#groups-rings-fields
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hmmm i can see this works but i dont want it to
because then the last part of the exercise cant possibly make sense
can you show the exercise?
(here i mean part iii)
huh
You're supposed to be looking at endomorphisms of a module, not maps in general
well yeah
So why would R x R -> R be an issue
R is embedded in RxR
it's not from M -> M
And when you restrict the map to R, you have a different map
oh right
yeah ofc
lol
okay that's good news
still not sure how to show sujectivity => injectivity though
Maybe try thinking about repeatedly applying f. What can you say about the kernels of each f^n
alright ill try working with that, thanks!
about the second example, does a general linear lie algebra satisfy the alternating property? I don't think AA = 0 for arbitrary matrix A?
oh wait, nvm
so the multiplication in the algebra is (A, B) -> AB - BA
An n-dimensional unital algebra over a field k always embeds into the matrix ring k^{n×n}. So there's a 4×4 matrix representation of the quaternions.
But there's a celebrated theorem of Frobenius stating that this is the only example over the reals, other than R and C, up to isomorphism.
hey real quick question over coset notation.
So say if $G = \mathbb{Z}$ and $H = \langle 4 \rangle$. So $H1 = {..., -11, -7, -3, 1, 5, 9, 13, ...}$. So $H1 = H5 = H-7 = H-11 = ... $ etc.
Would it be okay to say the coset would be something like $H1 + 4n$ for $n \in \mathbb{Z}$? Or is it sufficient enough to just use one number from the coset
MellowDramaLlama
You can stick to one
Also multiplicative notation is innapropiate here
ah so something like H + 1 then? We only did the multi in class so far
Yes. Or 1+H
so I guess i have seen proofs of, kernel of a group homomorphism is normal. I guess I know how to prove it but i seem to lack some deep understanding of why it works like that, and just want to ask for some good intuitions here
in other words, aH=Ha for all a in G. H is subgroup of G
especially examples of non abelian, in which ah=ha is not necessary
Image of conjugate is a conjugate.
And trivial subgroup is always normal
So this is a special case of preimages of normal subgroups being normal
But in a very special case
never heard of the term conjugate subgroup before, thx for your inputs, will learn more this example
No, I meant of elements
what do you mean conjugate exactly?
oh i see interesting
"aH=Ha for all a" is equivalent to "aha^-1 is in H for all h in H and all a in G" -- that is, "H is closed under conjugation by arbitrary elements of G".
The latter description is often a more intuitive way to think about normal subgroups.
i petition instead of normal subgroup the property should be called the abelian coset property just to spite everyone
is g^(-1)xg and gxg^(-1) the same?
Usually not
oh wow
depending on your choice of left or right convention g(inv)xg maps to g(inv), and similarly gxg(inv) maps to g for the canonical homomorphism G/X to G for abelian coset subgroup X contained in G
You can make one into the other by replacing g by g^-1. So if you're talking about all conjugates of x, the difference doesn't matter.
right
I don't think there's any such "canonical homomorphism" -- in many cases the only homomorphism G/N -> G is the one that sends everything to the identity.

and my goal right now is to learn as much of those "many cases" as possible
But the canonical homomorphism G -> G/N always maps g^-1xg and gxg^-1 to the same element of G/N -- namely the coset that x lies in! -- so there's no difference between the conjugation conventions there either.
The only homomorphism Z/7Z -> Z is the trivial one.
(replace 7 by any nonzero integer too)
no difference up to isomorphism but thats why its a convention and doesnt change the outcome with the choice of left or right.
No difference up to anything.
The identity isomorphism
Let G be a group and suppose x ∈ G is the only non-identity element such that x^2 = ε. Then
xy = yx for all y ∈ G?
how to proof this
.
so u have an element x
and no other element than x satisifies x^2=e
well ig u can try a contradiction
suppose xy !=yx for some y in G
try to deduce anything
idk how
I'm confused, can't I just let T(x) = B(x, y) and then I'm done?
what you wrote makes no sense
is that what you meant to write or is it missing something?
for fixed x, the function B(x, y) is a linear map from V to V*, and I am saying to use that as T
wait no it's from V to V, it's just an operator
hmm
you have the right idea
and are pretty close to the answer
think about it some more
$T: x \mapsto B(x, y)$
mrean
it makes no sense as written
I just explained it poorly
huh
B(x, y) is a functional in y for fixed x
is what I'm trying to say
is that not clear
ah
well, it's clear to me, but it wasn't clear to me that it was clear to you
so i had to make sure
T(x) = B(x, -), basically
using the dash in bilinear or multilinear functions is pretty common notation for "the function that puts things in this component"
my prof writes bullet points
and he is never wrong
so now i'm in a dillema
I will flip a coin
bullet point it is
does anyone know why we can rearrange jordan blocks up to similarity
if all the eigenvalues are distinct than this is easy
but apparently it's also true when the only eigenvalue is 0
Do you recall anything about the orders of conjugate elements, such as x versus y^{-1}xy ?
I'm incredibly confused by the answer provided to this question
I can see how A would form a subgroup but
I don't really understand the latter part
Hmm nevermind I think I somewhat understand.
That's some sort of group action isn't it?
I'm not sure I really understand
It's clear that |A| = |B|
and A is in fact a group
B is however not
Yes but the addition is injective
Well it's not
But add an even number to an odd number you'll get an odd number
That's it
Yes I got that
I don't see how showing the above applies to any arbitrary subgroup though
By Zn do you mean {0,1,...,n-1} with the operation of adding mod n?
Yup
In my own (failed) attempt to prove this I was able to show that no subgroup exists where everything is odd
I'm just not able to demonstrate that exactly half must be odd
Then you know the subgroups of Zn
I guess
Yes you do
Those are the Zd where d divides n
So the demonstration works fine
You're welcome
To show that you just need Lagrange theorem stating that the cardinal of a subgroup divides the cardinal of the entire group
Oh um I haven't gotten that far in my book
(Gallian)
Are the exercises meant to be doable assuming no further chapters?
