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Hey guys, Any help with this one?
The question is -
Calculate E[Y] given that $X\sim exp(2)$
meitar5674
@charred plank Has your question been resolved?
you should go find another channel, see #❓how-to-get-help
but for your question you can prolly go to #real-complex-analysis
wdym X \sim Exp(2) ?
your image says X \sim Exp(1)
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**In a certain group, every person has exactly 3 acquaintances. Prove that we can place all the people from that group into two rooms in such a way that each person has at most one acquaintance in the same room. ** It is a discrete math problem, and I'm not sure where to start. As far as I can see, the graph is 3-regular (every vertex in the graph has 3 other vertices connected to it), and we are supposed to divide them to two partitions ( it is not a bipartite graph because we can have connections in the same partition, therefore it cannot be bipartite). Chatgpt offered me a solution that isn't correct, using some methods such as graph coloring, but in my discrete math book this task is under subgraphs, so I'm guessing it has something to do with that.
gpt's not to be trusted for sure
but like it does have it right that this could be restated as a certain coloring problem
Start with any person and place them in the first room.
Place all their immediate acquaintances (neighbors in the graph) in the second room.
For each acquaintance in the second room, check their immediate acquaintances and place them in the first room.
Continue this process until all people are placed in the appropriate rooms. gpt told me this, but by doing this, say we have nodes a, b, c, d and b, c, d are aquaintances of a, that means a is going to be placed in the first room, and b, c and d in the second, but then a has no aquaintances in the first room when it should have at most one
so that is what is confusing me
well no acquaintances is at most one
the thing that wouldn't be at most one is having two or three acquaintances in the same room, like what you would get if you put everyone in the same room
(or more than 3 but that's not possible with each person only having 3 acquaintances in total)
ohh we could look at it that way for sure, didn't even cross my mind, you are right
this discrete math is going to be the end of my braincells
although gpt's approach is indeed incorrect here
if we have 4 people who are all acquaintances with each other, we must put two of them in one room and two in the other room (which it isn't doing)
because otherwise we would have a group of 3 people who all know each other in the same room, meaning any person in that group knows the other two which is more than one
yes, that could happen with a complete K4 graph, because it is 3-regular, so it is incorrect, yes, and for 5 nodes a 3-regular graph doesn't exist
i think it needs to be greater than or equal to 6 nodes, and that the number of nodes should be even for us to be considering it
because if we have say 7 nodes, the sum of degrees is 7*3 and that is 21, but the sum of degrees should be a even number because it's 2 times the number of edges
...yep, that's true
so yeah there must be an even number of nodes
but does the algorithm work for these condiditons now?
yeah this would break it
this isn't actually a 3-regular graph but i think you can probably add more vertices so it is...?
yep you can
you start the algorithm at the vertex with an arrow, i've colour-coded them according to which room they end up in (black = doesn't matter), and you end up with a red triangle at the right which means it's incorrect
so this should serve right as a counter example that we probably cannot solve this task
or is it just for the algorithm
this just shows that chatgpt's approach doesn't work
here's a colouring that does work
(ignore the fact that i made both the circles and the lines black and therefore couldn't use a bucket tool to properly recolour them)
they are, but that's fine
we just need a red to have at most one red neighbour
two is too many, but one is allowed
alternative way to view this: we want to remove at most one edge from each vertex, such that in the result no two edges vertices the same colour are connected (or equivalently, the graph is bipartite)
i don't know if that's helpful but it is different
thank youu for your time and consideration, it is helpful
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how was this equation written before it was simplified
i don't know where the 10h came from
$$\sqrt{10(10+h)+21}$$
v3ryberry
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Hi! In the theorem of Existence & Uniqueness, why does a defined partial derivative imply uniqueness?
My intuition is that you can't have two different ways of defining solutions for the same initial condition and have them have continuous derivatives, because then they would be describing the same solution
or something like that
What is the correct intuition?
that's a very unspecific theorem name
can you give more context what you are referring to?
The most basic interpretation, for ode's
It says that is a function is continuous then it exists, and if it has a continuous partial derivative, then its unique
here,
ok some version of picard lindelöf I guess? I did not know that is also known as uniqueness and existence theorem. what an absolutely terrible name
or at least without further context
well ok, have you seen the proof?
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On every one of 10 lessons the teacher is choosing randomly exactly one student to ask,
Calculate the probability that every student will be asked at least once.```
How can I solve this task?
