#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 6 of 1
hmm
If γ : G -> Inn(G) sends g to conjugation by g
then this implies γ(γ(g)(h)) = γ(g) ° γ(h) ° γ(g)^-1 < K
We do have that (H',G) is a normal subgroup of G thanks to part (a).
Yeah, I'm normally super on top of homework in this class and in number theory, so it's a little unfamiliar to be so totally stopped by a problem.
But yeah, we do have that (H',G) is a normal subgroup of G.
An element of $(H',G)$ looks like $h_1h_2h_1^{-1}h_2^{-1}g^{-1}h_2h_1h_2^{-1}h_1^{-1}g^{-1}$.
Oops
Typo
Amizar
There we go.
I wonder if the fact that H' is in the center of G' and in the center of H can be useful.
I guess that begs the question, what elements of G are left that are allowed to not commute with H'?
Why is H' in the center of H?
H' is a subgroup of G' so it commutes with H
H' is a subgroup of H so it commutes with G'
H' is a subgroup of both so it is central in both.
So elements of G which do not commute with H' must be in $(G\backslash H)\cap(G\backslash G')$. Is this the same as $G\backslash (H\lor G')$?
Amizar
Right, but at the same time
We do commute with everything in H
And we commute with everything in G'
So we should commute with everything generated by their union, right?
oh, I thought you were asking if G \ H cap G\G' is the same as G \ (H v G')
I see now
Meaning, I think we can make the claim that anything that doesn't commute with some element of H' must be in the complement of H join G'
No I don't think I understand
If we commute with everything in a set, we should commute with everything generated by that set, right?
Because we're really just taking products of elements in the set, which we can individually commute with.
I think I'm just having difficulty parsing this claim
Perhaps the wording was a bit careless.
Elements of G which do not commute with H' must lie outside of both H and G', I agree
If we commute with elements of H and we commute with elements of G'
Then we should commute with elements of H union G'
Meaning we should commute with elements of the group generated by H union G', which is H v G'.
x commutes with both H and G' iff x commutes with H v G', I agree with this
Okay.
So if we commute with everything in H v G', then the only elements we don't commute with must lie in G\(HvG')
I grant that I'm not sure where to go next with this, but I think this is still a worthwhile claim.
We do also conveniently know that G/(HvG') is abelian, but I'm not sure what to do with that information.
Hmm...I'm not sure, now that you mention it.
Is a subgroup that contains the commutator subgroup necessarily normal?
No
Take Sn
For n >= 3 this has trivial center
Err
Shoot sorry
Take An for n >= 5
Any subgroup that contains the alternating group has to be normal in Sn.
Oh okay.
What's the commutator subgroup for An?
The commutator subgroup is trivial
Oh, I see.
Sorry haha
Oh wait no that is true.
It is?
Any subgroup containing the commutator subgroup is normal.
So that means (HvG') is normal in G.
Yes
Can we do anything with the fact that HvG' is normal in G and that their quotient is abelian?
And the fact that H' commutes with everything in HvG'
I don't really see it
Let's see what other information the chapter offers us.
Ah hm so (H', H') < (H, G') = 1
This in particular tells us H is a "solvable group"
We also have (H,H') = 1 as well.
It's abelian because it's in the center of (H v G')
H is an extension of an abelian group by an abelian group but what does that tell us
What's (H v G', H v G')
We know H v G' = H G' = G' H
Wait, how do we know that's true?
What part
I know G' is normal, but do we know H is normal?
H and G' commute
elementwise
Duh
So HG' = G'H
Normality of either ensures HK = KH
Right.
So x = gh, y = ba, g, a in G' and h, b in H
xyx^-1y^-1 = ghbah^-1g^-1a^-1b^-1
Messy
g(hb)ah^-1(ag)^-1b^-1
messy
If we took (HG',HG'), we would get $h_1g_1'h_2g_2'g_1'^{-1}h_1^{-1}g_2'^{-1}h_2^{-1}$
Amizar
So we would really have something of the form h'g'', I think.
Yes
Oh nice nice
[gh, ab] = [g, a] [h, b]
With g, a in G' and h, b in H
The bracket is just the commutator of elements, [x, y] = xyx^-1y^-1
Wait this is wild hm
It's a homomorphism
Meaning (HG')' = H'G''
G'×H -> G' H
Weird
Anyways yeah
So I wanted to think about this because uhh
H' is abelian
(HG')'' = G'''
Yeah that's kinda comical actually.
In fact, (HG')' is a subgroup of G'
Wait, that's obvious
Yeah
Don't more apostrophes make the group smaller?
Yeah
We have a theorem that says the following
I'm not sure if this applies to the problem we're trying to solve or if it just is what it is.
Also, a bit more theoreming:
We can't guarantee anything about G. That much is sure.
Because if we simply choose H to be in the center of G, both parts of the proposition follow immediately.
We just want H' to commute with everything in H v G'
But what's stopping an element of G that's not contained in that subgroup from refusing to commute with H'?
An element of $(H,G')$ looks like\
$hg_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}h^{-1}g_2g_1g_2^{-1}g_1^{-1}=h[g_1,g_2]h^{-1}[g_2,g_1]$\
An element of $(G,H')$ looks like\
$gh_1h_2h_1^{-1}h_2^{-1}g^{-1}h_2h_1h_2^{-1}h_1^{-1}=g[h_1,h_2]g^{-1}[h_2,h_1]$\
Amizar
I found an answer on stackexchange. I'll see if I can understand it, take a break from it, and make sense of the concept on a fresh mind. The previous exercise gave some information that combines with the commutativity of H and G' that eventually prove what we wanted to show.
It's a really slick proof and I'm honestly not even mad at it.
My professor's policy is basically "Use whatever resources you want, but if you look up a proof, don't submit it unless you can reproduce it on your own without referencing it."
So I took about half an hour to digest the ideas in the above proof and churned out this atrocity:
I have one more homework question.
It's honestly probably not worth the time it would take to complete the problem, given how busy my tomorrow is, but I'm too stubborn to not complete the assignment.
Is there anyone who might be able to help me with II.7.6?