Right
In that case perhaps I'll do a few more chapters first and just mark this off
(I'm self-learning as a hobby so I don't have an actual curriculum)
It's unfortunate because I have a lot of good resources on group theory but they are in french
Guys can someone explain me that for the set R if I say that any element a has a inverse -a then it should be like a+(-a)
As for the identity element it should be it should be 0
If you use the addition notation
Why does m specifically have to be the least positive integer
I follow everything else but this choice is confusing for me
The division algorithm guarantees a remainder r< m, which is where that assumption of least positive gets used.
You're trying to prove H is cyclic
You need to find a generator
All you have is a generator for G by assumption so you must find a generator of H in terms of the generator assumed to exist
Only the smallest power is going to get you anywhere to that end
For any vector space V, how can I show that the only element that is in the kernel of every functional (element of V*) is 0
I got here by trying to show that the canonical isomorphism between V and V** is injective
try showing that if v ≠ 0, then there is a functional f such that v is not in ker(f)
so i'm learning about ideals and factor rings and i was wondering
is Z[x]/<x^2 + 1> isomorphic to the ring of gaussian integers? since we're essentially considering x^2 + 1 = 0
got it
yea
ah so then
i've heard of the dual numbers being like
a + bj where j^2 = 0
so would Z[x]/<x^2> be isomorphic to those?
Yes. Well, technically C[x] where C is complex numbers, or something similar
In fact, I think a+bj where j^2 = 0 forces the definition of dual numbers to be C[x]/(x^2)
just the variable x here happens to be denoted j, and instead of writing a+bj + (j^2) we happen to write a+bj
isomorphism is, in fact, just a change in notation
well, not in category theory in general, but for rings and other algebraic structures, it is
I think usually you take R[x]/x^2 instead of C, otherwise you get some kind of dual-complex hybrid
Ah. Yes. True
any advice on finding composition series of modules for even easy examples? I think im lacking a decent amount of intuition on modules and how they behave under quotients, ive been trying to get a composition series for a quotient module of a polynomial ring on two variables and tried doing it naively by taking an ascending chain of ideals that seem to be the smallest that contain each other but the quotients dont end up being simple...
it's the existence of that second polynomial variable that just kinda messes things up
@wooden ember one thing that might be useful for you is that you can always refine a series to a composition series (assuming the module is finite length, ie has a composition series at all)
So try taking your series with non simple quotients and seeing if you can insert things between the terms with a bad quotient
that's what ive been trying to do but it feels to me like my inclusions are minimal
Also keep in mind that submodules between N and M are submodules of M/N
Can you post the example?
i cant sadly because it's an exercise i need to hand in
so dont want to go into specifics
it was in case anyone had general advice
hmm actually this might be a good perspective to think from
alright i think i see my problem thanks
it's making my comp series hella long though 
How would I prove this?
(kS_n)^{S_k} is S_k invariant and S'_{n-k} is the subgroup of S_n that fixes all {1,2,...,k}, X_n are the Jucys Murphy elements
quick question for a group of order 72 are there three iso classes by the FTFGAG
are they
and lastly
,w factor 72
That seems very off
yeah and the n_i+1 needs to divie n_i
Like what about Z_2 x Z_6 x Z_6
Also this is only for abelian groups, you wrote group
thats using the second version of the fundemental theorem
i meant abelian
by FGTAG
Yeah but this isn’t isomorphic to any of the ones you wrote?
This doesn’t have any element of order > 6
It’s also definitely abelian of order 72
but the theorem states to split it into
MyMathYourMath
but you can alsp have Z_3 at the end as there are two powers of 3
What?
you can leave one behind so 3 divides the predecessor
so far I have 5 iso classes
is that all of them?
12 and 6
so theres 6 iso classes?
Z_72, Z_24 x Z_3, Z_36 x Z_2
and
Z_18 x Z_2 x Z_2 and
Z_6 x Z_6 x Z_2
and lastly
Z_12 x Z_6
what about Z_3XZ_3XZ_2XZ_2XZ_2, point is you're counting the number of ways to partition 3 factors of 2 and 2 factors of 3
but 2 doesnt divide 3
that's not what i'm saying
isnt what you wrote iso to one of mine
is there an element of order 6 in the group i just mentioned? ans: ||no||
thats what the FT says
all the FTFGAG says is that the number of abelian groups for a given order is the same as the number of ways to partition their prime factors
This is Z_6 x Z_6 x Z_2
ok so I was correct there are 6 iso classes.
whoops
so i understand the idea that when you have an ideal = <a> you basically consider a = 0 in the factor ring
so if you have an ideal generated by two elements or more, like say <a, b, c>, would you then just think of all the generators as 0 in the factor ring?
so I was correct? theres only 6 iso classes?
sure seems that way
Hey guys, i'm trying to draw a hierarchical graph of all ring structures, and each arrow signifies an inclusion relationship, but there's a few things i don't understand:
- How do the branches on top (that start with
semiring,near simiringandnon associative rings) fit in the whole picture ? - And are
Fieldsbothdivision ringsandeuclidian domainsat the same time ?
are all iso classes of group of order 432 the following 15 classes.
z_432, z_216 x z_2, z_108 x z_4, z_54 x z_8, z_144 x z_3, z_72 x z_6, z_36 x z_12, z_12 x z_12 x z_3, z_54 x z_4 x z_2, z_36 x z_6 x z_2, z_108 x z_2 x z_2, z_48 x z_3 x z_3, z_108 x z_2 x z_2, z_54 x z_4 x z_2, z_54 x z_2 x z_2 x z_2
this is a question that google will help you more with than anyone here
lol
is there 15 classes though? and how using the prime decomp can you tell how many classes you will have
what do the different colours represent?
