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if it's a quadratic or a polynomial, it'd be nice if you're clear about it
or even a continuous function at that (@_@;)
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Someone told me there is something near the PQ part
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How do I do chain rule here
why did you bring some stuff to the other side?
We are deriving
Derivative of the inside
multiplied by the thing derived as if the inside was just x
?
what was the point of logging both sides
if you leave it in that form
why did you take the log of both sides?
To get sin out of the power
Exactly, so your next step should be this
before differentiating both sides.
$$\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \ln\left(x^{\sin(4x)}\right)$$
Shuri2060
$$\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \sin(4x)\ln x$$
Shuri2060
$$\dv{x}\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \dv{x}\left(\sin(4x)\ln x\right)$$
Shuri2060
And then proceed.
???
Did I do ln correctly
of course they're not equal.
What?
That’s literally the equation
This is literally exactly what you wrote
Think carefully agian.
I have no idea
Then why is the LHS differentiated
What is lhs
and the RHS the original thing
What is rhs
left and right hand side
You differentiated the left
I’m working through this in steps
I just applied ln
Shuri2060
$$2x = x^2$$
Shuri2060
This is just plain wrong
???
What is ln if the lhs then
I don't understand
I am applying the ln to both sides
To get the exponents out of the exponents
Because that is what applying ln is
I think you misunderstand what the log function does.
ln x^4 is 4x
It's not.
What is it?
$$\ln(y-x^4-4^x)$$
Shuri2060
You have this thing on the left
And you're proposing that the ln can be split across all 3 terms?
- That's not correct. Check your log rules
- ln y isn't 1/y
- ln x^4 isn't 4x
I have no idea what to do next
I have no idea what you have done exactly
I have no idea what to do
Ok slow down
Firstly let's get to the bottom of this
I agree with what you have done on the RHS
That is correct.
But the LHS is just algebraic nonsense
You've attempted apply log laws that don't exist
That half look like you're differentiating
===
Can you see the issue with what you have done, first of all?
Before we move onto what is the best approach to this
$$\ln(a+b)$$
Shuri2060
This expression does not simplify in general.
There is no log law that does anything to this
okay
Shuri2060
You should be on this step --- which is differentiating both sides.
correct
You can do things one step at a time
First attack the RHS
What rule can you do to differentiate this?
🤔
I am unfamiliar with this particular methodology you seem to have for applying the chain rule...
But can you show me what your answer is
Alternatively product and chain rule but I don't understand why we cant do it all in one
Sure
That doesn't look correct
I agree but idk why
So you said apply the chain rule
But actually - that is impossible
with the chain rule I am familiar with
I was just wondering what your letters o m i were
The chain rule is used to differentiate something like
f(g(x))
But we don't have that right now.
Okay that makes sense
We have 2 things multiplied together
f(x)g(x)
Which means we first apply the product rule.
So product rule
4cos4x
I used chain rule to get g'
4cos4x is shown in the answer key at this step so I assume it is correct
(fg)' = f'g + fg'
$$\dv{x}\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \sin(4x)\dv{x}\ln x + (\ln x)\dv{x}\sin(4x)$$
Shuri2060
You should get this after applying the product rule.
Next the chain rule is used to differentiate sin(4x), yes.
$$\dv{x}\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Shuri2060
So you should get something like this, yes?
Still working on product rule
You should try writing things one thing at a time
Apply the product rule fully
writing it out like this
No need to think about what the differential of sin(4x) is yet.
That is correct yes
But for more complex stuff that method of writing your working might not work out for you
How else would we find g’
Also you are skimping out on writing d/dx
or '
Doesn't matter which you do - but don't miss it out
These 2 aren't equal
You differentiated the right, but left the left alone
Either you write it like this:
$$\dv{x}\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \dv{x}\left(\sin(4x)\ln x\right)$$
Shuri2060
$$(\ln(y-x^4-4^x))' = \left(\sin(4x)\ln x\right)'$$
Shuri2060
Or you write it like this, it doesn't matter.
perhaps you might prefer this because it's quicker, but the process is still the same.
