#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 90 of 1
hint:||primes||
1
That’s my guess.
@serene pasture prime factorize the numbers:
9=3x3
8=2x2x2
7=7
6=3x2
5=5
4=2x2
3=3
2=2
then take the largest prime powers:
2³x3²x5x7
hello new here wondering were i go to ask for help about volume and geometry
Hey guys!
So for p prime, I don't know how to show that $(\pm i)^2 \not\equiv (\pm j)^2 \mod p$ for $1 \leq i < j \leq (p-1)/2$
mns
Well first of all, you really just need to show i² ≠ j² [p]
(since adding a minus sign does nothing, it's a square)
Second of all, recall you are allowed to add and subtract things in integers mod p
Right
I am reading
ok So
we know that $p \nmid i^2$ and $p \nmid j^2$ as if it were the case then p wouldn't be prime
mns
Then we're left to show that $p \nmid (i^2 - j^2)$
mns
I think it's easier to go directly, if p | j^2-i^2 then this implies p | j-i which means they're equal
I'm leaving out crucial details for you to think through
oh yeah the passage from then to p| j - i was a big step
I said for mns to to think through not griff to think through smh
oh my apologies
may not have read what you said right merosity lol
I won't lie I did and it was just getting to (i-j)(i+j) = i^2 - j^2, the rest I could do
this proof is by contradiction then
not directly?
yeah I'd say it's contradiction, or rather you can think it's a proof of the converse
you're proving that if 1 <= i, j <= (p-1)/2 and i^2 = j^2 then i = j
you may want to see why this fails to be true if i and j can be a bit bigger
I wasn't expecting that
pick a few (odd) primes p, and change the bounds to 1 <= i, j <= (p+1)/2 instead
it won't work anymore
why?
for i = (p-1)/2 and j = (p+1)/2 we would have i^2 == j^2
yeah, because then i+j = 0 mod p
np!
how do you minimize 4(x-y)^2+(y+3)^2+(x-6)^2+1977
can someone help me with multipication
are you sure you dont want to be in #prealg-and-algebra or a help channel?
You can try to prove the contrapositive
Or proof by contradiction if that makes more sense
So assume that a is even, then what happens
well we have $a \mid b$ with $a, b \in \mbb{N}$. $a + b$ is odd which means $a + b = 2k+1$ right
ZZZ
so $a \mid b \implies \exists r$ such that $b = ar$
ZZZ
oh if $a$ is even then we have $a = 2n$ and $a + b = 2z + 1$
ZZZ
so $2n - 2z = 1 - b$ which implies that $1 - b$ is even which must mean that $b$ is odd?
ZZZ
Yes that is correct
then shouldn't i instead assume that b is even
and show that a is odd
well, I could start by saying
that if a + b is odd then a and b cannot both be odd
So we started by assuming a is even and we want to find a contradiction. We used a+b is odd to show b is odd. We still haven't used the fact that a | b
So now we have 3 facts available to us: a is even, b is odd, and a | b
a | b means b = ak
a is even so a = 2n, b is odd which means b = 2z + 1
oh
2z + 1 = 2an which is impossible
because 2an implies that an = z + 1/2
no?
we can actually shorten it
wouldn't it suffice to say
assume for a contradiction that $a$ is even, i.e. that $a = 2n$. by the definition of divisibility, $a \mid b$ implies $b = ar$ for some $r \in \mbb{Z}$. Then, if $a$ is even $b$ must be odd as their sum is odd. Then we have $2k + 1 = b$ and $2k+1 = 2ar$, which is a contradiction as 2k+1 is odd for all integers k and $2(ar)$ is always even
ZZZ
well that's not really a shortened version, but yes
Well you probably should justify a bit more why a is even then b is odd
Also a more concise way of seeing it is that if a is even then 2 | a | b so b is even as well which means a + b is even
But I think it's good to discover your own ways
is it not axiomatic that if a + b = 2k+1 then a = 2n and b = 2r + 1 or vice versa?
well a + b is odd iff a is odd and b is even or vice versa, no?
how would i really justify that further
Well this is a perfect justification
oh, yeah i suppose that works
Or you just notice that if b were to be odd then a+b will be even again so b must be even
In any case yeah it's not a major issue
alright tyvm
help pls
what did you try?
i tried to consider two cases
a = 2k
and 2 = 2k+1
the case is pretty self evident for a = 2k
we have $4k^2 + 2$ which is obviously not divisible by 4
ZZZ
ok, whats giving you trouble in the other case?
well we have $(2k+1)^2 + 2 \implies 4k^2 + 4k + 3$ which is not divisible by 4 either
ZZZ
so, would it just suffice to say that $4(k^2 + 0.5)$ is never an integer because no square of an integer can produce a fractional value?
ZZZ
and similarly for the second case
i wouldnt write it like that
how would you, if you dont mind?
i mean, numbers of the form 4k + r with 0 < r < 4 arent divisible by 4
ah right
your justification works i guess, i just dont like how it looks
you can justify this without "moving to Q"
ah okay, thank you!
but your proof is correct
will keep that in mind sir
can anyone help?
I'm setting up the equations to be:
$\frac{a - 4}{13} = q_1$ for some $q_1 \in \mbb{Z}$ and $\frac{b - 9}{13} = q_2$ for some $q_2 \in \mbb{Z}$
ZZZ
then we have $a = 13q_1 + 4$ and $b = 13q_2 + 9$
ZZZ
actually for $a)$ we can leverage that $ab\bmod{m} = ((a\bmod{m} )(b\bmod{m})\mod{m}$, right?
ZZZ
would appreciate some help
this really depends on what you know
if you have this, all of this should be easy
well in this situation we have b = 9 and a = a, let's say
with m = 13
but im not sure how to proceed
so just compute 9*a = 9*4 and then reduce mod 13
why do we have 9 * 4?