Ah litterally nothing xD i just used the first mind mapper website i could find, so ignore the 2 different kinds of arrows too
ok. i think the second part is correct. all fields are euclidean domains and are division rings.
the first part about the other structures, i'm not sure because those don't appear in my abstract algebra texts
Ok nice, yeah for the others I've just been scouring wikipedia trying to piece everything together but sadly i can't fit them either
For groups it was easy, there's a nice diagram on Wikipedia but for rings im kinda struggling
part of the problem is that it isn't a tree
ring -> commutative ring
ring -> division ring
a ring that is both is a field, so the branches converge
yeah, that's why i said it's a graph (since that way they can converge again)
I'm coding my algebra library to learn more, and i can easily represent the convergeance with interfaces since they support multiple inheritance with other interfaces (but that's the code side)
i don't think formalising the "is" relationships using OOP inheritence is a good approach. but that is my opinion
hmm if you have a better approach i'm all ears 😮 i simply thought the "is a" relationship reflects well with inheritance since a field is also a commutative ring etc
maybe at some level, e.g. a high level helper interface
i think that e.g. a euclidean domain depends on the existence of a euclidean valuation
in this case it is a has (euclidean valuation) relationship that determines the is (euclidean domain)
i don't think it's possible to have this represented as static OOP structure
ah but you can represent that with interfaces, making them force implementing classes to define a valuation function
Here's what i got until now: https://pastebin.com/pUq8PDzN
I've defined the groups, rings, lattices and modules (but the rings and modules are probably wrong for now, which is why i was asking my question here to understand better how to formalize them)
Pastebin.com is the number one paste tool since 2002. Pastebin is a website where you can store text online for a set period of time.
at least for rings x'] i'll ask about modules after i fix them first
ok. but imagine that the euclidean valuation is user-defined. there is no way to adjust the inheritence structure dynamically
nice work but too complicated for me to check
I'm not sure why i would need to be able to adjust that 😮 as long as something is a euclidean domain there should be a valuation function
yeah i know, didn't mean to ask to check, just to show if you ctrl+f "EuclidianDomain" you'll see the way i defined it i mean
ok
i still think it's too complicated to have a fixed structure like this in a program
imagine the user "builds" a structure by providing the operators and functions
how will you know whether those satisfy the needed axioms for it to be e.g. a field
that's 100% true, it's up to the user to not define an operator that's not commutative as an abelian group (for example) yeah. I see your point
it's a good question. i hope you can find the answer to how your other structures fit in, but as i said those seem to be outside of basic abstract algebra
Thanks for the input! Yeah anyways it's not really a general purpose library for other ppl x'] it's more for me since i usually understand better when i actually implement something
by the way, have you also considered ideals? those are similar in that you have principal ideals, maximal ideals, prime ideals
I was going to look into that, since i haven't learnt that yet so i can't do it until i understand it =p but yeah some structures required that if i remember
ok. it's a similar situation in which an ideal is a specific kind if it satisfies axioms, meaning it has certain properties
another instance of where has leads to is
and the fact that has is a kind of dynamic property makes it hard to describe is structure statically
yeah those are harder to implement x'] I just checked, It's basically a subgroup of the additive group of some Ring, and there's no way to check in code statically if a subgroup has closure so i'm not sure how to implement that yet (or if i would)
I would probably again leave it to the implementing user's discretion 😄
Are the only elements of order 2 in S_n those which can be decomposed into a product of disjoint transpositions?
i think that's true...yeah
but wait, if an element has order 2 in S_n, then in cycle notation it has the form (a b), so that (a b)^-1 = (b a)
ok, so order-2 elements and transpositions are the same
no they arent
transpositions are cycles of length 2
order 2 elements should be those which can be decomposed into products of disjoint transpositions
but this was my question
the partitions of the exponents of the primes times eqchother?
is there an example of a order-2 element that is not a transposition? i think those are the same thing
of course, thank you, i see. you are right
anyway im being lazy, i think it's just true but didnt feel like checking
Of course it's true.
If there's any longer cycle in the decomposition, then σ² won't map an element of that cycle to itself.
yep
im trying to do some counting right now and it isn't working out
@tribal mosshow would you count the order of the conjugacy class of an involution?
im thinking that the things are in the same conjugacy class as the involution if they have the same cycle type
but im actually not sure what im counting there...
are the elements with the same cycle type the representatives of the conjugacy class? or are they just all grouped under the identity representative?
The conjugacy class (in the full symmetric group at least) consists of exactly the permutations of the same cycle type.
so say an element is a transposition, then the size of it's conjugacy class is n!/(n-2)!
divided by 2 since you don't distinguish between (a b) and (b a).
if an element is an involution then the size of the conjugacy class is n!/(n-2l)! where l is the number of disjoint 2 cycles that compose it
oh
Question, is z_36 x z_35 x z_11 iso to z_9 x z_7 x z_220 since both are cylcic as pairwise theyre coprime
and z_36 x z_11 x z_13 is NOT iso to z_9 x z_22 x z_26 as 22,26 are not coprime thus one isnt cyclic
So all in all we get something like $\dfrac{n!}{(n-2l)!l!2^l}$.
Troposphere
that's for the conjugacy class of an involution
Yes.
sec let me think about that
so can we see it as we're choosing 2l elements from n
and then dividing out the ways you can rearrange those cycles?
no that's not quite right
The best way to think about this is probably the orbit-stabilizer theorem, as the group acts on itself by conjugation. The denominator is the number of permutations that don't change the original involution when you conjugate by them.
That sounds right.
You can permute the l transpositions; that gives a factor or l!. You can swap the elements in each of the transposition independently from the other ones; that gives a factor of 2^l. And finally you can permute the elements that the permutation doesn't touch, for a factor of (n-2l)!
Yes.
okay
permuting the elements that the permutation doesn't touch
what do you mean by this?
Basically we're now counting how many ways there are to fill in the blanks in
(_ _)(_ _)...(_ _)(_)(_)...(_)
such that we get a complete decomposition of the original involution into disjoint 2- and 1-cycles.
can someone answer this real quick
and this
I did so.
so im correct?
I believe so.
So the (n-2l)! factor counts the choices of order for listing the 1-cycles.
uh
i mean aren't those identified though?
like (1 2) (3 4) is the same as (1 2) (3 4) (5) (6) and (1 2) (5) (3 4) (6)
Yes, that's the point.
We're now counting the size of the stabilizer.
No, sorry, not exactly the point.
okay so the (n-2l)! is because "we lose access to the elements in those transpositions"
like that is how many choices we have to place the 1 cycles
Conjugating doesn't change the position of the parentheses, so it doesn't make (- -)(- -)(-)(-) int (- -)(-)(- -)(-).
