#help-0
1 messages · Page 249 of 1
you do need a minus sign
yup
I'm sorry for asking, but depending on the formulation, I might have convergence issues?
In my case x_1 and x_2 are between 0 and 1, so maybe a constraint will help?
the two ones with 0 =
it just comes down to solving
[
\dot r_f \parallel \dot r_g, \quad (r_f - r_g) \times \dot r_f = 0
]
where $r_f(t) = (t, f(t))$, $r_g(t) = (t, g(t))$
those are the conditions required in general for two curves to come closest to each other
if you're using a numerical solver, whats wrong with just minimising (x - y)^2 + (f(x) - g(y))^2
they'll be parallel, so it doesnt matter
idk, I'm just trying to make it fast
hm
Easy fix, I'll try both

ty very much @keen plinth and @harsh swallow
I'll close this
.close
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May I know how to get the limit for the red parts?
What limit
0 till a, 0 till t, then a till t
I only know for Heaviside function, greater or less than a will be 0
What is the value that u steps up at
$U(t-a) * e^{2t} = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} U(x-a) e^{2(t-x)} dx$
herels
now using the definition of Heaviside function :
if x-a<0, then U(x-a) = 0
if x-a>0, then U(x-a) = 1
so the integral is just :
$U(t-a) * e^{2t} = \int_{a}^{+\infty} e^{2(t-x)} dx$
herels
$= e^{2t} \int_a^{+\infty} e^{-2x} dx$
herels
$= e^{2t} \times \frac{1}{-2} (-e^{-2a})$
herels
Why the limit is not 0 to t from the beginning?
$=\frac{e^{2t} e^{-2a}}{2}$
herels
Because I read from textbook it starts from there
look at the condition on heaviside
I know how to express this, just don’t really understand the limit for Heaviside
You dont calculate the limit of Heaviside
$U(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & x>0 \ 0 & x<0 \end{cases}$
herels
now using the definition of Heaviside function :
if x-a<0, then U(x-a) = 0
if x-a>0, then U(x-a) = 1
What you mean is different from the photos I sent? Or is it the same?
you can look for yourself
they are calculating laplace transform here i dont know what u mean
Because the limit here starts from 0
what are you calling limits
And the answer given also from 0
The integral limits
its a because of the conditions on Heaviside
its pretty much logic, when x-a<0, H(x-a) = 0, so the integral from -infinity to a is just 0
we are left with the integral from a to +infinity
I just used the definition of Heaviside Function
Then what does it meant by if t greater than a, it’s also 0?
$U(t-a) * e^{2t} = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} U(x-a) e^{2(t-x)} dx$
herels
we are integrating wrt x
so if x-a>0, U(x-a) = 1
if x-a<0, U(x-a) = 0
$\int_{-\infty}^a 0 \times e^{2(t-x)} dx + \int_a^{+\infty} 1 \times e^{2(t-x)} dx$
Yea, I understand this
herels
is it clear now ?
they are wrong because they didnt even write the definition of convolution
Also here you put a till infinity, but it’s the same for a till t or is it different
Oh, okay
I have no idea why they wrote the integral goes from 0 to t
or they limited the domain of the function
So I should write a till infinity instead of a till t?
convolution is always defined like that :
$$(f*g)(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(x-t)g(t)dt$$
herels
its also a commutative operation
$(gf)(x) = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} g(x-t)f(t) dt = (fg)(x)$
herels
My convolution theorem, my lecturer use 0 till t as well
in my course about convolution, ive never seen a definition where we go from 0 to t
unless they are some hypothesis he used
Or I misunderstood something from this?
Is it you that wrote everything ?
You mean the slides?
yes
No, it’s the annotated version by my lecturer
Nvm, I’ll ask him to clear my doubt why it starts from 0 to t instead of -infinity till +infinity
why the integral goes to 0 to t
yea
I wanna ask for this question, actually we use Fourier Cosine transform right?
hmm wdym
I wanna ask how do solve this question
Because I asked in another platform, the answer given is using Fourier sine transform to solve
But, from what I learnt, we should use Fourier cosine transform
And i actually did, just that I don’t know how to express in the signup function
welp, i dont know how to start lol
@torn isle Has your question been resolved?
Okay, nvm
Btw, do you know how to change to sgn function?
Cause I’m stuck there XD
Okay, then mvm
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i want to express this using logic symbol. did I do it correctly?
yes
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can i get help on determinants
how can i dtermine the inconstituent matrix with 0 as solution
what's an "inconstituent matrix"...?