Lochverstärker
ok, so
if you dont know that you can work with representatives, you have to more work
I am being stupid lol, we just plug it in
but if you have this, you can work with 4 instead of 13k+4
we can multiply $9(a \equiv 4(\bmod{13}))$
ZZZ
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
right?
i cant parse this
you can just multiply 9 by 4 and then reduce
if you have the required theorems
in general one can show that if $a_1 \equiv a_2 \pmod{n}$ and $b_1 \equiv b_2 \pmod{n}$, then $$a_1 + b_1 \equiv a_2 + b_2 \pmod{n}$$ and $$a_1 \cdot b_1 \equiv a_2 \cdot b_2 \pmod{n}$$
Lochverstärker
so at the end of the day this is just plugging in and then reducing mod 13
okay
so
\begin{align}
b_1 &\equiv 9a\pmod{13} \
a_1 &\equiv 4\pmod{13} \
9a\pmod{13} \cdot 4\pmod{13} &\equiv 36a \pmod{13}.
\end{align}
ZZZ
you dont have to tex it, you can just use = if you want
oh ok
but like using this for the first one you get
$$9a \equiv 9\cdot 4 \equiv 36 \pmod{13}$$
Lochverstärker
where in the first $\equiv$ i used the fact that $a \equiv 4 \pmod{13}$
Lochverstärker
and then its just a matter of reducing 36 mod 13
so you subtract 13 until you are below 13
and get
uhh
10
all the other ones are solved the same way, you just replace a by 4 and b by 9
but isn
sure
yes
but all the questions just ask for equivalence
and if you are only using \equiv and not = you can replace every occurrence of a by 4
you could also use 17 or -9 or infinitely many other things
now tbf all of this is assuming you have the theorem i quoted above
you can also work with 13k+4 and then do algebraic manipulations until you are done
ok
so yeah with this you can just work with an representatives
but how would that work
you can't set up a system of equations
in the first one you have (13k+4)9 = 13*9*k+36 = 13*9*k+13*2+10 = 13(9k+2) + 10 \equiv 10 mod 13
so you have to carry a lot of "baggage" with you for no reason
with the theorem you have you can just take any representative of a
in this case the smallest, namely 4
and work with that
and then reduce after every arithmetical operation to the smallest representative and continue
one thing worth noting
so if you have a^3
you could do (a^3) mod m
but you can also do (((a^2) mod m)* a mod m) mod m
the latter is computationally easier, because the numbers dont get quite as big
it doesnt matter for small numbers if you have a calculator but if you do it on paper or for larger numbers it does
how do I do c)?
oh okay, sorry i didn't see this (also let me know if i should ping on reply or not)
what's your best guess?
take a guess
pretend all the (mod 13) are gone
then the problem becomes a=4, b=9 and then compute c=a+b
why do i pretend its gone?
because I told you
sorry , my mother called me
so essentially what I gather
is that $a \equiv 4\pmod{13}$ and $b \equiv 9\pmod{13}$, then $a + b = 13\pmod{13}$, then substituting this in we have $c = 13\pmod{13} \pmod{13}$
ZZZ
since $13\pmod{13} = 0$ does that automatically imply that $c = 0$? is this the correct method?
ZZZ
Yes
I have a question from my classmate
prove that for every $n$, $p$ being an odd prime factor of $n^4-n^3+2n^2+n+1$ always satisfies $p\equiv1,4\pmod{15}$
CollinGao-ALT
mod 13, yes
Ok so I am having trouble with one problem
Let p,q be two carmichael numbers and n = pq
let f = (p-1)(q-1)
and suppose that e,d are integers such that ed == 1 mod f
Show that if (M,n) = 1 then M^(ed) == 1 mod n
I tried several approaches, namely with M^(p-1) == 1 mod p and M^(q-1) == 1 mod q and using the chinese reminder but couldn't
Then I also used Euler's Lemma with M^(phi(n)) == 1 mod n but couldn't go further with phi(n) = phi(pq)
Is this even true? Tried it with n=561*1105, M=19, and ed = f+1. M^(ed) is like 109414 mod n
I found something online saying you can do RSA with one Carmichael number and one prime, so maybe that's what the question originally was? Maybe not though because there's still an unmentioned gcd restriction between the two numbers in that case
apparently that also makes the encryption "fatally vulnerable" but that's another story 
wait you can recover it with ed == 1 mod f implies ed + kf = 1, then (e,f) = 1 and (d,f) = 1 meets those restritictions on e and d for doing RSA with n being a prime times a Carmichael number
So it's likely this was the original question
@wanton torrent
is there something you left out? it seems not to be true unless I calculated something wrong
Nope
Now that I see, I believe the professor meant M^ed == M mod n
because this is possible
and indeed I found a counter example for the statement
p = 561 and q = 1105
n = pq = 619905
f = (p-1)(q-1) = 618240
e,d in Z with e = 11 and d = 168611. We can verify that indeed ed == 1 mod f
pick M = 7, then (M,n) = 1 but M^ed == 474052 =/= 1 mod n
That’s trivial, just factor as
(n^2-n/2+1/2)^2+(3/4)(n+1)^2, then -3 is a square mod p. By QR we know p=1 mod 3. Do a similar factorisation to get p=1 or 4 mod 5. Then Chinese remainder theorem for the final answer

I'm out of practice, why is -3 a square mod p from that?
Back
Need to verify something
Let n be a Carmichael Number, p a prime such that p divides n
Let n = pq for some q in Z
nvm
is there any way we can relate exponents of equations with congruences?