I have one direction down already.
If G is nilpotent, I've proven that every maximal proper subgroup of G is normal and has prime index.
I ignored the hint.
That might not be the best idea; I'm not sure what to do with the hint and the forward direction made enough sense without it.
Is anyone around who might be able to provide some insight towards why the backwards direction is true?
The direction I'm trying to prove now is "If every maximal subgroup of G is normal in G, then G is nilpotent."
An equivalent condition to nilpotent would be that G is the direct product of its Sylow p-subgroups.
Though I'm not sure which might be more approachable at the moment.
I think the Sylow p-subgroups one seems more approachable
Yeah, I was thinking the same, though I'm not sure how to show that it's the direct product of those groups.
We can start by assuming all maximal proper subgroups of G are normal in G.
I'm not sure if the hint is that helpful.
there's something about proper subgroups not being self-normalizing that I can recall
Maybe it's supremely helpful, but I've not got anything from it so far.
which makes the hint seem very relevant
but I suppose if you haven't heard of what I'm struggling to recall then it isn't helpful at all
Right, though the fact that the forward direction fell out without it makes me wonder.
I don't know why the order of p-group must be the power of p (p is a prime).(My textbook says it is easy to prove but I can't. )
From the hint we can derive "If N_G(P) is not G for some Sylow p-subgroup P, then any maximal proper subgroup containing N_G(P) is its own normalizer and is therefore not normal in G."
Oh wait shoot.
So all I need to do is actually prove the hint. The "Help me figure out pity party sentence" literally solves the rest of the problem.
Oh wait
I see what I was missing though.
The part I'm missing is "If G is not the direct product of its Sylow p-subgroups, then there exists a Sylow p-subgroup of G which is not normal in G"
Is that true?
If it's not, the pity party sentence remains a pity party sentence.
Oh wait
If they're all normal
Then by the definition of inner direct product, G has to be an inner direct product.
how do you define a p-group
G is a group, if every element's order is a power of p, then the group G is defined as p-group.
ah ok
then this holds iff G is finite
the proof is an application of Cauchy's theorem, if you know of that
oh the p should be a prime
Well, I am not familiar with that , thanks for your hint!
hmm, I'm not sure off the top of my head how I would prove it without that but I'll think about it a bit longer
I find the Cauchy's theorem, it is "if p(a prime) could divides the order of a group G, then there is an element's order is p." I don't think it could be used to solve my question, since my question is for every element instead of a specific one.
Right, if this is your first time seeing the theorem then it might not be obvious how to apply it immediately
oh that's clever
The idea is to suppose that |G| is not a power of p
Then there exists another prime q which divides |G|. Can you see how the theorem applies now?
Oh ,I see. Thank you!
Ok, so I'm most of the way to what I'm looking for but I now see that I have a small bug in my argument.
I need to prove the hint and I'm not sure how to go about doing so.
Is this wrt proving the hint or using the hint?
We have a theorem that says the normalizer of the normalizer of a Sylow p-subgroup P is the normalizer of P in G.
It's with respect to proving the hint.
Well just consider
P_1 P_2... P_k where P_i are sylow groups
Okay.
This is a well defined group since all P_i are normal
Not necessarily.
If all P_i are normal we have a different set of conditions.
We're examining the case where there is at least one Sylow p-subgroup which is not a normal subgroup of G.
Try to prove the contrapositive
So the goal here is to go from N_G(N_G(P)) = N_G(P) to N_G(H) = H for any H containing N_G(P).
That's much easier
That if there is a non-normal maximal proper subgroup then a Sylow group has to be not normal as well?
I mean, I have the whole argument as long as I can prove the hint.
The only issue I'm having is that I'm not sure how to prove the hint.
I have a non-normal maximal proper subgroup already defined assuming the hint.
I need to connect the last dots to make sure it actually works.
I already have that part.
The only thing I'm currently missing is the hint.
Sorry, I spent some time on Overleaf.
P is a Sylow p-subgroup of H if H > N_G(P)
Try using the part of the Sylow theorems which state that Sylow subgroups are conjugate, but working inside of H
I can say more if you want
P < N_G(P), so it must be the only Sylow p-subgroup of N_G(P).
If x is not in N_G(P), then xPx^{-1} is not equal to P. By the second Sylow theorem, however, it is a Sylow p-subgroup of G and is therefore not in N_G(P).
Therefore, N_G(N_G(P)) = N_G(P).
If N_G(P) is a proper subgroup of H, then P is a Sylow p-subgroup of H, but not the only Sylow p-subgroup of H.
Therefore, P is not normal in H.
Ay I just turned blue
stop holding your breath
lol
Anyway, H is trivially contained in N_G(H).
How can we show the opposite containment?
If we can do that then the final dominoes fall into place.
I prefer an idea, but we'll see how close I am to understanding once an idea happens lol
Well I’m going to sleep soon
Idk what time zone you're in but it's winding towards 3AM here and I have a 9AM exam.
My suggestion is as I said already
You have to compare conjugates of P conjugating by something in N_G(H)
And something in H
How you do that is group theory
If you're going to bed you're welcome to prove that statement before you leave. I'm confident that I can at least understand the mechanics of it.
So far I have H is a normal subgroup of its normalizer (woo)
And I have N_G(N_G(P))=N_G(P)
Meaning anything outside of N_G(P) non-trivially conjugates P to something else in H, but I'm not sure how to show that anything outside H would conjugate P to something even further outside H.
Does this imply that if a group contains N_G(P) and all conjugates of P, then it's necessarily the whole group G?
Let x in N_G(H), and consider P^x (^ means conjugate). This necessarily lands in H because x in H’s normalizer and P < H. This means P^x is a Sylow-p of H, so by Sylow’s theorems it’s conjugate to P inside of H so there’s a y in H with P^x = P^y.
xPx^-1 = yPy^-1 => y^-1xPx^-1y = P, so y^-1x is in N_G(P) < H. As y^-1 is in H, this says that x is in H
Okay, that makes sense. I can see how P is conjugated to something inside H.
There's a y in H which conjugates P the same way x does
Meaning you can normalize P by ... ohhhhh I see.