1 min
if you are looking at a problem, you should share that problem with us too. that way we have a better idea of the context behind your questions.
ok
eg 28
i don't understand the solution
@vale wigeon hlo ?
and also i have another doubt
sorry, was/am a little busy.
ok
Do you mean "Inconsistent system of linear equations"?
the example is there, but you haven't yet shown the solution...
ye
and is there a simple way to find the determinant of 3X3 matrix
,rccw
i think you're only showing the back half of the solution...?
pardon
but it looks like they are just calculating det(A) [offscreen] and then A^-1 and writing it all out in full detail
what's there not to understand?
it's the steps
here they are taking 1/17 out and how does it became -ve
and also where are the cofactors
therefore it become complicated
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why the equation above deduce this?
First part comes from $4x^2=1 \longrightarrow x^2=\frac{1}{4}$
civil_service_pigeon
It should say x>0, not x>4
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hi, so i'm confused on how to start with this equation because i can't tell the actual plots of the graph.
approximate/draw the line of best fit
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<@&286206848099549185>
Help me please ..I did it already.. I just want to confirm the answer
Will the Answer be π/4 ?
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please help me.. it's urgent to me
,w integral of 1/(1+sqrt(tan(x))) dx from pi/6 to pi/3
looks smaller than pi/4
Look like it's π/12
thanks man
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hi
,w 2sin(7pi/6)+1
How did you get to 5pi/6 and 7pi/6
pi - (-pi/6)
and pi + (-pi/6)
oh wait i’ve found one error already
But sin θ ≠ sin 2pi - θ
err
,calc sin(1)
Result:
0.8414709848079
,calc sin(2 pi -1)
Result:
-0.8414709848079
Not the same
I use a unit circle method
So here I’m just drawing out the triangle that corresponds to the question
Then I draw this
This tells me which angles I’m looking for
Do you follow?
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How do I prove this
$tan:72^{\circ }=tan18^{\circ }+2tan54^{\circ }$
krishiv_
so far I could only convert the RHS to cot72 + 2cot46
It would be 36
And you can prove it for a more general value than these numhers.
I'm using x = 72
(Degrees)
cot(x) - tan(x) = 2cot(2x)
There’s \tan
@heady finch
This solves your problem, entirely alone.
oh yeah there's that
yeah thanks i forgot about that identity lol
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How would i solve this? No L’Hopital allowed
i get 0/0 indeterminate form so i know i can cancel it out somewhere
But i really dont know where to start on simplifying
Are you allowed to use the definition of a derivative and implicit differentiation?
Isnt the definition of a derivative just a derivative
Im not too sure though the only stipulation she gave was that you arent allowed to use l’hopitals rule
Hmm
Not yet
What if you let x = 1/t
Would t refer to another variable
$\lim_{t \to \pm \infty} \frac{\arctan e^{\frac 1t } - \pi / 4}{\frac 1t}$
neonperseus
pi/4 = arctan(1), you'll have arctan(a) - arctan(b) you can simplify this to get arctan(c) then you can actually use series expansion, that ought to work.
ah
Am i supposed to know series expansion for calc 1? i wasnt taught it yet
Here is my method (involves stuff that I mentioned):
After the substitution $t = e^x$ we get [ \lim_{t\to1}\frac{\arctan{t} - \frac{\pi}4}{\ln{t}}] or [ \lim_{t\to1}\frac{\arctan{t} - \arctan1}{t - 1}\cdot(\frac{\ln{t}-\ln1}{t-1})^{-1}]
The first term in the product is the derivative of $\arctan{t}$ at $t = 1$, we may use implicit differentiation to differentiate that:
\begin{align*}
y &= \arctan{t} \
\tan{y} &= t \
\sec^2{y}\cdot\dv{y}{t} &= 1 \
\dv{y}{t} &= \cos^2{y} = (\cos{\arctan{t}})^2 = \frac1{1 + t^2} \
\eval{\dv{y}{t}}_{t = 1} &= \frac12
\end{align*}
The other term can be figured out in a similar fashion, ultimately yielding that the limit is equal to [ \frac12] Which is wrong.
