#help-0
1 messages · Page 251 of 1
ok, then in this case the problem is a bad problem

Ooo sure. I think by then i would need to learn it
Ahh
There is another question i can't seem to do
Wow. Omg thank you!! Ya i have not learnt it
(p/q)^(r-1)=p^(r-1)/q^(r-1)
this is yet another bad problem as it gives lots of solution lol
best to switch book
Haha, all the teachers would say that as long as your final answer is correct. Anything is acceptable
So what is r?
for example, if p=q, any r works
try and simplify it first
I seee
put p on one side and q on the other
yes, this is the left hand side of the equation, can you do the same for the right hand side?
Sorry, not so sure what you meant by right hand side of the equation.
you have (p/q)^(r-1)=(q/p)^(r-4)
Ya
you can simplify this equation to p^(r-1)/q^(r-1)=q^(r-4)/p^(r-4)
you can use cross product!
if a/b=c/d then ad=bc
Can't seem to get the answer
Well never mind thrn, i'll just leave thid question out
Thanks for helping though
Highly appreciated
yeah
@warped kindle Has your question been resolved?
Oof, i already got the answer but i thought was wrong.
So it was correct all this while, haha.
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Anyway thanks
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Can someone explain me what A should look like?
darn that's a mouthful lol
anyway
wdym by "look like" ?
what are you looking for ?
@bright parrot
I can not really imagine what is in this shit
Normally the languages are so simple that you can understand what you could build from them but with this task I don't even know what kind of subwords I can make from A
{001} is maybe in there bec it is |w| mod 2 = 1 is true and
(w)n = 1 -> (w)n-1 = 0 is also true
but what dose the ∨ |w| = 0 is doing there
it's |w|_0 = 1 mod 2
it's talking about the number of zeros in the word
oh
here you got 2 zeros
ahhh so {10} and {0100} ... is in there
and |w| = 0 is prolly just a weird edge case they need idk
yes
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can someone give me step by step guide on how to find the inverse of a 3x3 matrix
ok
i can
show me it
do you mean inverse function or just function
do you know how to row reduce/gaussian elimination
There are two ways of doing that
- Using row and column transformation and this step is very tedious so I prefer never to do it
- Inverse of A = 1/|A| * adj(A)
not like calculating 9 2x2 dets is that much nicer
and for 4x4 or bigger the adj(A) is even worse
@radiant dragon Has your question been resolved?
more like 65487587412682615 2x2 dets
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Hello i need help with trigonometry i don't know how and what stuff means and that trigonometric syrcle is wierd to me cold someone help me with it?
this
look i get the red and the top pi/180 and things
i dont understand the formulas on the botom
this sin^2a...
are those formulas
Most people (including me) don't really know how to prove that $\sin(2\theta) = 2\sin(\theta)\cos(\theta)$
Hayley
that's one of those formulas that's easiest to memorize, or you're often given it on tests and things
what is theta?
any angle
you could use whatever variable you wanted but theta is a standard "angle" variable name
look these are some of the questions on my exams that i could have
ill send them in a sec
and for the question 13. i have next answers to check in1, 1, 1/3, 1/9, 2/9, 7/9
these are somewhat challenging problems! First of all, do you understand what sin/cos/tg actually mean? Does the fact that they're restricting the first problem to an interval make sense to you?
i think they do i do understand somewhat what they are and for what you use them for
and would you be able to fill this out? https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/1064643750493691967/1119874751561744404/Screen_Shot_2023-06-18_at_2.22.14_AM.png
you don't have to do it for me right now but it's a good idea to make something like this
oh and do you understand that when we say $\sin^2 x$ it's just a simpler way to write $(\sin x)^2$
Hayley
this i do yes
this math stuff is exosting ive been studding some stuff from the scratch and thankfully the exam is in monday
been looking at math for way to long for my likeing (45days) straight
okay great (there is one error, tan(pi) is +infinity but I usually just say undefined)
let's look at that second one
can you rewrite $\sin(2a) = \frac23$ using those double angle formulas?