I apply the product rule to the right hand side and get this
$$(\ln(y-x^4-4^x))' = (\sin(4x))'(\ln x)+(\sin(4x))(\ln x)'$$
(fg)' = f'g + fg'
Okay so we write the terms without actually deafferenting them yet
yes.
Shuri2060
It is a neater way of writing the working
Because if the expressions inside were complicated
You will find yourself lost I think
You look like you are differentating depth first
rather than breadth
=====
So alright, you did the right hand side.
$$\dv{x}\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Shuri2060
Now you differentiate the left. Which rule to use?
well yes
it has to be chain rule
you have something of the form f(g(x))
(f(g(x)))' = f'(g(x))g'(x)
This is the version of the chain rule you are familiar with?
Yes
So again, apply just this.
$$(\ln(y-x^4-4^x))' = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Shuri2060
The inside function is a bit length, so usually people substitute something like u for it
I guess next steps are times both sides by the denominator
Plug in for y
simplify
Then move 4x^3-4^xln(4) to the other side?
i think you're missing brackets
ill check
$$\dv{x}\ln(y-x^4-4^x) = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Let $u = y-x^4-4^x$
$$\dv{x}\ln u = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
$$\dv{u}{x}\dv{u}\ln(u) = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
$$\dv{u}{x}\frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
$$\frac{y'-4x^3-(\ln4)4^x}{y-x^4-4^x} = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Shuri2060
But why is the answer key different
Here is my whole process
Where did the ln inside the paranthesis come from
I'm not sure how you got your final answer
We agreed on this last line yes?
Yes
$$\frac{y'-4x^3-(\ln4)4^x}{y-x^4-4^x} = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Shuri2060
Shuri2060
$$\frac{y'-4x^3-(\ln4)4^x}{x^{\sin(4x)}} = \frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)$$
Shuri2060
$$y'-4x^3-(\ln4)4^x = x^{\sin(4x)}\left(\frac{1}{x}\sin(4x) + 4(\ln x)\cos(4x)\right)$$
Shuri2060
where did the 4lnx come from
How is that the same thing as 4lnx
???
What brackets
1/x*sin4x=sin4x/x
I have no idea how you got 4lnx*cos4x
In the product rule
f'g*fg'
f is lnx
g' is 4cos4x
Yeah I quit
It's been an hour
This is what happens when your parents send you to special ed school for the SOLE purpose of keeping you away from sex and drugs
Even when I was mentally and academically capable of regular school
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yea im not sure exactly wat to do
is the top one supposed to be approaching below 7
guesss input wat isr eally close to the answer
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I feel like I'm doing this correctly but it isn't accepting my answer as correct
F isn't C
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I'm not sure how to go from here.
I'm supposed to assume there are two lines that go through P is perpendicular to line l. And then reach a contradiction using Property C
Nvm! I got it
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wow channel 0
Come on now math is asking me questions
whats u~
So we glue all the rationals together
but whats this u~ 🤔
uhhh the induced topology from this equivalence?
quotient topology i believe its called..
So Hausdorff --- forall x, y, exists neighborhoods around x, y that dont intersect
To show its not, you need a specific x, y as a counterexample --- any ideas?
@alpine sable
quotient topology
Yes!
HI
Hmm, well, both Q and R are dense, yeah?
i need a help
Make a channel, @valid lake.
where ?
well yes exactly.
Go to a channel that isn't taken. They're above this one.
ok
So... Dedekind cuts? lol
i think almost any pair will work
because all neighborhoods will contain a rational
Hmm...
Oh, so it contains the equivalence classes of both rationals and irrationals?
Or, am I missing something?
what are the classes?
Any rationals where x - y is rational, right?
Hmm...
A rational minus a real?
{Q + r} for r in R.
no
$\sim_x:= {y\in\bR : x\sim y}$
I will use this notation.
So choose an x for me
and tell me its equivalence class
oh i made a typo
Shuri2060
Let's say x = 2.
ok.