But (1 2)(3 4)(5)(6) is the same as (1 2)(3 4)(6)(5), corresponding to the fact that (5 6) is in the stabilizer.
so this condition is it's in the stabilizer if it only moves the position of a 1 cycle?
im only talking about the n-2l factor now
No, it's in the stabilizer if the result of conjugating by it is the original involution.
no no
that's what the stabilizer IS
im asking about this subset
of the stabilizer
the (n-2l)! subset
It's not really a subset of the stabilizer, but a factor. But yes, if I understand you correctly.
so this subset is essentially "how can we order the numbers which don't appear in the transpositions"
Yes.
ok
ty
the 2^l doesn't just cover swaps WITHIN a transposition either
so that's nice
it covers the case (a b)(c d) goes to (a c)(b d) i think
oh wait
no it doesnt
each spot in each transposition only has 2 choices
itself or the other thing
got it
The 2^l really applies after you've selected an order to list the pairs in. Then there's still a choice to make inside each pair.
It's really just elementary combinatorics:
A reastaurant has l tables for two and n-2l single tables. If l couples and n-2l single guests arrive, how many ways are there to seat everyone?
Sorry about that. But at least we can keep that separate from the algebra.
so the order of the orbit is going to be the order of the conjugacy class
can't two orbits fall into the same conjugacy class though?
A conjugacy class is the same as an orbit under conjugation, by definition.
i thought the conjugacy class has an equivalence relation on top of it
that an orbit might not have
oh i guess
yeah it's the same hm
hm
i dont know if this is right
@tribal moss if n = 6 and l = 3 then the order of the conjugacy class of a transposition should be equal to the order of the involution composed of 3 transpositions
Yes.
yes?
Ah, this is a bit confusing. n=6, l=3 correspond to the conjugacy class containing (1 2)(3 4)(5 6), and there are indeed 15 of those.
But "the conjugacy class of a transposition" sounds like the class containing (1 2), which is different but also happens to have 15 elements, for (as far as I can see) unrelated reasons.
@tribal moss apparently this has something to do with Aut(S_6) having a subgroup of index at most 2 which sends transpositions to transpositions
Ah, right, S6 is the only symmetric group that has a non-inner automorphism.
The "exceptional" automorphism maps (- -)(- -)(- -) to single transpositions and vice versa.
im trying to think of why what i said is true hm
I don't think it is obviously true.
But Wikipedia says so, so it must hold. :-)
this means like only half of the automorphisms will preserve tranpositionness
oh wiki had it?
i dont get it
Well because of that conjugacy class stuff, i guess you can say the automorphisms that map 2 cycles to 2 cycles are just those with three 2-cycles?
The automorphisms that preserve the cycle structure are exactly the inner automorphisms -- that is, the ones defined by conjugation by a fixed element.
automorphisms that preserve the cycle structure are exactly the inner automorphism
this is by definition?
(It is clear that the inner automorphisms preserve cycle structure, but it's less immediately obvious they are the only ones).
Proving the other direction might in fact amount to understanding the exceptional outer automorphism of S6 and why it's exceptional.
(I think I've once managed to grasp one of the constructions, but I don't remember how it goes. 😆).
well im hoping the work we just did
can help
S_6 is also the only time that those conjugacy classes have the same size
Are you solving a problem about S6 specifically, or was that just a random example you picked?
i think you use it to identify the inner automorphisms with the non-transposition involutions
im doing this part specifically for S_6
Okay -- I don't think I've seen the particular goal you're working towards, so I'm just making conversation :-)
well im trying to show this subgroup thing
like Aut(S_6) has a subgroup of index at most 2 which maps transpositions to transpositions
@tribal mossdo you know
i cant connect it at all, i have no intuition for this
Hmm, so the subgroup we're looking for is clearly the group of inner automorphisms.
The tricky part is showing it has index 2. (or at least showing it has index at most 2).
i think at most index 2 is easier
why is it the group of inner automorphisms btw?
i get how theyd be a subset
Because we know the inner automorphisms map transpositions to transpositions.
thats only subset
Oh.
Yeah, but if we believe what Wikipedia tells us, they're the only ones.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Automorphisms_of_the_symmetric_and_alternating_groups#No_other_outer_automorphisms_of_S6 seems to sketch a proof, but I haven't read it in detail.
ooo
yes an automorphism has to preserve conjugacy
sec
so wiki doesnt say why this group is the inner aut group
it leaves it for the reader
but it does say a hint is that an automorphism must send each conjugacy class to another conjugacy class
oh i think it has to do with cycle type preserving
wtf
@tribal moss can i say in the concrete case that an automorphism can map C (the conjugacy class of transpositions) to itself or C' (the other conj class of order 15)
but if it sends C to C', it wouldnt be sending transpositions to transpositions?
Yeah.
okay so that means this subgroup is Inn(S_6)
Ah, so we don't even need to know that the automorphisms that send transpositions to transpositions are inner!
in general i was wondering about that
but
i think it goes by cases
i couldnt come up with a general proof
We can just say that the the automorphisms (outer, inner, whatever) that happen to send C to itself form a subgroup.
And this subgroup is the kernel of the action of Aut(S6) on {C, C'}.
whoa what
that looks very close to getting that this thing is index 2
but {C, C'} isn't a group
No matter, a group action just needs a set to act on.
yes but im trying to get this to index 2
The set of permutations of the two-element set {C, C'} is a group, though.
it'd be nice to say it's iso to a 2 element group
So the action of Aut(S6) on {C,C'} is a homomorphism Aut(S6) -> S2.
And the kernel of this homomorphism is the automorphisms that preserve C.
The index of a kernel of a homomorphism is the order of its image.
Each automorphism either swaps the two conjugacy classes or leaves them alone.
Yes.
the image is...C_2?
wouldn't we?
Because we're just asked to prove that the index is at most 2.
And the image is certainly a subgroup of S_2.
by S_2 do you mean C_2?
So the only sizes it can have are 1 and 2.
S_2 and C_2 are (up to isomorphism) the same group. In this context it arose as the group of permutations of {C, C'}.
im trying to see what the image is actually
to see how it's a subgroup
mixing too many data types
The image of a homomorphism is always a subgroup.
yes but
if g in Aut(S_6) then g({C, C^{-1}) feels like {C, C^{-1}}
which isnt a group
so how do you see that it is
In order to know that the image is actually the entire group, we need to know that the exceptional outer automorphism exists, which looks hairy -- and the reason the exercise says "at most two" must be to let you avoid that hairiness.
