#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 83 of 1
let x = ay; then ay^2 + a = 185, ie. a(y^2 + 1) = 185 and it's brute force
you expanded it wrong
fermat's little theorem basically makes the exponent mod p-1 which is where the 127-1 = 126 is coming from
Ryam
Does anyone mind giving me a hint on what to do here? I've been staring at this for more than an hour without any good ideas on how to tackle this.
try writing a=b+cn and see if you can manipulate 2^a - 1 into 2^b - 1 mod 2^c-1
keep in mind 2^c = 1 mod 2^c - 1 is really handy
also assume when I write 'mod' I'm applying it to both sides of the equation not just the term on the right side, just looks cleaner to write that way
@green hinge
Thanks. I will see if that will work. @torn escarp
let me know if you can't solve it in the next 20 min or so
Merosity
But that doesn't make sense. For example, 2^6 mod (2^5) - 1 is 2. @torn escarp
Oh wait.
you're adding an extra power of 2 in there, but there isn't in what I'm writing
I see my error. Sorry about that.
cool lol
Mm. I am honestly still not sure what to do.
Oh, wait. It finally clicked.
I'm good now.
@torn escarp Thanks for your help.
you're welcome
you make any progress on your problem
hello, consider the integer tuple solutions (x_1, x_2, .. x_n) of the equation sum(a_i * x_i) = k where gcd(a_i) = 1 and k is an integer. i wanted to know how flexible the solutions are. more particularly, is there a solution satisfying x_i <= x_i+1 for all valid i ? is there some resource i can refer to for this?
Trying to prove that if 7|n but 7^2 doesn’t divide n, then n can’t be written as sum of two squares
I know it’s true just by criteria of sum of two squares on Wikipedia but not sure how to show its true
Any suggestions?
how can i prove that for pythagorean triple (a,b,c), c isnt divisible by any prime 3mod4?
consider a^2 + b^2 mod 4
@winged surge Yeah look up Bezout's identity, the key thing is between any two pairs of numbers is you can solve a_i x_i + a_j x_j = 0 and then you can simply add or subtract multiples of this without affecting the solution to get the order on the x_i that you want
didnt even consider simple thing. think i got it, thanks
start by supposing x^2+y^2=0 mod 7, then try to solve for y in terms of x we can subtract x^2 from both sides to get y^2=-x^2 mod 7. If either x or y is 0 mod 7, then so must the other, but that gives us a contradiction and would make divisible by 7^2. So it must be that neither is divisible by 7. Let's divide by x^2 to get (y/x)^2=-1 mod 7. But if we try to solve z^2=-1 mod 7 but there's no element that squares to make -1 mod 7. So there are no solutions.
Not sure if I could’ve got thst myself but does make sense looking at it. Appreciate it
yeah takes a bit of time playing around, like just assume it's true and see the consequences, you're welcome
Find a perfect number that is divisible by 6 and has exactly 6 factors.
6k = 1 * 2 * 3 * x * y * z
What now?
that's not what 6 factors looks like
for instance 4 has 3 factors, 1, 2 and 4 but we can't write 4 = 1 * 2 * 4
ohhh nice idea! thanks a lot, ill think about it.
even perfect numbers are of a very particular form involving a mersenne prime $2^p -1 $ and are exactly $n=2^{p-1}(2^p-1)$
Meroseous
cool 👍
fortunately the number of divisors function is multiplicative, so $$\tau(2^{p-1}(2^p-1)) = \tau(2^{p-1})\tau(2^p-1) = (p-1 + 1)* (1+1) = p*2$$
Meroseous
because we know this is 6, it forces p*2=6 so p=3
hopefully that is not too unfamiliar @quartz needle
for p = 3, its 4*7 = 28 which is not divisible by 6
what's that odd letter
tau?
here tau(x) represents number of distinct factors of x
how does this follow
true, there is no perfect number that satisfies this
6 is the only perfect number divisible by 6 but only has 4 divisors, 1, 2, 3, 6
f being multiplicative means f(ab)=f(a)f(b) when gcd(a,b)=1
the number of divisors of a prime power p^k is k+1
they're 1, p, p^2, ..., p^k
just correct here I don't wanna scroll up to an edit
Find a perfect number that is divisible by 4 and has exactly 6 factors.
cool, so we're good then
brb
well that's trivial
hello
can anyone prove this
thanks
is there a video proof
a detailed proof is quite involved
i.e. it takes a while
you will find it in any introduction to analytic NT book, for example apostol's
(chapter 13 deals with this, but you need many tools)
vielen danke
thank you
What formulas guarentee prime numbers. Doesnt have to generate all, just that is never generates composites.