It has the equivalence class of... well... let's see. 2 + 1 is equivalent with this relation, right?
And 2 + 4?
uhh
And then choose something like pi.
i dont think 2+ is relevant
Oh?
dang
I think theres a typo there lol
That's why I'm so lost.
x ~ y iff x - y in Q
yes?
$$\sim_x:= {y\in\bR : x\sim y}$$
$$= {y\in\bR : x-y\in\bQ}$$
Shuri2060
So indeed this observation is correct
Got it,
$$\sim_x = x+\bQ$$
Shuri2060
So if we have x, y that contradict the Hausdorff statement
We should be able to always find an equivalence class which is in the intersection of any neighborhoods of x and y
And like you said, this argument will probably hinge on denseness
Okay.
I think it is possible to show this algebraically. Not just handwave
So, since Q is dense, there cannot be a neighbourhood for q in Q containing only q!
Yes the denseness intuition is important
but I think you dont need to use it in your proof
Well at least for what I have in mind
I think if you pick epsilon_1 and epsilon_2
$$(x-\varepsilon_1, x+ \varepsilon_1)\cap (y-\varepsilon_2, y+\varepsilon_2) $$
Shuri2060
yes so you prove this is non-empty
maybe its not so easy
Note I refer to the equivalence classes here
maybe I should use open ball, not interval but yes
This makes sense.
Actually if I use this notation and refer to x and y as the representatives
you want to show there is a number from each interval
which is a rational number in difference
$$a\in(x-\varepsilon_1, x+ \varepsilon_1)$$
$$b\in(y-\varepsilon_2, y+\varepsilon_2) $$
$$a-b\in\bQ$$
Shuri2060
Now, use denseness to prove it is nonempty?
You could do it that way, also
Maybe you have to use denseness either way, I wasnt 100% sure
Perhaps instead of denseness, you can consider ceil(1/min(e1, e2))
but hmmm this doesnt quite get you there...
Well its up to you which argument you want to try 🙂
I think I can try using denseness from here.
Could I ask one more question?
It's my last problem and it seems quite complex.
👀
Here it goes:
(S1 x I) / ~ is homeomorphic to {x in R^2 | ||x|| <= 1} when ~ is defined s.t. (x, y) ~ (s, t) iff xt = ys.
surely a ball of dimension 2 is IxI
Hmm...
wait
so the set
{x in R^2, |x| =< 1}
this is clearly the disc in R^2
===
S1 x [0, 1]
But this, isnt
we're meant to have
(S1 x [0, 1])/~ is homeomorphic to the disc
Yeah.
I can't even visualize the eq relation.
unit circle cross [0, 1]...
Isn't it just the...
@pale kestrel I think I have it.
(S1 x I)/~ is compact and the unit disc is Hausdorff so a function f mapping the former to the latter defined using the quotient topology makes a homeomorphism.
Well the answer I do not know.
But you should try visualizing what this quotient is, regardless.
I just see it as the disc. :/
Sadly.
a circle paired with a point on that interval
geometrically?
Or rather, a point on the circle paired with a point on the interval.
Yes.
Theres a few ways to view it
Do you recognise it in any way?
(S1 x I) / ~ is homeomorphic to {x in R^2 | ||x|| <= 1} when ~ is defined s.t. (x, y) ~ (s, t) iff xt = ys.
Oh, you're locking it to a plane.
??
?
a/b = c/d
you can do that yes...
equivalence classes
not rationals though
x/y = s/t
treat the points as vectors
the vectors must be multiples of each other
or if we take ad - bc = 0, this a 2x2 determinant. The determinant is 0 means the columns or rows are linearly dependent
Right, okay.
(S1 x I) / ~ is homeomorphic to {x in R^2 | ||x|| <= 1} when ~ is defined s.t. (x, y) ~ (s, t) iff xt = ys.
Oh, of course. From linear algebra.
The unit circle?
Ah. Good point.
look at the original relation
I found a hint on stack exchange and went from there.
if x = y = 0
And it's totally different from what you're saying.
But obviously there are different ways of looking at it.
