#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 5 of 1
really
boytjie, I gave up proving the well definedness of that morphism and looked it up online
and that thing is used in its proof
maybe I should've said k is algebraically closed
just to be clear, k being algebraically closed prevents this from happening or?
There is typically no order on an algebraically closed field
So talking about things being positive is silly
ah
I'm really disappointed, illum. I think this proof is well within your ability and I think instead of giving up you should continue to try and prove this.
is it possible to prove it without the fact that $aH = bH$ iff $a\inv b \in H$?
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
another way to phrase my question is
"every symmetric bilinear form has at least one degenerate form"
OH I JUST NOTICED LMAO
I was so confused by the proof given by the wiki
if $aH = bH$ then $a\inv bH = H$, let $x = a\inv b$, now for all $h \in H$, $xh = h'$ for some $h' \in H \implies x = h'h\inv$ and because the operation must be closed, x must be in $H$
is that correct?
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
if $Ha = Hb$ then $H = Hb\inv a$, let $x = b\inv a$, now for all $h \in H$, $hx = h'$ for some $h' \in H \implies x = h\inv h'$ and because the operation must be closed, x must be in $H$
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
for right cosets
This is the first part to a problem asking to prove that there exists a k-dimensional subspace that is killed by any symmetric bilinear form for any k <= n/2 (killed meaning B(v, w) = 0 for any v, w in the subspace)
same proof basically
When I said "the other direction," I didn't mean prove it for right cosets
You stated an iff, but you've only shown the "only if" part.
Show the "if" part.
ahhh
wait this is the question I'm trying to solve but no way this is right
Intuitively this makes no sense right? @coral spindle
that there always exists a n/2-dimensional subspace that is killed by a symmetric bilinear form
Can't really look at this rn sorry
ok all good
lemma: let $H$ be a subgroup, then for all $h \in H$ you have $hH = H$ \
proof: for any $h, h' \in H$ you have $h' = h(h\inv h') \in hH$, therefore $H \subseteq hH$. but also $hh' \in H$ for all $h' \in H$, so $hH \subseteq H$, therefore $hH = H$ for all $h \in H$. \
\
now if $a\inv b \in H \implies a\inv b H = H \implies aH = bH$
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
is this setminus or right cosets?
Setminus.
is this correct btw?
Looks so.
epic
Hello! Are there books or lecture notes that review the theory of rings from the category theoretic side, other than Algebra: Chapter 0?
Right cosets Would be H\G
I am trying to classify some ideals in Z[x] as prime but not maximal, maximal, or not prime. My progress for 10Z[x] (since Z[x] is commutative ring), is it is maximal iff Z[x]/10Z[x] = Z/10Z is a field but 10 is not a prime hence it is not a field so 10Z[x] is not maximal. I also want to say it is not prime since 2x and 5 are both in Z[x], and 5(2x) = 10x is in 10Z[x] but neither 2x nor 5 is in 10Z[x]
does this make sense?
I have a permutation problem that says sigma = (1 3 4)(2 3 5 7) I am so confused as to how this can exist
Because doesn't 3 map to 4 and 3 map to 5?
When we put two cycles next to each other, this is composition
So you compose the permutations as you would any other function.
Your course may write it as left-to-right composition rather than the more standard right-to-left, though.
i think this is supposed to be one cycle
i take this cycle and multiply it with another one
.
Indeed I agree that the (left-to-right) composition of these two cycles appears to be a cycle too.
Have I found the minimal polynomial correctly?
that’s akward…
"foiled". 🤮
did you figure anything out about this @coral spindle
I still can’t really believe it
that “half” of a vector space (n/2 dimension subspace) is always killed by a symmetric bilinear form
Why are group algebras so important in representation theory, what properties does the group algebra have that provides additional information on the representation of a group? Why can't we just construct representations of groups like we usually would all the time?
The usual dot product on R^n would seem to be a counterexample to that claim.
yeah which is so weird
is there even a 1 dimensional subspace inRn for which it is true
No.
wait isn’t this a proof that it has to exist though
<a, b> = 0 for some a, b in V (Gram schmidt). Now scale b so it equals a
We've already talked about how we require an algebraically closed field for the thing you're looking at
I don't know the answer and I'm doing sth else right now, so don't expect me to help I'm afraid
To be clear, this was information you provided of course
oh yeah i forgot abt this
and yeah this only works when a,b are in the same one-d subspace anyways
so doesn’t work in general rip
I guess if <a, b> = 0 and a, b are linearly dependent we win
nvm that doesn’t work either
damn
This sounds like it would only have a fighting chance of being true IF you replace the arbitrary field k with the complex numbers AND specify that V has dimension at least 2.
Or at least let k be some field in which all elements have square roots.
dim 2 thing I’m allowed to do I think
but the problem is asking over a general algebraically closed field
But then every element does have a square root.
Choose two linear independent vectors. If one of them is killed by your bilinear form, then you're done.
how do we know this
That's part of what "algebraically closed" means.
All polynomials with coefficients in k have roots in k. In particular, x²-a does for every a in k.
that’s the field though, right
Yes.
oh I thought you meant elements in the vector space had square roots
like for every v there exists w such that <v, w> = 1
how do square roots in the underlying field help us
Whenever we have a vector v with <v,v> != 0, we can choose c to be a square root of 1/<v,v>, and then <cv, cv>=1.
oh I see
here what do you mean by “one of them is killed”
certainly not <v, v> = 0 because we’re trying to find some v that satisfied it
oh do you mean b(v, -) is trivial
Yes, exactly <v,v>=0 -- I'm saying if we randomly found a solution, then we're already done, so the rest of the argument can get away with assuming we weren't that lucky.