Hayley
you're replying to something from like four hours ago
but i dont get this
my bad
hmm. let's remind ourselves of the double angle formulas
,tex .double angle
Hayley
so this 0 with the - over it is alpha?
this symbol is called theta $\theta$
Hayley
this is alpha $\alpha$
Hayley
so its cos^2 (example. 90) -1
uh, sure, if you had $cos(180)$ that would be equal to $2cos^2(90) - 1$
Hayley
and you can check that with your chart you just made
okay, I see a sin(2a) on the left, how about we rewrite that using our formulas
its sin 2*alpha
if you solve that for cos(a) you might be able to evaluate the thing on the right
so i need to find cosx
damn nice
could you explain to me how did you get rid of sin2a=2/3
and what did you do with it
Get rid of it from where?
is the sin^2a+cos^2a in the () rewritten sin2a=2/3
i mean how did you rewrite sin2a=2/3
No. Sin^2 a + cos^2 a =1, right?
yeah that's the solution I had in mind but you need some practice to see it I think
sin2a=2sin a cos a
Yeah ig. Initial practice for students is just calculating sin and cos explicitly, but looking at the degree of exponent, ig it wasn't supposed to be solved by finding the trig ratios explicitly.
oooo
i see
im not the best at reading mathematic problems with text our teachers always just gave us the problem with nothing else and we had to solve it
these problems are pretty challenging especially if you've just started learning about double angle formulas
yeah somewhat i just started
but
yall cleared it up for me a lot
thanks for this @tardy stag and @unreal phoenix meant a lot
its hard on me from all the pressure from the university exam
i had to learn like 60 different matematic problems, still there is some left but this one is the worst,
,close
how do i do it
.close
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I thought that $p(n) = (1-p)^2 p^n$
jobo6
@willow brook Has your question been resolved?
@willow brook think about what X=n means
X=n means that, up until you had your second failure, you had exactly n successes
you also had 1 failure to make the 2nd failure the 2nd
1 failure and n successes -- there are (n+1) ways for these outcomes to be arranged in a row
Wouldnt it be $(n+1)!$ than for the permutations
jobo6
Ann
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didnt work
can someone help me with the R part? idk what I'm doing rly
basically I've this function
I need to develop Taylor of order 2 in x = 8
and prove that with this taylor I can estimate 2ln(1,3) with an error smaller than 0.02
@patent swallow Has your question been resolved?
@patent swallow Has your question been resolved?
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why are brackets required on third line?
I thought addition was commutative
It still is
-(2+3) = ?
oh, it should really be -ln2 -lny^2 if we remove the brackets?
distribute the -
got it
that's why brackets are not needed for first part
only second
interesting..
thank you!
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someone can explain me this
explain what about it
graphically, your function increases or decreases with a few saddle points. so it passes the horizontal line test and is injective
and if you then restrict the codomain to the image you are automatically surjective, so you have an inverse
@rotund crater Has your question been resolved?
i dont understand
Start from this: if a function is increasing (or decrasing) then it is a one-to-one function.
Then the inverse of it is also defined.
like f(x) = 4x
yes i know but why is f"(x) >= 0 why has equal or f'(c)=0
this was not included in your screenshot
what do you mean?
this part
There is no f''(x), that was what I mean
i accedently put double comma
consider $f(x)=x^3$ so f'(x)>0 when $x \neq 0$
ertansinansahin
Sooo if stricly positive must be f'(x)>0 no f'(x) >=0
then it is still increasing function but it will just stop for a while at x=0 just for one point
and has inverse
consequently it will be invertible function, yes
soo thex for the help
bu if it stays here for more than one point, then it is not invertible
wdym?
I just wanted to explain why "infinitely many point" is stressed.
here
this is also an increasing fuction's graph
but in the yellow region there are infinitely many points with zero derivatives.
these points will yield zero for the derivatives since the slope is zero there
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$$ {R} \ {0, 1} $$
Does this mean all reals excluding 0 and 1
Yes sorry dont know how to properly type stuff
Yes
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For #1.