H contains the normalizer so you can treat xy^{-1} as an element of the normalizer
Meaning it's also in H
meaning x is in H
Thank you. You've helped me a lot.
Use the semisimplicity of the ring ℂG
V is a quotient of ℂG by some sumodule W. Any submodule of ℂG is a summand of it
That is Maschke's theorem
Then the complement of W in ℂG is isomorphic to V
The general principle is that semisimplicity of a module implies that whenever that module appears in the middle of a short exact sequence, the sequence is split. Thus every SES of modules over a semisimple ring is split
probably a basic question but I do not see why in the diagram
\begin{tikzcd}
A\times _C B \ar[r, "\varphi'"] \ar[d, "\psi'"] & B \ar[d, "\psi"] \
A \ar[r, "\varphi"] & C
\end{tikzcd}
if $\varphi$ is surjective then $\varphi'$ also surjective
So if i have a polynomial in let say Z_5 (or any other field for that matter) is there an algorithm to break it down to irreducible factors or am i just suppose to check for roots then break those away until all possible roots i have used them all. and then just double check that whatever i have left can be broken further in to factors of degree 2 or larger?
theres no general algorithm afaik
that u can mindlessly apply
Over a finite field you can -- if everything else fails -- simply test divide with all polynomials of smaller degree. There are finitely many of them, so that qualifies as an algorithm.
Idea anyone
okay thank you.
Given an algebraic structure S that has a 0 is there a canonical name for the { (a,b) in SxS | ab = 0 }?
( The set of zero divisors? )
And what about the set of (a,b) s.t. ab =/=0?
no
also calling it set of zero divisors seems wrong because this means (a,0) is zero divisor for all a.
Also zero divisors are only a thing for rings,algebras because otherwise they are called inverses for a group
or annihilators I guess
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/suplattice says yes!

This seems simple enough that I should have thought of this
But also unmotivated enough that I have no idea how I would have.
Oh and apparently this is a special case of the Yoneda embedding being a free cocompletion.
Ah.
I'm not sure I follow.
But there are algebras that lack associativity and commutativity, but we can still talk about division in them, specifically 0 division as well - for example, the Octonions, Sedenions, etc... all have zero divisors, but are not associative via their multiplication. We can do the same for R^n with dot products whenever our vectors are non-zero, but orthogonal: I mean, that goes to R^1, but we could modify it to just come back to R^n. We can also do R^3, with cross products and still divide by 0, just keeping the vectors collinear.
(a,0) = 0 would mean a0 = 0 for all a.
But that's just multiplication by 0 in general.
I'm not sure what I've asked is coming across.
They are saying that the set you wrote down, {(a, b) : ab = 0}, is not the set of zero-divisors.
I'm aware that they've said this...
Then don't call it the set of zero-divisors.
"In abstract algebra, an element a of a ring R is called a left zero divisor if there exists a nonzero x in R such that ax = 0,[1] or equivalently if the map from R to R that sends x to ax is not injective."
In other words a in R is a left zero divisor if there exists non-zero x in R s.t. (a,x) = 0.
If a is non-zero, then we call x a right zero divisor.
So the set I've described earlier is identifying in structures more general than a ring.
If I specify that the left element is non-zero, then I've identified a way to go about division of 0 from the right.
If I specify the element on the right is non-zero, then I've identified a way to go about division of 0 from the left.
I don't see why I shouldn't call this a zero divisor, even though I recognize that the user has suggested otherwise.
I don't know that the user has understood what I'm asking.
It seems like the user is just trying to say that there's a canonical, historic association of "zero division" with rings. But what I pointed out above is that many non-ring structures have binary operators ( products ) that constitute division of a zero-element ( some element that, when we collapse the binary operator to a unary one via currying, it becomes a constant map to that element ). In the case of Octonions and Sedenions, those elements also function as identities under the additive map. So there's a strong sense where I can said element a "zero". Since I can multiply non-zero terms to get to that element, there's a sense where I can say I have zero divisors.
If all the user is saying is that this is confusing because people tend to only think of "zero division" in the context of rings, okay, that's understandable. Though idk that it's agreeable.
If the user has identified a more serious mathematical error, I haven't seen it.
For these reasons, I don't see why I ought not refer the adjusted definition of the set as the set of (left, right, or both ) zero divisors.
I appreciate the effort, but I'm not going to read all of that.
Okay. Let's end communication from here. Thank you.
I was only hoping I could clarify their message. I don't have any particular interest in the content itself.
Sounds good to me.
hello
can anyone help with minkowski space
the question asks to find 4 linearly independent null vectors in minkowski space
in relativity terms we are looking for lightlike vectors
how do you find such vectors
I think something like gram-schmidt should work
It's not really necessary - to me, the picture to keep in mind is the light cone
For the case of 2+1 dimensions, that is
You can (hopefully) see there are clearly 3 linearly independent vectors lying on the light cone - then you just need to generalise that to 3+1 dimensions
in 3D
there are ijk vectors for basis
do you mean similar basis vectors for light cone?
Well, so let's take it even simpler and consider the case of 1+1 dimensions
What are two linearly independent null vectors? (Take easy ones)
(Here by n+1 I mean n space dimensions and then 1 time)
No, I mean 1+1 dimensional Minkowski space
So vectors (x,t) with the product given by the metric (1,-1) instead of (1,-,1,-1,-1)
So here (x,t) is null iff x^2 - t^2 = 0 (if we use c = 1 for simplicity)
Is that clear?
