx$ where $a,b\in \bR$ and $x$ satisfies the relation $x^2=-1$.
Croqueta
and that's just the definition of complex numbers
why is everything in $\bR[x]/(x^2+1)$ of the form $a + bx$
illuminator3 (I/you)
ah wait
cuz if we get degree 2 or higher the x^2 = -1 applies
so we have a restriction to degree 0 and 1?
yes
like, expressions like $x^3+x^2+1$ still make sense, but $x^3+x^2+1=-x$, see why?
Croqueta
yeah
okay so I get how x^2 ~ -1 but I don't understand why quotening the ideal makes that equivalence relation always true in the resulting ring
mmh I'm not sure what you mean
didn't you say you got it already?
no no, I probably explained it wrong
the first expression is not "in" but "modulo" (but you don't need to use that word, is just to make the analogy with the usual mod arithmetic).
The answer to the second question is just what I explained
ah I think I get it
just like in $\bZ/2\bZ$ the case $3 + \bZ$ is the same as $1 + \bZ$
illuminator3 (I/you)
so it's modulo sort of?
Again, only focus on algebraic relations. The set of the ring R[x]/(x^2+1) can still well be R[x], just as in modular arithmetic, say Z/2Z, it makes sense to talk about 3. But when you quotient out, you are introducing new relations, at first, you make those up, then you want these relations to be well behaved under the operations of your original ring
yes
But like, cosets are a way to cope
well I suppose maybe not exactly
wait nvm I think I got it but I don't lol
well actually I think strictly speaking the underlying set should be the cosets lol, but I never think in terms of cosets or anything like that. What you said above is the point I'm trying to make, 1+Z=3+Z
what is x^3 in (x^2+1)
ahhh right
but not "in" (x^2+1)
ye my terminology in english is pretty messed up lol
The first isomorphism theorem should tell you a lot about this
which one
consider the homomorphism $\bR[x]\to \mathbb C$ that fixes $\bR$ and sends $x\mapsto i$. What is the kernel?
some of the isomorphism theorems are called homomorphism theorems in my native language
Croqueta
ahhhhhh
(x^2+1) lol
so that's it
yeah and the function is surjective
If you can show that, you will be done. But I'm not sure how straightforward is that, I have not done a lot of this exercises myself
but if you want to show the number is algebraic, you just need to show that the field Q(5^(1/7)+7^(1/5)) is included in Q(5^(1/7),7^(1/5))
since the latter is algebraic and finite
Showing algebraic is easy as it's a sum algebraic numbers but finding it's degree is pain in the ass showing 5^(1/7)+7^(1/5) is not a root of a 5,7 degree polynomial sounds like some annoying calculations
here's a obvious example, $$\left[\bQ\left(\sqrt[3]{7+\sqrt{50}}+\sqrt[3]{7-\sqrt{50}}\right) : \bQ\right] > 1$$ right?
Merosity
isn't this just 2
If it has a cbrt
I would be very surprised if it was 2
,w minimal polynomial of cbrt(7 + sqrt(50)) + cbrt(7 - sqrt(50))
lmao
Bruh
lol
I thought you meant degree 2
Tbf
Which felt very weird
Somehow this literallt being the number 2
Makes me feel better
is there a quick cheap way of proving the degree is 1
like it's fixed by permuting sqrt(2) with -sqrt(2), but that's not really exhaustive
just cube it
cause I don't care that it's 2 personally, just that it's a rational number and so should be able to show it's fixed by all field automorphisms
Chmowned
how would i go about this?
it inherits it from Z.. call the equivalence class in Z/nZ of some a in Z [a]. Then ([a]+[b])+[c] = ([a+b]) + [c] = [(a + b)] + [c] = [(a + b) + c] = [a + (b +c)] = [a] + [(b+c)] = [a] + ([b + c]) = [a] + ([b] + [c])
same for multiplication, just replacing + with *
Are there reasonable geometric tools that will allow you to construct every real number? Or at least, every algebraic real number?
does this imply that all groups are closed under their binary operation?
a binary operation on a set is closed by definition
yeah a binary operation * is a map from G x G -> G so necessarily it takes values in G
closed means its output values are all in G
How do this
Why does the first isomorphism hold? Is it always so that if L/K is an extension, then $L\otimes_{K}K[x]/I\cong L[x]/I$?