In particular, if v and w are linearly independent and <v,v> and <w,w> are both nonzero, then we can do Gram-Schmidt on them and get v' and w' with
<v',v'>=1
<w',w'>=1
<v',w'>=0
(Or possibly we might end up with <w',w'>=0, in which case we can cash out our winnings early again).
gram-schmidt just says “give me some linearly independent vectors and i will give them back as an orthonormal set”
so if we give gram-schmidt v, w it will return v’, w’
I don’t see how you got to the last line, <v’, w’> = 0; nvm this is just a consequence of gram schmidt
Yes, but as usually presented, Gram-Schmidt assumes that we have an inner product instead of just a symmetric bilinear form. So we need to dissect its inner workings a bit to make sure that "every scalar has a square root" can make up for us not knowing it is positive definite.
I see
ah so basically
if we could use gram schmidt from the beginning we would be done
but we can’t since we are working with a symmetric bilinear form, so it may not be positive definite
but existence of square roots implies that it is positive definite?
No, not quite.
But we can still use the idea behind Gram-Schmidt to see that there must be some scalar a such that <v,w+av>=0.
Namely by bilinearity <v,w+av> = a<v,v>+<v,w>, so we can set a = -<v,w>/<v,v>.
Because v and w were linearly independent, v and w+av will also be linearly independent.
Now normalize each of v and w+av to have square 1, and we get the v' and w' from my description above.
Yes.
and if <v, v> = 0 we cash out
wait I’m not too familiar with gram schmidt but isn’t it much different
oh actually i guess a = -proj_v(w)
The basic idea of Gram-Schmidt can be summed up as:
Each time we get a new input vector, add or subtract a combination of the basis vectors we've already found to make sure the result is orthogonal to all of them. Normalize the basis vectors as they're created.
The rest is just notation and bookkeeping.
I see
I’m now seeing if your argument can be extended either inductively or directly to make an n/2 dimensional subspace that is killed
and somehow it shouldn’t work for n/2 + 1
We haven't quite gotten to a vector that is killed in the n=2 case yet (but perhaps you've already seen how that goes).
I have a general idea
say V has dimension 4
pick v, w same as above
now pick w, k in a similar fashion, where k is linearly independent of v, w
so <v, w> = 0 and <w, k> = 0
oh here i thought by symmetry we could say <v, k> = 0 but this is not true
Just to be on the same page, in the n=2 case, are you sure you see how having v and w with <v,v>=<w,w>=1 and <v,w>=0 gives us an 1-dimensional subspace that is killed by <-,->?
oh i’m confused
didn’t we just show that
we found <v’, w’> = 0
now we can scale w’ or v’ by anything
and by symmetry this space is dimension 1
right?
We're looking for a single (nonzero) vector u such that <u,u>=0.
yeah so we can scale either v’ or w’ appropriately
wait fuck
they’re not in the same 1d subspace necessarily
i keep making this mistake lol
uhh
so we have some <v’, w’> = 0
and the v’, w’ are orthonormal
They're definitely not in the same subspace -- on the contrary they were constructed to be linearly independent.
yeah
But try to compute <v'+iw', v'+iw'>.
<v'+w', v'+w'> would be 2, not 0.
here
By "i" I mean one of the square roots of -1 in the field. Remember that everything has square roots!
Oh right!
This is the step that doesn't work for the dot product on R^2.
<v’ + iw’, v’ + iw’> = <v’, v’> + 2i<v’, w’> - <w’, w’> = 1 + 0 - 1 = 0
👍
Ain't my first rodeo. :-)
Yeah.
and you get two linearly independent vectors such that <u1, u1> = <u2, u2> = 0
Exactly.
wow this problem is trippy
would you have thought the result was intuitive
i thought it was blasphemy when i first read it
though i don’t know too much yet about this stuff
There's some threat left from the "cash out early" cases along the way though, and it's not immediately clear to me how much footwork it will take to deal with that. But I think that as an overarching intuition this is sound.
wait cash out early just means some <vi, vi> = 0
and everything fine in that case right
we still get a linearly independent vector that is killed by the bilinear form
Yeah, but now we want more than one of them, and we want them all to be independent and orthogonal, so it's too early to quit and "cash out" the first time we see one.
You stated this was singled out as a first step in getting to higher n, so it's possible you have a hint available for using this as a building block in an induction, rather than directly generalizing the proof of this base case.
(As said, I'm not immediately sure how each strategy would play out).
No I mean, given a basis for V, say {v_1, v_2, …, v_{2n}}, perform the same process for {v_1, v_2}, {v_3, v_4}, …, {v_{2n-1}, v_{2n}}. Now we just need a single vector killed from each two element set, so if one <v_i, v_i> = 0, that can serve as the vector killed for whatever two element set it’s in
am I crazy for thinking this works
Hmm, that sounds intriguing.
You'll get n linearly independent u's such that <u_j,u_j>=0 all right, But I'm not sure you will also automatically get, for example <u1+u2,u1+u2>=0 -- and without that, you won't have an entire n-dimensional subspace that's killed.
oh shit i just assumed that those u_j could serve as building blocks for that subspace, but I guess that’s not true
For example, in C^4 we can consider the bilinear form given by <(a,b,c,d),(a',b',c',d')> = aa'+bb'-cc'-dd'.
Then for u1=(1,0,1,0) and u2=(1,0,-1,0) we have <u1,u1>=0 and <u2,u2>=0 but <u1+u2,u1+u2>=4.
Induction seems like a more promising way to get to higher n will all the letters dotted and crossed.
I am trying induction yeah
How seriously should the adjective "universal" be taken? As in the context "universal property of quotients". I'm still not sure what it is supposed to convey.
Is this just category theory?
Yeah - in brief, universal properties boil down to limits/colimits which you can study in cat theory, which are unique up to isomorphism
It's not about "universes", more about "tool that can do all the things in question". A quotient together with its projection map is "universal" in the sense that it is, so to speak, the only homomorphism from G that sends all such-and-such elements to zero you'll only need. All the others can be made by tacking on additional maps after the quotient,
thanks
I was thinking about the induction and I got a basic layout:
If every vector space of dimension 2k had a k dimensional isotropic subspace, we must show that every 2k + 2 dimension vector space has a k + 1 dimensional subspace.
