#help-0
1 messages Β· Page 466 of 1
i have everything besides the coordinates memorized, not the (1,0) (0,1) (-1,0) and (0,-1), ik these
knowing the special triangles and then the behaviour of the trig functions can be easier though less direct
what about the part where its like tan^2
these fellows
thats just a square
these i also memorized
wait
if tan = x/y, do i do (-1/2)/(sqrt(3)/2)?
and then square the answer?
yes
consider the definition of sine
y/r
so this is correct
yes
this is one of those problems you can just check with a calculator
just remember to set to degrees lol
ya, but i have a ti-84 plus, and idk how to do tan^2 since its not an option
$$\tan^2{x}=(\tan{x})^2$$
Cycadellic
into the calculator?
oh, generally people keep it closed form like that
so thats the answer?
you would have to compute it algorithmically
just factor sqrt(3) to make it as simple as possible
factor sqrt(3)?
itll be something*sqrt(3)+something
what if i just turn the sqrt(3)/2 into 3sqrt(3)/6 and the sqrt(3)/3 into 2sqrt(3)/6
by factor i refer to the distributive property
that a(b+c)=ab+ac
going right to left is called factoring
turn the fractions into improper fractions?
ik what factoring is, i just never factored a sqrt of a number
that is actually just the distributive property again, language aside i just meant simplify your answer
then, if it takes closed form answers, give the simplified answer, if it takes numbers, try 5.75
it just says "evaluate each of the following"
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
well i need to show my work
but im stuck with this
this one isnt right
so we are trying to find 2tan^2(120deg) + 3sin^2(150deg) - cos^2(180deg)
lets find out, what is
tan(120deg)
sin(150deg)
cos(180deg)
i used this
tan(120) is not -1/2 * 2/sqrt(3)
yes
π€ im lossing my mind
same
is that the only thing that i did wrong
i think you got them all backwards
sin is -1/2
yes
this is how i feel rn
ok, now i will try and hopefully get the right answer
i just started trig, dont scare me with words like, arctan
step 2 is turning the tan, sin, and cos into numbers
and step 3 is multiplying inside the parenthesis
based on the unit circle and what tan, sin, and cos equal
this doesnt change anything, but sin(150)=1/2 actually oops not -1/2
1/2*
im losing my mind, sorry
but it's squared
yeah, it doesnt change anything i just needed to correct myself
ima just go back in time and make sure trig never becomes a thing
but the tan part is correct yes
lol no im just running tired always
everything is good you just have sign issues
note that squaring reals is always non negative
.
like (-sqrt(3))^2 is not -3, (-1/2)^2 is not -1/4, and (-1)^2 is not -1
thats your issue, everything else is good
oh, the 2's cancel
yeah
yes
and (-1/2)^2 is 1/4
yes
and (-1)^2 is 1
tysm and sorry for making 1000 minor mistakes
all good
its good
well, thanks again, and sorry for making this take longer than it should have
thats my fault probably lol
np
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Help
i think not since the plane has to be moving to take off?
and if the conveyor belt is matching the speed of the plane the entire time, its technically not moving?
its not like a car
but doesn't wind have to like go over and under the wings for a plane to take off, thrust i think it is, and if it's "stationary" and moving in place, then no wind is moving over or under the wings?
if you were somehow able to lift the airplane slightly off the ground and spin its wheels, that wouldn't make it take off, right? this is basically the same thing
@weak monolith Has your question been resolved?
it cant, there is no motion relative to air, so we do not generate lift force
if we put it in a wind tunnel, then it will generate lift and take off, without moving
How will there be no motion relative to the air?
its not stated, but im assuming the air is approximately stationary like it usually is
heres an image i shamelessly ripped off the internet
we essentially use terminal velocity to our advantage
we need the air to move faster than the terminal velocity of our wings, and then even more to counteract the weight of the plane
its wayy deeper than this, but this is the gist
and the force of air resistance is F=\rho v, where v is our velocity through a fluid, and \rho is the drag coefficient
No but you're assuming that the plane won't move forward
under those conditions
why?