Besides mills formula
f(x) = 2
oh yeah check this out, 100% better:
f(n)=4+(-1)^n
Nah fams, I have one and it is even bijective.
f(n) = the nth prime
Meroseous
so $\tau(p^aq^b)=\tau(p^a)\tau(q^b) = (a+1)(b+1)$
Meroseous
it has only divisors 1 and p
you put p+1
that's false
p^n has divisors 1, p, p^2, ..., p^n so it has n+1 divisors
you can make a table and fill it in if that helps to see
put powers of p and powers of q along both sides
and then make all the combinations inside
huh
ok pick n=1
your formula says t(p)=p+1
that's totally wrong
p can't have p+1 divisors
2 has 3 divisors?
no
lol
whatever
definitely
lmfao
I'm not gonna steal 5 euros from a child

Y'all are funny
im trying to for all int m>=3, (m^2 - 1) is not prime. i know if n = rs is not prime then 1 < r < n and 1 < s < n. using that template i have (m^2 - 1) = (m-1)(m+1) and since m>=3 i know (m-1)>=2 and (m+1)>=4 so i have both of those things being >1 but how do i prove (m-1) < m^2 - 1 and (m+1) < m^2 -1 ?
if p is a positive prime and p = rs, then either (r = p and s = 1) or (r = 1 and s = p)
if p = m^2 - 1 = (m - 1)(m + 1) is prime, apply the above to solve your problem
in this case i want to show m^2 - 1 is not prime
and i have (m-1) > 1 and (m+1) > 1
i want to show (m-1) < m^2 - 1
and (m+1) < m^2 - 1
question is: how to do that
this result fully characterizes when m^2 - 1 is prime, which will be if and only if m = 2
showing this does nothing for you tho. and this is just true in general. for positive integers n and m, n <= nm and m <= nm
ok i see
i don’t see how it helps you prove that m^2 - 1 is not prime
so since m^2 - 1 a product of two integers in the form of 1 < m-1 and 1 < m+1 then m^2 - 1 is composite?
since m-1 < m^2 -1
and m+1 < m^2 - 1
?
yea that works. you don’t need the last two inequalities
thanks
well i’m still a little confused
i want to say
m^2 - 1 = (m-1)(m+1)
and since
m>=3
we know
1 < m-1
1 < m+1
now i need to finish it off saying
m-1 < m^2 -1
m+1 < m^2 - 1
somehow
how do i justify that
why are you so concerned with the last two inequalities?
because n = rs is compsoite if 1 < r < n and 1 < s < n
so i want to justify that in this proof that r < n and s < n where n = m^2 - 1
and r=m-1 and s=m+1
it’s from here. equality holds iff m = 1 or n = 1
ah i see, so we have 2 <= m-1 and 4 <= m+1 so neither m-1 or m+1 is equal to 1 therefore m-1 nor m+1 can be equal to m^2-1
but how do i know they are strictly less than m^2 - 1
yes. if you want it more directly,
1 < m - 1 so multiply by m + 1 on both sides
same with 1 < m + 1. multiply by m - 1 on both sides
remind me, what axiom are we using to say the sign of the inequality doesn't flip if i do these multiplications?
it’s a direct consequence of the way you define the usual order relation on the positive (or non-negative) natural numbers
1 < a and 1 < b, then b * 1 < b * a
so i get my m-1 < m^2 - 1
and m+1 < m^2-1
via your method
thus getting what i wanted!
cool
ty for your help
For gcd(x,y)=1 does x or y have to be prime
Is there some family of groups that have order $\binom{n}{k}$? I'm working on a problem for finding which primes divide a binomial coeffecient, and I think it might be useful to look for a group of size $\binom{n}{k}$ and look at it's subgroups.
deadpan2297
uhh idk where intro to group theory goes but could someone help me with this problem?
which part?
all tbh but i’m sure if you help me with one the rest will be easier
this is linear algebra right?
anyway, for 1. try showing that for two functions f and g in F and for any scalar c in R, that phi(cf + g) = c*phi(f) + phi(g) (this should be really easy, just apply rules of derivatives). once you do that, then you've shown that its a linear map. just some leads, this map will be surjective but not injective. can you think of why?
it’s for intro to group theory class
not injective bc there’s not one unique y for each x? since like the derivatives of constants are all 0
right, the right idea
wording is poor
it should be there is not a unique x for each y. if there were not a unique y for each x then phi wouldnt even be a function (thats like saying phi(f) = g and phi(f) = -g)
how to prove that S and T are isomorphic with only the cayley tables?
once you figure out what the identity is, there are only 2 possible bijections to check
anyone looked into reappearances of subset fibonacci numbers in subsequent parts of the fibonacci series?
i don't know why but this feels like it fits perfectly at the front of subsequent sets in the series.