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
Hello.
First you need to calculate the total number of outcomes.
and there are what 9 ways ur condition gets satisfied
so 9/total no of outcomes should give u ur solution
(not considering order coz not sure if ure supposed to)
The total number of outcomes, (How many different ways of choosing 9 people over 10 lessons are there), is 9 the first lesson, 9 the second lesson.....
So 9^10
If youre still here. Let us know where youre at.
so well there will be 9 combinations at least right?
and permuting those would give no favorable events
Why 9^10 and not the opposite?
Because each lesson the teacher has 9 people to pick from. 9 the first lesson, 9 the second, and so on
That means you multiply 9 by 9 by 9 and so on. (10 times because of the 10 lessons).
Okay
I have 9^10
What to do next?
Now you need to find in how many of those (9^10) different outcomes, 9 different people will be chosen
Aka. number of favorable outcomes if youre familliar with that
Tell me whenever you need more in depth
@steady portal Has your question been resolved?
Like on different lessons the person cannot be the same?
The person can be the same in different lessons, but not too many, otherwise the others will be less likely to get chosen.
I want you to figure out how many different ways there are of 9 different students getting chosen
Ill simplify.
We have 9 students that we will name: A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I
We have 10 lessons that the students can be chosen.
How many ways can the students be chosen, if the order doesnt matter
(Binomial coefficient, if youre familiar with that)
Ill give 2 examples where 9 different people are chosen.
A A B C D E F G H I
A B D C E A F G H I
Feel free to ask if you need me to rephrase or clarify
If the order doesn't matter they can be chosen 9! times?
wait no, 9^10 times
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Yes. 9 times
A A B C D E F G H I
A B B C D E F G H I
A B C C D E F G H I
A B C D D E F G H I
A B C D E E F G H I
A B C D E F F G H I
A B C D E F G G H I
A B C D E F G H H I
A B C D E F G H I I
And I want to find out the probability that every student will be chosen at least once
Yes.
Now we have the total amount of outcomes (9^10)
We also have the number of outcomes where "every student will be chosen at least once", which is 9
Do you know what to do with this
So will it be 9 / 9^10?
There you go, problem solved
That is the probability
Thanks @steel oyster !
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Hi i’m taking calc 1 right now and i’m confused about one thing
can anyone explain to me in what order i’m supposed to use the quotient, product, and chain rule for derivatives?
There is no "order" that you must follow everytime; you use them as and when you need to
yeah i do
ohh ok
I was confused because i was told that you have to do it in a specific order depending on the type of question
Just do actual problems
Preferably one that conveys what you're trying to say
There are plenty of examples where you have to do them in different orders
so how would i do this one?
do i need to take the derivative of each and then use the rules?
I usually first get them out of fraction form to make it simpler
But for these ones you just multiply down and subtract one from the indice
ok so would the answer be d/dx = -2/x^2 + 6/x^4 - 4/x^5?
yes
One second lad
I'm not sure your signs are right @full horizon
Actually yk what
when you put them into fractions then you are right
nvm
you all good
alright thank you!
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how did they get the last step of simplifying?
this is for rate of change
they made it so r = x^2 + y^2
but additionally where is the square root from
did they just not include it in the work?
oh I guess you are right nvm thank you
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need helo
What is your question
@frosty isle Has your question been resolved?
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
i got my bounds, which are x=4,-4 and then i did the area of the surface of revolution which is S= 2pi interal -4 4 (16-x^2)(sqrt1+(-2x)^2)
i am stuck in taking the integration
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where do you see 1.6 * 10^(-8)
Sorry it’s actually to the -19
that's the charge of an electron
don't know how your class works
Why is it squared
don't know
i understand the problem, and it would seem as if the formula is k * e^2 / r^2
specifically why we square the electron charge, no idea
Ok cool
Ok makes sense, thx
@late parcel Has your question been resolved?
they showed the work
F = qE
so they multiplied the charge of the particle at P times the electric field at P
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Can someone please help me solve the following problem ?
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin
2. I have begun but got stuck midway
3. I got an answer but I'm told it's wrong
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked
5. I have a question about someone else's worked solution
6. None of the above
1
do you understand the question
not really
3c=B
c=b/3
b/3 + 3 ?
yes
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i need help with this question
ah. Then I guess you can find the equation of line ab, bc, cd, ad
and see which is different
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Why no distribution for (1-λ)?