it matches the speed of the plane
No
superposition principle, +v-v=0, so there is no speed
right
and for the plane's wings to function, we need to actually move through a fluid
no one denies this
but you're claiming that the plane won't be able to move forward under those conditions
no, by definition the speed of the belt cancels the speed of the plane
thinking that the treadmill can provide fiction against the plane
its given in the problem
No
It never says that the plane is stationnary in the question
It only says that the treadmill matches the speed of the wheels
but in the opposite direction
it specifically says that the speed of the belt matches the speed of the plane, but in the opposite direction
so if the plane is velocity v, then the treadmill is velocity -v
i meant relative to us
the ground, so to speak
yes, but the treadmill can't tie the plane to it in an inertial frame
it can't cause frictions on the wheels to make them slow down the plane
inertia is relative
thats pretty rude
srry
okay, so what do you mean by this, exactly?
The plane can always go faster than the treadmill, and thus the treadmill will have to accelerate ad infinitum
As such, the imparted draft generated by the belt moving at a high speed would generate a strong head-wind, thereby assisting the lifting force of the wings
so we need to assume the wind is going some velocity to actually try this problem, lets say, relative to the ground the wind isnt moving
otherwise we cant answer the problem, also i think this is implied
v_{ground}=v_{air}
No no, the enviromental wind is 0
but the treadmill wiill generate wind
why would the treadmill generate wind?
because the two will be moving at basically ultra high speeds
Well, the conveyor belt will have to be moving extremely fast, because it has to try and match the speed of the wheels. The plane can always surpass that however, since the friction of the belt has no impact on its thrust. Thus, the wheels will keep going faster and faster, just like the treadmill. Because of these extremely high speeds, the belt will generate a strong head-wind
the plane is moving v_{plane-belt} relative to the belt, and the belt is moving v_{belt-ground} relative to the ground, but it is given that v_{plane-belt}=-v_{belt-ground}, so
v_{plane-ground}=v_{plane-belt}+v_{belt-ground}=0
then, v_{plane-air} = v_{plane-ground} +v_{ground-air}=0+0.
but v_{ground-ground}=v_{ground-air}=0
so, v_{plane-air}=0
drag is given by F=\rho v, so the drag of the plane through the air is F=\rho *0=0
so there is no drag force, assuming the air is motionless relative to the ground
cool, but you forgot about the wind generated by the belt
the belt wont generate wind
if the belt generated wind and blew it up at the plane, then we would have lift, but that is not the case, its not stated
the problem doesnt make much sense if the belt contributed, of course blowing wind at the plane will generate lift, the problem is focused on whether this plane could be stationary and undergo lift
and the answer to this is the plane must travel through a fluid to undergo lift, from moving through the air or the belt generating air somehow, the answer they want is that the plane has to actually move through a fluid
@weak monolith Has your question been resolved?
It can be stationnary and fly indeed
if you have enough airflow
yes
if you put it in a wind tunnel for instance
it just has to move through a fluid
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hey i dont get how to do this question
Average rate of change formula is f(b)-f(a)/b-a
$$ rate_{avg} = \frac{(f(b) - f(a))}{(b-a)} $$
?