I graphed the regulra function 4/(x^2+1). because i dont think its possible to graph integrals on graphing calcs right?
You only need to graph the integrand - that's what's inside the integral
Yes I graphed that
But like how does that tell me if the integral is positive/negative, or zero
area under curve
Right

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Is there an intuitive understanding for the covariance metric of a vector parameter estimate?
@median oar Has your question been resolved?
@median oar Has your question been resolved?
dude u must be insane. Asking a advanced math question in such help channels is just ridiculus.
You should better ask in advanced section
@median oar Has your question been resolved?
Perhaps a different perspective on the question is what is the use for the variance of a vector parameter estimate?
I think the covariance here is the MSE of an MVU estimate
If that is so, it answers the question what the covariance means, but then it raises the question of what the variance means
@median oar Has your question been resolved?
helo
random message
@median oar Has your question been resolved?
Meth
use a separate channel
which one ma'am?
Any available help channel below #❓how-to-get-help
(Currently the ones with numbers 6, 7, 11, 13 and 14 are open)
pretty compilacted nvm
Just read #❓how-to-get-help if you haven't yet
@median oar Has your question been resolved?
yo
How do I differentiate with respect to a vector
Is that even a thing
Look at the regularity condition it says that the expectation of derivative with respect to θ is 0
But θ here is a vector
given that it appends "for all theta" I wonder if it's just sketchy notation and saying for every element in theta
grad = 0
Hmm I don’t really get the regularity condition
That line is saying that the expectation of the gradient of my log likelihood function is 0
So does that mean it’s a stationary point?
yes
the expectation log-likelihood function as a function of theta should have a stationary point at the true value of the parameter
this is just to ensure that the MLE comes from a stationary point of the log-likelihood function i guess
rather than some boundary point
that notation C_theta - I^-1 is really cursed
since they're both matrices
Is this better
It’s using >= to represent that last line on the LA recap on the bottom right
it's meant to mean pos semi definite
That right side looks kinda weird
Perhaps the pdf part isn’t correct?
My friend said that the goal of the condition is to be able to interchange the integral from the expectation operator and the derivative from the gradient operator
yes that is the point of the condition
otherwise you don't really have a good way of calculating the derivatives
Could you elaborate on what exactly we want to find the derivative of, maybe I can see why we wouldn’t have a good way of doing it
uh
let's see
[ \nabla_\theta \E_\vartheta l(X, \theta) = \E_\vartheta \nabla_\theta l(X, \theta) ]
The subscript on expectation is for the likelihood function?
the subscript is for the X
i'm saying i'm taking the expectation with X distributed wrt the distribution using the true parameter value vartheta
So the expectation of X, when our pdf of X has θ = true parameter value
yes
sample space?
Like possible realisations of the distribution
the expectation is of a real function of X
you take the expectation of X plugged into the log likelihood for the density associated with parameter theta
and treat that whole thing as a function of theta
but the expectation is for X
X is the RV
no theta is a constant
Isn’t the density associated with parameter θ a pdf
theta parametrises a family a distributions
each distribution has a density so theta parametrises those as well
but theta is not a random variable
In theory the theta could be random by law
I thought it would be in the sense that for some given realisation of the data, what is θ
this is not how it is modelled mathematically
Wait no that means θ is deterministic
Correct
the true parameter value is a constant
Since it would otherwise make no sense to estimate it
Perhaps a different perspective on the question is what your looking for
Ok let’s back up then, we want to do this
Let's do this!!!
Ok let me write on paper
Same with me
Ok this is this goal right?
uh no
I’m still not exactly sure why we want that condition to be met, the swapping of expectation and gradient but let’s run with it for now
Okay I think the we should initialize θ, and gather demonstrations x then solve for optimal policy for pi(a|s) w.r.t cθ with value iteration then solve for state visitasion frequencies p(s | θ,T)
What’s pi(a|s)
and then compute gradient of the equation on what we have so far and update θ with one gradient step of using nabla θ vartheta
And what’s cθ
okay well i see that you are not as smart as me
I have multiple degrees in Advanced Calculus and Advanced Physics
Ok if this isn’t the goal what is the goal
Isn’t this the point of checking the regularity condition?