Let V be a 2k + 2 dimension vector space, and let a_1, ..., a_{2k + 2} be a basis. Note that the subspace S = <a_1, ..., a_{2k}> has a k dimensional isotropic subspace. Now we just need a vector v in V\S = <a_{2k + 1}, a_{2k + 2}> such that Sv = {0}, or equivalently, a_1 s = a_2 s = ... = a_{2k} s = 0
Hmm, I'm not sure that way around will be easy. The solution I can see starts by finding a single null vector, and then uses that to define a 2k-dimensional subspace where we can look for the rest of them using the induction hypothesis.
null vector?
vector with <v,v>=0.
(That name is used in relativity; I don't know how common it is otherwise).
On the other hand, I'm not positive there will be any problems with your tactic, so take this with a grain of salt.
well, I can't seem to get anywhere with it
is this along the lines of your solution? :
Let v be such that <v, v> = 0 and v \in {a_{2k + 1}, a_{2k + 2}}, and consider the 2k - 1 subspaces S_j = <v, a_1, ..., a_{j - 1}, a_{j + 1}, ..., a_{2k - 1}> for each 1 <= j <= 2k - 1 (span of v and every a_1, ..., a_{2k - 1} except a_j). Note that each S_j has dimension 2k
Hint: I'm considering ||the subspace { w | <v,w>=0 }|| and then ||extend v to a basis for that||.
Hmm
what can I say about K = { w | <v, w>=0}, where <v, v> = 0
for starters, v in K
Right.
it's easy to check that K is a subspace (by bilinearity)
so K has a basis v, w_1, ..., w_j
You can also bound the dimension of K.
Note to myself: K is not necessarily isotropic
K = ker (<v, ->)
so dim K = 1 or 0 ?
I'm confused now
No that's the codimension.
oh, I see why
For a linear transformation we have dim(domain) = dim(kernel) + dim(range).
And the range has dimension 0 or 1 here.
so dim(kernel) = 2k + 2 or 2k + 1 ?
under this hypothesis (V is of dimension 2k + 2)
Yes.
ok so K has basis v, w_2, ..., w_{2k}, and possibly also a w_{2k + 1} as well
Right.
wait K isn't isotropic so what's the whole point of this
We're looking for a 2k-dimensional subspace to apply the induction hypothesis to.
oh I see
I am off by one here I think
Yeah. Didn't notice w_1 was missing. :-)
it should be v, w_1, ..., w_{2k} and possibly also a v_{2k + 1}
so now apply the induction hypothesis to <v, w_1, ..., w_{2k - 1}>
Hmmm....
We're not throwing it away. We're setting it aside.
The induction hypothesis will only gives us k isotropic vectors, and we need to end with k+1.
ok so we can have v rest for the moment, and let's now apply the induction hypothesis to W = <w_1, ..., w_{2k}>
it gives us a k dimension subspace with basis p_1, ..., p_k
now we substitute v back into the game, and consider <v, p_i>?
I don't see why <v, p_i> has to be 0
oh wait
Because p_i lies in K.
<v, p_1, ..., p_k>
oh yeah
why'd I just change those
lol
man
this was a cool problem
besides for the part where you had to spoonfeed me through the solution
I will get good at these!
Well, more "slightly dense hinting" than "spoonfeed".
You did find many of the reasoning steps yourself.
pat on my back
ok
are you up for one more rodeo
it's a problem my professor proved in class but I don't understand the proof
so less of a rodeo more of a "why is statement x true"
I might not have time to get all the way through. It's getting late.
No worries, I will just post the problem and proof
Let V is a finite-dimensional vector space over an algebraically closed field k with char k = 0, and suppose T: V -> V is a linear operator such that T^k = I for some k > 0. Prove that T is diagonalizable.
We can't use fancy splitting field stuff because we haven't learned it, so the proof relies on Jordan Normal Form.
If T^k = I_n, then T is invertible, with no eigenvalue equal to 0. Consider the Jordan Normal Form of T. Let A be a Jordan block of size m. Note that T^k = I_n implies A^k = I_m. Moreover, consider the power of Jordan blocks in general. No positive power (> 2) of A can equal I_m, because the jth row jth column element of A^k is of the form kλ^{n - 1} for the corresponding eigenvalue λ. So we must have k = 1, which means m = 1, and thus the JNF of T is diagonal.
Why does T^k = I_n imply A^k = I_m ?
I think I understand the "no non-trivial power of a Jordan block is the identity" part, but that part ^ is tripping me up
Because when you multiply block diagonal matrices (with matching block sizes) you can do it block for block.
In particular a power of a block diagonal matrix is simply made of the same power of the blocks.
wait, does T^k = I_n the JNF of T also raised to the kth power is I_n
Yes.
Recall that the JNF is just the operator expressed in a particularly convenient basis. And the identity map is represented by I_n in every basis.
I see
If V is a n dimension vector space over the complex numbers C, and T: V -> V is a linear operator such that T^k = I_n for some k > 0 (same as above), prove that there exists a Hermitian inner product on V that is unitary with respect to T.
The converse seems easy to prove
because hermitian + unitary means the eigenvalues are 0 and 1
wait do you know why we need 0 to not be an eigenvalue @tribal moss
If 0 is an eigenvalue then T has non-trivial kernel, hence it isn't invertible
yeah but why do we need T to be invertible anyways
at least I don't see it being used in the proof
nvm I figured it out
anyone have hints for this problem
my hint would be ||say you already have an inner product on V, can you think of a combination of these inner products and T that would be unitary for T?||
By this result, T is diagonalizable, so let v_1, ..., v_n be an eigenbasis where||v_i|| = 1 (can normalize because C is alg. closed), then if we show there exists a hermitian inner product so that these v_i are mutually orthogonal, by the spectral theorem, T is unitary wrt this inner product
so ...
is that it @upper pivot
sorry for the double ping
wait actually
I need to find a hermitian inner product so that the v_i are mutually orthogonal
yeah i am not sure how what you stated there solves it.
this is what's left to do right
then the proof is complete
hmm yeah right that would be enough i think
modified so it's right this time
(its not how i'd have done the problem but i think this might work)
yeah but finding this hermitian inner product is kinda hard lol
what was your approach if you don't mind me asking
Just take the standard hermitian product in C^n, according to your eigenbasis.