For instance, if we have a^b == c^d mod p can we do something with b and d mod something?
in theory there are phi(p-1) generators we can pick from, so you could take g to be one, and write a=g^r and c=g^s and then you can look at g^(rb)=g^(sd) mod p and consider rb=sd mod p-1
in practice this might not be the best thing to do, but I don't know what you're wanting to do with the exponents
reduce mod 3 and mod 5 separately and solve there, then recombine the solutions to get the mod 15 solution
how?
chinese remainder theorem
solve it mod 3 and mod 5 first, then play around with it a bit to see if you can work out how to combine them, then if you're still stuck show me what you got for your solutions mod 3 and 5 and what you did to try to combine them and we can go from there
i cant reduce to mod 3 and mod 5
like this
5x^2 + 7x + 12 == 0 mod 3
5x^2 + 7x + 12 == 0 mod 5
well if you really can't reduce you can just do it the hard way
and just plug in all numbers from 0 to 14 and see what works or not
oh ok thanks
Managed to do it, thanks!
cool you're welcome 👍
holy
why does python gives 4/57 = 0.07017543859649122
but this fraction is supposed to have infinite decimals
(ok, I see the infinite decimals) but why it stops here
Did you expect it to give an infinitely long string
But yeah ig it'll be to do with how many digits it stores for numbers
that would be 
interesting, if I haven't read this thing now I would thought 4/57 have finite decimals lol
it happens to be period of 18, and that's only 17 digits haha
yeah I noticed that after the last 2 is a 8 and then the remainder is 1 again so it repeats all over again
just input 4/57 in wolfram alpha,
gotcha
if you're bored, try to see if you can figure out how to determine the period of the decimal expansion of a/b without computing it the brute force way
I think it's more fun to figure stuff out on my own than have someone else in a book tell me, personally haha
I sort of worded that sneakily, "try to see if you can" cause what I have in mind to relate it to is a well known number theory thing, but it's not exactly known for being easy to compute
I see, do some examples to try to find a pattern?
are you acquainted with diophantine approximation?
somewhat, it's interesting but I'm not an expert at that or anything
what are you an expert at?
I wonder if this is somewhat similar to analytic number theory?
And how much analysis would be needed for this?
project euler moments
you can compute arbitrarily many digits easily just storing the fractional part of (a/b)*10^n
but that doesn't help find cycle length
though it does tell us something important about it
So if you get 2x^2+x for mod 3 and 2x+2 for mod 5 is the answer mod 15 given by multiplying the two?
wait that isnt what you want to do
does x0 mean when x=0 ?
Im missing context
x_0 is usually an index for the first element of a sequence
@south sedge
So this wasnt meant to be polynomial modular arithmetic but solving for x
with any value of y
I see
It depends on the context
Sometimes people use (x_0,y_0) to define an arbitrary point in the plane
yeah solving for x
Is this a property of divisibility?
That is, if $a$ is a divisor of $bc$ and $a$ is relatively prime to, for example, $b$, then it follows that $a$ divides $c$?
tuturuuu
yeah, since a,b are relatively prime there are integers x,y such that ax+by=1 so now you can multiply by c to get acx+bcy=c, since you know a|acx and a|bcy, it divides their sum, which is just c
Damn I lost lol
I get it now, however what do you call that property, that if a,b are relatively prime, then we can find integers x,y such that ax+by=1?
Sorry I don't have any background in number theory
bezouts lemma/theorem/...
ok solved
Thank you!
yup you're welcome
No I didnt solve it lol
I just got x=-1 when modding by 5
idk a how to show for modding by 3
and x=0 for second one
oh
then i use it
it's a quadratic so it can have two solutions
okay lol im slow
i solved the quadratic formula but that is the slow way
cant i just test x between 0 and n
you can factor it
i tried but it looks ugly
oh wait
just keep solving 2x+1=0 mod 3 for x to get the second one
i see what i have to do now
cool
thanks so much
be warned, you can only split f(x)*g(x)=0 to mean f(x)=0 or g(x)=0 mod p for when p is a prime
if it's composite, like 15 was, that won't have worked out, yeah you're welcome
yeah
because prime ideal property
lol
i cant solve x^2+2x+2 = 0 mod 3
testing numbers is what ive been doing
alternatively i try to solve for 2^2 -4*1(2-3k)=a^2
so the discriminate is nice
i made a problem of solving 7x^2+8x+2 == 0 mod 18
oh
maybe there are no solutions lol
yeah
so i think thats it
it looks like it cycles from 1 to 2
idk how to prove no solution though
similarly i find that 2a+5=3k has no solutions
nvm i solved it
you can show that 2a+5=3k can be reduced mod 3 to be 2a+2=3k
nope lol nvm
a solution is a= 2
I think I proved something you were saying from before
but if you have an equation f(x)==0 mod p then you only need to check x=0,..,p-1?
because otherwise you can reduce multiples of p that you would be adding
so like if we take x^2+2x+2==0 mod 3
and we consider x=4 for example
I claim this is the same as x=1
We can say 1+3j represents the equivalence class for 1,4,…
If we substitute 1 + 3j into the equation
(9j^2+6j+1)+(6j+2)+2=3k
If we let k= (3j^2+2j+2j+2)
This reduces to 2=0
It can be done in generality though
yeah that sounds about right to me, I didn't meticulously read through the details but sounds like you're figuring it out 😎
For primes p and q, are there only finitely many pairs (p^a, q^b), such that p^a and q^b differ by 1? Of course one of the primes has to be 2 (say p) and if the other is 3, then only possibilities are (2,3) and (2^3, 3^2). But what can we say when q is any odd prime?
actually it's been proven more generally and you can release the restriction on p, q being primes, this was called catalan's conjecture up until it was proven fairly recently and so now it's mihailescu's theorem
Thank you very much for the information. It says that it has only one solution, even when we allow p, q, a and b to be any integers greater than 1.
yup you're welcome
But I am still thinking : what about the cases when one of a and b is 1. I mean what about the solutions of 2^a = q+1, where q is an odd prime. Like (32, 31). Do we have some information in this case? Are they also finitely many?
well if b=1 then we have x^a=y+1, so for any x, a you plug in the answer will be y=x^a - 1
and on the other side if a=1 then x=1+y^b is the same situation, plug in y and b, and you get x
if you want to find multiple solutions say, y=x^a - 1 and y=z^c - 1 then you can equate them to get x^a=z^c and so you can get multiple solutions by juggling powers around
so for instance 63 = 64^1 - 1 = 8^2 - 1 = 4^3 - 1 = 2^6 - 1
the number of solutions for a given y will be the number of divisors of the power on y+1
so in that example y=63 so y+1=64=2^6 and 6 has 4 divisors, 1, 2, 3, 6
Hey im struggling to prove this one, can u help me to begin the proof using hensels lemma?
am I misreading it or should it be x^m=y since otherwise it seems to be in Z_{p^k} alone
I'm about to go to sleep, good luck
200 digits is about 500 bits
we still can't really factor arbitrary 500-bit integers
Integer factorization is the process of determining which prime numbers divide a given positive integer. Doing this quickly has applications in cryptography. The difficulty depends on both the size and form of the number and its prime factors; it is currently very difficult to factorize large semiprimes (and, indeed, most numbers which have no s...