The other conjugacy class is not C^{-1}.
You either have g(C) = C and g(C') = C', or you have g(C)=C' and g(C')=C.
It's a general fact that if the group G acts on a set A, then the action can be viewed as a homomorphism G -> S(A).
Where S(A) is the group of permutations of A.
oh
what are the permutations of {C, C'}
i guess either e or (C C')
ok
well wait
(C C') feels like what g would be
Depends on which g we're talking about.
the automorphism
Yes, but there are many different automorphisms.
If g is an inner automorphism, then g(C)=C, so it maps to the identity in S({C, C'}).
whatever S({C, C'}) is
The group of permutations of {C, C'}.
The group whose elements are e and (C C').
ok
S(A) is isomorphic to S_2 (= C_2) whenever |A|=2.
what maps to the identity in S({C, C'})? the inner automorphism g?
jesus
group theory blows
all this mixing of data type
Yes, but we don't need to know that.
g maps to the idenity if g(C)=C.
g maps to the other element of S({C,C'}) if g(C)=C'
Yes, it is pretty crucial.
okay ty, i need to go walk around or eat or something
so in complex analysis, the conjugate of a conjugate of complex number is the original complex number. But I guess in group theory, the conjugate of the conjugate of an element h in a normal subgroup H of G does not have to be the original element h right?
Right, the two usages of the word "conjugate" are not directly related.
gotya
so lets say for a normal subgroup H, it has say 8 elements, and then a random g in G, the conjugate of h1 can be like it goes to h2 and h3 and maybe h5 and then back to h1 and then repeat right?
does it have to go through every element in H?
probably not? since if g is e, then it is trivial?
yeah idk, maybe it has something to do with some property of g
For example we can let G = H = S_5 and g = (1 2 3 4 5). Then if we start with h1 = (1 2) then it moves through (2 3) and (3 4) and (4 5) and (5 1) before it returns to h1.
(Or the other way around, depending on whether you've defined conjugation as g^-1hg or ghg^-1).
G=H?
Yeah, just to fit with your notation above where you wanted H to be a normal subgroup.
ok
Since G is a normal subgroup of itself, I was choosing that to the H for simplicitly :-)
It doesn't make much of a difference for the situation.
it probably would simplify the situation
If you want a g outside the subgroup, we could have G = S_5, but H = A_5 and g = (2 3 4 5). Then (1 2 3) would move through (1 3 4) and (1 4 5) and (1 5 2) before returning to (1 2 3).
holy shit, how did you calculate everything so quick?
There's a trick for conjugating with cycle notation.
For example, if h = (a b c)(d e), then ghg^-1 is (g(a) g(b) g(c))(g(d) g(e)) -- you simply apply g to each element of each cycle.
Only at fist sight.
( a b c )( d e )
becomes (g(a) g(b) g(c)))(g(d) g(e))
thx for the example, i will take time think about it
There are still some intriguing connections between conjugation in the group sense and complex conjugation. For example, if we embed the complex numbers in the quaternions, then j(a+bi)j^-1 = a-bi.
“the group conjugate of a complex number is also its complex conjugate"
i guess so
Only in very particular senses such as the quaternion embedding above. In an abelian group, conjugation never does anything, so within C itself there's no hope of the complex conjugate also being a group-theoretic conjugate.
right
\newcommand*{\ext}{\operatorname{Ext}}
\newcommand*{\res}{\operatorname{Res}}
\newcommand*{\Mod}[1]{(#1)-(\mathsf{Mod})}
If
[ \begin{tikzcd}
B \arrow[r] & C \
A \arrow[u] \arrow[r] & D \arrow[u]
\end{tikzcd} ]
is a commutative diagram of rings in which $\ker(B \to C) \subset \operatorname{im}(A \to B)$, is it true that
[ \res_C^B \circ \ext_D^C = \ext_A^B \circ \res_D^A, ]
where $\ext_A^B$ is extension of scalars from \Mod{A} to \Mod{B}, $\res_A^B$ is restriction of scalars from \Mod{B} to \Mod{A}, etc.?
Raghuram
(More general conditions on the commutative square under which this happens also appreciated.)
As some motivation, this came up in the context of group representation theory, with $A = k[H], B = k[G], C = k[G/N], D = k[H']$, where $H$ is a subgroup of $G$, $G/N$ a quotient group of $G$ and $H'$ is the image of $H$ under the quotient map, i.e., the image of the composite map $H \to G \to G/N$.
It is easy to see that in general, $k[G]$ is a $[G \colon H]$-dimensional $k[H]$ module (pick representatives of cosets), so similarly $k[G/N]$ is a $[G/N \colon H']$-dimensional $k[H']$ module, so just by comparing dimensions over $k$ (say, starting with the trivial representation of $H'$ as a module of dimension $1$ over $k$), it is necessary that $[G/N \colon H'] = [G \colon HN]$ and $[G \colon H]$ be equal, which is easiest to satisfy by having $H = HN$, i.e., $N \subset H$. This holds iff $\ker(k[G] \to k[G/N]) \subset k[H]$ (since for every $n \in N$, $n - 1$ is in that kernel and $1 \in k[H]$).
Hence the question.
Raghuram
When can we naturally identify quotient groups as subgroups (like in vector spaces R^2/R can be naturally identified with R x {0}). Or am I mistaken that this isomorphism is anymore natural than others?
Or in some sense is this always possible when we think of a group as the quotient group of the free group modulo presentation and then use the third isomorphism theorem? (this sounds like gibberish?😅)
Ah this is clearly not possible always
Mb
I guess my question is, when does a quotient group have a section.
So if N is the normal subgroup of G and pi the quotient map, a section would be a subgroup K such that pi restricted to K is a bijection.
Equivalently, K and N intersect trivially and KN = G.
When this happens one says it splits
Oh, when it is a semi direct product?