Algebra shows brackets around these terms, no?
But then magically the square brackets are removed and I don’t understand the math involved to do so?
3 * 0 = 0
Yes I understand that
And then you subtract 0
But what about the other 2 factors?
which leaves you with just (-2-λ)(4-λ)
[(-2-λ)(4-λ)]
Why no distribution?
Oh
2 * (3 * 3)
Right
18
Wait but there is addition involved
where
only inside the parenthesis
we dont care about that
you have (1-λ) as one thing
times
(-2-λ) * (4-λ)
Those are Binomials
just view them as 2 things being multiplied
Aren’t you supposed to do FOIL?
if you expand them, THEN you will have addition to distribute over
First outside inside last
but we aren't expanding them
To find product
we dont have to
Why?
because we don't need to
if your choice whether to expand or not
in this case we dont need to
We removed the square brackets and I feel like it’s breaking a law. It says to distribute
It's not
So it will get the same answer either way?
If you expand the parenthesis here
Yes
Yes
Gotta deal with brackets first
That’s why it looks weird to just remove them like that
no you dont
rule to what
Removing the square brackets
x * (yz) = xyz is associativity
Before expanding
But that doesn’t include +-
like, it's your choice whether you want to expand the polynomial or keep it as multiplication of its factors
This example does
yeah it doesnt
y = -2-λ
z = 4-λ
x = 1-λ
all of these have parenthesis around them
so you just look at them without caring whats inside
its SOME value, but whatever it is
So you can move them abc or cad or bac
yes
If you want to expand them, yes
but we're just looking at them as factors right now
But it’s also associativity, I have never done that before
Right
look, another example:
If there was a +- in between the brackets we could not do this
...the fact that things happen to be written as binomials in this case doesn't mean that they're not numbers
But since there isn’t we are free to move around
(x + 1) * [x * (2x + 1)]
for example
this is equal to
(x+1) * x * (2x + 1)
you dont care about the brackets
you can ignore them
(1/x)(2x + 1)(x^3 + x^2)
1/x?
Wow
So we are adding domain restriction by writing it this way
Something that isn’t in the original problem
So this is considered kinda a bad thing?
Before x could equal 0
But now it cannot
yeah and
you need to give a more specific examples
but usually its not a good idea to just randomly do that
unless you have a reason
lol
I guess it could be x^-1 instead of 1/x.. but yeah.. writing it this way brings about domain restriction.. gotta be careful
or just note that x = 0 gives u a value of 0
Hmmm
...that wouldn't change anything...?
I will have to be careful because if I ever introduce a negative variable.. risky stuff…
Yeah exactly just a different way to write it
For domain restriction I mean
What once had full domain is now restricted due to this
so do you have anymore questions
Nope
or you got it
basically don't divide by a thing that might be zero
alright good
And a variable can always be 0
i mean, not if 0 isn't in ur domain
if you're dealing with natural numbers for examples
(without 0)
or primes
or whatever
But now you are setting new rules by saying 0 is not in domain lol.. before it was..
yeah
I find it interesting how division by 0 is actually used on the determinant for solving eigenvalues
This is to avoid inverse if the determinant is 0
Wait sorry
Wrong words
We set the determinant itself equal to 0
To avoid inverse
That’s what it is
Not division by 0
you SET the determinant?
Yes
We don’t wanna cancel (A-λI) with an inverse
So we have to set the determinant to 0
To avoid inverse
you can get it easily by starting with the definition of an eigenvector
Av = λv
λv - Av = 0
(λI - A)v = 0
But behind the scenes that’s why we set it to 0
0 is the value of the determinant
Non invertible
uh yes I guess
why do we want the matrix to be non-invertible?
It’s the only reason it’s 0
Because of this
what happens if we cancel it with an inverse?
no solution for an eigenvector?
(λI - A)v = 0
is a system. you want it to have nontrivial solutions which means the matrix λI - A needs to be noninvertible
(A-λI)(A-λI)^-1
Yes. Better wording
We don’t want this to happen
So if we set the determinant to = 0, it resolves that
|(A-λI)| = 0
Now we can’t invert
(λI - A of course)
I think that’s the reason why we set the algebra = 0 when finding eigenvalues
Anyways
I think I can visualize it but probably explaining it wrong
It’s tricky
But not too bad.. I think lol..
Don’t wanna overthink it.. just memorize the steps for eigens
ok.