nvm me
im just confused what to do with only one x point and one y point
use this
Anurag.[UdayS]
No theyβre a and b values
I'm seeing two points in question 1
where
For question two, you have to know either limits or derivatives
What do you mean where π
where are the two points
Correct
theyre x values not points
sorry I only see [0,1]
i get how to find averagerate of change but wheres the b values
Yes, there are end points. "Terminal X values" would be a better phrase as Sho is suggesting , but we just call me points
0 and 1 are your a and b
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trying to compute the chance that for 3 randomly placed points on the perimeter of a circle, the triangle formed will contain the center but my answer seems to be way off and I'm not sure why
I figured I could fix the first point, then calculate the avg chance for all possible placements of the 2nd point given that the 3rd point is randomly placed. i.e we have points a,b,c. a goes at the top of the circle. we then see that for any placement of b the probability that a randomly placed c will form such a triangle is:
length(a-b arc) / (circumference - length(a-b arc))
so I tried to integrate over this with:
$\int _0^{\pi }\frac{x}{2\pi -x}dx$
Valor
since I'm using a circle of radius 1 as reference
and divide the result by pi
but this is giving me the wrong answer and I'm not 100% sure why
thereβs a 3b1b video on this exact question I think π€―
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
checked out the video and he seems to use expected value for the placement of point b instead of integrating over all possible placements of b which is a really smart way to go about it
but I don't really get why my formula is giving me an incorrect value
looks like I was setting up the integral wrong. it's
$\frac{\left(\int _0^{\pi }\frac{x}{2\pi }dx\right)}{\pi }$
Valor
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how do i do part b
SHOOOO
AYOOOO
you know I always got ur back
twas my a
π what
what's up chef
give me a sec
use symmetry ig
to see that P(-c) = 0
well if you have (a+b)(a+c)
then (b+c) is kinda a reasonable guess
:,)
its allg
I don't have a better explanation
this q is weird af
Sho
ur my #1 priority in this server
alwyas fr
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What is the coefficient of x^1 in the expansion of (3+x)^14. Can anyone tell me what this is supposed to be I honestly thought it was 3+x^14
I also tried putting 126 but it doesnt take that either
binomial expansion?
nCk x (a)^k(b)^(n-k)
or you can just
yknow
pascalβs triangle
do you even need that here cuz we are selecting only one x
true
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Hello. I'm doing a stats course on coursera. it's self paced and all. I came across this problem that I can't seem to work out, so I would like pieces of advice on how to tackle it
The problem goes like this
A student takes a multiple choice test with 20
questions. Each question has 5 possible answers, only one of which is correct.
b) If a student answers each question at random, what is the probability that they will answer at least 14
questions correctly? Round your answer to seven decimal places. Store your answer in p2.b.
My reasoning: Since I have to calculate the probability of students answering at least 14 questions or more at random, I can just use a sum of combinatorics from k = 14 to n = 20 divided by the sum of combinatorics from k = 0 to n = 20. I thought this was a valid answer because I can interpret the problem as the questions being chosen are the ones answered correctly. So, it'd just be a matter of adding up sums of combinatorics, but coursera doesn't accept my answer as valid
By the way, we have only covered combinatorics, permutations and probability axioms.
this sounds vaguely correct, but I'm not exactly sure what you mean by "the sum of combinatorics from k=14 to n=20"
are you referring to a binomial probability distribution?
like adding up nCr(20,14)+nCr(20,15)+...+nCr(20,20)
yeah I think so? Solutions on the internet mention it but we havent covered it yet on the course
since this is the first week
hm, I'm not sure of any way to do this without binomial probability, unless they're trying to get you to intuit that for yourself, but that seems unfair
like my reasoning, without knowing how that distribution works, is that the probability could be calculated as: (nCr(20,14)+nCr(20,15)+...+nCr(20,20))/(nCr(20,0)+nCr(20,15)+...+nCr(20,20))
yeah. I thought the same thing haha
well
I think I'll just come back to it later when I learn how that distribution works
I can show you the basic idea, if you understand how combinations work it isn't too tough
so when you do nCr(20,14), that is not a probability, but rather it is the number of groups of 14 problems out of 20 that you might get correct
in particular, nCr(20,14) = 38760, meaning there are 38760 different possible groups of 14 problems out of a total of 20
But it says nothing of the probability of getting 14 questions right
The probability of getting exactly 14 questions right would be nCr(20,14) * (0.2)^14 * (0.8)^6
0.2 is the probability of getting any single question right, and 0.8 is the probability of getting any single question wrong
If you get 14 questions right, you have gotten 20-14=6 questions wrong
which is where the exponents come from
Does this make sense so far?
yeah, but doesnt nCr(20,14) already take care of the wrong questions?