$\overline{x_1}y_1 + \overline{x_2}y_2 + \cdots + \overline{x_n}y_n$
Troposphere
(Or possibly its complex conjugate, depending on your conventions for hermitian products).
physicist spotted
our definition requires that h(v, w) is conjugate to h(w, v)
did you not mean the complex conjugate here?
That's what I wrote, isn't it?
idk you said "or possibly"
ohhh
do you mean the complex conjugate of the entire expression
Either $\overline{x_1}y_1+\cdots$ or $x_1\overline{y_1}+\cdots$, depending on which side your convention wants ordinary and conjugate linearity on.
Troposphere
because people choose the "conjugate linear" argument to be different
right
so isn't the standard hermitian product the same regardless of choice of basis
like we didn't have to choose a basis before defining it
a + bi -> a - bi
But
i just flip flopped the + to a -
He's already chosen an eigenbasis for T.
Right, but
Ah, I missed that post.
Not anymore than the dot product is the same for a real vector space regardless of the choice of basis ...
Which is to say, not at all.
I’m sure they all induce the same topology or whatever
oh
I see
wait for concreteness
if I have a basis of magnitude one vectors v_1, ..., v_n
and I want a hermitian inner product H such that H(v_i, v_j) = 0 for all i, j
we just talked on how the standard hermitian product wrt the basis works
how are we sure that there exists a standard hermitian product that satisfies this
like before you said "just take it according to the basis"
but concretely how do you do that
I'm not sure what else I can say here.
The basis lets you express each element of V as something from C^n.
yeah
So take the standard hermitian product of those two elements of C^n.
I guess my misunderstanding is where the choice of basis is used
You need a basis before you can get from an abstract element of V to a tuple of coordinates.
okay so we have to choose a basis
but how can we just say H(v_i, v_j) = 0 for all i, j without worrying about anything
Um, because that's what the standard hermitian product does?
oh because we chose the v_i to be the basis
I seeeeeeeeeeeee
Thank you so much for tolerating my bs lol
I'll try to give you a place to start: you know that a generator maps to an endomorphism A such that A^n = Id. What are the eigenvalues of A? Is A diagonalizable? What are the dimensions of the eigenspaces of A?
Let F be a field, and let kappa be some cardinal number. What is the dimension of the vector space F^kappa over F?
I have no idea whether this problem is solvable or not because it came up unexpectedly somewhere else and I'm not an algebra person
Suppose I have a Ring R of integers mod 10 (under usual operations) and 16 unknowns x_1 to x_16 which satisfy a system of 16 equations (non homogeneous)
when does a solution exist and what is it (if it exists?)
bwpvbzz
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Could you use a tower law argument to assert equality?
I did it by using the fact that alpha_2 and alpha_2^3 are complex but the intersection is a subset of the real numbers
sure that works
I was thinking along the lines of: the degree of extensions are 4, 4, 2 respectively, so the degree of intersection is either 2 or 4. Then you show it can't be 4 by showing the intersection is a proper subset of the two. Think this argument works as well
Yeah I think so too
are there any prerequisites for intro to abstract algebra other than proof writing
I'm confused, couldn't G also be cyclic if no section exists?
not really, but some basic understanding of number theory might help
Probably not (just check it doesn't expect group theory as a prereq or anything)
f: G/N = C_4 -> C_8; f(x) = x, isn't f a section?
G/N is C_2
wait is that a well-defined homomorphism tho?
no thats just poorly written by me lmao
Lol
f: G/N = C_2 -> C_8; f(e) = e, f(a) = b^4
where a, b are respective generators
sry if i misunderstood
@long nebula wait why do you think so?
Oh lmao, the map backwards isn’t actually a section
Kekw
Lol
I think they mean for N to be a normal subgroup
it says N is a normal subgroup of order 4 tho?
but either way G -> G/N has no section if G is cyclic
I think
it doesn't say it's normal
but yeah I think it has to do with being a semidirect product of Z_2
and Q_8 and Z_8 are the only groups of order 8 which aren't
Because existence of such section is equivalent to there existing a short exact sequence $$0\to\mathbb{Z}_4\to G\to\mathbb{Z}_2\to 0$$
Blitz
that is, G is a semidirect product of Z_4 and Z_2
maybe they forgot to write that Z_8 is also excluded, or the word "non-abelian" was forgotten
I think the latter
wait. I mean the existence of such section implies that it's the semidirect product
what does it mean for a diagram to commute?
https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/splittinggp.pdf
see here, theorem 3.3
that is, the sequence splits
ah wait I think I get it
if we have this diagram:
then it commutes iff h = f \circ g?
yes
oke thanks
commutative just means that the order you follow the arrows in from one point to another doesn't matter
I think it means unique
But there's no standard convention about dashed lines that I know of
oh yeah uniqueness would make the most sense here
thanks
if A is isomorphic to B then A and B are the same structures but "viewed through different lenses"?
sometimes dashed means 'implied existence of'?
It means you're just relabeling the elements, and all the structure stays the same
thanks
At least all the common notions of isomorphism.
In category theory I wouldn't give that interpretation
Isomorphisms kinda lose that part of their meaning
Yeah I feel like this may be more frequent than unique
this means phi bar is an iso from g/ker phi to image of phi?
Though it’s usually for there exists unique
specifically the tilde
I'd write $\simeq$ or $\cong$
No but they’re showing that phi bar is doing the mapping
Blitz
I'd still write it that way
Fair enough
Instead of an arrow
does $\bar{g} \coloneqq gH$ have a specific name
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
the g bar
Left closet
coset
Just an element
Yes
Some people are like that. Just don't pay them attention
How do I find a cyclotomic polynomial using this formula?