Hold on let me notice the mistake
Oh I see
Wait the ln's derivative should be inverted woops
How did you go from lim x-> 0 to lim as t -> 1?
t = e^x
x -> 0, t -> e^0 = 1
Ah okay
Fixing mistakes, my apologies
All good
alonelybean
Okay this is it
Okay i think i still need a little bit more work on these kinda problems
Ill review the solution over thank you guys
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When doing partial fraction decomposition and roots of x_0 = 1, x_1&2 = -2. Do i have A + B or A + B + C, because of x_1 being the same as x_2 ?
for context: its about this
i started off finding t_0 = 1 just by inserting. Then polynomal division and got to t_1 and t_2 = -2
Afterwards i went with this but didnt get the right solution. Do i need to have C also because of t_2 ?
,w factor t^3 + 3t^2 -4
There should be a third term, C/(t+2)^2.
No, it will be (t+2)^2. All I can say is give it a try and you will see the math works out.
wait this would be A/(t-1) and B/(t+2)^2, if i would insert a C here, then i would need to split and have B/(t+2) and C/(t+2) no?
Can you give me an explanation why the third term is (t+2)^2 ?
The degree in the numerator is alway one less than the degree of the numerator. If you were to substitute t+2 with y, you could combine the second and third term to get
The second term is one that you should be familiar with for denominators that have a degree of 2 or higher.
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How would one approach this puzzle, the goal is to find the angle theta, you are only given that figure, I've tried trying to calculate the length of the red part of the figure by using systems of equations, but a solution has evaded me, I also thought about revolving the figure such that theta * some constant = 360, but that doesn't do me any good if I don't know theta
@dim drift Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
start with the bottom inside triangle
I should note that the entire line segment is x, not just ending where they intersect
well to know where I should start
Yeah
I already know the answer but I want to know how to arrive at it
What we find
Okay
what are we looking for
you want to know x or theta
What
theta
Oh okay
It is
You solved?
No but I know the answer
.close
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trying to help my lil cousin w his hw and I got kinda stuck with this. I'm able to prove that this DNE by using series but he hasn't done em yet, can somebody help me figure out a dumb way to say that it doesn't exist?
(it doesn't exist fr)
Perhaps use the Product Rule to split the limit and show the sin(x) is DNE.
just give two subsequences that obviously dont converge to the same value?
doesn't the product rule imply that both limits exist?
I can't split into lim sin(x) * lim e^x/2x
cause lim sin(x) doesn't exist
he doesn't know about that
only thing he can use is de l'hopital and basic limits algebra
what definition of limit is he using
the subsequence idea could still be applied to that
epsilon delta one
I guess (?)
you could definitely make that idea rigorous. but thats also probably not expected of them
there's gotta be some dumb way to solve this
"hurr durr, sin oscillates and it obviously doesnt go to 0"
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guys how to solve this? help 🥲
this answer is fairly easy to put into photomath
you just kinda work from the outside in inside out simplifying each fraction
can you show me how to do it?
like start with $1 + \frac38$ and rewrite it as one fraction
Hayley
by rewriting $1$ as $\frac88$ and doing the addition
Hayley
okay what next
ok now do the next layer, this is under a 1/ right?
so you have $\frac{1}{11/8}$?
Hayley
yes right
remember how to divide fractions? multiply by the reciprocal
so you have $\frac11$ divided by $\frac{11}8$
Hayley
meaning it's the same as $\frac11\cdot\frac{8}{11}$
Hayley
now just do that like five more times 
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I'm wondering how to set up bounds for triple integration (volume of solid) when bounds for a certain axis are not given?
solve for intersection points
Ex I have a solid bounded by z=-y^2+1, z=y^2-1, x=-1, x=1
In theory as long as the y bounds exceed the intersection points though, shouldn't we get the same results?
Like I picture that if you set bounds y=-5, y=5, it should be the same as y=-50, y=50
Because the actual volume enclosed is still the same no?
@void swift Has your question been resolved?
@void swift Has your question been resolved?
if you integrate naively beyond the boundaries you'll get negative area
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Okay, so let ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ be bounded sequences. Then I want to show that $$\liminf{x_n}+\liminf{y_n} \leq \liminf{x_n+y_n}$$
the problem has a hint
but I'm not sure what it does for me
I was hoping I could get a bit of a hint about the hint
:p
austinu
Why would finding such sequences help me with this proof?
presumably to do with the fact that lim inf is the smallest limit value of a convergent subsequence
but the hint is weird, why do both xs have m_i as subscript
austinu
instead
Reposting this
I really don't know what to do
they both are bounded, so they both have convergent subsequences
but other than that I need help with what to do
i think the point is whatever x_n_m_i converges to is greater than or equal to liminf x_n
can you post a screenshot of the hint?