On December 12, 2009, a team including researchers from the CWI, the EPFL, INRIA and NTT in addition to the authors of the previous record factored RSA-768, a 232-digit semiprime.[3] They used the equivalent of almost 2000 years of computing on a single core 2.2 GHz AMD Opteron.
so yeah, it takes a while
The book I'm reading affirms that if you can show that plugging in integers to a polynomial always yields an odd result then the polynomial has no integer roots.. how?
because 0 is even
I mean, I guessed that but isn't 0 a gray area about being odd or even?
nope not gray area at all, it's even if you can write it as 2*n for n an integer
it's not odd at all because there's no integer solution to 2n+1=0
yup you're welcome
There's a claim that all natural numbers can be written as a sum of four or less perfect squares.
I've proven this, so I think it's true and fair to claim as a property of natural numbers.
I've even generalized it to terms raised to a 3rd power ( perfect cubes ), 4th power, and general kth power where k is positive integer.
But it's not clear to me what sort of utility this property has.
Like, it seems like we might want to say something about base representations.
Or we might go the other way and say that something about base representations entails these properties.
Are there any deeper motivations or uses of such summation properties in number theory?
Maybe they are used in other proofs?
Or perhaps it informs some intuitions about numbers that I'm unaware of?
If you proved it, better publish it because "can every integer be written as the sum of four cubes" is an open problem
Right. In my "generalization", I don't argue for 4 cubes.
Just a specific, fixed value regarding cubes.
Is there a name for this kind of problem?
Or maybe a family of problems?
It's called Waring's problem
But considering the first proof was provided by Hilbert in 1909, I'm somewhat skeptical of you having proved it as an easy generalization
That's nice, sarcastically speaking.
That's not particularly charitable.
But, I guess since that's how math culture currently is; a lack of charity it's fairly normalized.
Though, it's clearly pretty objectionable.
I didn't think for problems like this I'd run into the need for formal verification systems so soon.
I'll see about writing that up so I can check my work.
Thanks for the search term.
Charitable? What does that have to do with anything?
My point is that if a problem was proved in the 20th century using advanced tools by a mathematician of the caliber of Hilbert, it seems somewhat unlikely that someone could go ahead and prove it using what I assume are elementary tools without much trouble
It's not impossible, it's just unlikely based on my experience of the world
There doesn't seem to be much anything else fruitful or constructive coming from this.
I'm going to head off from here.
Have a nice day.
Ivan, people come about beliving they proved something all the time, and even if ya did do something, there are 100 others who made some critical mistake
Nowadays you usually would have the proof published, or at least put in arxiv, at which point someone can find flaws or not in it and it can be reviewed
Duhon, if you're saying something like, people are so encumbered with false or invalid proofs that they feel collectively justified in using heuristics of skepticism, I hear that.
But there are ways to handle the skepticism or to express that skepticism in ways that are not outright dismissive or condescending.
See how the following reads differently:
"Hey, I've run into quite a few claims of having proven theorem T with elementary methods. I'm generally skeptical of these proofs because I have reason to believe they tend to be false. My reason is that people with more expertise than me seem to require sophisticated methods M to have proven T. So, perhaps you might find it prudent to check out some of those proofs to understand why they felt it was required to use M to prove T."
It's better but still far from perfect.
There's no invitation to any feedback for example.
In your case, it's a bit better.
I read it as something to the tune of "I have similar skepticism because of the aforementioned reasons. But, if you post your proof on something like Arxiv, then maybe I or others will be able to engage and assess your proof more charitably."
What I'm saying is that usually people will shut you down if you just say "I proved it" and either don't have a background or the proof itself. Like, it's fine if it works on your end, that's great, but nowadays people need to see proof by themselves to really believe ya
Then what you've said is less than what I interpreted.
Like, it's awesome if ya did it, it's just that there isn't too much tangible evidence you truly did
I'm not unaware of the kind of epistemic bubbles various communities form.
And, I've even given a kind of justification one might use to affirm the usage of these dismissive heuristics constituting that bubble.
What I've noted, however, is that outright dismissal and condescension are NOT justified.
And I've even given a template of how one might respond to their sense of skepticism in a more ideal manner.
I'm not trying to be skeptical, I'm just saying that you'll need a proof if you want to assert a theorem is correct
And the better way to do that is to publish it to arxiv to get it dated and properly assigned as your thing
It's unfortunate that the actual question I asked has been spoken over in this way.
At this point, it seems appropriate to not continue this conversation here.
This is gone into a broader discussion about pedagogy and math culture, which I'm fine with but I think that's probably out of scope for this channel.
The question I asked regards motivations for why people might try to solve these problems of how to write terms as sums of powers.
BUT "warring problem" was enough of a search term to fall down a rabbit hole regarding "additive basis" as a more general concept.
I guess my question now is why do people care about "additive bases"
Fine, but if ya feel like we ran over some arguments, might be because I don't really get high English, too fancy for me
Also a reason you might want to solve it is just to progress maths in general
No real application for it sometimes, it's just a cool new thing that might or might not be useful to prove other cool new things
It also bugs people if they aren't sure you can really do something simple like that so another reason is that
I'm not really sure what "high English" is here.
I would presume that if people are going to be elitist and try to justify that in a discussion on number theory, they would be able to understand the words I've said.
I'm not using like esoteric terms like "a-series of time" or "phenomenology".
Right.
I guess I was looking for like situations where people apply the concept of an additive basis to other problems in math.
Or like how the solution of various summation problems might be expected to inform other areas.