Ocean Man
Oh wait, I is not necessarily an ideal in L[x]. OK, what if we substitute I with K[x]f and L[x]f respectively?
why is finite needed?
the extension i had in mind was, (m/n)a = sum a m times, minus a (n-1) times
Because a Q-vector space must necessarily be infinite.
and why?
Because if M is such a vector space (or over any infinite field, not only Q) and x is non-zero, then Qx has infinitely many elements.
If ax=bx, then (a-b)x=0 and since x is non-zero, a-b=0 and a=b. So for different values of a you get different vectors ax.
So a finite Z-module can never become a Q-module.
i dont understand your reasoning
Is this part not clear to you?
the part above
This part shows Qx is an infinite set. It is contained in M, so M itself must be infinite.
where does this fail then?
I just outlined to you why in a Q-vector space different elements act differently (for general modules this is called being "torsion-free"). If n is the order of M and x is a non-zero element, then nx=2nx (both are zero). But this couldn't happen if M were a Q-vector space.
Plus, using your definition you'd get 1/2*x=0 for all x, another thing that can't happen in a Q-vector space.
Not rly imo. There's a very basic explanation (the one I gave you): a Q-vector space cannot be finite as a set. M is, so M can't be a Q-vector space.
If you know what ring homomorphisms are I can give you another explanation (a little more high-brow, though I don't think it's more helpful than the one I gave before).
so here, why cant we have torsion elements
zero div but in context of modules
a-b != 0 and x!=0 but (a-b)x = 0 in M
That can't happen if (a-b) is invertible, which is the case in a field if a-b!=0.
If an element a is invertible, then from ax=0 follows x=0 (multiply both sides by the inverse of a).
R-module structures on M correspond with ring homomorphisms of R into End(M) (the ring of endomorphisms of the abelian group M). Ring homomorphisms out of fields are injective, so if M is a K-module, a copy of K has to sit in End(M). However if M is finite, then so is End(M) (as a set of functions from a finite set to itself), so if K is infinite there can be no ring homomorphism and hence no K-module structure on M.
Question regarding the definition of an Ideal in ring theory
just ask the question
the product is from anything in the ring, the sum is from anything in the ideal
Ok
So right ideal
Is when ra \in I for r in R and a in I
Sorry that’s left ideal
Or wait
you gave the right ideal
so a right ideal is where multiplication has the ideal element on the right.
left is where ideal is on the left
What
so if you have a ring R
what
Then
ar \in I
Means I is left ideal
For r in R
And@if I is both left and right ideal the. It’s an ideal ?
yep
Ok so the@general term ideal implies both left and right ideal
"ideal" is usually used when it's either clear which it is or when it's abelian, or when it doesn't matter
Left ideals have a 'left action' by the ring and right ideals have a right action. Same with left and right modules, ideals are submodules.
He’s right
So no a left ideal is on the right not the left
err wait what? rx in I with r in R and x in I is definitely a right ideal nope
In a noncommutative ring R, a left ideal is a subset I which is an additive subgroup of R and such that for all r in R and all a in I, ra in I. A left ideal of R can be characterized as a right ideal of the opposite ring of R. In a commutative ring, the notions of right ideal and left ideal coincide.
Nope
nope, I mixed it up
Wikipedia confirms
apologies
Left ideal is mult by left by ring element
So if I’m given a Boolean ring
And it says every finitely generated ideal is principle
Is that ideal both left and right
i think a boolean ring is commutative so theyre the same thing in that case
Ok so for commutative rings
And ideal is. Both left and right
Otherwise you need to specify left or right
Noncommutative rings include endomorphism rings of most commutative rings, it's worth knowing some noncommutative stuff but algebraic geometry is done classically in the commutative setting and it's where the best examples for understanding are.