Cool
So can you find two linearly independent vectors lying on this light "cone" x^2 - t^2 = 0?
a(t,-x)+b(t,-x)=(m,n)
Not sure what you mean by that
linear independence means that there should be a combination possible so we will get a new vector right?
uh not really no
potato
Why is there no function of non-isomorphic minimal left ideals
I was using x^2 -t^2 = 0 here as shorthand (in the usual way) for the set { (x,t) in R^2 : x^2 - t^2 = 0} - you can/should think of them as labels for the axes, rather than components of the vector
wait
so on diagram
is it going to be a straigth line
t=x?
so linearly independent vectors will be et and ex unit vectors
Yup, that's one of them
Find another linear combination of them on the light cone which is linearly independent from that ^
Well you need to get 4 which are all linearly independent but sure, that gives you three
(if we use notation of 4-tuples, these are (1,0,0,1),(0,1,0,1) and (0,0,1,1))
But yes actually I'm pretty sure, say, (-1,0,0,1) - which you already had - works, so maybe that's what you meant
Np
collatz? 
how does this work?
i mean commutativity is obvious but what even is the inverse of something in F[x]/<f(x)>?
the identity is like <f(x)> so say we need an inverse for some g(x) + <f(x)>
what do you multiply by to make it the identity?
Yup
we want a h(x) + <f(x)> such that g(x)h(x) + <f(x)> = <f(x)>, ie. g(x)h(x) is in <f(x)>
Yeah so the start of sheet 1 is weird cause they don't prepare you enough lol
The multiplicative identity is NOT <f(x)> tho
Thats the additive one
wait
It is the 0 of the field
Yup
ok, and it's irreducible so shares no roots so can euclid it or whatever
F is a subfield of this in a natural way etc
Yeah exactly ^
But ye dw like q1 and q2 are like anomalies lol
you'll do this again in rings and modules assuming ur taking it
literally my first time ever interacting with an abstract field
Yeah fair
i think so?
cool ye i mean i'd highly recommend it
hi can someone help me with a question on finitely generated abelian groups
Sure, what's up
its solution verification really
ok group of order 270
first off it has 3 iso classes
i use the first and second versions of the fundementsal theorem to obrain them
from version I out of dummit and foote I get
Iso classes ?
isomorphism classes
$\Bbb{Z}{270}, \Bbb{Z}{30} \times \Bbb{Z}_3 \times \Bbb{Z}3, \Bbb{Z}{90} \times \Bbb{Z}_3 $
But yeah sure I get 3 classes as well
lemme write that without tex
z_270, z_30 x z_3 x z_3, z_90 x z_3
and using the second version i get
z_27 x z_2 x z_5 which is iso to z_270
then i get z_9 x z_3 x z_2 x z_5 which is iso to the last one i got from first version
and lastly from version to which is iso to the second group i got from version I of theorem
is there a reason you're moving between the two versions?
or do you have to use each of them
z_3 x z_3 x z_3 x z_2 x z_5
i need to use both and determine which is iso to which
ah
so my first ones are iso to eachother i claim
and my second from second version iso to third on frist list
and 3rd from second version iso to second on original list
yh seems fine
np
Yeah fair enough - gl with prep!
thanks!!
I sent this picture a few minutes ago, but it dissapeared for some reason. What went wrong here? I’m using a formula to calculate the 4th cyclotomic polynomial.
In Algebra we have various ways for talking about "how close" an algebraic structure is to having certain properties.
For example, we have centralizers, normalizers, commutators, anti-commutators, associators, etc.
Are there any canonical ways to go about describing such sets ( "measurements" ) for any arbitrary algebraic property or perhaps certain, notable such properties?
( for example, how easy it is to remove or add-in zero divisors, idempotents, involutionaries, alternatives, anti-alternatives, finite products, fibres, inverse elements, etc )
Your primitive roots are wrong. The primitive roots of unity are i and -i
You will get x^2+1, unsurprisingly
I think you should review the definition of roots of unity and in particular primitive roots of unity
Okie, thanks much 🙂
For Q1 do I need to find all A s.t [a b;c d]A = I
rishi answer is, you want to find matrices such that az+b/cz+d = z
Now let's do some algebra
Notation test: $\mathfrak{k}$
Uh oh
tex 
not like this
why did you ask though? curious?
its useful to have a notion of this for sure
i had my own quick question tho - im being asked if there exists a homomorphism $\varphi: R \to S$ of rings so that $\varphi(1_R) \neq 1_S$ - the title of a SO post spoiled that it does exist but im having trouble coming up with such a homomorphism (i didnt read the post) - my main idea rn would be to find a homo from a ring with inverses to one without inverses but it hasnt gotten me anywhere yet
what is 1r
identity in R
i admittedly close the SO page before reading forward just bc i didnt want spoilers
how about the inverse
Hmm, trying to think of how to suggest an example without spoiling
I'd suggest looking at modular arithmetic modulo a composite number
maybe that counts
yeah i was trying to find a map Z/5 -> Z/4 but nothing i tried work
im 99% sure they're defined to have 1 in my class
a map cant exist between those
i realized as much lol
well
No need even for modular arithmetic I think
What's the first example you think of when you think of a ring?
Z/p
Can't be the first, I mean the first first first
Okay not 0 since I know someone's gonna say that as a troll
i was about to 
Hint: say Z/p but stop halfway through
lol?
Z lol
Z/
Yup there's a Z->Z example
oh
map everything to 0
👍
I was gonna suggest f(x)=2x from Z/5 to Z/10
Lmfao
Anyway let's do some of my kinda algebra
Setup time
We have a field $\mathfrak{k}$ with a discrete valuation. Ring of integers is $\mathfrak{o}$, its maximal ideal is $\mathfrak{p}$, generated by $\overline{\omega}$, and $q$ is the order of the finite field $\mathfrak{o}/\mathfrak{p}$
does latex work?
Seems the bot is down
If K is a field, a discrete valuation is a map v:K->Z cup {infinity}
yeah ok
Such that v(xy) = v(x) + v(y), v(x+y) \ge min(v(x),v(y)), and v(x) = infinity iff x = 0
Ring of integers is gonna be shit whose valuation is positive
a valuation not being discrete has Z being an ordered abelian group or something
yeah i remember now ty
Something like that yeah
i had a question today
in AG we proved valuation criterion for seperatedness
i dont intuitively know what it means for a map to be proper or seperated
ive been told seperated is an analouge of hausdorff
The relevant point-set topology exercise is this
but seperated is on a map not a scheme
it comes from image of diagonal being closed ive heard
A space X is Hausdorff iff the diagonal is closed in X x X
According to stacks, separated is a thing for maps of spaces
so is it like f seperated means domain is ‘hausdorff’ when viewed inside codomain?