Also what does the n’ mean?
it's of index 2, so it has to be
yea this is what we went over in class, and I just classified all the possible actions of C2 on C4 and C2 on C2xC2, so G has to be either D8, C4xC2, or C2xC2xC2
currently waiting for a response from the prof as to clarification on the question
ty y'all for the sanity check :)
ah yeah. My bad
dw I was also confused about that for a while until I realized xD
the n' probably means the euler totient function of n, (\phi(n))
Ei ao (e/i) e
and then the zeta are the primitive nth roots of unity numbered from 1 to phi(n)
So how do I find (\phi(4))?
you would calculate all of the primitive 4th roots of unity
(there's only 2)
and then multiply [(x-\zeta_1)(x-\zeta_2)]
Ei ao (e/i) e
Thanks much! 🙂
np!
N is index 2 hence normal
Lol my professor wrote back to me and said that he forgot that abelian groups existed since classification for finite abelian groups is easy
Hurb
This is such a meme
Literally only 2 options then 
Just classify groups of order 8 4head
Lol "G must be Q8 by checking the table in Dummit-Foote"
I know that the polynomial has a degree of 2 but do I have to test some polynomials to find it ? My prof told me that I need to see some results first
isn't it just (x - \zeta_3\sqrt[3]2)
Ei ao (e/i) e
Wait I messed up
Christophe*
In that case, yes XD
Lol
I don't know any field theory, but try computing zeta_3 cbrt(2) squared
and then seeing if you can get some sort of linear dependence relation with zeta_3 cbrt(2)
I tried this but I feel like I just test things stupidly
what did you get?
It should divide the minimal Polynomial of it in Q, which is x^3-2. Look at the factorisation of x^3-2 over Q(cbrt(2)) into irreducibles and conclude what it is
further hint if you absolutely can't figure it out: ||x^3-y^3=(x-y)(x^2+xy+y^2)||
Well, for one thing, if you take the representation of a generator and look at the Jordan normal form over C, you'll find that you can't get T^n to be I without the JNF actually being diagonal.
So it is diagonalizable over C but not necessarily over R.
Since the characteristic polynomial is real, the non-real eigenvalues must come in conjugate pairs.
And remember that two real matrices that are similar over C are also similar over R.
If you follow the train of thought I'm sort of hinting at, you will get that the representation is reducible unless it has one a few very special forms that are each easily seen to be irreducible.
A key fact is that $\begin{pmatrix} e^{i\theta} \ & e^{-i\theta} \end{pmatrix}$ is similar (over $\mathbb C$) to $\begin{pmatrix}\cos \theta & \sin\theta \ -\sin\theta & \cos\theta\end{pmatrix}$.
I really like this self-contained run-through of (basic) galois theory https://www.maths.ed.ac.uk/~tl/gt/gt.pdf
Troposphere
Eyup.
hello
Hello and welcome.
hi :))
okay here goes
this is the hw problem im stumped on
and this is what i have written down so far
i would just like some guidance not a solution because there are two more of these
0 is in Q, so what is f(0)?
Erase everything and write down a single counterexample then
use whatever but do a draft first
that's a good idea
You could also learn LaTeX and then do scratch work and type up the final draft
yea I usually type everything in latex
and then I can just delete the wrong ideas I have, copy and paste the stuff I need copy and pasted, move text around, etc
so when I'm finding simple reps for Wedderburn, and then I end up with two isomorphic reps, what do I do with them? Count them as just a single rep? My prof's proof makes it seem like I should treat them as the direct product of everything in the isomorphism class, which can't be true right?
if $M$ is an $R$-module then we can interpret $R\otimes_R M$ as being $M$ by the isomorphism $r\otimes m\mapsto rm$. Is there a similar reduction that we can make for $(R\oplus R)\otimes_R M$?
That’s just M^2 now
Because tensor product distributes over sums
So you get (R (x) M) (+) (R (x) M)
I am reading something about why the isomorphism between a vector space and its dual is not canonically isomorphic
what does the last sentence mean?
"duality involves the linear transformations between the space"
ok... but what difference does it make if there's more than one isomorphism
Really this is saying you want the functor * to be naturally isomorphic to the identity functor
So you can find isomorphisms from V and V*
Given maps V -> W you get maps V* -> W*
are you saying
There’s no way to make the isomorphism between V and V*, and W and W* such that the square you get commutes for all possible maps, all possible V and W
You want this to play nice with maps too
hmm
why doesn't this commute?
can't we just pick a basis for V and W to get the maps V -> V* and W -> W*
and then S* can be appropriately chosen probably? or are you saying there won't exist an S*, in which case I don't see why
There does exist S*
The issue is that you S* is fixed
S* is going to be precomposition with S
It sends f:W-> R to V -> W -> R
The issue is the isomorphisms from V to V* and W to W*
You have only one of these for any particular V, and you want this square to commute for those choices of isomorphisms for ALL S
This isn’t possible
You have only one of these for any particular V
wait what
I thought the point was that there's an infinite number of isomorphisms from V to V*
Yeah and you have to fix one
The issue is that the one you fixed is supposed to make this square commute
But the fixed choice has to make every such possible square commute
If this doesn’t make sense just ignore it or look up what functors and natural transformations are
Ahhh thank you
why is (L*f_j)e_i = f*_j(Le_i)
this the second equality on the last line
it is a proof for why the matrix of a linear transformation is the transpose of the matrix of the transpose map W* -> V*
why there so much lin alg in the algebra channel
nvm i got it
it is true that a vector space is isomorphic to its dual
but what is so special about the isomorphism between inner product spaces and duals
For finite-dimensional vector spaces, yes. For infinite-dimensional vector spaces, no.
yea sure
because you dont get that sort of niceness in all Banach spaces
I don't have a satisfying general answer, but I can name some places where it comes up: differential geometry (in raising and lowering tensor indices), functional analysis (the Riesz representation theorem; this generalizes the isomorphism in question)
I see
the analytic consequence of this is that hilbert spaces are 'isomorphic' to their duals
It also gives you a specific isomorphism in terms of your inner product
ok I now finally understand what you meant, but I don't understand why the isomorphisms (V <-> V*) and (W <-> W*) don't work (make the diagram commute) for any linear transformation S, it's not like we constructed the isomorphisms with respect to S, all we did was make them relative to some choice of basis for each of V and W
Which doesn’t depend on your basis (I think)
It doesn't depend on the basis.
huh don't we have to pick a basis in order to get the isomorphism between a space and it's dual
The map v -> <v, -> is perfectly well-defined and independent of any choices.
oh there I was talking about in general, not inner product spaces
I meant to respond to the other person.