No, nCr(20,14) is just the number of possible groups of 14 questions you might have gotten correct
Think of it in the opposite order:
What's the probability you get (specifically) the first 14 questions right and the last 6 questions wrong?
This would be (0.2)^14 * (0.8)^6
But you could have gotten any 14 questions right, not just necessarily the first 14
So we need to multiply by the number of possible groups of 14 questions you could have gotten right
which is nCr(20,14)
I think I get it, so the (0.2)^14 * (0.8)^6 is a conditional probability that takes into account the (14 questions right and the rest ebing wrong), and we add all the possible combinations this couldve happened with nCr(20,14)
yes, there are nCr(20,14) different orders in which you could have gotten 14 questions right and 6 wrong
ahh ok
(0.2)^14 * (0.8)^6 only accounts for one possibility, we need to multiply by nCr(20,14) to count all of them
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isn't having the same dimension enough for two vector spaces to be isomorphic . Bcoz the other condition is that there must be a invertible linear map between them , but i feel like if they have the same dimensions then they should always be a way for us to define a linear invertible map between them . Am i mistaken , if i am pls provide examples to clarify my confusion . My example is P m(x) and F (m+1)
idk what those symbols mean but an easy example of two vector spaces that have the same dimension but aren't isomorphic are R and Z/2Z
both are one dimensional but they're very different
Z/2Z ??
polynomial in one variable with atmost m degree
wait , how is that a vector space ?? if 1 exists then -1 will also exist due to additive identity or scalar multiplication .
it's something called a finite field. but if you're only dealing with real vector spaces, then yes all real vector spaces of the same dimensions are isomorphic to each other
Z/2Z isnt a vector space, we specifically count Z as a field
scalars have to draw from R or C
i think we say its a module over a ring or field in these cases
hm?
is R2 and C isomorphic ? wait can even vector space and field be isomorphic ?
vector spaces can use scalars from any field
can they? i had a big debate with my lin al prof and he told me they werent called vector fields, he was adament they were modules instead
yes
as vector spaces, yes. C also comes equipped with multiplication which is neat
any field is a vector space over itself
they are isomorphic over real vector spaces, but not complex
a module can be over any ring, as opposed to vector spaces which are over fields
modules are "vector spaces" over rings
"In a module, the scalars need only be a ring, so the module concept represents a significant generalization" https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Module_(mathematics)
In mathematics, a module is a generalization of the notion of vector space in which the field of scalars is replaced by a ring. The concept of module also generalizes the notion of abelian group, since the abelian groups are exactly the modules over the ring of integers.
Like a vector space, a module is an additive abelian group, and scalar mult...
wiki acknowledges that modules are generalizations, so not all modules are vector spaces
so my language is bad, but right idea
so i assume that for any two vector spaces to be isomorphic , they have to the have same field ?

probably
i hope i just didnt derail everything with something meaningless, sorry if so
hmmm , its fine
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you dont need to close it
.reopen
β
why ?
In mathematics, the dimension theorem for vector spaces states that all bases of a vector space have equally many elements. This number of elements may be finite or infinite (in the latter case, it is a cardinal number), and defines the dimension of the vector space.