Seems like you have the space X \times_Y X
yeah the diagonal factors through that
but i mean more geometrically
i think i just need examples to see the visuals
Probably. Idk much AG unfortunately :/
what is your specialty?
woah
ive heard of automorphic forms but idk what they really are
ik there is something with them and laglands or something
langlands*
Yeah
Anyway I'll continue what I was doing since I have an advisor meeting tomorrow lol
Time crunch 😛
good luck
But I'll try to go through these notes in a way that's interesting for someone who wants to follow
oh you are gonna stream of consciousness
Yup
tex 
sorry to interrupt dami, but this isn't a ring homomorphism is it?
Studying what does it break?
$\phi(a)\phi(b) = (2a)(2b) = 4ab \neq \phi(ab)$ no?
stμ₂dying
oh for that matter mine is wrong too, I should have said phi(x)=6x from Z/5 to Z/10
phi(x)phi(y)=6x6y=6xy=phi(xy
im pretty sure this map also shows that ideals aren't necessarily preserved by a homomorphism 
this is why mapping id to id is morally good for ring homos yup
how similar is to 2x?
because 5=5,10=2*5,6= 3*2
well 2x isn't gonna work cause it breaks that property
2*2=4 while 6^2=6 (in Z/10Z)
the key is 6=0 mod 2 and 6=1 mod 5, so you're sorta sending it to 0 or 1 in different primes
if you want to try to work out a more general version for yourself to better understand it
lol i dont know what goal is
Sloth King Daminark
Now
Sloth King Daminark
Okay sorry for the public disappointment but I think I've hit a point where it makes a lot more sense to blackboard it than to tex it
But I'll post highlights in here
Just not super detailed examples
Potitov06
no
@wicked zephyr probably use the fact that K = F[\sqrt[n]{a}] for some a in F^{times}/F^{times n}
I think it is because $F^{\times}/F^{\times n}$ is a $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$-module and the groups in question are finitely generated (in fact, by the classes of $a_1,\ldots,a_n$, where $K=F(\sqrt[n]{a_1},\ldots,\sqrt[n]{a_n}$).
Potitov06
So any homomorphism must map these elements to a fourth root of unity and a sixth root of unity, respectively
Lcm moment right
Subgroup generated by the two is contained in 12th roots of unity
Why is that? I know it seems obvious
Hausdorff
Well I'm saying all you need is in C^{times}
but I don't see why any homomorphism maps elements of SL_2(Z) to a 12th root of unity
So here's the idea
The multiplication on SL_2(Z) isn't commutative
Let's say phi:SL_2(Z) -> C^{times} is a homomorphism
phi(a) is a 4th root of unity, call it z
phi(b) is a 6th root of unity, call it w
Agreed so far
Give me anything in SL_2(Z), write it as a word in a and b
phi(a^{n_1}b^{n_2}... a^{n_k}b^{n_{k+1}})
Using that we're a homomorphism
That just gives you a word in z and w
This is the calculational way of saying this
The conceptual way is
If H is a subgroup of C^{times}
Ahhhhhhh I see it now
And phi:G->C^{times} is a homomorphism
If S is a generating set for G, then phi(S) is a generating set for phi(G)
So if that lives in H, the image of G lives in it as well
Out with it potato
because it has a first cusp form in eisenstein series
Huh
Lol what
It showed you as typing a few times
There are many sorts of algebras where you have a zero and you have ways to take products of non-zero elements to get that 0. I'm interested in those structures.
Oh sorry
for what
Yeah I typed up an answer but you gave more detail
I don't understand what you're asking.
.... why
Why am I interested in such algebras that have non-zero elements that multiply to 0?
Maybe elaborate some more? I'm familiar with modular forms to some extent
I think the real reason this works is because multiplication in C^times is commutative
So a word in z and w is just of the form z^m w^n
Right?
or do you not need commutativity?
I presume such a result will not continue to hold if the codomain is not an abelian group, for instance
Depends on what you mean by "such a result"
In general, if phi:G->H is a group homomorphism, then phi(G) is the subgroup of H generated by phi(S) where S is a generating set for G
Did you use this, though? or do you just let a word be of the form z^{n_1} w^{n_2} z^{n_3} ....
The key in this case is that the subgroup of C^{times} generated by a 4th and 6th root of unity is contained in the 12th roots of unity
This is the fact which gets fucky depending on the codomain
Ahh, I see, and that doesn't assume abelian-ness on H
If you give me two finite subgroups maybe the subgroup they generate is infinite
(Excellent example: take the two generators of SL_2(Z), each generates a finite subgroup :P)
Indeed! Thanks 😄
I've a question
Why is the size of the subgroup generated by the two elements of orders 4 (say w) and 6 (say z) each, equal to 12?
Perhaps this is too basic
but here's what I'm thinking: the elements of the codomain group are commutative, so any element of the subgroup generated by w and z looks like w^{p} z^{q}
so elements in the image look precisely like ab, where a \in <w> and b \in <z>
and the said formula follows
@bleak abyss what do you think? i'm quite confused why the 12 appears
What's H cap K in this case?
on second thoughts, it's hard to say, isn't it? i think it depends on which roots of unity we pick
or we need to show that |H \cap K| = 2 in any case, H = <w> and K = <z>
H is the subgroup generated by a 4th root of unity
But it's also the set of x such that x^n = 1 for some n dividing 4
Similar for K and 6th roots
ok trying to see why this is true
yeah i can do that
in fact i did but it gives no insight into why the equality is true
mu_4 is the group {1, zeta, zeta^2, zeta^3} where zeta = e^{2pi i /4}
If you take any of those four elements and raise them to the 4th power you get 1, so they're all solutions to x^4 = 1. But polys of degree n have at most n solutions
So this is everything
But guess what? e^{2pi i/4} = i
So really it's just {+/- 1, +/- i}
Now you do something similar for mu_6
And it turns out the intersection is {1,-1}
This is the complex numbers way
You can also just say oh if zeta_n is a primitive nth root of unity and zeta_m is a primitive mth root of unity, what's the order of (zeta_n zeta_m)?