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np
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wanna ask
do we know what Δ and δ stand for?
change in variable
??
nvm let's skip to 2nd question
ok so do you know what lagrange's interpolation formula is
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I dunno how b is. Done
That’s what I did
The real part is correct but the complex is 3i not 5i
I dunno how
This is all the he;p the mark scheme gives lol
Mb sry bro im new to this stuff
as for how it's done: in short, the point z - (3+2i) has modulus 2 and argument 5pi/6
please don't call me bro
Ok sry
I’m still kinda lost
Is my diagram even drawn correctly?
it's a bit shoddy, is how i would describe it
like it's vaguely correct it's just not very good quality
Would you possibly be able to write a written solution on paper ?
To the question that would be a life saver
don't have the energy to do that sorry
Oh ok it’s cool
I don’t rly understand what to do tho
Sry I’m new to this stuff so I’m a bit slow
the point z that lies on both curves satisfies |z - (3+2i)| = 2 and arg(z - (3+2i)) = 5pi/6
so for the number z - (3+2i) you know its modulus and argument
yeah so
do you know how to write down a complex number in terms of its modulus and argument
R(sin theta + cos theta )
?
Cos and sin other way around
And isintheta
How does it help doe?
.close
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Can anyone link me to a source or tell me how to prove this?
are you ok with induction
If
f(n) = n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6
Then f(n) - f(n - 1) = n²
Which is easy enough to do algebraically
You forgot /6
what is induction
wdym
6 was multiplied to the sum...
Oh. Didn't noticed
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How to do b?
I got a but and got a bit through b
This is the markschem but not very helpful lol
@crisp iron
<@&286206848099549185>
@deft python Has your question been resolved?
I checked your answer in (a), it is correct, nice
🙂
For (b), you are looking for a vector perpendicular to the two vectors, but which has x-component = 1
You see the vector you found in (a)
Ye
Gotcha
but its x-component is not 1
To make it one, why did you think of doing magnitude? :o
Exactlyyy
Ohh right
I thought it said shortest distance
So tried the Pythag stuff
But it’s that simple
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Wait do u mind sending ur solution to b
If that’s okay wit u
Wat did I do wrong 😭
Again lol
I did the same way
Just divide by 4 every component
What is this?
Suii
😆
Please do tell Luna
Okay, so, from (a) you have the cross product of them
Which is perpendicular to both vectors
Yepp
But, its not the shortest
Fax
And when we say "short", we talking about magnitude
Yes
So, we need to know which value of x makes the magnitude of our vector the minimum possible
or.. makes the square of the magnitude of our vector the minimum possible
basically same leads to the same thing, just ease of calculation (no sqrt)
So we ignore the square root ?
Yes, we do magnitude squared better
When the mag² is the minimum possible
Then automatically mag would be minimum possible too
Find me the expression of the mag²
Yess, nicely done
$||\overrightarrow{V(x)}||² = 2x²-32x+176$
luna7427
Can you, using calculus, find at which x the minimum of this function is achieved?
Why we make =0 doe?
We have a critical point (global minimum)
you remember that stuff :P
Yehhh lmao
First derivative = 0 with sign change
Waaait, we not done yet
Just sub back in no
Nah
Yes
I meant after substitution (4 4 -4)
Oh yeh
And then yes, divide by 4
So, they made a little mistake
it's (1 1 -1)
France
High school?
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Do you know the general formula for the regression line?
Precisely, the formula for its slope
@mossy creek Has your question been resolved?
uh yea
essentially cov (x,y)/var(x)
Yes, y on x
Cov(X,Y) / V(X)
and x on y
Cov(X,Y) / V(Y)
Here, you have been given that
Cov(X,Y) / V(X) = 0.9
Cov(X,Y) / V(Y) = 0.1
What can we do from here?
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thanks man appreciate it
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Is that true
austinu
Infinity
austinu
we want to say yes, because we like to think that we can just combine them into x-x=0
Yes
yet, algebraic operations on limits like that are only allowed if the limit exists
Is there a specific reason that explain it do not exists
and such that adding and subtracting it around willy nilly doesn't really work
I got it.
Those calculation rule we using in numbers doesn’t works on infinity. Since infinity is a concept not numbers
austinu
I can provide an example
It’s one of the indeterminate forms
Think about natural numbers, 1,2,3,....
there are an infinite amount of them
but what about real numbers?