Or if there was like a broad family of techniques people were using.
I mean using words that me as a non-native English speaker am unaware of. Like, I can speak formally, not super formally tho
nobody is being elitist here
Okay. That's fair.
I'll try to be more mindful about that.
I feel like I've argued how people are being elitist.
I think that people here just think that it's justified.
I disagree that it's justified.
I've at least argued better ways to go about handling that elitism.
I don't know why you feel like people are not being elitist here.
My worry is that this will go out of scope from the #elementary-number-theory channel.
I need to change gears, but if it's something you or someone else wants to talk about, maybe another channel is better at a later time.
On hilbert-waring itself, i know that there are a few different proofs which are all quite interesting by themselves
Iirc, hilberts original proof is based on funky polynomial identites, and there is a proof also based on more analytic techniques (the circle method)
I also recall having seen an other type of analytic proof which i cant recall much about
I think nathansons multiplicative number theory talks about the problem in detail
Thank you!
I gleamed the wikipedia page, but it doesn't go in depth.
Thanks for more search terms.
A thesis which contains an improvement of hilberts original proof refers to an article by ellison in the american mathematical monthly
Nathanson doesnt talk about the original proof, so if that interests you it might be worth checking out
I'm working with a polynomial with variable terms (namely $x^3 - ax^2 + 4ux - nu$), how would I figure out in what cases this polynomial has integer solutions?
Duhon
Ig I could use diophantine equation techniques but that's out of reach for me rn, so some pointers could help
@inner anchor so my proof proposed an algorithm for determining what the corresponding summed terms would be. After checking more instances, my algorithm fails.
I'm curious about some these analytic approaches and how they might use notions of periodicity, especially if they find a way to connect, say, periodicity with complex numbers to modular arithmetic.
I think by leaning into some techniques there, that might help me better articulate and save some aspects of my proof.
Lets say I have two multivariate polynomials, $f,g \in \mathbb{F}_p[x,y,z]$ such that $f ; | ; g$ and they are both homogenous polynomials of degree $d, d+s$ respectively. Is there a method to determine the coefficient of a degree $s$ monomial in $\dfrac{g}{f}$ without directly performing the division/quicker than the division?
ddxtanx
Can someone help me on this:
Ok
Say I have x = {1, 2, 0} and y = {-2, 0, 2} I want to find a function so that (1,-2) , (2,0), and (0,2). How could I find that function?
a few ways are, you could use lagrange interpolation or try to throw f(x)=ax^2+bx+c at it with the points plugged in and solve the system of equations (AKA invert the vandermonde matrix)
there are a ton more, it kind of depends on what you want it to "look" like
I only want it to work for those three values
then what you specified is pretty much sufficient, you could write that as a piecewise if you wanted
Ok, I'll try and invert the vandermode matrix I guess, thanks
yeah that will end up nicely with integer coefficients
Ok I was lazy and found a Lagrange interpolation web app.
But this allows me to build the machine
a(n) = 3n + f(n*mod(3))
where f(x) = 3x^2 -7x + 2.
So that 1 maps to -2, 2 to 0 and 0 to 2?
Tbh I'm wondering what Lagrange interpolation does
It maps 1 to -2 , 2 to 0, and 0 to 2. There are web apps where you just input points and it gives you an equation and shows the graph. I'm not sure how it works either
Well you consider special functions f(i,x) such that f(i,x)=1 if x=i and f(i,x)=0 otherwise
So well P(x) will be
$\ \sum_{i} P(a_i) f(a_i,x)$
Drake
Where a_1,a_2... are your points
The idea is if you plug say a_1 this reduces to P(a_1)
Well as i varies over the x-co ordinates of the points to be modelled
So say you have (1,-2) ,(2,0) ,(0,2)
Then
$\ f(1,x)=\frac{x(x-2)}{-1} \
f(2,x)=\frac{x(x-1)}{2} \
f(0,x)=\frac{(x-1)(x-2)}{2}\$
Drake
So our polynomial will be
$(-2)f(1,x)+(0)f(2,x)+(2)f(0,x)$
Drake
So yea that's how Lagrange interpolation works @pine badge
Which reduces to 3x^2-7x+2
If you want a periodic function, you can also just say f(x) = ((x-1) mod 3)·2 - 2. That way there's no need for a quadratic.
I'm not 100% on this but if you have
$$n = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_l^{a_l}$$
the number of factors of that number is given by
$$(a_1 + 1)(a_2 + 1)(a_3 + 1)\cdots (a_l + 1)$$
Now idk where the other things from the number of integer triangles came from really
Duhon
thanks.thats exactly the problem 🤔
is there a name for this theorem
not that i know of. just a consequence of the Mobius inversion theorem, though it's easy to prove from the simple definition of phi
\phi(k/a) can be seen as number of elements in {x| x<=k, gcd(x,k)=a}(As in "After removing a factor of a,there is no common factor") so this is equivalent to the statement that if x is less than or equal to n then gcd(x,n) is a factor of n
@blissful marlin
oh
yeah it's just counting the integers up to n by grouping them by gcd(n, x)
<@&268886789983436800>
This theorem is also pretty strongly linked to the theory of cyclic groups, for what it's worth
one kind of fun way to see it explicitly is write out the n fractions 1/n, 2/n, 3/n,..., n/n and reduce them. Then the number of times d appears in the denominators is phi(d), and since there were n fractions to start with the sum of phi(d) must all add up to n.
nice
Hey guys, I have a question about this: he question is: If p and q are odd primes determine if 2^(pq-1) is congruent to 1 mod p*q
I thought maybe i use euler's thm to get 2 to the power of phi(pq) is congruent to 1 mod pq as the GCD of 2 and pq is 1
and then as eulers totient function is multiplicative
i can get 2 to the power of phi(p) * phi(q)
and since p, q are odd primes, then their totient function are (p-1), (q-1) respectively
so then I get 2^(pq-p-q+1) is congruent to 1 mod pq
and now im kinda confused as to where to go next, can you point me in the right direction? thx alot
also sorry about the bad format im new to this server
I'm not even sure if what you're trying to prove is true
have you tried any small examples?
yea the question is like to determine whether the statement is true or false
i checked the answers after being stuck on a while and answer is that the statement is false but i dont know how to prove it
Well substitute p=7,q=11
to prove something is false all you have to do is write down and check a counterexample, which you've done
What are Vieta’s formulas useful for?