It's lcm(m,n)
Since we're in an abelian group
ahh thank you! that's cool
what's up
btw here's a solution i saw
i wonder how they can specifically say i and (1 + root(-3))/2 are the (fourth and sixth) roots of unity involved
S -> some 4th root of unity
All 4th roots of unity are in subgroup generated by i
So image of S is in subgroup generated by i (though not necessarily equal to i)
etc.
If $M'$ is a \emph{free} sub-module of a (right) module $M$ and $N$ is a (left) module over a ring $R$, is the map $$(\text{inclusion}) \otimes_R 1_N \colon M' \otimes_R N \to M \otimes_R N$$ injective?
Raghuram
subgroup generated by phi(i), i believe
but yeah the idea is clear now, thanks!
we're sort of upper estimating the image
if i am to say it in analytic terms lol
?
i is in C^×
i is not in SL_2(Z) as I understand it
oh right my bad
sorry
Yes, (partially) in symbols
phi(SL_2(Z)) = <phi(S),phi(ST)> subset <i, other thing>
because phi(S) in <i>, phi(ST) in <other thing>, etc.
where <> = subgroup generated by
If $U, V$ are modules over a ring $R$, when is the canonical map $U^{*} \otimes V \to \Hom_R(U, V) \colon f \otimes_R v \mapsto (u \mapsto f(u)v)$ injective (or more generally, what is its kernel)? When is it surjective (or more generally, what is its range)?
For example, when $R$ is a field, it is always injective and its range is the finite-rank linear maps from $U$ to $V$, so it is surjective iff $U$ or $V$ is finite-dimensional.
Raghuram
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Im confused. Is there a typo in the last sentence? Shouldn't it be "since both f(x) and g(x) are of lower degree than p(x)?
Yes.
Thanks, Im also wondering about the field extension $\mathbb{Q}_p/\mathbb{Q}$ I have seen around. Is the p here supposed to be prime? I guess we could factor the rationals as primes by factoring the numerator and putting negative exponents for the primes in the denominator.
Fredrikpiano
Since we cannot span over Q_p with a finite set of elements from Q I then take it that Q_p/Q is infinite dimensional.
any hint on how to show $A \to B$ is injective iff $\operatorname{Hom}(B, Q) \to \operatorname{Hom}(A, Q)$ is surjective for all injective module $Q$
one direction is obvious, any hint for the converse?
Try looking at an injective resolution of A
I tried
I don't see what to do after I get the resolution and a map from B →I^•
nvm got it
but do share your solution
If Q is the first nonzero term in the resolution, you have an injective map f: A -> Q and a map g: B -> Q such that A -> B -> Q is f. Looking at kernels, we have that ker(A -> B) is in ker f = 0
Can anyone give me an intuition behind the mapping cone of complexes?
I do not see why it's related to topological mapping cone
if at all
@latent anvil do u have thoughts
Maybe something about something being a homotopy equiv or something if it’s contractible or something
Also it’s used to make some LES right?
Ryu sama, you're working through Aluffi, right?
yes
Check out the exercises at the end of section 4, there's decent motivation there
ah it'll be long till I reach there 
I mean, you can just read them
Yeah, once you see how it fits into certain exact sequences and specific factorization properties, I think it starts to make a bit more sense
Oops, you might want to read the definition of chain homotopy too if you aren't familiar with that
maybe doing AT alongside will give more insights
I'm in class rn
but I can try to talk a bit more about this later
What's the question?
Ah
The mapping cone of both complexes and topological spaces is sort of a pseudo-cokernel
So in the case of topological spaces, the mapping of f : X -> Y is what you get if you make the image of f in Y contractible
@lethal dune does that make sense?
actually no
Sorry I got distracted by something irl
So let's look at this picture of the mapping cone from Wikipedia
If you look at just the f(X) part, that can be contracted to to the vertex of the cone
So sort of "up to homotopy" we've made f(X) trivial
(pls ping me in case I get distracted again)
very nice interpretation
Yeah also the model category/infinity category perspective allows you to say exactly what sense in which this is true
The ordinary cokernel of f : X -> Y is the pushout of 0 <- X -> Y
The mapping cone is the homotopy pushout
(in the case of topological spaces, take everything to be pointed and interpret 0 as the singleton space)
This is also called the "homotopy cofiber"
so how does it relate to the cone construction of complexes?
tbf I haven't read homotopy of complexes yet
Ah yeah so I think you really can't understand the mapping cone without thinking about quasi isomorphisms
Have you seen the long exact sequence in homology of a short exact of complexes?
yes
https://gyazo.com/7a85b53c7936102c096a73febbc9df72
how do i go about this?
Please don't spam your question in multiple channels. One is enough.
@latent anvil pinged because you asked to
Oops, sorry haha
So I think one motivation for the mapping cone of complexes is that it "explains" the LES in homology
okay so like Li -> Mi --0--> L(i+1) -> M(i+1).. now apply homology functor?
say something similar to this, $M^{\circ} \to MC(\alpha)^{\circ} \to L[1]^{\circ}$
How to draw M^• 
To help you out a bit, in any group, if x,y is in the group, then (xy) is in the group.
x^-1 and y^-1 and the inverse of xy is in the group.
Given the inverse of x and y, how do you compute the inverse of xy?
Omg I'm really sorry ryu, I've spent all day dealing with medical & insurance stuff and I keep getting distracted!!