Yes
I see! I had long suspected this
. Thanks!
which is why it's kind of important; you can more or less classify all G which are extensions of N and K such that there's a section as a semidirect product of N and K
I see
Why is C[x,y]/(x^2-y^5) not a UFD?
In particular, can someone please give me an explicit example of an element in that ring that does not have a unique factorization
i think x^2-1=y^5-1 works?
I don't follow
(x-1)(x+1)=(y-1)(y^4+y^3+y^2+y+1)
If the order of a group element x is 1, must x be the identity?
Intuitively it seems to make sense, x^1 = e => x=e but then wouldn't that also imply x has infinite order?
oh thanks!
why would it imply infinite order? order is smallest n>0 such that x^n = e
y^4+y^3+y^2+y+1 isnt *irreducible but it doesnt matter because y-1 isnt in the other factorization
just to note
But the order is 1
What are you asking?
One moment
I don't see how an element x can be in H with order 1 and not be the identity
The |x| is 1 condition makes sure that e is in H to not have a trivial counterexample
Oh right the order of the identity is 1
What they want you to show is that in general the product of two elements of even order may not have even order
Even in an abelian group
So yeah I was a bit silly I forgot that the order is the smallest n>0
What's a quick way to show that if A_n is simple in S_n then it's also the only normal subgroup in S_n?
If there's any other, it either lies in A_n which makes it a normal subgroup of A_n, otherwise try intersecting it with A_n.
try to complete the argument
yes i had this already
the intersection i guess would have to be assumed to be trivial
is it possible that it can be nontrivial?
mm
can you show it'll have an even perm?
that'll show it intersects with A_n so intersection cannot be trivial
if it's nontrivial then the intersection would be a normal subgroup of A_n no?
Wait, if i have two normal subgroups of G (call them A and B)
is A \intersect B normal in A?
no not necessarily
actually yes it is
it's normal in A?
take $x \in A\cap B$ then $axa^{-1} \in B$ as it's normal and also in $A$ because $A$ is closed
isn't that what I just showed?
oh yeah
ok cool
okay so take a normal group N
if it intersects nontrivially with A_n we get a contradiction on A_n being simple
if it intersects trivially with A_n then..
if N is normal then it can't intersect with A_n trivially, that's the point
why is that
It's also not a contradiction that it intersects nontrivially, it just means that N\cap A_n=A_n
From which you can derive your stated result
yeah that implies N = A_n or G
i dont really feel like constructing an even permutation in N...hm
Spoiler: ||I think you can also argue by normaliry (which might be easier) that N can't have order 2, and so it can't intersect A_n trivially otherwise we would have a contradiction via reasoning about orders||
i saw a proof that said that N would be contained in the center if it intersected A_n trivially
and the center is trivial
of S_n anyway
why would N be contained in the center?>
ok
@chilly radishwhy couldnt N have order 2?
this leaves out the fact that N could be normal in S_n without being a subgroup of A_n no?
that's all i want help with actually
if N is normal in S_n then N is a subset of A_n
@chilly radish or @lethal dune
this is the fact i always get stuck on
oh wait
well my proof tries to discount the intersection being trivial
Prove it. For a normal subgroup if you have an element all elements with the same cycle structurr are also members of this subgroup
if you want a proof that why $N$ intersecting with $A_n$ would imply N is in the center, try this
$[N, S_n] \subseteq N$ and $[N, S_n] \subseteq [S_n, S_n] = A_n$ so $[N, S_n] \subseteq A\cap N = {e}$ that is N commutes with every element of $S_n$ so $N \subseteq Z(S_n)$
did u see the proofwiki i shared
no
@lethal dune i mean the intersection being trivial implies that it's in the center
so...
well I didn't follow the convo you had with Shin.
im just saying
came back though I should post it,
ur proof cant be right
because it would mean nontrivial intersection implies this
but it's trivial intersection which implies it
oh you write that it's trivial intersection
weird
I'm just saying no nontrivial normal subgroup of S_n can have trivial intersection with A_n
well not in a mood to correct that

[N,S_n] \subset [S_n, S_n]
this is obvious right
since a commutator on the left
is a commutator on the right
N < S_n
yes
great
(Oops, misread the question, sorry for the ping).
hi, could someone explain what a knit product is in groups?
i'm reading through Visual Group Theory by Nathan Carter (page 128 is the only mention so far) and the book only says that it will not be referenced later
i've tried to find information about it online but have found nothing
Googling "knit product" group immediately led to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zappa–Szép_product
Let (E, *) be a "group" ( * is not associative) such that
Prove that * is commutative.
When you write "group" in scare quotes, do you mean that is has an identity element and inverses?
Ah, no.
Jonathan Phan
So just a magma satisfying those two rules and nothing else?
Yes.
Okay, it's a groupoid, apparently. I suck at translating math terminologies from my language to English.
||xy = (xx)(yy) = ((yy)x)x = ((yx)y)x = (yx)(yx) = yx||
Groupoid and magma means the same
People avoid the former because of collision with category theory nomenclature
Hello. If $A$ is a finite subset of $\mathbb{C}$ and $r, s \in \mathbb{C}$ are algebraically independent over $A$, then is there an automorphism of $\sigma$ of $\mathbb{C}$ such that $\sigma |_A$ is the identity and $\sigma (r) = s$?
MathPhysics
thanks
yes
MathPhysics
It is not, since it doesn't fix 1
How are you justifying 2->3?
What do we know about two polynomials when they have the same splitting field?
Two monic irreducible polynomials
Ideally I want to show that they share all roots
But idk if that’s even true
well think about the base field, would it have to be the same for the two polynomials to be monic?
(yy)x = (yx)y ?
But it's not (yy)x
It's (yy)(xx)
How are you justfying going from that to ((yy)x)x to use the 2nd rule
I don't have (yy)(xx) anywhere.
No, because we don't yet know the operation is commutative.
I just mean it doesn't matter which direction you start with
x and y are just names
(xx)z = (zx)x with z = yy.