I mean it could be just takes some time
Because if it satisfies the condition then something cool happens (the ability swap the operators)
the first equation is still kinda sus, i'm pretty sure the usual assumption is that you can interchange derivatives and integrals
Okay um mods
Well both these videos seem to suggest it as the condition
Daniel Romero
the notation is also sus
Ok what’s a better notation then
i can't tell what they're saying with the for all theta
guys I'm a little bit lost here
because if it holds that the gradient is 0 for all theta your function should be constant
Let me see if he says anything specific about it
that sounds like an amazing idea to me
Thank youu
yea i wanna hear it explained too
Nothing in the scalar case either
another day I would love to
i wasn't smart enough to understand it all but it sounds so interesting
But I see your point snow
If the likelihood had 0 gradient everywhere then it’s just a flat line
my notes on cramer rao are not very comprehensive unfortunately 
Ok let’s back up even further then
Back to Wikipedia
Some condition allows for the top and bottom to be the same
Surely that statement is correct
yeah im pretty sure thats a consequence of being able to interchange derivatives and integrals
uh no its a slightly non trivial calculation
I don’t see how the derivatives combine and where the - comes from
let me see if i can find it in my notes

the univariate case is relatively painless to show
multivariate will probably get a bit awful
Well it seems I don’t get the univariate case either so that’s probably a good place to start
okay so
this notation is slightly terrible
lets use a slightly different notation
Sure
so we'll have a random vector $X$ which will represent our sample, and the underlying distribution of $X$ will be $X \sim \P_\theta$, where i'm using $\P_\theta$ to denote the probability measure, and $\theta \in \Theta$ is the parameter which varies over the parameter space $\Theta$
then we can call the true parameter value $\vartheta$
so when i write something like $\P_\theta(X \in B)$ i mean $X \sim \P_\theta$, the distribution picked out by $\theta \in \Theta$, and $\E_\theta g(X)$ will be the expectation taken wrt to this distribution
Expectation of g(X) on the bottom here?
yes
just some random function g
so here we can assume $X$ has a density $f_\theta$, so the log-likelihood function will be
[
l(x; \theta) = \log f_\theta(x)
]
And P_θ here means a distribution with parameter equal to θ, which is some element of all possible parameters
What’s B
a set
Any set?
a measureable set lol
The sample space?
Should we use omega
[
\P_\theta(a \le X < b) = \P_\theta(X \in \coi ab)
]
So a subset of omega
yes
so we want to show that
[
I(\vartheta) = -\dnv 2 \theta\biggr\rvert_\vartheta \E_\vartheta l(X; \theta) = \E_\vartheta \biggl(\dv\theta\biggr\rvert_\vartheta , l(X; \theta)\biggr)^2
]
notation gets kinda confusing
but the equality only holds when $\theta = \vartheta$, so when the parameter is set to the true value
We want to find some condition that implies the equality?
i've just given it to you
i'm using the notation
[
\dv x\biggr\vert_a f(x) = f'(a)
]
so evaluating the derivative of $f$ at $a$
theres kinda
no good way to write this lol
What’s the p got to do with a
Oh lmao
me being a dum dum switching notation halfway through typing
okay so
if we just assume these conditions
we should be able to evaluate these things
Right good
so basically we just expand out the integrals
assume you can interchange derivatives and integrals
and then it should work
so theses are the regularity assumptions you'll find on wikipedia i think
maybe
if it isnt well at least itll give you an idea of how it works lol
Ok I’ll have a go at it
\begin{align*}
\MoveEqLeft
\dnv2\theta \E_\vartheta l(X; \theta) \\
& = \dnv2\theta \int (\log f_\theta(x)) \, f_\vartheta(x) \, dx \\
& \overset{!!}= \int \pdnv2\theta \Bigl(\log f_\theta(x)\Bigr) \, f_\vartheta(x) \, dx \\
& = \int \biggl(\f {f_\theta''(x)} {f_\theta(x)} - \Bigl(\f {f_\theta'(x)} {f_\theta(x)}\Bigr)^{\!2}\biggr) \, f_\vartheta(x) \, dx
\end{align*}
so the !! is where you need to assume you can bring the derivative inside
What happens to the limits
which limits?