Also principle is not left and right. Being both left and right ideals is just called being an ideal
So Boolean rings are commutative
boolean rings indeed are abelian
Oh I proved that yesterday
That R is commutative if it’s Boolean
It uses the old (a+b) = a + ab + ba + a trick
Ok now back to my proof of if I is an ideal in Boolean ring that is finitelt@generated then it’s principle
This is from my lecture notes. So this is using a formula for the Killing form on the general linear lie algebra and applying Cartan's Criterion: a Lie algebra is semi-simple iff its Killing form is non-degenerate.
But it only tests for the unit matrix and an arbitrary B, how does this imply that k(A, B) = 0 for any A and B?
oooOO, that's actually the definition of "degenerate bilinear form"..
question is this a good start for this proof
this proof
MyMathYourMath
It’s principal not principle
sorry
And induction sounds like a good idea
okie doke then
can i just show That
$I=(a_1,...,a_{k-2}, a_{k-1}+a_k+a_{k-1}a_k):=I'$
MyMathYourMath
then $I$ has $k-1$ generators
MyMathYourMath
then done by indution
is this a good idea ^
clearly $I' \subset I=(a_1,...,a_k$)$
MyMathYourMath
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
If you can show that they’re the same ideal then yeah
You want to just cut down the number of generators by 1
is there some sort of algebraic object that acts as something like a boolean where
0+0=0
0+1=1+0=1
1+1=1
?
I mean boolean algebras are already algebraic enough right
unless you want another name for the same thing
don't know what that is, so that's probably the answer to my question lol
you probably do know
you've seen it before anyways
I wanted to find the minimal polynomial of $\omega+\omega^{6}$, where $\omega$ is a primitive 7th root of unity, and $\omega \neq 1.$
I don’t know what to do for this last part.
Sapphire Gaming
(A) make sense… but what do they mean by order r in (b)
like, |H| = r
Haha, I know that…. Why should it be normal
It’s just an integer right… and certainly not every subgrp is normal… and they are not saying anything special about r
Ok.. so what do I do for the last part?
they are saying there is only one subgroup of order r
(ignore the message i deleted)
like, the group may have other subgroups, but any subgroup of order r is exactly H
Got it… and (a) says gHg-1 is subgroup
Now we know |gHg^-1| = |H| (proved before) and since only subgp with order r is H, H = gHg-1, thus H is normal
nice
am i missing something, or is this just {1, -1, i, -i}?
for n=4 sure but not anything else
suppose G is a group and H normal in G, i am wondering when G/H is isomorphic to some subgroup K of G
for instance, if V is a vector space and W a subspace of V, then there is always a subspace W' of V which is isomorphic to V/W, but this doesnt seem to hold for groups
first isomorphism theorem maybe?
if you have a homomorphism phi : G -> G' then G/ker(phi) is isomorphic to im(phi)
yes..? how does that help
G/H is isomorphic to K if you can find a homomorphism whose kernel is H and whose image is K
It's apparently true for finite abelian groups. No longer true for infinite finitely-generated abelian groups, since, for example, Z has no subgroup isomorphic to Z/2Z.
I say "apparently" because I googled it.
lol could you share what you found i couldnt find anything (but didnt look too hard)
This website carried me through the group theory part of my algebra course.
Finding a homomorphism G -> G with kernel H and image K sounds harder than just writing down H and K.
fair
thank you! exactly what I was looking for. very funny that the hypothesis I was curious about is in fact a definition: "endomorphism kernel"
I wanted to find the minimal polynomial of $\omega+\omega^{6}$, where $\omega$ is a primitive 7th root of unity.
I don’t know what to do for this last part.
I know $\omega^{6}+\omega^{5}+…+1 = 0$ and $w^{7}-1 = 0.$
Ah ok, thank you 🙂
@solemn hollow
@solemn hollow
@celest cairn
@solemn hollow
can every element of a ring be written as sum of 1's ?