Formally, the dimension theorem for vector spaces states that:
As a basis is a...
i think this might answer your question
I am sorry but how does this relate to isomorphism ?
basically the answer is yes, we require an isomorphism (like any linear transformation) to be between two vector spaces over the same field, otherwise the linearity condition doesn't make sense
maybe im being crazy, but because morphisms are linear maps, this theorem gives us bijectivity, then iso is straightforward to show by linearity
so, vector spaces of the same dim are iso
thx for the source
isomorphism (from my knowledge) is true if there is 'any' invertible linear map between the vector spaces , therefore here is the linear map is not defined by default , so i believe it is not straightforward like verifying bijectivity .(correct me if i am wrong , i am new to linear algebra )
you are right
a bijective morphism by definition has an inverse, i believe
yes it has to
yes i am aware that bijectivity <=> inverse , my point was the linear map is not defined so it is not straightforward to prove it
we just want an invertible map, we dont need a specific one, we just need to know there is one
oh i see what you mean
just map the bases to the other bases
there will always be a map by the dim theorem
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can i have some revision on the cartesian plane?
so like i dont have an image
but like what i need help on
is like gradient
and the y intercept
i have some understanding
<@&286206848099549185>
y intercept is where the graph cuts y-axis
gradient is just how steep the line is
for example here the y-intercept is 2 and the gradient is 1
@swift raptor Has your question been resolved?
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Hi! I have some year level 8 maths work (algebra) and i'm struggling to understand what it means. I'm not the smartest so don't judge
Moving Out
Background: Andrew, Claire, and Fiona are moving out of their homes into a shared rental property. They are working a budget to determine how much money they will require to cover their bills each month.
Electricity:
Electricity is charged at 4 cents per unit plus a $50 connection cost per month.
a) Write an expression: Using X to represent the number of units of electricity used, create an expression that will determine the monthly cost for electricity.
b) Construct: Construct a table of values for the cost from 0 to 10 000 units going up in increments of 500.
c) Graph: Graph the cost from 0 to 10 000 units using Excel or on the following page.
d)** Write an expression:** Andrew, Claire and Fiona will split the electricity cost equally. Alter the expression from (a) so that it calculates how much each person must pay.
e) Calculate the cost: If they use 5000 units of electricity, how much will each pay, correct to the nearest cent?
f) Calculate budgeted usage: They budget $118 each for electricity for the year. How many units can they use without going over their budget?
-# If there are spelling mistakes just tell me, i scanned the letters so it could be wrong.
have you done any of these?
@mortal sandal Has your question been resolved?
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No i just reached this set of questions
sorry for the late response i was on a run
@mortal sandal Has your question been resolved?
u tried anything after that?
@mortal sandal Has your question been resolved?
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Aya
So you have problems multiplying the matrices to get the final expression?
@cerulean grove Has your question been resolved?
Sorry its not my first language :/
I think I have seen the formula once or twice but its not that common as far as I know
Its usally a formula thats given
hmm i see
Sorry i cant help. Sometimes you have to be really creative to prove something and think outside the box, using equations like this
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hai guys pls helppllspsspsls
you may find it easier if you extend all the lines
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Bro another question help pls
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.

@minor hearth Has your question been resolved?
Yes
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can i have some help with part B
first consider the case
P(1) then P(k) and P(k+1)
basic induction stuff
i did
but like
idk how to start like
do i start with let n = 1
1(3(1)-1) = 2
and then 6(1) - 4 also = 2
so lhs = rhs and therefore n=1 is true
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can anyone explain what question c means
i have answer for a and b already, isn't it just asking for b?
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i think so
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l'agit
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Hey, I did ask this question yesterday, but I didn't really understood what the people was trying to tell me so, here i go again:
Part C
People was telling me about the vertex, function stuff etc
I'm on precalc and so far I've seen so basic stuff, not even functions
So, having the statement, how can I solve it, without using vertex formula?
thanks in advance
@formal wraith Has your question been resolved?