Cos now that function isn’t a function of θ anymore it’s a function of some constant \vartheta
you have to take the derivative wrt theta
so the notation gets really really messy
but like
And then evaluate it at vartheta no?
yeah
From this
yes
but here we're gonna use [ f_\theta'(x) = \dv\theta , f_\theta(x) ] rather than [ f_\theta'(x) = \dv x , f_\theta(x) ]
And I need to differentiate it again with respect to θ
Yeah but where does vartheta go
Does the evaluate only happens after 2 derivatives
yes
Oh
That’s where I went wrong
I shouldn’t evaluate it yet
It’s the evaluation of the 2nd derivative
what i meant by the second derivative was you do the derivatives first
yeah
notation is bad
but i dont know of another way to write it that isnt worse
Missing - signs at the front
yeah alright
so we can just like
take that
\begin{align*}
\dnv2\theta\biggr|_\vartheta \E_\vartheta l(X; \theta)
& = \int \biggl(\f {f_\vartheta ''(x)} {f_\vartheta (x)} - \Bigl(\f {f_\vartheta '(x)} {f_\vartheta (x)}\Bigr)^{\!2}\biggr) \, f_\vartheta(x) \, dx \\
& = \int f_\vartheta''(x) \, dx - \int \Bigl(\f {f_\vartheta '(x)} {f_\vartheta (x)}\Bigr)^{\!2} \, f_\vartheta(x) \, dx \\
& = \int f_\vartheta''(x) \, dx - \int \biggl(\dv\theta\biggr\rvert_\vartheta \log f_\theta(x)\biggr)^{\!2} \, f_\vartheta(x) \, dx \\
& = \int f_\vartheta''(x) \, dx - \E_\vartheta \biggl(\dv\theta\biggr\rvert_\vartheta l(X; \theta)\biggr)^{\!2}
\end{align*}
so this is the question we need to answer
what we're assuming is the ability to interchange derivatives and integrals
It’ll mean we can swap the order of operators?
so this is actually just a result of f being a density
[
\int \pdnv2\theta , f_\theta(x) , dx = \dnv2\theta \int f_\theta(x) , dx = \dnv2\theta , 1 = 0
]
So we have this then
ye
So now the problem has moved to why can we swap the operators
Or how do we know we can swap it
the answer to that is we cant in general
we have to assume that the density is nice enough
the derivative is defined through a limit
So we have that x and θ are unrelated?
so you basically need to know that you can interchange limits and integrals
and there are a whole bunch of theorems which tell you when you can
well
Since it’s definite no?
Great, that sounds like a detour for another time
lol
yeah
but this is like
part of interpreting what the fisher information actually means
[ \dnv2\theta \E_\vartheta l(X; \theta) ]
this quantity is the second derivative of like
your MLE essentially
when you evaluate at the true parameter vartheta
you get the curvature of the curve
second derivative is curvature
The more negative the better
yes
Since it’ll mean it’s more “correct”
that corresponds to having a sharp point
Hence we want with the - at the front
And the inverse of the fisher information to be big
when you graph the function $\E_\vartheta l(X; \theta)$ as a function of $\theta$ and the curvature at $\theta = \vartheta$ is very large
then the graph will be a sharp point
And that’s a good estimate
It’ll use a lot of the information
you won't hover around a flat bit of the graph essentially
The more the merrier
because like say you're doing an optimisation problem
As in I won’t get a big interval of same ish possible values?