Notice (0, 0) is related to every other point. This creates a single class. This surely cannot be right
But it's an argument from compactness and Hausdorfness using different equivalence classes.
yeah...
Is this the exact original question?
yes i just found this
i understand
x and s are vectors
the equation tx = ys is a vector equation
Oh?
This now makes a lot more sense
x and s live in R^2
on the unit circle
t and y are scalars in [0,1]
$$x, s\in{x\in\bR^2 : |x| = 1}$$
Shuri2060
$$t,y\in[0, 1]$$
Shuri2060
So now look at that equivalence relation again
and it makes a lot more sense
(S1 x I) / ~ is homeomorphic to {x in R^2 | ||x|| <= 1} when ~ is defined s.t. (x, y) ~ (s, t) iff xt = ys.
since x and s are vectors, there are only a few occasions when this equality will hold
My bad for not noticing earlier 💤
$$x\in{x\in\bR^2 : |x| = 1}$$
$$y\in[0,1 ]$$
Think about what xy must belong to
x lives on the unit circle
but then y scales the length of x between 0 and 1
If you like, x is the angle. y is the length
(x, y) is exactly polar form.
The equivalence relation handles the point at 0
👀
unit disc lol
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is it normal that in the way i defined a plane, i only render it from "a corner" (which is my sample point and not beyond it) heres what i mean
my plane is supposed to take up entire
floor
but its only doing so from that one corner
heres how i defined its intersection
@heady prairie Has your question been resolved?
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what is natural logarithm of -1 ?
<@&286206848099549185>
You need to wait 15 minutes before tagging
Are we only considering real numbers?
yes
Picture the graph of e^x in your head. Is there any value of x that makes the function negative?
It doesn't exist. No real value of x gives a negative answer
thanks
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but like Dio said, no real works
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,rotate
well...
I have it
but I don't know if I can explain it
b.c. it's slightly different for every one you do
but you want (pretty much every time)
to scale the input linearly with some offset
so basically
x = at+b
in this case,
x = 2t -1
y = 1-x^2 = 1-(2t-1)^2
we need the input to go FROM -1 to 1,
TO 0 to 1
yes
I don't know about that
should reduce to a single answer
well I mean
there should be known way to do this
ok ok
what is the length of the segment of the x axis from -1 to 1?
and you get why I am asking that so far right
just bear with me
so we need to make is so the distance from 0 to 1 (which is 1) will cover length 2
hence, we scale t by 2
that's 'a'
but we need to START at -1
so we offset by adding -1
that's b
x = 2t - 1
we just did it together!
we need to start with a distance from 0 to 1
and make it so we can cover the distance from -1 to 1 (which is 2)
that's why we scale t by 2
and we offset it by -1 so we can start at -1
instead of 0
boom.
yes
the parameterization is f(x,y) = <some function of t, another function of t>
y is already a function of x
and x is a function of t now
thus...
?
??
???
...
yup.
every time.
it usually is
the harder ones begin parametric
far as I know
in school anyway
ok
how about another quadratic
let's do one that has roots at -1 and 3
no, roots
zeros
oh, yes
it would
(x+1)(x-3) = x^2 - 2x + 3
and let's say we want a parameterization that takes t in [0,1] to x in [-1,3]
do that the same we just did the other
that's the domain
part of the domain, I mean
yup
f(x(t),y(t)) = <4t-1, and whatever y(x(t)) simplifies to :P>
t is always 0 to 1...pretty much
normalized
k
yes
ok
don't
I'm about to get run out a teaching credential program b.c. I choke making my writeups
I've been watching HBO MAX for 3 hours
I hate this
I want to die
more than I want to go back to that classroom--oh look, math
no
middle school
but I was trained for hs
shit prep first semester
no the kids aren't the problem
what's the math problem
ok, so normalized, t is in [0,1] as usual
and where do you need to take it?
uh-huh...
let me ask you, are we good where we start?
at 0
?
focus on my questsions
t in [0,1] ---> theta in [0, pi/2]
so...what do you need for a and b?
theta=at+b
whoops, yes
read again
and tell me
b.c. it's the same
t in [0,1] ---> theta in [0, pi/2]
yes
no
lol
a = pi/2
ok, one more time, more clearly
the distance from 0 to pi/2
is pi/2
that's 'a'
and you don't need an offset
right, because x starts at 0
theta
my bad
from earlier
oh....
hang on
I'll just pencil these out rq
and take a screenshot
ok well that first part worked
just fine
really
what is the right answer for part a?