Using calculus it would be somewhat simpler but without it I think the only way to solve it would be by transforming the equation into the form of h = a(t-b)^2+c
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ok so a random variable is just like the measure of some random event
say for example you roll the dice three times
and you want to measure the sum of all three rolls
well for a given outcome (a,b,c)
you know that the sum of those rolls is a+b+c
that's what the random variable we chose here does
call it X
X just takes the input of an outcome, (a,b,c)
well no matter what the outcome is, X will give you its measure
if you know how the event unfolded, you know X
so X takes the outcome (a,b,c)
and outputs a+b+c
X is just a map
from the set of possible outcomes
(Omega)
yep
so X is a map from Omega to the set of possible measures
didn't we just do it?
for any outcome (a,b,c)
it outputs a+b+c
well we always do
a random variable is a map
from the set of outcomes
to the set of "possible measures"
exactly
just like f:A->B
yeah sure
ok
Say I play heads or tails until I get tails
so what are the possible outcomes of that
(T)
(H,T)
(H,H,T)
yeah ok
yes
and now I want to know how many coin flips I needed to stop
that's gonna be a random variable X
the input is any outcome
(H,H,...,H,T)
and it outputs the length of the sequence
yep
well Omega is the set of outcomes
so X takes any outcome (aka an element of Omega) as an input
usually it can map to any set you want
sometimes you will hear of REAL random variables
meaning the outputs are real numbers
any function has to be correctly defined to exist
meaning f(x) exists for any input x possible
ah I see the confusion
again X1 and X2 are just, for any given outcome, the results of first and second roll
so if you take some outcome of two dice rolls (a,b)
X1(a,b) = a
(remember X1 and X2 are still functions)
technically we don't know what the outcome is
we know the possible outcomes
it's the elements of Omega
yeah
so take one such possible outcome for the 2 dice rolls
(a,b)
in that outcome, X1 is the first dice roll, so a
and X2 is the second dice roll, so b
X1(a,b) = a, X2(a,b) = b
ok
one of the possible outcomes is (3,3) (both dice rolls are 3)
then X1(3,3) = 3
X2(3,3) = 3
X1 is the first dice roll
what's the first dice roll in (3,3)
ok
yes
like any other function
for example
f(x) = x^2
you take a real number as an input
and the rule is you square it
here we're doing the same thing with X1 for example
you take an input of two dice rolls (a,b)
and the rule is you just take the first one
X1(a,b) = a
exactly
X2(a,b) = b
well that's the mapping here
(a,b) ---> a is how X1 works
(a,b) ---> b is how X2 works
well first you have to get the set of possible outcomes
they all look like (a,b)
with 1 <= a <= 6
same for b
then an outcome looks like (a,b)
so
how can you manipulate that possible outcome (a,b)
to give you the result of the first roll
where is the information you need
how do you obtain it
exactly
so you get how we got X1?
X1 is the map that takes an outcome (a,b)
and outputs the first entry
always 2 steps:
- what are the possible outcomes
(find omega)
well
you have to "describe" them AS random variables
so you have to write them as functions
from Omega
to a certain codomain set
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hey, where can i find a rigorous proof of why the continued fraction form of a rational number is finite? (e.g.: [a0;a1,a2,...,an] meaning it does not continue on infinitely)
my guess is that you can reformulate this statement into saying that euclidean algorithm eventually halts (e.g. an infinite descent argument), but I'm too lazy to formulate here
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What do you know about the FTOC
Derivative is inverse of integral
so basically
f(t) = sin(t^2)
g(x) = x^2
if u find the derivatice of ur integral
u get sin((x^2)^2)*2x
Ok this problem is always this easy?
pretty much
Heres more practice if u want
Sin x ^4 * 2x
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initially, there are 3^80 particles at the origin. At each step the particles are moved to points above the x axis as follows:
If there are n particles at any point (x,y) then floor(n/3) of them are moved to (x+1,y+1), floor(n/3) are moved to (x,y+1) and the remaining to (x-1,y+1).