.
oh @next obsidian this was supposed to be in response to your earlier message (replied above)
I don't see how the fixed choice doesn't make each possible square commute (each choice of transformation)
like the only information we used to define the isomorphism between V and V* was a basis, we didn't use anything inherent to the linear transformation S
Let's do some math
Stabilizer of the identity is the image of the orthogonal group
I like this action
Yup, so in fact this action is transitive. You see why?
Yeah, there's like a standard form for positive quadratic forms
Or it's just the sum of squares x_i^2
But I forgot how that works :(
Hmm I guess I was just thinking, symmetric matrices are orthogonally diagonalizable
I guess it becomes the same thing
You diagonalize and then just scale to normalize eigenvalues
So you can turn S into a diagonal matrix and then yeah hit it with more diagonal matrices to get to identity
Yup
So we identify P(C) with PGL(2,R)/PO(2). Another way to see it is
SL(2,R) embeds into GL(2,R)
You can quotient out space with action to get a K(G, 1) if you're interested in that 
Now if we write S = XDX^T, then D = X^TSX where X is orthogonal
But then diagonal matrices commute
So I can replace X with {{1,0},{0,-1}}
What's the point? The point is that the action of SL(2,R) is still transitive
And now this is just SL(2,R)/SO(2)
Sloth King Daminark
And diagonal matrices commute
Sloth King Daminark
Ah ok
this is all in the category of abelian groups btw
or at least I want to know something about the structure of A if possible
A = Z_np × A' should give the same result as Z_np for any torsion-free (or even "p-torsion free") A'.
ah yeah true
the full question is that I need to find the structure of $A$ if there exists a short exact sequence $$0\to \bZ_p\to A\to \bZ_p\to 0$$ and $A\not\cong \bZ_p\oplus\bZ_p$
i.e. the class of the extension in Ext(Zp, Zp) is not 0
so I applied the long exact sequence for Ext and all that I could get out of it was that Hom(Z_p , A)=Z_p
Same reasoning that Mrean used the day before in a different context. Let me find it ...
Here.
Not sure offhand.
having a brain fart right now. how does $\pmod{p}$ relate to $\bZ_p^{\cross}$? I can see how it relates to $\bZ_p$ but $\bZ_p^{\cross}$ only has $p - 1$ order?
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
so like in Z_3 \ {0} 5 "is" 1 but 5 = 2 (mod 3)
It's multiplication mod p, you remove 0 because it isn't invertible
This is wrong, 5=2mod3 in Z_3{0} still
oh modulo is always wrt some group?
No
Really this is ring theoretic.
There is no notion of 'multiplicative part' of a group in general
Oh just realised
if you really wanted a purely group-theoretic description of Z_p^\times without reference to any ring theory...
You could describe it as Aut(Z_p), the group of automorphisms of Z_p.
Here's a hint/direction:you know by the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups that A is either Z/pZ + Z/pZ or Z/p^2Z. Isomorphism classes of extensions are in bijection with Ext^1(Z/pZ, Z/pZ). If you compute this group, you can ignore one element corresponding to the trivial extension and all you're left with are the non-trivial extensions which you're looking to compute. This will at least give you the number, and you can think about how to compute them explicitly or I can give another hint at that point.
wait but we have {1, 2} as Z_3 \ { 0 } and 5 = 2 + 2 + 1 = 2 + 1 = 1, no?
2 + 2 + 1 = 2 + 1
like
if we add 1 to 2 we go back to the beginning because it's cyclic, no?
ohhhh
wait
we have multiplication here not addition
The group operation for Z_3^\times is multiplication, yes.
then how do you get the result 5 = 2 mod 3
I mean in Z_3\{0} with multiplication
5 is still 2 mod 3
uhh the context is fermat's little theorem
like it's x^(p - 1) \conguent 1 mod p but we set G = Z_p \ { 0 }
You ought to forget about groups for a moment.
Like I said earlier, this is really about rings, but you won't know what that is.
We are simply working in modulo 3 arithmetic, so 5 = 2 mod 3.
That is all.
uhh okay
orbit are all possible outcome values and stabilizer are all values that act like a neutral element?
It's imprecise, but that's one way to look at them.
thanks. just got introduced to them and need like a rough overview of what they are when they appear, so yeah
You can show any finite group center which admits a faithful representation has cyclic center
Faithful irreducible
You will see examples and form intuition as you keep studying.
yip
$G/G_x \cong Gx$?
🤔
illuminator3 👻(#eric4honorable)
Sorry!
I guess try to classify all the irreducible representations?
Do you have enough character theory to know when you’ve found all of them?
The stuff relating degrees of reps to the size of the group
Oof
I wouldn't use the \cong symbol, because there's no apparent structure that's being preserved by the obvious bijection. I would also let the other two proceed with their conversation, and tell you to go read up on the orbit-stabilizer theorem some.
Idk lol maybe @delicate orchid knows
He knows a lot of rep theory I think
I’m not gonna lie, my rep theory knowledge is insanely weak
By that what I mean is, I have no idea

phi(z) is a g isomorphism of the space if z is in the centre
Why do I keep getting -1 when finding the 3rd cyclotomic polynomial using this formula?
what does schur's lemma say about g automorphisms of an irreducible rep?
And in particular of the identity
so they commute with everything
so if its restriction is faithful on H...