No, Q is a ring, try writing 1/2 as a sum of 1's.
oof, thanks
my mind was stuck on integer rings lmao
If I want to show R/(p^n) is indecomposable as an R-module (i.e. not a non-trivial direct sum of its submodules), is the following enough: if R/(p^n) were decomposable, its submodules A and B would be homomorphic images of it and hence cyclic themselves and since p^n annihilates the module, they would have to be of the form R/(p^a), R/(p^b) for a,b<n. However such a module is annihilated by p^{max(a,b)}, which properly divides p^n (for a,b<n), a contradiction.
when it says $Hom_{R}(R,R)$ it means the module homomorphisms right
pewdssssssss
when R is a ring
why are factorizations unique up to a unit (ik how you prove this but I don't understand the definition)
like, why does it make sense to define factorization with a unit in the front
because 4 = (2)(2) = (-2)(-2)
in the integers
we can have -1 infront of some of the factors
I forgot to mention that everything is commutative
I don't really get your point... 2*2 has the unit 1 in the front, but so does (-2)*(-2)
okay ...
so for for any integer
there can be many factorizations
if we do not make it unique upto units
-1 too
right
so 4 = 2 * 2 = -1 * 2 * -1 * 2
wut
but the -1 appears twice...?
if $r \in R$ and $r \neq 0$ then $r = \epsilon p_1 \ldots p_n$ with $\epsilon \in R^x$ and $p_i$ prime elements
...what?
illuminator3 (I/you)
units in Z are 1 and -1, dividing and multipling by them are not meaningful essentially
why is it not meaningful to multiply by a unit?
because we can just multiply by its inverse
that doesn't really explain my question
Youre question is why is the definition require "unique upto units" yes?
no
.
"i dont understand the definition"
like, why does it make sense to define factorization with a unit in the front
that is not my question
the point is, if we have two factorizations. they will only differ by units
that is not my question
R^x for units
why does it make sense to do that?
like why do we define factorization like this?
when will we ever encounter a situation where that unit is necessary
i told you, in alot of cases, its just a 1
In Z it’s definitely needed, as pewds has explained
ahhhh cuz for negative numbers
yeh
Yur
is there a generalization of that "for negative numbers"?
“Up to a unit” is that generalisation if you mean what I think you do
Maybe look at like
M_2(C) or something
Actually that’s not a ufd is it, lol
Uhhh R[x] with R being the reals
And then take like 5x^2-10x+15 = 5(x+1)(x-3) or (5x+5)(x-3) or (x+1)(5x-15)
We want all of these factorisations to be “equivalent”
And they are, up to a multiplication of the unit 5
brb
(x+1)(x-3) would also be a factorization?
I think this is coming from me not understanding something else
so
what does it really mean for two elements to be associated?
I know in notation it's a = br for a unit r
but like, is there any intuitive meaning to it?
yeah
factoring into units is not meaningful
in field, everything not 0 is unit. and you cant factor in a field
let's leave the factorization aside for a minute. I want to understand the association thing first
???
1 is unit
wot
ye but we say a ~ b iff a = br for a unit r
(4/5) is defo a unit in R
yes
I don’t see your point then
I want to know if there's an intuitive meaning to association
what does it mean for two elements to be associated?
Right ok time to spew some wishy washy “intuition”
If two elements are associated then their prime decompositions are “basically” the same (they’re the same up to multiplication by some unit)
ohh so association only makes sense when you take prime decomposition into account?
cuz it was like really confusing, we defined association way before ufds
It makes sense because the definition is well defined 
Anyway
Prime decomposition is cool because it tells you a lot about how that element interacts with ideals in the ring
nono I mean like makes sense as in it actually has a meaning
mh
Ok I see
factorization is trivial in fields anyway
cuz everything is already unit
associates is supposed to generalize the similarity between 1 and -1 in Z, (the units)
This might give more intuition behind why we don’t care about unit factorisation - the ideal generated by any unit is the entire ring, so we don’t really get any new info from it
Again this is entirely non-rigorous and wishy-washy but meh
You get what I mean
ah
what exactly does it tell us?