After 80 steps, the number of particles at (79,80) is?
no idea what to do or where to start
then?
that will hopefully give you some insight into the problem
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I tried -infinity and dne but it didn't like that
But it looks like as x\to0 it will be negative infinity as slope π€
$$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} \frac{d}{dx} \frac{3}{\sqrt{x}} = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} -\frac{3}{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}^3} = - \infty$$
Shuba
Hi
you're right, it should be negative infinity 
I also tried putting in -1.5 thinking it just wanted any possible slope but it was mad too
maybe something weird with cengage/webassign (hw provider)
I hate these online tests. Even if you have the right answer, if you don't put it in the box the way it wants you to, it'll mark it wrong.

yup
I'll ask tmmrw in person to people who are experts on dealing with this app XD
"does not exist", "nde", "DNE", "undefined", "-infinity", "-\infty", who knows
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Hi I need help with series of numbers. Here is a example:
@wicked vine Has your question been resolved?
Umm, what's are you supposed to analyze though? (What certain conditions are there, if any)
@simple sphinx you have to calculate the steps between every number
the sequence
and what the next one is going to be
it looks like the order is +1, x3, +1, /2, so it's probably asking you to multiply by 3 again, in which case the answer would be 4 1/2
@wicked vine
Guys, give me some help here
let me look
@vagrant heart omg thats correct
i almost want to cry
lol no worries
what's more important is that you understand the logic behind what I did
not really
i wil ltell you why
the only part of this question that requires thinking is un-simplifying the simplified fraction
so
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what is the smallest 7 digit number from using 1, 3, 6, 6, 7, 8, 9 where adjacent digits are relatively prime?
have you tried solving it using a greedy strategy
i mean its more or less brute force depending on how many numbers you have to look at but i cant think of a better strategy
a greedy strategy is a strategy that always chooses the best-looking option at the moment
for example, the best number to put at the start is 1
yes
then the next digit you choose is the next lowest one that can go next to 1
so, 13...
when it doesnt work you backtrack
cause if you try it immediately you get 1376 and then you cant pick another number that is relatively prime, so you would delete 6 and try again
with a bigger digit
There are ways you can be smarter about it
like you see that there are the numbers 3,6,6,9, which cant be next to each other, and the only way you can space it out is to put each of them on every other digit
like 3x6x6x9 where x's are unknown digits; you can see that it won't work either cause you have to put 8 next to both 3 and 9
i think i figured out the answer. im not really supposed to just outright give you the answer but if you understand my logic then i dont think it would be too hard to figure it out
if you do think of something we can compare answers
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How do I do compute A = CR if the matrix is not 3x3?
well, you know that C has to be orthogonal, right?
what does that imply about the dimensions of C
3x3?
i think that C is 3x3 and R is 3x6
idk how to compute the values
check out gram schmidt
youll need a modified process
but its just padding
i seriously think this question is not supposed to be that complex this is just the 2nd week of lin algebra
its surprising that youre already doing matrix decompositions
but gram schmidt is very constructive fwiw, it tells you just what to do
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$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} xe^{-x^2}dx$
infty
$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} xe^{-x^2}$
tatpoj
we did it reddit
lol
you need \infty, not just infty
wakamole
ty
lol np
not sure how to begin.
split it into 2 integrals?
-inf to 0 and 0 to inf?
or -inf to x and x to inf
?
I don't think there's any reason to do that, there's no discontinuity in this function
you could compute $\int_a^b$ and then take the limit as $a \to -\infty$ and $b \to \infty$
Bungo
nah
or, you could show that $\int_0^\infty$ is finite and then use the fact that the integrand is odd
Bungo
tru yeah im going to do $\int_a^b$ as lim goes to neg inf and pos inf
wakamole
so i was aright
this seems promising
you split it into two integrals
no i dont thinsks so
wait after i do the split rigjht
the integrand is odd, the result is gonna be zero as long as $\int_0^\infty$ is finite, so you really only need to compute that one
Bungo
but of course you can compute both if you want
if $f(x) = x e^{-x^2}$, then $f(-x) = -f(x)$ (check this)
Bungo
i know
will that work or not?