I'll type something up
so say we have a chain map $f : C_\bullet \to D_\bullet$
shamMy rock
the mapping cone is explicitly defined by $M_n = C_{n-1} \oplus D_n$, with a certain differential
shamMy rock
we then have a short exact sequence $0 \to D \to M \to C[-1] \to 0$
shamMy rock
given by inclusion and projection maps objectwise
now it's not hard to see that given a short exact sequence $0 \to X \to Y \to Z \to 0$ of complexes, we get for every $i$ an exact sequence $H_i(X) \to H_i(Y) \to H_i(Z)$ (ie there is no snake lemma-ing required)
shamMy rock
in particular the mapping cone gives us an exact sequence $H_i(D) \to H_i(M) \to H_{i-1}(C)$
shamMy rock
here's the thing I'm building up to
say $f$ is a monomorphism, so we have a short exact sequence $0 \to C \to D \to \mathrm{coker}\ f \to 0$
shamMy rock
I claim that in this case, the homology of $M$ and $\mathrm{coker} f$ is the same
shamMy rock
*are
actually, I have chosen not to explain this lol
Look at 1.58 of Weibel
It's an application of the 5 lemma and it's not super hard, but i don't want to talk about the mapping cylinder
but the point is, if f is mono then we have a map M -> coker f that induces an isomorphism in homology
and then we can fit together the exact sequences H_i(C) -> H_i(D) -> H_i(coker f) and H_i(D) -> H_i(M) -> H_{i-1}(C)
so the connecting homomorphism is really arising from an identification of the mapping cone with the cokernel! (in homology/"up to quasi isomorphism")
@lethal dune hopefully this helps explain why you might care about the mapping cone
tbh when I first learned this stuff the mapping cone made no sense to me
but I've been working a lot with triangulated categories recently and it's all clicked 
unfortunately that means I dont have a great low tech explanation haha
you recommend weibel over aluffi for homological alb?
I think aluffi is a better introduction, but weibel covers far far more material
Eh, don't sweat it for right now
well we only had 4 classes on HA
if you have heard people say the words "derived category" that's all I'm thinking of really
but I would still suggest not rushing to learn about it

exactly what I wrote
that seems like questionable pedagogy....
well no he didn't talk abt it
we won't be covering a lot but derived functors ab cats homotpies cones etc
our instructor is rushing through the course so yeah
I think a good introduction should do abstract abelian categories and derived functors, but it's okay not to dig too deep into the more homotopically flavored stuff
like the derived category, mapping cones, etc
oh sorry I misread what you said
yeah this is all standard for a first course
derived functors != the derived category
will they be useful in topology?
what specifically?
derived cats
hmm, not really. I would say they're more of an algebraic geometry thing
or trig cats
triangulated cats definitely yes though
the stable homotopy category is a triangulated category
nice!!
It's a lot
it sounds like the algebra class I took
we did groups/rings/modules in the first quarter, rep theory/galois theory in the 2nd, then homological and more advanced commutative algebra/baby AG in the third
you can do it!!

Lol
we did like grp/ring/modules over pid/proj-injective stuff/quadratic forms/miltilinear alg/homological and next rep
yee sounds very similar
masters/phd?
ahh
definitely not ug so
not so fast lol
I took it in my 2nd year of my bachelors but it was a 1st year phd qualifying exam course
WOAH your algebra courses are crazy
I second aluffi for exposition, I think it gives a nice overview of how the pieces all fit together on the way to defining derived functors and all that
(I am currently in my first year of my PhD)
I see
Is there a way of measuring the failure of a linearly independent subset of a module to be part of a basis?
For example, consider {(2,0,0), (0,1,0)} as a subset of Z^3. No linearly independent superset can span (1,0,0) because then (2,0,0) would be a linear combination with even coefficients which it isn't. On the other hand, {(2,0,0), (0,1,0), (0,0,1)} is a basis for 2Z^3, so in some sense we could measure the failure by 2. (In this case, 2 is the volume of the parallelopiped spanned by those two vectors; that might be generalisable to a suitable measure of failure-to-extend-to-basis.)
Sure, I would say you could do so as follows
I would say that the measure of any set's failure to span is the quotient by the span
you can then take numerical invariants like the cardinality or length, if you want
The syzygies
If you have an $R$-module $M$, and you have any set of elements $E \subset R$ (usually we choose these to be generators, but whatever) we then have a natural map from the free module on $E$ which I will notate $R^{(E)}$ into $M$
Boytjie
https://gyazo.com/d55cc47e55908110569f9b3b96f25d44
In a) the ans is there is identity in Z but not in E, I'm not sure how it proves there is no isomorphism, can someone elaborate on it?
The kernel of this natural map $R^{(E)} \to M$ is then called the syzygy module
Hey thrinity, please wait until the current discussion has finished to post your question
whoops
sorry I didn't know about this rule
Boytjie
It's not a rule, it's just etiquette
got it
And well, this syzygy module is gonna be 0 exactly when E is a basis* (*for its image).
won't the syzygy always vanish, since they're asking about linearly independent sets E?
no worries haha, I think this is also good
But yes I think this is relevant at least lol
but it's sort of dual, syzygy's measure the failure to be linearly independent
quotients measure failure to span
do what?
Like the quotient is free iff you can extend the basis
Yep
you can think of this as the fact that an SES ending in a projective always splits
my answer at least is "take the quotient by the span"
Just look at the freeness/projectiveness of the quotient
that's only a binary yes/no though, yeah?
And I suppose if you want to measure how far away that is, you can look at the projective dimension, but this is overcomplicating it a bit
whereas they were interested in measuring the failure to span
yeah
oh that's an interesting idea
I think I like that
hmm
thinking
right so umm
@tough raven, are you interested in linearly independent subsets of free modules or modules in general?
for a free module the projective dim of the quotient is at most 2
if I have my indexing right lol
Good point, if we have the module is free then this simplifies things a lot haha
if E is free and we have a linearly independent subset S, and the quotient if C, we get an SES 0 -> R^(S) -> E -> C -> 0
and this is a free resolution of C
I'd love to assume the ring is Noetherian too, I'm getting the heebie jeebies thinking about the nasty cases
oh yeah i mean every ring I deal with is uhh
"quasi-noetherian"
this is a technical term ive invented
other way around :P
Hahahaha
non noetherian until literally the first opportunity where it would simplify things to assume noetherian
I'm gonna steal that
im giving back to the mathematical community
I should pr this defintion into the stacks project
If φ : R -> S is an isomorphism and 1 is an identity for R, then φ(1) is an identity for S. Try to prove this!