Which the limit may exist or may not
also an infinite amount of those
if we take the real numbers, and subtract the natural numbers, (infinite amount - infinite amount) we are still left with an infinite amount of numbers
not 0 numbers

(...i feel like using \infty to refer to an infinite cardinal is a bit of a stretch...?)
But if you replace one of the x's with an x^2 it would be a different story
I know about this exampple from Vsauce
Dont limits combine? Or is this a "garlic needs to take analysis" moment
I was under the impression that you can only add/subtract/multiple/divide limits if they are determinate
they only combine if they exist
Crap
if it was $\lim_{x\to 0} (x-x)$ then that's 0 \ \
but $\lim_{x\to 0}x - \lim_{x\to 0}x$ = $\infty - \infty$ isn't anything
techinically a limit going to infinity, isn't a limit existing
I’m not sure what u mean by real number minus natural numbers
bee [it/its]
this is what I said 
if you allowed operating on limits like this you'd get contradictions pretty easily
on one hand, $\lim_{x\to \infty}2x - \lim_{x\to \infty}x ``=" \lim_{x\to \infty}x = \infty$
huh
huh...?
XD
isnt $\lim{x\to0}x = 0$?
i'm saying if you could combine limits like that (which you can't)
itzkraken.
wha
whoops
ignore my bad tex skills
$\lim_{x\to0}x = 0$?
isnt it?
lol
on the other hand, $\lim_{x\to\infty}2x = \infty = \lim_{x\to\infty}x$, and $\lim_{x\to\infty}x - \lim_{x\to\infty}x$ is supposedly $0$
bee [it/its]
this should be valid as long as the two cardinal infinities are equal
why would cardinals be relevant here
no
you can't even subtract cardinals

idk i forgot the term from the video
I think you want to do $\lim_{x\to\infty}x-\lim_{x\to\infty}=\lim_{x\to\infty}(x-x)$.
but $\lim_{t\to \infty}t = \lim_{t\to\infty}$ .because $\lim_{x\to \infty}x$ is not closed x.
thus $\lim f(x)-\lim g(x)$ can be calculated only if $\lim_{\substack{x\to\infty\t\to\infty}$ exists.
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from what video...?
VSauce has a couple on the topic afair
on what topic
sizes of infinity
this isn't about sizes of infinity though
it's about an unrelated thing that's also called infinity because mathematicians are bad at naming things
why not? if they are equal in size it should be 0

what do you mean by "equal in size"
for which "infinity"
how might you define that
how would you show that they are
hence the problem arises
infinite cardinals, the sizes of infinite sets, do have a notion of "equal size", but don't have subtraction
Oh 💀
the \infty in limits is something completely unrelated that arguably isn't really a thing at all, it's just a way to write "unbounded" or something like that
austinu
and infinity isn't a real number that we can set "equal" to some value
so we can't treat it like that
yeah \infty isn't a real number
( should we close this now? )
ig
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I have the gradients, i’m confused about the points
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
well I just have a thought process, so the gradient m= 4 and -1/4
I was thinking of differentiating y and setting the gradient/s equal to that to get the x value/s
and then plugging the x values to the original function to get the y values?
idk something like that
Start with the tangent first
so m=4
Do you know how to find when m=4
Derivative?
You need to fknd when the tangent line has m=4
The slope of the tangent line is given by the derivative
Do you know how to find the derivative first?
yes
yes, infty is not a value lole
oop
ignore me
What is the derivative
y’=4x-4
What do you need to set it equal to?
so I plug the x value in the original equation
Yup
meaning y=1
Do you know how to get the equation from here?
does that mean (2,1) is a point for the gradient m=4
Indeed
right
yep
thank you
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What about the normal
The normal is the line perpendicular to the tangent at the same point of tangency
I.e. at the point (2,1) with gradient m=-1/4
@cunning trout
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ya i got dat
Ok just making surw
np, thanks again
help?
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Not sure what to do here
which one?
Normally I would divide everything by x or x^2 then I can just ignore the 6/x or 18/x etc since they go to zero and just read the answer (it will usually be something like 5/(6+1) etc), but with this everything is already a bit messed up, like I already have -21/x and √x so not really sure what im supposed to do
Both of them kinda, usually the method is the same for both
or similar
You can take the limit for the num and dem separately
Sorry I didnt explain my method so good but I think you know which method im talking about haha
remember that $x = (\sqrt x)^2$. so it kind of looks like $\frac{3\left(-\frac{7}{t^2}-5)}{t}$ where $t=\sqrt{x}$
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maybe you can work with that
What do you mean sry? How do I do this?