yes that substitution will work
it's not integration by parts, just a u sub
i got -1/2e^x^2 are my signs correct or not?
cause u is -x^2?
so when you put it back in is it e^-u?
so e ^x^2
should be e^u if u is -x^2
so i got -1/2e^-x^2
yeah
hang on, if you have this
the whole thing is $\int -\frac{1}{2}e^u \dd u$
tatpoj
other than the bounds
oh right i still have t o integrat
wait
but that is the same thing
as the antiderrivative
yes
so ya
i got for antderrivative -1/2e^-x^2
so what do i do wwith the t and a bounds now[
oh okay I see what you mean now, you integrated and then converted u back to x, right?
okay, so then $-\frac{1}{2}e^{-x^2} \vert _{-\infty}^\infty$
oh i thought i had to split it into two integrals
tatpoj
man I suck at latex
its fine i get it
but i had 2 integrals
$\vert_{t}^{a}$ and $\vert_{a}^{t}$ first one is neg inf second is a to inf
wakamole
youre saying to just combine them..?
Either way you're going to end up with the same expression
ok but i need to show work man
what do thety yeven equal
0?
i know they do bc i have the answer but how do you know if it is 0
I don't think there's any reason to break it up, you can just say $\li{k}{\infty} [-\frac{1}{2}e^{-x^2}]\vert_{-k}^k$
tatpoj
when you substitute k and -k and subtract (like any other definite integral), you'll get $\li{k}{\infty} 0$, which is 0
tatpoj
oh
this isn't valid in general, consider $\int_{-\infty}^\infty x,dx$
Bungo
convergence of the symmetric integrals $\int_{-k}^k$ doesn't imply convergence of $\int_{-\infty}^\infty$ in general
Bungo
oh I suppose you're right
convegence of the asymmetric integrals $\int_{a}^b$ does, though
Bungo
can you tell me if Iβm doing anything wrong here?
oh
so it should just be u
your integration bounds are wrong after the sub
the limits?
yea, if u = x^2 + 1 then u can't be smaller than 1
oh
so your integral should be from 1 to infinity, not -infinity to infinity
the integrand is not a 1-1 function
you should probably break it into an integral from 0 to inf and an integral from -inf to 0
yea that's generally the way you want to proceed for integrals that go from -inf to inf
and since the antiderrivative is ln |x^2 + 1 | it cant be anything less than 1
ok
the other guy told me not to
sry
did i do the antiderrivaitve right?
i think it is diverging right? because the -inf DNE???
yea the antiderivative looks right
and yea it'll diverge, both integrals diverge (0 to infinity) and (-infinity to 0)
hmm
then what is the point of writing 2 integrals lol
you can clearly see it will diverge then
right?
one way to see that intuitively is that for large x, the function is approximately x / x^2, which is 1/x
and the "tail" of 1/x is too heavy for convergence
yep that's exactly why you do it
ok... so integrals are -inf to 0 and 0 to inf?
your integrals will have values +inf and -inf
how do you know what to make the intervals?
and +inf - inf is undefined
why not like -inf to -3 and -3 to inf
you can make them -inf to a and a to inf for any real number a
0 is just convenient
but you'll get the same answer no matter what a you use
it's just linearity of the integral:
$$\int_a^b = \int_a^c + \int_c^b$$
Bungo
integral is linear?
yep
that means it goes forever
no it means you can compute pieces and add them up
another flavor of linearity is $\int_a^b (f+g) = \int_a^b f + \int_a^b g$
Bungo
yep
π
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How would I find the percentile of this I know it is within one standard deviation but I dont know how to find the percentile
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<@&286206848099549185>
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What is a downrange?
Are you sure the question asked for just the x axis and not the distance from origin?
Yeah
Do you have any other question?
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help

Is this the new sticker? Havenβt seen it before
no it's been around for a minute :)
can someone explain why it equals 1 and -1
what is -1 times -1?
(-1)^2 = 1