Yes, as phi(z) in G is equal to the value of its restriction on H
So that means that phi(z) commutes with everything in phi(G), if the restriction is faithful on H, but z doesn't commute with everything in G
Z(G) is trivial, but we've shown that Z(phi(G)) is not
if it is faithful on H
I'm doing the contrapositive, if a representation of G restricts to a faithful, irreducible rep of H, then the rep of G is not faithful, so that a faithful rep of G restricting to a faithful rep of H, can't restrict to an irreducible rep
Why do I keep getting -1 when finding the 3rd cyclotomic polynomial using this formula?
why are you substituting x-1 and x+1 for the primitive roots of unity
x is a variable here
What would we substitute?
You don’t…
the values of the roots of unity?
When defining Brauer groups over rings, we define the brauer classes as similarity classes Where A\sim A' if A(x)M_n(R) \cong A'(x)M_m(R) for some m,n, where R is the base ring. Over a field, the brauer classes correspond to morita equivalence, is this still the case for azumaya algebras
yeah pretty sure the 16 dim irreducible is faithful, its character has a trivial kernel ||iff the rep has a trivial kernel iff the rep is injective||
no clue if you're allowed to use characters
shit sorry you only wanted a hint
wait is it S_5
oh no it's S_6
if you want a smaller one I will have to google the character table 
yung diagram
it's S_6, chmonkey
one of these is the standard rep if you want a concrete example
which is probably the one the question you wanted to find, in hindsight
hook length!
hook length formula gives dimensions of representations of symmetric group, they just get big p quickly
Nooooooooooo
idk hahahahah!!!
lets look at the funny tetris pieces
I purposefully didn’t pay attention to that part of my combo class
silly question from a silly guy, I'm reading that if I have a projective resolution P of M and a projective resolution P' of N, then I can compute Tor(M, N) as the homology of P \otimes P'. Is this the homology of the total complex of P \otimes P'?
I would assume so, but this is maybe some hyper cohomology stuff
Idk the specifics
🙂
I can take it on faith, I never learned the double complex stuff
couldn't you do some silly spectarl sequence argument to show this
from like the homology of the double complex
maybe you need hyperhomology
sorry I forgot chmonkey only enjoys spectrral sequences passively
i'm hyperhomology
Suppose I have some quadratic polynomial f(x) over $\mathbb{Z}_p$ which is irreducible. How do I find an extension field which contains all the roots of f(x)?
F♯A♯ℵ0
Because $\frac{\mathbb{Z}_p}{<f(x)>}$ doesn't necessarily contain all the roots right?
F♯A♯ℵ0
But yes, the idea is to keep going until we get all the roots.
Suppose $f$ is of degree n over a field $F$ and take an irreducible factor $g$ of it; by the construction you gave, we have a field extension $K/F$ such that $g$ has a root $\theta$ in $K$. But this means that in $K[x]$,we can write $f(x) = (x-\theta)h(x)$ for some $h \in K[x]$ and by induction on degree we can find some extension $L/K$ in which $h$ splits
potato
You can then take the intersection of all subfields of L in which f splits to get a splitting field.
Ok thanks 🙂
So if i took $f(x)=x^2+1\in\mathbb{Z}_3[x]$ then I could get the root $x+\langle x^2+1 \rangle \in E=\frac{\mathbb{Z}_3[x]}{\langle x^2+1\rangle}$. Then $f(x)=(x+\langle x^2+1 \rangle)h(x)$, so i get the second root $x+\langle h(x) \rangle \in \frac{E[x]}{\langle h(x) \rangle}$?
F♯A♯ℵ0
Well this is a bit different, since as soon as you have one root you have the other, since it's only quadratic
Is that the case for any quadratic?
Sure - work out why
second root is just $x - \langle f(x) \rangle$?
F♯A♯ℵ0
which is in the first extension?
Well my point was that h is degree 1
hello
i need some help and will be posting my problem with what i have come up already
wait lemme crop my proposed solution
You should try #proofs-and-logic
For naive set theory
kk
If $H$ and $K$ are subgroups of a group $G$,\
let $(H,K)$ be the subgroup of $G$\
generated by the elements ${hkh^{-1}k^{-1}\mid h\in H,k\in K}$.\
Also note that $G'$ denotes the commutator subgroup of $G$.\
Show that if $(H,G')=\langle e\rangle$, then $(H',G)=\langle e\rangle$.
Amizar
This has got all of us stumped so far.
It's a 3 part question and the other 2 parts were pretty solvable.
I've made progress in a few different directions, but I'm not sure how to tackle the problem altogether.
Information that I've got so far:
I feel like this is what the hall Witt identity is for, but I night be misremembering
I had a similar feeling
But I don’t remember the exact statement, and it seemed a little different
I don't think that's the move in this case, because we haven't covered anything like that in the course.
Though it may be a reasonable route to solving the problem.
I did some research and it seemed appropriate but I'm not sure where to go with it.
The key point of $(H,G')=\langle e\rangle$ is that every element of $H$ commutes with every element of $G'$. The target statement is equivalent to $H'\leqslant C(G)$.
Amizar
$(G,G)=G'$\
$(G,H)=(H,G)$\
$(H,(H,H))\leqslant(G,(H,H))\leqslant(G,(G,H))\leqslant(G,(G,G))$\
$(H,(H,H))\leqslant(H,(G,H))\leqslant(G,(G,H))\leqslant(G,(G,G))$\
$(H,(H,H))\leqslant(H,(G,H))\leqslant(H,(G,G))\leqslant(G,(G,G))$
Amizar
C(G) is the center?
Yes.
I mean, I guess that's also true. That should be equivalent to H'<C(G)
Right sorry I remember why I was thinking this
A normal subgroup contains the commutator subgroup iff it has abelian quotient
H cap C(G) is clearly normal, its central in H
And H/(H cap C(G)) = H C(G)/C(G)
This is what I was thinking
hmm
I guess that makes sense. In fact, H cap C(G) is central in G.
I mean
The normality is what checks out. A central subgroup is always normal, but the converse isn't necessarily true.