More intuitively, two rings being isomorphic should mean all "ring theoretic properties" of them are the same
and having an identity is a "ring theoretic property"
You'll get a feel for this as you do more algebra
https://gyazo.com/d10699346a4b1a46a997da7523eed0e5
Why does the solution assume degree of f(x) is 1? Why can't the degree of f(x) > 1?
Because it divides polynomials of degree 1
x^2+x / x no?
f(x) = x^2 + x
I think you're mixing up "divides" and "is divisible by"
x divides x^2 + x, but x is not divisible by x^2 + x
And our condition on f would require the second thing to be true
Does that make sense?
makes sense now, thanks
If f(x) = cg(x), f(x) is reducible right?
no, if you're saying c is just some scalar constant
so when f(x) = g(x)h(x), the lowest possible deg of g(x) and h(x) is 1 right
why? g(x)=1 and h(x)=1 is possible as far as I'm aware
I didn't read what came earlier if I'm missing context here
like if degf(x) is 3, the possible deg of g(x) and h(x) can only be 1+2 since 3 + 0 is not possible
how does where it's taken from matter?
you're telling me deg(h(x)) can't be 0
it depends on what h(x) can be
if it's an element of Q[x], it certainly can be
so if it is Q[x], it can be 1+2 and 3+0 ?
The degree of g(x) and h(x) needs to be in Q[x] right?
So analysis on the Bruhat-Tits tree time
it's ok, I have to do probability hw rn
but if you get around to it, I'll come back and read it later
I wanna learn buildings and stuff eventually, idk a good entry point
Troposphere spit it out
(Wasn't saying anything, just trying to type somewhere else when it turned out Discord had the keyboard focus instead)
Okay so
Sloth King Daminark
How can I classify all the homomorphisms from the dihedral group of order 2n to the cyclic group of order n?
I know any such homomorphism is uniquely defined by where it sends r and s (the generators), but I'm not sure how to show the resulting function is a homomorphism, e.g. how would I simplify r^a s^b r^c s^d?
If you have a presentation of a group G= <S | R>, then a map S -> H defines a homomorphism if the images of the generators satisfy the relations R
This should help you limit the possibilities of where you can map r and s in C_n and make it easier to classify the homomorphisms
By taking a preimage of the basis, right?
I originally came up with this question for free modules, but then thought it would be cool if there was something in general (so for a non-free module, it would always be “non-zero” because nothing can be extended to a basis).
Identities are not necessarily preserved by ring homomorphisms unless it's required in the definition. (The image of the identity will be an identity for the image, but not necessarily for the entire codomain.)
As a counterexample for monoids rather than rings, consider N with the operation max and the endomorphism x->x+1.
I think so.
||Consider f(x,y) as a polynomial in x with coefficients in C[y] and do long-division by x(x-1), getting f = x(x-1) q1 + g; by the Remainder Theorem, the remainder g(x,y) = g_0(y) + x g_1(y) vanishes for y = 0,1 so using the Remainder Theorem again, g_0, g_1 are divisible by y(y-1), say g_i = h_i y(y-1), so f = (q1)x(x-1) + (h_0(y) + h_1(y) x)y(y-1).||
TBH I don't really know what that is.
Can it measure something like this example?
Say, if I have a maximal linearly independent subset (which should be equivalent to all elements of the quotient having torsion), then there's no extending it, so the answer should be something like the size of the quotient. Does the projective dimension behave like that?
hello
what is the operation of the group SO(3) called in math ?
the group SO(3) consists of all "rotations" of a sphere in R^3, so the operation of SO(3) can be called "composition" ?
and more over
can R x SO(3) represent the group of all "translations"/"transfers" of a point in R^3 ?
The operation is either matrix multiplication if you’re viewing this as matrices or composition if you’re viewing it as linear transformations (doesn’t really matter)
As for this, I’m not sure it’s the right group to consider
Affine transformations do not have a product that follows a direct product rule
by R x SO(3) I am trying to represent: 1st move along an axis and 2nd do spherical rotation
The orthogonal direct affine transformations of R^3 would be represented by R^3 : SO(3) where : is a semidirect product if I’m not mistaken
Which axis though? This won’t have a nice geometric interpretation since multiplication won’t correspond to an element that is moving along that fixed axis and then rotating
Im not familiar with texts on geometry so we should wait around for someone else to give you good resources
specifically, is SE(3) isomorphic to some "combination" of other isometry groups?
do you have a link to a proof of this fact?
It follows by what the definition of a presentation is
I can't vouch for this entirely by myself, but I've heard that "Introduction to Geometry" by Coxeter is a good text.
Eyy Boytje is yellow (well deserved 👏 )
It’s called the substitution test iirc
Geometry by Audin, Continuous symmetry by Barker, and maybe Elementary Geometry by Agricola
I think these may be good resources, it is what I'm currently reading on these topics
I've been told to try and prove that the reflection group G(2,2,3) is isomophic to the symmetric group on 4 elements. I can't think of what four things the action permutes – any hints on what to look for?
In case anyone doesn't know, the group G(2,2,3) is a subgroup of GL_3(C) generated by (1) the diagonal matrices with entries +/- 1 with determinant 1, and (2) the permutation matrices.
Suppose that $R$ is a ring with identity and that $\phi : R \to S$ is a surjective ring homomorphism. Show that $S$ is also a ring with identity.
this is p simple but my idea rn is that $\phi(r)\phi(1) = \phi(r)$ implies that $s_1s_2 = s_1$ and this is only the case when $s_2 = 1$, but is this true?
stμ₂dying
Have you tried proving it?
Ok well I'll take that as a no, so why not try proving it
i mean i dont see how s1s2 = s1 where s2 \neq 1 breaks something but i also dont see when it would be the cat
and i feel like it should break something
Now may be a good time to remind yourself of the definition of the unit.
By which I mean the multiplicative identity, of course.
i aint done rep theory, but curious if S4 also being the group of cube rotations has any relevance at all. random thought
True, not entirely sure at this point
Rip, well all i know is best way probably to find 'helpful' actions 😓, oh u wrote that already lol
an element s \in S such that s*x = x for all x, nothing too complicated
Not quite.
Unless you're working with commutative rings only, this definition is not right.