yeah
like
if there was a large flat region
near your max
then there would be a whole bunch of values of theta that are all "pretty" good
but they might be quite far from vartheta just because you have a large flat region
Right right
but if you have a sharp pointy region
theres gonna only be a small patch of theta that are good
Ok so I just need to understand this in higher dimensions
It sounds like I need multivariate calculus
in higher dimensions you have to look at the hessian
Isn’t \nabla^2 the hessian
no thats laplacian
Oh
I saw something about the trace
Something about the variance is the trace of the covariance matrix
So maybe the covariance of the estimate vector is the hessian
(Now I am just saying words that I don’t understand)
its the one with the mixed 2nd derivatives
hessian should be neg semidefinite or something at the true parameter value
for the log likelihood function
so then if you take its trace you get sum of eigenvalues, which will all be negative
and that sum can tell you about how sharp that max is
Something eigenvalues something I haven’t really delved into yet
Which I’m thinking should be the next topic I look at

Look there’s only so much I can delve into with 24 hours in a day and I only started really going at it a few months ago
this is true
snow has like 60 hours every day to devote to math
this is false
ok LA time
looking at "similarity of matrices" here
so for context, e1, e2, e3 are the standard bases of R^3, and f1, f2, f3 are on top, them being (1, 1, 0), (1, 0, 1) and (0, 1, 1)
Does it make sense to write this?
The e’s here are basis vectors themselves…
f is a vector
just any vector in R^3?
hmm
yes
f is a vector of R^3 written as a linear combination of f1, f2, f3 which are linearly independent and form a basis of R^3
in this specific case it is (1,1,0), (1,0,1) and (0,1,1)
is I supposed to be the identity matrix?
yes
bruh then that last equality doesn't make any sense
because to the right you've got a constant vector, whilst to the left you've got f
hmm
can you send the video?
well the goal here is to "define" P
Algebra 1M - international
Course no. 104016
Dr. Aviv Censor
Technion - International school of engineering
yeah why are you multiplying by (e_1, e_2, e_3) on your pic ?
your input vector is in basis F
ok
(looking at the I(f) = ... part)
then where does P come from
surely it must be because i have a system of linear equations
that i can form a matrix out of
and here I(f_1), I(f_2), I(f_3) are equations
and it would give me the right numbers for P
but im not too sure what's happening with the f and the e
[I]_F^E is a change of basis matrix
i.e. it's the identity transformation I, but it takes a vector in basis F, and outputs its representation in basis E
if you remember, last time we talked about the [v]_B notation, for representation of vector v in basis B
if we write that in equation we get, [v]_E = [I]_F^E [v]_F
just trying to explain the [I]_F^E notation a bit
you alright ? @median oar
ngl i nearly fell asleep
does "same vector" mean if i translated both to the same basis i get the same vector
its 4 in the morning 
that's the point right?