ye
i'm a little lost on what it was with the corrections
idk if the proof i have in mind is what the hint is alluding to but it might be... i was thinking after this, {y_n_m_i} has a subsequence {y_n_m_i_j} that converges
converges say to y
and {x_n_m_i_j} converges say to x
then take a look at {x_n_m_i_j + y_n_m_i_j}
(what kind of notation is x_n_m_i)
$x_{n_{m_{i_j}}}$
bee [it/its]
well the bot can handle it apparently
...tbh i don't really understand what the hint is supposed to be about
i think it's suggesting what i said
I'm glad I'm not the only one
i also don't understand what you're talking about though
no offense Layla becuase I am completely lost by the problem to even begin with, but neither do I
lol what do they say there
can i see?
oh rip i was hoping it would be in the spirit of the hint
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why is u x (v x w) not equal to (u x v) x w
who's saying it isn't
I'm sorry is there any problem associated with that question
maybe your attachment didn't send ?
oh no I was just making sure, thanks then
is this about the cross product?
yes
Just one counter example can show that the cross product is not associative
the derivatives multiplied together does not equal the origional terms multiplied together
also uh I'm pretty sure derivative is denoted by '
I could be wrong
yw
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Okay so I have an answer for this I was just hoping someone could check my reasoning
If the middle limit exists (being 0 it does) then the sequence {x_n} is convergent
then the liminf must equal the limsup (and also must equal the limit)
but -1 doesn't equal 1
so such a sequence can't exist?
Yeah that's correct
correct
Assuming you don't need to go into more detail about why that is
Then yeah good
Is proving oscillation = 0 iff convergent hard
(This is the fact relied upon here so)
oscillation is sup-inf?
it's not hard, you can show it for example by proving the useful characterization that the limsup is the supremum of all subsequential limits, and the liminf is the infimum
That doesn't really seem like a simplification unless you already have that result though
i think austin may already have it? i recall he proved that there's a subsequence that converges to the limsup, that's part of the battle; just show that no subsequence can converge to a larger number
It can only go down from here
I did prove this
ah maybe
wait what are we talking about?
well he has the whole thing too
is this about my question or the other guys
other guys
ok
cool
Final question
I am feeling confident for this one
Okay
here is my idea
❔ 
something seems off about that proof

it is i professional bubble burster

anyway you suppose that at some point (where?) the differences between successive terms increase for one pair of pairs of terms [ x(n-1) - xn is smaller than x(n+1) - xn ]
yes
right here
and then you choose epsilon to be that difference, and you claim that means the sequence isn't Cauchy
examine the sequence 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, ...
not to be the difference
but if the difference is positive
then there exists a positive element in between the two
sure absolute value of difference
which we can call epsilon
which is a positive element less than one of the absolute value things
which we said had to be greater than all positive epsilon
but we just found one that it isn't greater than?
^ this is a good hint in general for thinking about this problem
this sequence has absolute gaps of 0, then 1, then 0 forever
which would seem to mean it's not Cauchy per your proof if I understand it correctly
but I think you'll agree it's Cauchy
that sequence is cauchy as f---
Cauchtastic
you can easily envision extending this idea
(hey three e words in a row)
so that your sequence would have more absolute gaps of 0 in it
perhaps many more
what part of the proof is wrong then
your argument doesn't... er... show anything? about the sequence's cauchy-ness?
remember what cauchy means - gaps between elements are getting smaller / have a limit of 0
why need your rational have the form 1/n, where n is the same n as in the two differences? that's one issue that stands out
this part
no not the same n
just in between any two real numbers
we can always find that
I can call it 1/m
well make it a different letter then haha
(there's also no need to call it 1/m if you're just going to use it as 1/m later... like, the standard is difference/2 idk)
No, I am just saying if 1/z is in between the two, and is positive, then neither of them should be larger than it (since it is positive)
why need that be true
because by the definition we get from the sequence being cauchy
both of those should be less than any positive epsilon
if epsilon was to be 1/z, then one of them would not be less than it
but the n's are allowed to depend on epsilon
the n's for which the cauchy criterion holds
oh
$\forall \varepsilon: \exists M: \forall i>M: |x_{i+1} - x_i| < \varepsilon$
so the big M would just change
Hayley
idk what symbols you prefer to use
if we are choosing symbols
I use n and k
inside the absolute values
not that it matters
XD
there's nothing in that criterion that says that the differences |x_{i+1} - x_i| need to be a decreasing sequence in i
think again about the sequence 1,1,0,0,0,0...