I see it
hm...
f(r,t)
ugh, let's get in a room
and get out Desmos
yes
I think math voice has screenshar
e
I mean
advanced mathematics
I'm there now
I'm there right now
it's under VOICE
might need to be expanded
really?
isn't polar basically parametrization??
Also, for 'b' isn't the interval for "t" just doubled
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
Your curve 👀
First petal :o
Did you maybe misunderstand the question?
<sin 2t, t> <--- -that's not how polar works lol
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How to solve?
then find the value of y?
yes
by making y the subject and solve
yeah you just invented algebra
just a sec grabs out copy
its all wrong tho
solve it yourself, we can only show you how to
ok
use this fact :
$\frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d}$ means that $ad = bc$
Herels
obviously b and d different of 0
is my first step correct? @vague coral
yea
its easy
take the denominator
.
(1-3y)(4-y)=4-y-12y+3y^2 right?
or
4-13y+3y^2
simplify
the numerator and denominator
and
then use what she said
wrong
ok
I mean are you sure you know the basic rules of algebra ? @swift shoal
no
uh
i am sus on the age
lmao
go learn them first before doing that thing
ok
ya
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we often know e to be defined as limit upto infnity of $(1+1/n)^n$ right? thats the place where it comes from now take another series in math $2^infnity=0$ yes there is a very quick way on how u get that u can see on google basically $2* 2 * 2 *...=r$ so 2r=r thus r = 0 but in the e formula lets just say (1+1/n) when n=infinity is equal to c a constant and n=infinity so c^infinity as we know is 0 does that mean e=0
sorry i had some problems with how to format it
yes you've proved e=0. feel free to .close
☠️ I strongly belive that I got wrong somewhere
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
is this a genuine question?
if so... 2 * 2 * 2 * ... = r, r can be undefined
so you can't do the normal arithmetic on it
Wait
Imma show u
In this video I'll talk about Ramanujan's infinite roots problem, give the solution to my infinite continued fraction puzzle from a couple of week's ago, and let you in on the tricks of the trade when it comes to making sense of all those crazy infinite expressions. Featuring guest appearances by Vihart's infinite Wau fraction, the golden ratio ...
What this video is saying at
Time 6:09
I mean that
that is not possible in the real number system
i mean you could create a system where that is true
Dude there are hundreds of series solved with the same logic
Power tower golden ratio
yeah but they're not necessarily convergent
no that is analytical continuation
I mean thats also divergent
there is a system where that is true
yes, it is divergent in the "normal" number system
Ok then golden ratio is not true?
and that is not true in the "normal" number system
What is not normal in
2* 2 * ....n
this
What?
nothing nvm
that is analytical continuation, you're using formulae out of bounds, bounds which they're supposed to be used under
you could also say with the same logic
1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ... = 1/(1-2) = -1
but the infinite geometric progression sum formula
only holds true for -1 < r < 1
so you're technically "misusing" the formula
maybe
Hmmm
I may be wrong here though
Hmm ok
I actually am kinda confused
Because
Stuff like that is seen
Again in
x^x^x^x... Series
Anyway
I think I have been going wrong here
That (1+1/infnity)
Is not a real number
yeah infinity is a weird concept
Yea
We can't just hold it as a constant
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how is this ?
lets say probability of 1st event is 0.20 then others are 0
how it will goes to zero ?