well it's supposed to be the identity transformation yeah
so you put them back in the same basis
you get the same vector yes
ok so [v]_E = [I]_F^E [v]_F
and we want to know what [I]_F^E is
well i know $[v]_E = a_1e_1 + a_2e_2 + a_3e_3$
frosst
then $[v]_F=b_1f_1+b_2f_2+b_3f_3$
frosst
hmm, that's not very helpful
if you're able to write the e_i's in terms of the f_i you're pretty much done (1st pic)
let's instead have $[I]_F^E(f_1)=(x_1, y_1, z_1)^T$
frosst
since you'll have something of the form [v]_E = (...)f_1 + (...)f_2 + (...)f_3
and you can construct the [I]_F^E matrix from there
then we get
$[I]_F^E(f_1)=(x_1, y_1, z_1)^T\$
$\left[I\right]_F^E(f_2)=(x_2, y_2, z_2)^T\$
$\left[I\right]_F^E(f_3)=(x_3, y_3, z_3)^T$
frosst
ok anyway
well actually no your notation is a bit improper
[v]_E = (a_1, a_2, a_3)^T means that v itself = a_1e_1 + a_2e_2 + a_3e_3
[v]_E is just a coordinate representation of v
I agree it's easy to confuse them if you're working with R^n
ah
in the video it says we are only working in R^n
but i suppose you can extend this to any finite dimensional vector space
yeah
hmm how is that wrong
i wrote this to represent that some vector v, in the basis of E, is a linear combination of the basis vectors
ahhh
if you think V = polynomials
that's a bit comfusing
so [v]_E and v are not the same
[v]_E is just the coefficients
yup exactly
if you don't differentiate those, you're bound to confuse shit
and not be able to go where you want to go
frosst
yup
ok
so now our goal is to write v = (...)f_1 + (...)f_2 + (...)f_3
like that we can get [v]_F
and we'll be able to link the two coordinate vectors [v]_E and [v]_F
and find [I]_F^E
so then consider a vector $v$, where $v = b_1f_1 + b_2f_2 + b_3f_3$, then $[v]_F = (b_1, b_2, b_3)^T$
frosst
yup
and the b's will depend on the a's we have (for basis E)
so the identity is going to send b_1f_1 to some LC of e_1, e_2, e_3's
and same for b_2f_2 and b_3f_3
exactly
hmm
so what would we denote the identity with
would it be [I]_F^E
noting that it sends a vector from F to the same vector but in E
the identity map itself is just I
[I]_F^E is the matrix representation of I
for input basis F and output basis E
yeah im kinda lost there lol
it's a bit like the v vs [v]_B
given a choice of basis, you can map a vector (which might not even be from R^n) to R^n
now for I vs [I]_F^E
you have a linear map (let's say V->V)
given a choice of 2 bases (one for input, one for output), you can represent this linear map as a matrix
(when you interpret the input vectors and output vectors correctly, i.e. with the correct bases)
and this representation is not unique
still depends on the choice of bases (like for [v]_B)
@median oar
wdym it's not unique
given 2 basis
how would the matrix representation not be unique
^
ofc if you give 2 bases it's unique
oh
yeah right
for every 2 basis vector set, there's a unique matrix that maps vectors between the 2 basis
yep
so yeah to come back to our problem
let's actually go about it the other way
i.e. start from [v]_F
(figured out it's a pain in the butt if you start from [v]_E, you're computing the inverse transformation instead)
ok this is what i got
so the b's are known because that's what [v]_F is
we just need to find out what x y z's are
and those corresponds to where the identitiy is sending the vector to, in terms of the other basis, E
so then this would make sense
yep exactly
i've used P here but i guess it should be [I]_F^E?
if you want to keep the notation yes
that's wack
instead of having the values of our vector in the argument of the matrix
we have instead the coefficients
and this is about what happens to the coefficients
you've done this all the time
it's just that if you work in the standard basis for R^n, the two notions coincide
i suppose it actually never mattered
all the LA i've done could've been for a vector space of polynomials and i wouldn't have known
all the x y z's could've been the coefficients of the variables
everything depends on the basis you're looking at
right
so if i wanted to find I(f_1) = x_1e_1 + x_2e_2 + x_3e_3
do i just bang my head against the wall to get that
then i match each component and solve the system?