It tells you which ideals that element is in
Like if p is a factor of n then clearly n is in (p)
how do units break this? like if we have r | x for a unit r then why don't we care if r is in the prime decomposition of x?
(The reason why I say that we care about the structure of prime ideals is related to the zariski topology over a ring and the spectrum of a ring if you want to do some Googling)
(Don’t worry about it though)
In $\bQ(\zeta)$ where $\zeta$ is the $n$th root of unity, we have $\Gal(\bQ(\zeta)/\bQ)=(\bZ/n\bZ)^*$. Say $H$ is a subgroup, then is the corresponding field $\bQ(\alpha)$ where $\alpha=\sum_{g\in H}\zeta^g$?
CS person
H is a subgroup of which group ?
Of (Z/nZ)*
Could someone give me a hint? I understand that you can write $0=\bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty}Q\oplus nM$, for some $\mathbb{Z}$-module $M$, but how would I get a contradiction?
ImHackingXD
projectives over PID are free...
This is from Dummit chapter 10.5, it references that only in chapter 12 will be proved that a finitely generated Z-module is projective iff free, so I'm not sure if that is the objective of the exercise
let me check prop 30(4)
ok have you proved that the intersection is empty@pliant raptor ?
You mean the zero module? Yeah, that's what I wrote above
nQ =Q right?
for any nonzero q ∈Q, show that q lies in that intersection
hint: ||(keep taking q/n)||
which contradicts the intersection is empty

how would i go about this? is the number 1 relevant to all possible binary options? (G in this case is just any group)
hint: write x^2 as xx
1 is the identity of G
that wasnt given, at least not where i can see
This is the notation for the identity
huh
Either that or e
Or 0 if it’s being written additivelt
Anyway, there’s nothing deep happening at all, 1 is not the number 1 which magically is in G or anything, it’s just defined to be the identity
I mean
1g = g
That’s what it does
This seems normal based on your experience with like, actual numbers
nothing says the group is multiplicative tho
That’s all
exactly
Bro it wrote x^2
Lol
exactly
let 1 be the additive neutral element
No…
depends on the operation
then you wouldn't write x^2
That’s 2x
Lmao
If you’re writing it additicet then x^2 doesn’t make sense
i am sure you can write g^n with additive groups
That’s not a thing you can write
x^2 means apply the operation in question two times
Groups are basically assumed multiplicative tbh
i am sure you can find examples of this notation with additive groups
Unless they are abelian
my literature defines g^n likes this
it uses x^n in the definition of order
yes exactly
o meaning the operation
not necessairly multiplication
Pain
Brain cells on the floor.
what did i start
If you want to go jerk for about the possibility that it means something that makes no sense and then spend forever unable to solve a simple problem go ahead
Or you can accept that 1 is the identity and move on with your lives
Lol
nope just rephrasing what the original poster meant
and what probably he or she got confsueda bout
confused*
yea i was just missing that notation, especially since this textbook called the indentity of a group e further up
yes
1 is not always if not not most of the time called the identity
for me atleast
Why are you like this
me?
Yes
dk what you mean tbh
Lol
Idk isn't it like the default here
if it is then my bad
Idk how the question can be read otherwise
but most of the textbooks i came through went with e
and g^n almost always means apply operation n times
not multiplication only
thats definitely what the question intended, i see that now, but it is certainly odd since 1 is a number that isnt always the indentity
It is literally just notation.
1 is common notation for the multiplicative identity
sure, but nothing told us this group was multiplicative
nothing told us what 1 is either
oh my god
I think it is obvious from notation
it is obvious from the question itself
*context
given that my understanding is shaky, im trying to make very few assumptions based on what it seems like the question is implying, i wasn't aware of that notation and while i might have a pedantic quarrel with it, it probably doesn't get in the way much, so im going to go back to the problem now
thanks for the info tho
do you know how to do it