Meaning, H\cap C(G) is central, not only in H, but in G as well.
So it's automatically central in H.
We also know that H' < C(H), but that isn't necessarily contained in the center of G.
It's in the center of H and the center of G'
Because it's in H, it's in the centralizer of G'.
Because it's in G', it's in the centralizer of H.
Because it's in both, it's in the center of both.
I'm not sure how to go from there to center of G, though.
Wait, is the center of G' a subgroup of the center of G or am I crazy?
If G is abelian, then C(G) = G, and C(G') = G' = \langle e\rangle.
Just for an example, not a proof.
I don't see why this would be true
Well, (G,C(G)) = <e> for any group G.
What’s the center of Q8?
It's ±1
{1,-1}, right?
I think {±1} is also the commutator, right?
Yeah.
I feel like that would be a pretty relevant statement not to be known, but it seems like it should hold, for some reason.
So I was saying H C(G)/C(G) is isomorphic to the subgroup of Aut(G) given by conjugation by elements of H
and I was trying to figure out whether this was obviously abelian, at all
We know that any H-conjugation kills off G'
Okay
so for any automorphism γ in this subgroup, γ(ab) = γ(ba) for all a, b
Why does this imply they mutually commute
Hmm...
I think that works chm
So I want to say if h, k in H then for any x we have hkxk^-1h^1 = khxh^-1k^-1
Every once in awhile those kinds of revelations actually lead to something productive, but more often than not they end with a simple counterexample.
Wait, why is that the case, sham?
What part?
I mean I didn't get anywhere
Oh, I see.
I didn't see want to say.
The thing that we're aiming for is equivalent to H' < C(G)
So this is equivalent to the assumption that H < C(G')
It says any automorphism γ of G given by conjugation against an element of H satisfied this relation
And the desired conclusion is that the group of these is abelian
We haven't used that sort of notation in class. Doesn't mean it's off the table by any means, but we haven't gone in that direction so I imagine there's a route to solving the problem that doesn't require that kind of machinery.
What notation
Particularly applying the commutator (function?) to elements rather than groups.
I mean, it's not hard to convince myself.
But it's not something we've done in this class.
Oh
wait yeah
conjugations and translations both produce automorphisms.
I'm just saying I'm not using any machinery here
I'm reframing things in terms of group K
Ok, sounds good.
K is a subgroup of the automorphism group of G, consisting of all automorphisms given by conjugation by an element of H
I noticed that the assumption says that γ(ab) = γ(ba) for any γ in K, a, b in G
Translation does not, it’s not a homomorphism (if by that you mean x -> gx)
This says γ kills off the generators of (G, G)
and the conclusion says that K itself is abelian
I thought it was an automorphism if you translate by an element in the group itself.
Oh, wait. Yeah I see what you mean.
It is a bijection, and this is important
It gives a set-automorphism
So it defines a group action
That might have been what I was thinking.
It's an action, which I might have mixed with automorphism because it's bijective.
ker γ contains G'
The subgroup generated by HK, the set of products hk where h\in H, k\in K.
Cool
Note that the problem statement defines (H,K), meaning this is the first time the book has introduced the function at all.
Okay
I'm pretty handy with picking up the intuition for an algebraic structure, but my gut tells me that there's not a whole lot of digging necessary within the definition of the function itself.
Going back to something from earlier, in case it can be of any use:
$(G,G)=G'$\
$(G,H)=(H,G)$\
$(H,(H,H))\leqslant(G,(H,H))\leqslant(G,(G,H))\leqslant(G,(G,G))$\
$(H,(H,H))\leqslant(H,(G,H))\leqslant(G,(G,H))\leqslant(G,(G,G))$\
$(H,(H,H))\leqslant(H,(G,H))\leqslant(H,(G,G))\leqslant(G,(G,G))$
Amizar
The second line gives us a notion of commutativity (shocking, I know) in the commutator operation.
If we had something like associativity, which I'm not sure how or in what capacity to establish it, then it would make the rest of the problem trivial.
The correct version of associativity is more like the Jacobi identity
What is the Jacobi identity?
The axioms for a lie bracket
We haven't been introduced to lie groups yet.
I was just sharing
You can just look up the Jacobi identity
Fair enough. I've pulled it up in another tab; I was just providing context for where we are in the calss.
See the question/comments/answers blog posts here
The thing that stands out is the two-variable analogue, which I agree with the poster is nearly trivial: (a,b)(b,a)=1
Sorry to clarify, the lie bracket of a lie algebra is nonassociative
The correct version of associativity in that case is the Jacobi identity
Ahhhh, that makes sense. Sounds sad.
That's why I was bringing this up
Ah, that makes sense.
But for groups that's the same thing.
If we apply it to groups instead of elements, because groups contain their own inverses.
Ah so
The sort of fundamental examples of lie algebras are where you start with an associative algebra A (eg matrices over a field k) and look at the bracket [a, b] = ab - ba
In fact all lie algebras arise this way (although A may need to be infinite dimensional)
I see.
So this is why there's an analogy/relationship with the commutator in group theory
It seems like the following should be true: if H < G, then (H,K) < (G,K).
I very much don't see why this is true
Right?
Yep
Sorry this was about the overall problem
So the three compound inequalities are all sound, right?
Looks like it
I eventually algebrad my way into $\forall g\in G, h_1,h_2\in H$,\
$gh_1g^{-1}h_2gh_1^{-1}g^{-1} = h_1h_2h_1^{-1}$
Okay I am now going to bring out machinery, sorry
Amizar
I can show you the trail, but it involved several substitutions.
maybe not
I'd like to know if that implies anything about ghg^{-1} or g^{-1}h_2g
Or, in English, If you conjugate an element of H by another element of H, the result is not changed by first conjugating the second element of H by any element of G.
Right.
I was thinking that might be the case.
If g commutes with h_1, then it's immediately true.
If you start with an H-inner automorphism
Then you conjugate by any inner automorphism
The result agrees with the automorphism you started with on H
The same is true for individual elements?
What I said is literally this identity