so i'd be solving 3 3x3 augmented matrices for the identity from F to E
like suppose f_1 was (1, 3, -2)
and i had e_1 = (-2, 0 3), e_2 = (1, 1, 0), e_3 = (4, 2, -1)
yeah the coefficients of your system would be the same each time tho
those are your e_i
but i'd be solving for different f's
yup
$\begin{pmatrix}
-2 & 1 & 4 & | & 1 \
0 & 1 & 2 & | & 3 \
3 & 0 & -1 & | & -2
\end{pmatrix}$
man i have no idea how to do augmented matrices
yeah you'd have to do a table for the ccc|c I guess
,tex \left(\begin{tabular}{ccc|c}
-2 & 1 & 4 & 1 \
0 & 1 & 2 & 3 \
3 & 0 & -1 & -2
\end{tabular}\right)
fu
ok it's scuffed but we know what i mean
wtf
frosst
dont let snow see it
ah alright
ok that works too
_aplatypus
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ok
so let's say we have this set up
and this
then i need to pretty much solve for
,tex \left(\begin{tabular}{ccc|c}
-2 & 1 & 4 & 1 \
0 & 1 & 2 & 3 \
3 & 0 & -1 & -2
\end{tabular}\right)
frosst
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yeah
then if f_2 = (-2, 0, 3)
then solve
,tex \left(\begin{tabular}{ccc|c}
-2 & 1 & 4 & -2 \
0 & 1 & 2 & 0 \
3 & 0 & -1 & 3
\end{tabular}\right)
frosst
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and whatever the 3rd one is
ya
and that's whatever's in my matrix [I]_F^E
yeah the augmented col you get after RREF'ing (for example), goes in your [I]_F^E
since I has full rank yea
since if it weren't something must've been a linear combination of what we started
but we started with basis vectors
which are by definition linearly independent
so it's not possible, after a transformation to suddenly have "lost" dimensions
since this left side here also is full rank
yea if your linear transformation has full rank, its matrix rep will also have full rank
well we're going from V to W where dim(V) = dim(W)
so i'd hope i dont lose vectors lol
i hope they dont just disappear into thin air
yeah for anything else it can
I sure hope you lose vectors
yea
like if i lost 2 dimensions using basis E i should as well in basis F
ok this makes more sense
although it's still a bit rough to wrap my head around tbh
now for more general transformations it's almost the same thing
it being 5:30am might have something to do about that
ah yeah
anyway the technion guy will prolly talk about it soon after
well, for any other transformation that's not the identity
go to sleep now
i can probably apply the transformation to the identity right?
like suppose i have A[v]_F
and [I]_F^E[v]_F = [v]_E
the basic equation would be [Tv]_E = [T]_F^E [v]_F
i.e. the matrix of T in bases F and E takes the coordinate rep of v in basis F
then A[I]_F^E[v]_F = A[v]_E
and sends it to Tv in basis E
this sounds right to me
anyway i'll probably go
for now
hello can i get some help?
!help
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Hi so the volume of a cylinder was 43.6577cm^3, and question was to round it off to 3 significant digits
my answer was 43.6 cm^3
because of the odd-even rule
but my physics teacher said taht its 43.7 cm^3
is he right in saying so?
if yes, then why?
odd-even rule?
like where we have
numbers like 3.55 or 3.65, where you are to round off to say 2 significant digits. 3.55 rounds to 3.6 and 3.65 to 3.6
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I remember how to do these but I just forget the last bit
Like how do I decide whether its positive or negative infinity
I know its (-x + 3 - (1/x) - (3/x^2)) / ((7/x) + (5/x^2))
Which becomes (-x+3)/0 so its DNE
But I forget what to do next to figure out if its positive infinity or negative infinity
essentially is f(99999) positive or negative?
that's the expression "at infinity" but the original function very much has a value at 99999
Wym sry I dont understand
this thing here? if you put x = (whatever number) into that then a number will come out
Ok makes sense
But from what I remember doing these questions I need to do something like this no?
sure, yeah, that's one way to do it as well
everything that is over x can just be canceled to 0
(-x+3)/0 Thats how I got this
Positive right?
correct since 7/x is positive and 5/x^2 is positive
Wait
I think I misunderstood the question and just got lucky haha
where do you see 7/x and 5/x^2
in the denominator 
Ohhh yeyeye
so you can think of it as $\frac{\text{a really big negative number}}{\text{a really tiny positive number}}$
Hayley
How did you get that the numerator is a really big negative number
oh because it's (-x + 3) and as x -> +inf that becomes a pretty big negative number!
But its negative no?
Oh hahaha oops
Im blind today
Bro now im confused
What would $\frac{\text{a really big negative number}}{\text{a really tiny positive number}}$ be
odietje
Positive or negative infinity
It would be negative right?
Yep I got the answer!!
Thank you
❤️
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