They give you a relationship between symmetric functions on roots of a polynomial and the coefficients of the polynomial
But why do we want this. Also does this extend to power series?
Ok, thank you
one use i can think of is over local fields, it gives you a very powerful method to see if a polynomial is reducible
probably no
It wouldn't really make sense for power series since the product of roots needn't converge
Yes but I was wondering if under stronger conditions if it could be applied
Also thank you
This is niche, but it is a common question in competition math
It doesnt seem too niche for what Lochverstäkers response says
I meant to say my case was niche
competition math
sorry for not clarifying!
Guys I understood the first 2 solutions we will get. But could anyone please explain how we got that third and fourth solution? (and also why we refer it to as only the third solution?)
PS: Please ping me if someone answers
that looks pretty wrong
let's ignore the abuse of notation in saying that x^2+ax+1=(x-a)(x-b) even though with the second a they actually mean something different
what they want to say is that because 3*3=9 mod 9 there can be solutions to x*y=0 mod 9 without x or y being equal to 0 which is how we usually solve these types of equations
but if x=3-a and x=3-b then 3-a=3-b and a and b have to be equal which isn't always the case
let's now take a look at their example. we see that x^2-2x+1=(x-1)(x-1) and so a=b=-1. from this we get the solution x=1 and x=3-(-1)=4
the extra solution we get from x=6-(-1)=7 because we also have 6*6=0 mod 9
and (I think the last) other such product is 3*6=0 mod 9
Where did you get the x = 3-(-1) from?
so a complete case analysis would be: see that (x-a)(x-b)=0. then we have one of the following:
case 1: x-a=0, x-b=something
case 2: x-b=0, x-a=something
case 3: x-a=x-b=3
case 4: x-a=x-b=6
case 5: x-a=3 and x-b=6
case 6: x-a=6 and x-3=3
that is the form x=3-a with a=-1
because we have x^2-2x+1=(x-1)^2=(x+(-1))^2=(x+a)^2 with a=-1
Could you explain case 3 and 4?
that corresponds to 3*3=0 mod 9 and 6*6=0 mod 9
so why can't we create a case for 9 as well. cause 9*9 = 0 mod 9?
well 9=0 mod 9 so we kind of treat 9 as 0 already
oh ya right
so this way we have 6 cases
unless I missed one, yes
not all of these cases will give solutions x (because for example in case 3 and 4 a and b would have to be equal)
look
But how do we know that a and b aren't equal?
well we don't. sometimes they will be equal and sometimes they won't be
So how would you prove this?
we have the two cases a=b and a!= b. for each of these we have the 6 cases listed. go through all of them and see which ones give a solution
and which ones maybe give the same solution
I gtg now, sorry
Excuse me
I'm thinking of a problem, about integer roots of the equation m! = n² - 1. May someone tell me the name of this problem please. Thank you.
this is called brocard's problem
it is open whether there are infinitely many solutions (n, m). so far only three solutions are known
Thank you
The sum of all fibonacci numbers is -1 mod 11 because 100/9899 = the sum of all fibonacci numbers. Can someone show a counter example proving me wrong.
the sum of fibonacci numbers is divergent
but any fibonacci number could be found in that fraction which is an infinite series (nth fib num)/100^n which under mod 11 is congruent nth fib num. Example the fifth fib num would be 5/100^5....which is congruent 5 mod 11.....so it contains the sum of all fibonacci numbers under modulus 11.
the argument for the sum of all fib #s being -1 is as follows: $1 + 1 + 2 + 3 + \dots = x$, $1 + 1 + 2 + \dots = x$, so $1 + 2 + 3 +\dts = 2x$. then, $x-1 = 2x$, thus, $x = -1$. this is divergent sum renormalization, and it is not equal to the sum
valley
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
look it up if you would like to know more
This is similar to the sum of all natural numbers being -1/12 right?
Aka ramanujans sum
How can we prove that the sum and product of 2 algebraic numbers is algebraic
have you tried constructing a polynomial they might solve?
this is not super easy for product iirc
||if a, b algebraic, then F(a, b)/F is finite and thus algebraic||
this is the usual (easier) way i think
hence why i'm asking whether they tried it
now they have two approaches and it is worthwhile trying yours first
Constructing what polynomial?
this isn't elementary tho
Whats F
...a polynomial that the sum solves, and a polynomial the product solves
you know the definition of "algebraic", yes?
say F are just the rational numbers in this case
Thats basically solves the question. Thats what i am not able to do
well, have you tried constructing one for the sum?
let's say x₁ and x₂ are algebraic, so they solve polynomials P₁ and P₂ with rational coefficients, respectively. x₁ solves P₁ and x₂ solves P₂. Can you construct a polynomial (using P₁ and P₂) that x₁ + x₂ solves? can you explain why it has rational coefficients?
"solves" of course means P₁(x₁) = 0, P₂(x₂) = 0
I have tried to find in terms of P1 and p2. But i wasnt able to.
Anyway i will try again
We can say integer coefficients instead of rational
The sum of all natural numbers mod 11 is congruent this fraction 100/9801....which means it is congruent 0 mod 11.....under congruences things become cyclic.....irrational numberes even contain repeating sequences....square root 2 mod 7 is 0 even though it has two roots 3 and -3.....maybe because they sum to zero.
what
Hey, I am currently doing an elementary number theory course and I find that although I understand the proofs of theorems and how everything works, when it comes to problems I often get stumped or is extremely inefficient at doing them. Does anyone have any advice for me? Thank you for your help (also please reply to this message if you have a piece of advice so I can locate it better, thx!)
sorry the sum of all natural numbers mod 11 is 1/0.......with e and pi you also get a division by 11.....