This is correct from what I checked 
I don’t know : / and I don’t rlly know what kind of things to consider
I have been thinking abt this for a bit
For less confusion in the main steps we could also say: (as)(bc) = ((bc)a)s = ((ca)b)s = (bs)(ca), so therefore (xx)(yy) = (yx)(yx)
I am trying to do exercise 11 and I want to show that all irreducible factors of f in F[x] share no roots (I have assumed Wolog that f(x) is monic) so that it can not be the case that an irreducible factor in K[x] divides two distinct irreducibles in F[x]
Oh it’s rotates 90 degrees sorry
,rccw
which exercise is it that you are working on?
11
I have found a proof but it seems to me to be incorrect because it assumes f is inseperable due to F being perfect
But f is not necessarily reducable so I don’t think you can say that it’s seperable
I have shown that if two irreducible factors in F[x] share a root that then they have the same splitting field
is it possible that f(x) is irriducible in F[x] and yet has repeated factors in an extension of F[x]?
maybe that is where perfect and separable get involved
No but f(x) is not irreducible
Prove it first for f irreducible
And then do it for the case when it's a product of irreducibles
I have
Use the fact that the gcd of 2 polynomials remains invariant under field extensions
I.e. if f,g are polynomials in F[x], and K is some extension, the gcd of f,g over K[x] is the same as their gcd over F[x]
I am having trouble with the proving that that two distinct irreducibles in F[x] can not have a common irreducible factor in K[x]
No
then they would have a factor of multiplicity in K[x], despite having no common factors in F[x]
it sounds like this is prevented by being a unique factorisation domain
Call r_F their gcd over F[x] and r_K their gcd over K[x]. For one direction, use the fact that r_F is a divisor of both when considered as a polynomial in K[x]. For the other direction, use the euclidean algorithm
Yes, but you can also prove it using properties of euclidean domains, which is easier
I'm actually not sure if UFD is sufficient, but I think you could do a similar argument by factoring into irreducibles over F[x] and K[x]
I don’t really understand this
Yea UFD is sufficient I think
My plans is formally write down for f irred. and prove the gcd lemma
I hope that will order my thoughts a bit
Good luck, feel free to @ me if you need more help
Thank you very much :]
Np
I do like this problem
It's important
Oh nice
Generally the idea of irred polynomials remaining coprime even when split
Yes very
Oooh nice 😋😋
I want to show that r_K divides r_F using the Euclidean algorithm. How do I show that degree of r_K is less than or equal to the degree of r_F ?
I was thinking of using the fact that r_F = af+bg for some polynomials a,b in F[x]
And then showing from yhat that r_K|r_F
Np
Nice!
It was a nice problem
And I also feel way more comfortable with working with gcd in rings now
How BTW?
Of irreducible representations?
So there's a way to manufacture invariant maps between irreducible representations from linear maps by averaging
$T' = \frac{\sum_{g \in G} \sigma(g) T \rho(g^{-1})}{\lvert G \rvert}$
Raghuram
where ρ, σ are the representations on domain and codomain respectively
You can ensure T' is non-zero if T has non-zero trace (if the irred reps are isomorphic, which they are in this case), at which point it will be an isomorphism of reps
If I'm remembering correctly 💀
Imagine forgetting representation theory while taking a first course on representation theory
Pick any T whatsoever to begin with
So you can take T = [[1, 0], [0, 0]]
.
They're the two irreducible representations you want to find an isomorphism between
I'm actually not sure about this again
I'll have to think about it
I thought the GCD being a linear combination (i.e. being a Bezout domain) was essential
So please do tell if you come up with something
No I think you are right
It's any linear map (here, 2 by 2 matrix)
You are manufacturing an invariant linear map from an arbitrary linear map by an averaging process
Yea this is false. Consider eg the gcd of 2,4 in Z vs Q
That would be a trivial counterexample
To ensure the nice invariant linear map you end up isn't just the zero map 
That would not be theinvariant linear map you're looking for
Since these are irreducible reps, Schur's lemma guarantees if you can cook up a non-zero invariant linear map, it'll be an isomorphism, so all you need is to get T' to come out non-zero
and IIRC tr(T) non-zero is how you ensure that
I might have gotten this part wrong though; if it doesn't work, try a few different T s until you successfully get a non-zero T' IG
I mean 2 is still a GCD of 2 and 4 in Q, it's just not unique because GCDs in fields are kind of broken
Hmmm wait you're right
Upto units (in the larger ring), the GCD is unchanged
This should be true in any Bezout domain (finitely generated => principal, or equivalently any two elements have a GCD which is a linear combination of them) for essentially the same reason as the usual proof
Is Z[x] bezout
Should be yea
We'd need a more pathological example then
And yea you're right
Nice idea
The canonical failure for Bezout's identity in Z[X] is that gcd(X,2) = 1 but no linear combination
No
Unfortunately, the gcd still happens to be 1 in Q[X] because we made 2 a unit
Hmm
You could look for the isomorphism explicitly
These matrices are diagonalisable, right?
I mean i is already diagonalised 
That shouldn't be an issue
The point is you want the isomorphism T to be such that
T (first rep(i)) T^{-1} = (second rep(i))
Which means T will carry eigenvectors of (first rep(i)) onto eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue of (second rep(i))
which already constrains T quite a bit
No
Why should it
Also this is terrible notation
Let's call first rep P and second Q or something
The eigenvectors of P(i) are (1,0) with eval i and (0,1) with eval -i
For Q(i) it is (1,0) with eval -i and (0,1) with eval i
So T has to send (1,0) to an i-eigenvector which must be (0,b) for some non-zero b
Similarly T(0,1) = (a,0)
So T = (0 a)
(b 0)
Yep.
Now try to narrow it down more using P(j), Q(j).
Why?
Oh I see
Does that work?
Fair enough
Yea that's the problem with taking FoF in general I reckon
I'm not sure if that's the issue per se. You can try a localisation that doesn't invert 2 and then the problem is that the gcd is still 1 and you still can't represent 1 as a linear combination.
So if gcd_A(a,b) = c and you go to a bigger ring B gcd_B(a,b) can get larger, but the greatest among elements of A is still c. So B has to add some new elements (upto units), rather than collapsing some things (upto units) by making things invertible
which IG means FoF won't work
Perhaps F = Z and K = Z[i]?
OK so I got somewhere with K = Z/11Z, even though F = Z is not exactly a subring of that.