Ok but usually I get a number on the denominator... so I guess it would just be zero in this case?
$\lim \frac a b = \frac{\lim a }{\lim b}$
denascite
(as long as you dont run into 0/0 or infty/infty kind of situations)
Hmm ok I wil try this 1 moment
I got it thanks!!
❤️
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Is it possible to have jump discontinuity AND hole discontinuity?
I dont see why not, but someone told me that the definition of hole discontinuity is 'Left limit = right limit but function value DNE'
If left limit = right limit then there cannot be jump discontinuity, right?
@warped topaz Has your question been resolved?
Yup
Hole discontinuity means that if you can fill the hole in with some value and make it continuous
Not possible for jump
@warped topaz
Ie. Left limit = right limit
That is the standard definition I believe
And I don't believe there is another common used one
So its not possible to have both on the same graph?
Seems really weird, like I just drew an example graph here so I dont see why it shouldnt be possible
Its not like a graph that has both infinite discontinuity and jump discontinuity where you literally cant draw it
You are confused about definitions
You can
Not at the same point tho
A graph can be hole discontinuous at one point
And jump at other
Same point is not possible
Jump discontinuity just means left and right limits are unequal
It doesn't matter if the function at that point is defined or not
Hole means it's not defined st that pt
And left = right
Ah ok that what I was trying to figure out
But now im curious, what would the function look like of a graph that has both hole and jump (at different points)
Cause the left limit cannot equal right (for jump) but the left HAS to equal right (for hole), no?
Here is one
If x<0 f(x)=x
Undefined at 0
For x in (0,5)
f(x)=0
And 5 everywhere else
Ol reliable
There might be some way to express such a function purely elementarily
Say
Ah
Go it
(x-3)/[(x-3)x]
Rationals
Wait
Does jump require left and right limit to exist
Let me check
Ya it does
But the principle is same
Find a jump discontinuity function
Multiply by (x-k)/(x-k)
You mean like does it require them to be finite?
Ah ok
Yeye I think I get you
Thank you, you explained it really well
That was all I wanted to ask haha
❤️
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if i have an event A that has a 32% chance of occuring, and event B that has a 16% chance of occuring, and I run both events A and B 3 times, what are the odds that at least one of the events occurs? in other words, what is 1-(odds of neither event to occur)?
is 1-((1-0.32)*(1-0.16))^3 correct?
@rugged crescent Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
if anyone does answer pls ping i just need to know cuz im building a chance calculator for a game xd
true
both are running 3 times?
in that case true
ye
yeah tahn true
what if they run 3.3 times (3 times with 30% chance for 4th time)
can i just use 3.3 instead of 3
raise power 3.3
but
logically
how can u run an event in decimal
has to be a whole number
but in some other case where u can use fraction
than raise power fraction
and for every time i re run this experiment it would just be 1-((1-0.32)*(1-0.16))^(3*n) where n is # events right?
cuz on average
over a large amount of time running this experiment it will average to 3.3
even tho its 3 with 30% chance of 4
ya in that case power 3.3
kk ty
wlcm
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Hello, I need help i forgot my notes and didn't really paid attention on my math teacher I want to learn this probability with explanation I've only learn the basic ones
Assume that all little slices have equal probability of landing
Now you can see that since there are 9 triangles
Each has P=1/9
Then just do some counting
On?
I'm sorry I really didn't paid attention much
Can u give me example?
like what is the form of solving ?
You understand that there is a 1/9 probability to land in any one of the triangles
?
Oh yeah
I misread
I thought it was fraction smth
sorry
So the blue is 2?
like 2/9 or no?
I didn't see the outcome or event my bad
How bout fractions,decimal and percentage
It is
It is
Fraction is 2/9
Decimal is just 0.22
Probability are represented by a fraction
Ie. If you do N spins, and A of them land on triangle 1
P(land on triangle 1) = A/N
This is experimental probability
As we do more spins
(Make N larger)
We expect this fraction to approach a certain value
In this case it's 1/9
still the same on this?
P(Green) means the outcome when the spinner lands on green
The odds of that happening are 3 out of 9
Written as 3/9
Or 1/3
Yeah so the fraction is still the same
Blue = 2/9 fraction = 2/9 decimal = 0.22 percent = ?
Is this correct?