well I can see that it is a counterexample
the difference goes from 0 to 1
increases
but it is still cauchy
because let M=2
well it's not a counterexample to the question itself because the question only requires the condition to hold for all N past some point
then anything larger the difference between any two terms is less than positive epsilon
but it gives you an idea how such a counterexample could be formed
suppose that instead of immediately going to 0,0,0,0,0 you instead did some more shenanigans
1,1,0,0,1,1,0,0,.....
remember it has to be Cauchy (which btw means convergent in the reals)
grrrr

0,0,1/3,1/4,0,0,1/7,1/8,0,0,.....
yep that'll work
thought of it all on my own
was very confused by the slashes
nicely done
didn't even need you guys for a second
haha
fun problem
fyi the one i had in mind was: 1,1,1/2,1/2,1/3,1/3,1/4,1/4,...
mine is clearly better
obviously
XD
think i was just going to do 0, 0, 1/2, 1/2, 0, 0, 1/4, 1/4, ...
the one you think of yourself is always best in math
you seemed to misunderstand what Cauchy meant
why
you didn't have anything about M
well I had that n,k > M
oh right
i guess i mean - you had epsilon being chosen last instead of first
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is 1/2sin(x) the same as -sin(x)?
or -xsin^x the same as 1/2xsin^2x?
original question was f(x)= xcos(x)sin(x)
I took product rule of xcosx (f) and sinx (g), then did product rule of prime (xcosx) so (x) is (f) and cosx would be (g) near the front
@shy skiff Has your question been resolved?
no
no
😦
How do you go about thr original equation?
differentiating xcosxsinx?
yuh
i would first apply an identity
maybe thats what you were shooting at?
$\frac12 \sin (2x) = \sin x \cos x$
janniku
Honestly I don't think that's the objective for this problem
oh wait
well shit maybe it is
it simplifies the application of the product rule
cus I know the answer lol
its not necessary
how would you do it without simplifying it?
i guess you could think of it as nested product rule
treat it however you like, say
(fgh)' = (fg)'h + (fg)h' = [(f'g + fg')]h + (fg)h'
aight ima try that real quick
yeah but I gotta do it like that unfortunately
was going to say, if you want to check this, you can always rewrite, say $x^3 = x \cdot x \cdot x$
janniku
check you get what you expect
I got the same thing
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✅
cosx-xsin^2x+xcos^2x
whats the answer youre expecting
1/2sin(2x)+xcos(2x)
,w derivative xsinxcosx
they apply 2 identities after the fact
double angle identities
wut de fawk
youre better of just apply it before you differentiate
yes
those are all valid
factor out x from the first two terms
what about sin^2x=1-cos(2x)/2
but its got the 1/2 which is part of the answer
this comes from the other term
this here fella
thats an identity?
it is
jesus christ what theres more I thought there was 14
and why not just do cos^2x+sin^2x=1 identity?
oh wait nvm
so thers more than 14 identities?
they are numerous
oh lordy
some are more important than others
what 14 are you talking about?
I got a sheet from my teacher with 14 identities on it
sum and difference are really important
show them
yeah so it's 10
these can a bunch be derived from others, too
also this is if sinx is times cos x, we dont have that here I think
you do
10
10 in one 14 in another
this looks wrong
well fawk no wonder
look here
I thought we established it was cosx-xsin^2x+xcos^2x
it is not
think back to this
say h=x
thats that isnt it?
aight ill go again one sec
you can see from the final term, (fg)h' will be sinxcosx
you should anticipate that term coming out
this is wrong
if you write it that way, you dont have a product of 3 functions anymore
no
could h = sin?
yes
the derivative operator just hits each function in sequence
im not sure i follow
you can distribute the thing i wrote before to (fgh)' = f'gh + fg'h + fgh'
I cant do that I gotta do it how you wrote it before
And I did, and end up with this so im still doing something wrong
theyre the same
idk what you mean
just do this
At this point I have warped any foundation I understood about the rules
or you could take a break
cant. I got 200 more problems to do
Not graded but so I can get them right lol
exam...
well, we have the thing that makes it real easy
Im going to do it for the fourth time, as you wrote it
if you can differentiate each function individually, youll be fine
oops
well i replied to the right post
look, you got the right answer
all thats left to do is apply the two identities
and youre done
derivative is correct

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hi, need to know solving this
A = {1,2,3,4,5}, B={4,5,6,7}
solve
A⊕B
this topic is sets\
!status
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1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
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6. None of the above
1
what does $\oplus$ mean here
maximofs
direct sum
how did you define the direct sum of 2 sets?
that's all i know
do you have a picture of the full question
ok i suggest you check your notes for the definition of direct sum of sets
:/
is that hard?
i just haven’t seen it before
and it would benefit you to know what the definition is to do the problem
otherwise you just can’t do it
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35^75/37, remainder=?