Consider gcd(X^2-X+2,2X-3). In Z[X] we can show this is 1 by taking cases on the degree. But in Z/11Z[X], they have the common factor (X+4) because -4 is a common root in Z/11Z.
Yea this maybe shows taking quotients doesn't preserve gcd whenever it's non-zero but I don't think it really helps our case
struggling with what seems like a simple linear algebra problem
I'm asked to prove that on an irrep of G, a G-invariant inner product is unique up to scalars
I can see that in the language of C[G]-modules, an irrep means it's a factor-module of C[G], meaning an epi alpha : C[G] -> V. Then by right-exactness of tensor product we have that alpha (x) alpha is epi and thus V(x)V is also spanned by a single vector and thus a C[G]-linear function on V(x)V is defined by a single value
but this argument seems a little too opaque and I'm looking for something more direct
is there an elementary way to show that if V is spanned by a single vector then so is V(x)V ?
wait I may be getting confused
V (x) V the tensor product of reps of G is not the same as V (x) V the tensor product of C[G] modules?
At least not trivially, since the action of G is not defined in the same way
With the assumption of finite dimension of the representation, an inner product induces an isomorphism with the dual space
Composing the map induced by one of the inner products with the inverse of the induced by the other inner product gives an automorphism of the vector space, and maybe G-invariance of the inner products implies that this automorphism is G-invariant
Another way that can work without finite dimension sometimes is to prove that the radical of an invariant bilinear form is a subrep
Taking the invariant bilinear form given by the difference of the inner products, this form is either non degenerated or identically 0
If it's non degenerated, just choose a smart scalar to multiply in the difference to make it degenerated
Does (i + j) / k = j + i?
I assume you're talking about the quarternions. You have made an error: a/b is ambiguous in the quaternions. It could mean either b^-1 * a or a * b^-1, which may produce different answers.
Lo and behold, you get a different answer here.
For this prepostition, say I'm given a subset (a,b) that belongs to a field F where a=b. How do I go about proving that lambda and mu also belong to said field without any other information?
Huh?
Wym by "a subset (a,b) [...] where a = b"?
How is that related at all to proving that lambda, mu belong to a field?
I do not see how this is related at all to the proposition you've posted
I was trying to explain it without just taking a picture of my homework sorry
We cannot read your mind.
There we go.
How do I go about proving that lambda and mu also belong to said field [...]
You don't have to prove that lambda, mu are in F_q—that's assumed.
Am I correct in assuming that (a,b) is just x,y then?
No.
x and y are arbitrary elements of C.
Which means that, for example, x = (a,b) for some elements a,b in F_5 where a = b.
Similarly for y, although you must note that y will not necessarily be equal to the same pair (a,b).
I'm not sure where I should be starting with this then
Since a=b, would C only contain (0,0),(1,1),(2,2),(3,3),(4,4)?
That is true, but you do not need this information to prove what you want.
Spefically you do not need a complete list of elements. The answer is the same in any field.
So how would I go about proving that this subset is a subspace if not by saying that this list of elements can be found within the field?
That's nonsense, this list is not within the field.
I don't know what you mean by this. You just need to show the definition stated above.
No. You assume that x and y are in C.
You then are required to show that mu x + lambda y is in C also
Have you done proofs before?
I have but idk why you are being such a condescending prick just bc you're knowledgeable in this field. I hope you never go into teaching so people don't ever have to be subjected to you.
Well I'm sorry you feel insulted, I don't especially think I've been rude. If you have specific feedback about any particular message I'd appreciate hearing it.
this wasn't necessary
it just comes off as condescending and adds nothing to the conversation
I can see how it can come off as condescending now, and certainly I should have clarified it
but I think you can also see how I might infer that YellowPapi has not experienced proofs before and wanted to check if this was true
it was in fact very important for the conversation for that reason
Unfortunately YellowPapi seems not to care anymore
skill issue for you
Seems to go two ways
just wanna make sure im on the right track cuz im a lil stuck
can i start this by observing that the only subgroups of order 6 of S_6 are either the cyclic group or the group generated by (1 2)(3 4 5)
Well that's a very top-down approach but I think the hint is the most straightforward way to start this
I'm not sure what you mean by distinguishing the cyclic group and the one generated by a single element—the latter is cyclic after all
oh oops 
But unfortunately those are not the only subgroups of order 6 in S_6
ok brb then
this is the proof we did in my class but looking back at it i dont see how the last line follows from the rest of the argument
Are you aware of the fact that if ker f = 0, f is an injection?
yeah
This is an example of that
i see why it's an injection
Right, and it is a surjection onto its image trivially; everything is
oh that part is just omitted lol, that's obv eenough
but what i meant is how does this give an iso to H \leq S_G specifically
is it bc G acting on itself just "moves the elements of G around"
Well, the proof mentions a homomorphism. What is this homomorphism, and what is is from and to?
No as in, what is the homomorphism in question
That's right but what is the homomorphism that the proof is talking about? If you see this, you will see the proof.
maybe im misunderstanding
\alpha((x,y)(a,b)) = \alpha((x,y))\alpha((a,b)) but this is kinda obvious because it's a group
Do you remember when we were talking about the different ways to see what a group action is?
either a map G x X -> X or a map G -> Sym(X)
oh the proof is showing that the homomorphism we get from this group action is exactly the same as the one from G into Sym(X)?
No, it is talking about that homomorphism from the start
the homomorphism maps g to a function that sends h to g.h
since \alpha is a group action we already know that G -> Sym(X) is a homomorphism
That's right
So all we need to prove is that it's injective
Which is what we do.
Of course the proof would've done better to say all this more explicitly, as while it's true that alpha as written is a homomorphism, it's not the homomorphism they describe

To be a homomorphism from the product group GxG, it would require something else
i kinda just assumed it was before this convo just bc it's a grape
But this is totally irrelevant as the argument is talking about the action homomorphism
yeah i see that now
The point is, (a,b)(c,d) = (ac, bd) so it would only work in general if the group G was Abelian
should still be besides the point i think
Indeed
ooooo ok so i think the next thing i need to use is that Sym(S_3) = S_6 right
I don't want to say anything yet, I think you should try seeing this through to the end on your own

and I'm happy