Say your first event is A_1
Then $\sum^\infty_{i=2} \mathbb{P}(A_i) = 0$ because $\mathbb{P}(A_i) = 0$ for all $i\ge 2$
Syst3ms
What is changing is the starting index
You make the summation start later @grave hamlet
Although, this isn't true for all choices of A_i
Heck, if you take P(A_i)=1, the sum isn't even finite for any given n
aaah so the summation starts at infinity ?
because i = n
still confused
so is it like saying after some point prob is zero ?
because there is just infinite of them
and prob(all events) has to be finite measure
so yeah tail sum of convergent series is just zero
right ? @vale sapphire
The summation starts at n and goes to infinity
And at point the probability is not necessarily zero, but it is true that the tail sum of a convergent series tends towards zero
could you please tell me why its zero ?
That's a limit
You're removing the first n terms from the infinity series
If you keep removing more and more terms from the start of a convergent series, it will tend to 0
yup exactly
thanks man
@vale sapphire
also this
how we take limit
i mean how it transformed to limit
This is only true if the B_n are decreasing with regards to inclusion
also note that Bns are nested decreasing
could you please tell me the intuition here ?
Well, what is being said is that if all of the events imply each other successively, then the limit of their probabilities is the probability of all of them happening at once
yeah i think i got this
For a fixed $N$, what is $\bigcap_{n=1}^N B_n$ ?
Syst3ms
so the last bn are intersecting with all previous bns. so the prob of that intersection is just lim n goes to infinity
right ?
For a fixed N
N doesn't move
I get your drift, but let's go a tad slower, shall we?
yeah
Hint : which event is incuded in all of the others?
Correct
Bns
So in short $\bigcap_{n=1}^N B_n = B_N$
Syst3ms
Okay, I had wholly forgotten the actual proof
Have you studied the case where the sequence is increasing and you're taking the union instead?
Yeah, because the proof goes by proving that first case, and then using a complement to get the intersection case
aah okay
i think iam gonna trust my intuition for now
okay ?
And the first proof actually uses one of the probability axioms
Although, the proof isn't complicated, i can show it
But it uses a trick that's not obvious if you've never seen it
Take some increasing sequence of events A_n
yeah i think its enough
And set B_0=A_0 and B_n=A_n \ A_(n-1) for all n ≥ 1
What you can notice is that $\bigsqcup_{i=0}^n B_n = \bigcup_{i=0}^n A_n$
Syst3ms
But there is something very special about the B_n, and that's denoted by the square union symbol
The union is disjoint
And one of the axioms of a probability functions only works for a disjoint union of events
That's why we have to define the B_n that way, it's to get disjoint events
Hence, $\mathbb{P}(\bigcup_{i=0}^\infty A_i) = \mathbb{P}(\bigsqcup_{i=0}^\infty B_i) = \sum^\infty_{i=0} \mathbb{P}(B_i) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \sum^n_{i=0} \mathbb{P}(B_i) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \mathbb{P}(\bigsqcup_{i=0}^n B_i) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \mathbb{P}(\bigcup_{i=0}^n A_i) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \mathbb{P}(A_n)$
Syst3ms
The second and fourth equalities use the additivity of probability with a disjoint union, and the last equality uses the fact that the sequence is increasing
This switch to a disjoint union is subtle
yupp
But now that you've seen this, hopefully you'll have an easier time with the intersection case by taking the complement
yep thanks @vale sapphire
No integrals here
Both of those symbols are unions
One is written slightly differently to remark that the union is disjoint
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whats the ques
what do you mean by ques?
Question
what are u asking mentioning this?
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
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can someone help me through this
which
uhhh i guess i need all 3 parts
but just start me off with a and see if I can do b and c on my onw?
so so far I know y = 3rad 5x^2-7
so far so good?
yeah
hmm
rn im on a
do you know how implicit differentiation works
$\frac{\dd}{\dd x} y^2 = 2yy'$
Chromium
you understand this right?
you know what the quantity $\frac{dy}{dx}$ means right?
Chromium
hmm not really
what does it mean .-.
$dy, dx$ represent small changes in $x, y$
Chromium
do you know why the first principles is the way it is
no
the rate of change one then no
i just know it is what it is I never knew the reasoning
well do you know what a derivative represents?