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2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
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6. None of the above
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
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"Prove that there is no positive rational number a such that a^2 = 3. You
may assume that a positive integer can be written in one of the forms
3k, 3k + 1, 3k + 2 for some integer k. Prove that if the square of a
positive integer is divisible by 3, then so is the integer. Then use a similar
proof as for square root of the 2."
I have been stumped by these 2 questions for a while now, can anyone guide me to answer both of the problems? These 2 are a problem from Serge Lang's Basic Mathematics
for the proof of "a^2 divisible by 3 => so is a itself":
if a=3k, what is a^2? what is its remainder mod 3?
same question for if a=3k+1 and for if a=3k+2.
I can square 3k into 9k^2 but I don't get the "what is its remainder mod 3"
"remainder after division by 3"
@unreal epoch Has your question been resolved?
so is it 3k^2?
@unreal epoch Has your question been resolved?
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Hi, I need to prove that if the function has a maximum point at x=0 then it necessarily has 2 other minimum points.
I took out a common factor and then the function looks like [x^2(c)] and I don't understand how x^2 times something can have more than one extreme point
Max at 0 means second derivative at 0 is negative
So 1-b<0
We can then look at what happens for small x greater than 0
I didnt learn about second derivative is there a way u can explain it without that
derivative of f will be negative there
?
How did you introduce maximum and minimum then?
Second derivative is doing derivative twice
with first derivative you can find max and min
Ik but I didnt learn its meaning
It is the change in the derivative
ok
yea u can use either the first or second derivative test
for local max/min
then what
We have a max in 0. That means f(0+d)<f(0)=0 for small d. But we know that for large x, the x^4 dominates so the derivative will be positive for large x. Thus x will diverge to infinity and have to go through 0 again. To do so, it needs a minimum between these 2 roots
And the other min s because symmetry
why do we know we know that for large x, the x^4 dominates
Larger exponent
f'=2x^3+2(1-b)x
For any fixxed b, we can find a X such that f'(x)>0 for x>X
Near 0, lower exponents dominate. For large x, large exponents dominate
If you had limits before, that is related
f'=2x^3+2(1-b)x
Oh yeah, my bad. But the argument still holds
Second derivative is negative for local max. Negative second derivative say that first derivative is decreasing at 0. That together with f'(0)=0 tells us that f is decreasing after x=0
So f gets negative
@barren hazel Has your question been resolved?
@barren hazel Has your question been resolved?
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what is the relationship between the sum of the powers of each term and the power of the binomial?
so for example (a+b)^3
Just calculate an example and it should become clear
is it the same?
What?
Sum of the powers in each term
Yes, they are equal (to 3, in your example)
but does that mean it’s the same for other binomials?
What does the binomial theorem say
the nth power of the sum of two numbers a and b is expressed in the form n+1
‘can be’
Eh?
Like what's the general formula for (a+b)^n
isn’t that just the binomial expansion formula?
Yes what is it
it’s like nc0a^n b^0 +nc1a^n-1b^1 …
So you can directly see what the powers add up to
the powers decrease by 1 right?
"The powers"?
the power for each term
i don’t know how to phrase this
so I don’t understand what the question means by ‘sum of the powers of each term’
What are the powers in for example nc0 * a^n * b^0
n and 0?
i see
so if we consider for example i dunno (a+b) ^3
the sum of the powers for each term is the same
as the power of the binomial
Yes, because of the binomial expansion formula
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hola
how did you get that
do it on paper
why
This server isn't here to be your answer checker
We can check if your steps to get to the answer are correct.
bruh
We're not here to be "yes" "no" to your homework / test / quiz
all you had to say was yes or no
do not do things in your head unless you are absolutely, without any doubt, 100% certain you got it correct
if you just want the answer checked,
shove it into a bot
because you've asked "is this correct" for the past 20 questions here
yes
he had no issue with it


ideally you want you to have the tools to be able to check your own work
stop making assumptions
which isn't really possible if you're doing al the "work" in your head
u randomly popped up in the ticket making a big ordeal
Would you like me to call a moderator over to clarify how this server functions then?
!volunteers