inefficient? do you mean you do more work than the suggested solution? if so, i think this is normal and nothing to worry about
if you can't solve problems at all, then all i can suggest without more information is to practice more
Gonna +1 what Lochverstärker said. It's one thing to be able to fully comprehend a proof, but it's another thing to try and prove it yourself without help. Understanding is already half the battle though, so you can do it!
are you the guy who posted on the project euler forums?
I thought about replying there but didn't go for it
basically this feels like gibberish
are you able to explain a little more in detail what it is you're talking about?
i'd rather we only talk about mathematics in this channel
yeah....welll maybe it is gibberish....but I dont understand what is wrong with my logic

@arctic crane you can dm me briefly, I'm willing to discuss this with you for a bit.
@mossy sun can we make a gc, I’d like to talk about it as well
I'm unable to because none of us are friends
Hey, I was wondering regarding the uniform step method in solving magic squares how would I actually get the 6 constants so as to solve for x and y, do I just have to make sure they satisfy the condition that cf-de is relatively prime to the length/height of square and that each constant except for the starting location are relatively prime to the dimension of the square, and the integers are arbitrary themselves?Thanks for your help! (pls reply to this msg if you have any advice so I can see it. Thank you alot!)
@paper saffron are you the guy who asked this question last Wednesday in help-3 channel?
Anyway there is an article regarding it, theorem 3.1
Sorry pinged the wrong guy, should be @indigo oar
ah I see
we know that these are the remainders of dividing 2^n and 6^n by 7
suppose that
which means
how does this imply that $S_n\equiv 2^{n+1}+3\cdot 6^{n+1}+3\pmod 7$?
DarQ
in particular, I want to know what this has to do with anything
Multiply both sides of this by 3
Sure yeah same thing
but this is literally the entire proof in the official correction
?
I'm very confused what 5S_n has to do with anything
if from there you need to multiply both sides by 3 then why not multiply by 15 in the first place?
Yeah idk why they did that, because in mod 7 you have 1/5 = 3, so (6^{n+1}-1)/5 is already equal to 3*6^{n+1}-3
But I guess it's just making sure that both sides are integers before taking things mod 7
I mean they're integers
They're just making extra suretm they have integers I guess
this is just HS level so we don't have equivalences between fractions
I mean 3 is the inverse of 5 mod 7
1/5=3
There's nothing wrong with what's written though
no, I meant it doesn't make sense to use the fact that $3\equiv 1/5 \pmod 7$ if we haven't covered equivalences between fractions
DarQ
You didn't see modular inverses?
no
That's very odd for some elementary NT
I mean just seeing 3*5 = 1 mod 7 is not that hard tbh
So that's the exam correction screwed up thing ?
I mean if you arrived at the same conclusion in another correct way there should be no problem
otherwise the examiners are ass
So the question was like "here some S_n, show that S_n = blah mod 7" ? Just making sure
tomorrow I shall see how much I got
Yah 
yes, this is a follow up to the previous question
so it was just "show that S_n=blah mod 7" since we already knew what S_n was
thanks for the sanity checks btw!
I need to go rn
cya tomorrow I guess
I guess you are on your own… I understand the part of that article regarding your question now, but you need background knowledge about structure of finite abelian groups first, which is in most of algebra books, I personally recommend basic algebra written by Jacobson, it’s in chapter 3, however, after you have this background knowledge, to prove some results used in this article, you will need to read charter 2 and 4 of combinatorial number theory and additive group theory written by Alfred Geroldinger. This is too long a journey for me…
and probably way overkill anyway
Maybe, but using a particular elementary method to solve a very special case where we already have references of the whole theorem, the full result, doesn’t satisfy me, and I haven’t found such elementary way anyway…
Anyway, the main obstacle will be the result of D*(G)=D(G) when G is an finite abelian group of rank 2, this result is stated and used in the article without proof, proof is contained in chapters 2 and 4 of that combinatorial number theory book, other than that, the article itself and algebra background knowledge won’t be too much a problem
An interesting question: what functions are those which preserve equivalence modulo n for all integers n?
This is to say that if x, y are congruent mod n then f(x) and f(y) are congruent mod n too, rather than f(x) = x mod n.
I'm going to think about this for a little bit
An interesting observation is that such functions form a ring!
What in the world
I was just about to ask
Isn’t this asking us to characterize homomorphisms from Zn to Zn
Unfortunately not, no – that would be much easier though!
What’s the difference?
The reason these are not necessarily homomorphisms is that they do not necessarily preserve addition, multiplication, identity, or zero.
A homomorphism would require f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), for example, and this is an entirely different question
Aha, here's a start
Suppose f(0) = 0 for such a function. We can always start with a function g and set f(n) = g(n) - g(0) and this will be so.
Now x = 0 (mod x)
so f(x) = 0 (mod x)
so f(x) is always divisible by x
So we divide by x and repeat. Do you see my train of thought here?
I'm trying to figure out f(x) as a polynomial
Like, if:
$f(x) = a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 + \cdots$
Then:
Boytjie
$f(x) = a_0 + x\left( a_1 + x\left( a_2 + x(\cdots)\right)\right)$
Boytjie
So what I'm trying to show here is that if we "mutate" f(n) by taking away f(0) — which I think of as a_0 in this expansion — we really do get x times something
So it's looking a lot like these functions are just polynomials
Now all that's necessary to show that these functions really are polynomials is to show that eventually, if we keep repeating this process, we will get the constant zero function
I will now think about this
Do let me know if this doesn't make sense
I don’t know how you got to this
Ok wait first of all these functions are defined on the whole Z right
Right so our assumption is that f(n) is a function such that, whenever a = b (mod m) we have f(a) = f(b) (mod m) right?
And yeah, sorry I didn't define this explicitly but I'm assuming that f : Z -> Z indeed
So x is just any number, I'm using it generically
x = 0 mod x
this hopefully is clear!
Right I get that part
so by assumption, f(x) = f(0) mod x
and I assumed that f(0) = 0
so indeed f(x) = 0 mod x
Oh we’re assuming it’s true, oh yeah you said “such a function” ok I see lol
Right yeah perhaps I should've put more emphasis on that
So the reason I wanted to do this is because like, if you have a polynomial p(x), how do you work out the constant term? Well it's just p(0) right?
So if f(0) = 0, it kinda looks like a polynomial (my hunch) with no constant term
And if it really is a polynomial, well x always has to divide f(x)
Yeah I mean you could also think of it like
If there’s no constant term, everything has an x attached to it
So of course x divides f(x)
Yeah exactly
But here’s my question, couldn’t you do f(x) = x + 2, and that preserves equivalence because it’s just adding 2 to both sides?
That has a nonzero constant
Yeah this is what I'm saying
so like, we have this function f(x) = x + 2
f(0) = 2
so let's define this new function, call it g(x) = f(x) - f(0)
I'll leave it to you to check that g(x) also preserves congruence modulo n for all n
But now also g(0) = 0, right
So the argument that I used above actually shows the following
If f : Z -> Z preserves congruence modulo n for all integers n, then f(x) = a + xg(x) for some integer a and some function g : Z -> Z
What I'm thinking about at the moment is whether or not we can conclude that g(x) preserves congruence modulo n. My thought rn is that it doesn't necessarily.
Hmm
Yeah, let g(n)=n when n doesn’t equal 0, g(0)=1, g doesn’t satisfy your condition, but f(n)=ng(n)=n does
Wonderful counterexample ty
Well, this problem is very hard then
Oh actually in fact, we can choose g(0) to be whatever we like
No
No we can
If f : Z -> Z preserves congruence modulo n for all integers n, then f(x) = a + xg(x) for some integer a and some function g : Z -> Z
g need to satisfy g(m)=g(m+k) mod k for m isn’t divisible by k
Why is that?
Because mg(m)=(m+k)g(m+k) mod k for any m
Right, I must admit I'm still not seeing why what you're saying follows?
Property of f
Yes, so why does this mean g(m) = g(m+k) mod k?
We can't just rid ourselves of that factor of m
Now observe that from this, since f(0) = a, we can actually choose g(0) to be whatever we like, and still get a valid expression for f
Yeah
So if we want to look at these functions, we really need to look everywhere but g(0)
which makes things quite complicated
I'm not sure how to approach this
Yeah
f(n)=a+ng(n)=a+bn+nh(n)
h(n)=g(n)-g(0), b=g(0)
So f is linear map plus nh(n)
h satisfies h(0)=0, n/gcd(n,x) divides h(n+x)-h(x) still complicated
i writted 30 as 5 * 6=5 * 2 * 3 thus i figured out that there will be always a even number
and i stuck
idk how to prove that there will be number that is divisible by 5 and by 3
For mod 5 the hint is fermat little theorem, for mod 3 you can use fermat little theorem as well or write down all squares mod 3
A variant of this problem : show that mn(m⁶⁰-n⁶⁰) is always divisible by 56786730 for every m,n∈ℤ
The only hard part of this problem is prime factorization
for the definition of modular forms, why is the growth condition nessecary
also it seems to follow from the automorphism condition which seems kinda cool
@fervent crest i recently started number theory, in my book there was a task called
and it was easy to solve for me, but this one is new for me because of two variables
but the fermat theorem i will later learn in book
i need another hint how to do this task
powers of 5 are small enough that you can argue with fermat without actually "using" fermat
i.e. you could just calculate them
not sure if there is a proof which doesn't in some form use that m^4=1 mod 5
Did you mean that i need somehow to use that m=5k and n=5k?
to prove that it is divisible by 5?
well how did you prove this one
m(m+1)(m-1)(m^2+1)
three consecutive integers will always be divisible by 6
for (m^2+1) i just added (m-2)(m+2)
to add five consecutive integers and it will always be a divisible by 5
added?
but ok yeah I guess this doesn't use m^4=1 mod 5 I think. maybe hidden somewhere
yeah so what you meant to say is that you expanded m^2+1=(m-2)(m+2) mod 5
anyway not important
because i got on the final m(m-1)(m+1)(m-2)(m+2) + 5m(m-1)(m+1)
and it will be always divisible by 5
my book did it on different way
let m=5k
5k,5k+1,5k-1 then m, m-1,m+1 is divisible by 5
if m=5k+2 or m=5k-2
then m^2+1= (5k +- 2)^2+1=5(5k^2+-4k+1)
+- is plus minus im still learning discord
essentially a bunch of casework. well you could also do that casework for your other problem
but well quite a bit more cases
i got confused on above problem because of two variables
use m^2+n^2=(m-2n)(m+2n) mod 5
how that can be equal?
(m-2n)(m+2n)=m^2-4n^2=m^2+n^2-5n^2
did you forgotten to add +5n^2?
forget? wdym
-4n^2=n^2-5n^2. I just wrote it in a more convenient form. and 5n^2 is always divisible by 5
yes but m^2+n^2=(m+2n)(m-2n)=(m^2+n^2-5n^2)
in the last equation it will not be equal to m^2+n^2 if you don't add +5n^2?
that's why I said mod 5. Do you know what mod 5 is?
no. a=b mod 5 means that a and b have the same remainder when you divide them by 5. equivalently, a-b is divisible by 5
so here we have m^2+n^2=(m+2n)(m-2n) mod 5 because m^2+n^2-(m+2n)(m-2n)=5n^2 is divisible by 5
no need to apologize
Suppose I have $a^b = 3 \mod 4$ where a is prime, I need to show $a = 3 \mod 4$.
Scerball
Does anyone have a hint?
It's easy to show $a \neq 2$ and $b \neq 0$ but where do I go from there?
Scerball
What are the possibilities for a mod 4
if a=0, 1, 2 mod 4, then what is a^b mod 4?
Well, you’ve done the first step, which is to show that a is not 2, but then a is either of the form 4k+1, or 4k+3. If it’s 4k+1, then a=1 mod 4, and therefore a^b=1 mod 4 for any b. So the only way a^b to be 3 mod 4 is to have a=4k+3 and b=2m+1