1x10 for each successive row down the line
maybe im just forcing something here but it feels like something is there
i don't understand
1 isn't a congruent number (that is to say an area of a right rectangle)
but a right rectangle which sides are 1 and 2 has an area of (1*2)/2, so ONE !!!
Erklären Sie mir bitte
the third side of that triangle has length sqrt(5)
ah ok thx
i have an issue, what does the inf mean here
just the minimum value of f(x)-g(x)?
<@&286206848099549185>
$\is (n^2+3n+1)^2-1$\ is divisible by 24
Could anyone help me prove this. I know that it is divisible by 24 if it is divisible by 3 and 8 but I am not sure what to do next?
Factor out?
apply the formula?
Epifor
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Epifor
Yes
Epifor
Then?...
I guess multiply it out?
Epifor
oh wait
Not really
Yes
Epifor
Campanha
It is pretty straightforward
but if a number is divisible by 4 it doesnt neccessarily have to be divisible by 8
You can break into cases, say n = 2k, n = 2k + 1, then either k is even or odd
For each case
The last part isn't necessary at all
Just break in n even, n odd
Sorry but I am not getting it. We express n as either an odd or even number, and what do I do with that?
maybe like
you mean like 4k^2
and if 4 is a factor of k^2 and multiplies all of them
nvm
Suppose n is even, say n = 2k, for an integer k. Then n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3) = 4k(k+1)(2k+1)(2k+3), but k and (k+1) are consecutive integers, so 2 divides k(k+1). So, 8 divides n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)
The case for an odd n is analogous
ah so since k and k+1 are consecutive, one of them is divisible by 2 and since we have 4k, it must be divisible by 4*2 = 8?
Yes
what about the case for n = 2k+1
What does analogous mean?
Means it goes by the same way
It doesn't change because there are 4 consecutive integers
If n is even, then 2 are even and 2 are odd. If n is odd, then 2 are even and 2 are odd
The parity is invariant
You don't even need to split into two cases (even and odd), because of this fact
yes but for odd, it doesn't always have to mean that it will be divisible by 8 or 4
$(4k+1)(k+2)(k+3)(k+4)$
Epifor
Campanha
yw
\subsection*{(a) If $\gcd(a,b)=1$, then $\gcd(a^n,b^n)=1$}
Assume $\gcd(a^n,b^n) \neq 1$, then $\gcd(a^n,b^n) > 1$. If $\gcd(a^n,b^n) > 1$ then there exists some prime $p>1$ such that $p\vert a^n$ and $p\vert b^n$. If this is the case, then it must also be true that $p\vert a$ and $p\vert b$. However, this contradicts the fact that $\gcd(a,b)=1$. Therefore, $\gcd(a^n,b^n)=1$.
-vertex
\subsection*{(b) The relation $a^n\vert b^n$ implies that $a\vert b$}
Let $d=\gcd(a,b)$, then $d\vert a$ and $d\vert b$. Therefore, there exists some integers $r,s$ such that $a=dr$, $b=ds$. Furthermore, there exists some integers $x,y$ such that $d=drx+dsy \implies rx+sy=1 \implies \gcd(r,s)=1$. Hence, by the previous result $\gcd(a^n,b^n)=1$.
-vertex
do these look okay?
$a^n\vert b^n \implies d^nr^n\vert d^ns^n \implies r^n\vert s^n$. Since $r^n\vert s^n$, and $\gcd(r^n,s^n)=1$, $r^n=1$, $r=1$.\
\
Therefore, $a=d$, so $a=\gcd(a,b) \implies a\vert b$.
-vertex
oops, missed end of second proof when pasting
last sentence of the first part of (b) should say $\gcd(r^n,s^n)=1$
-vertex
any hints?
what have you tried?
I have tried putting a as in like 2k and square rooting it but nothing
and setting 3^a + 63 = 72k
i also observed that 63 can be 64 - 1 which can be difference of squares
dats about it
look at the equation modulo 72
notice that 63 = -9 mod 72
then try to work with a=2k
Lochverstärker
then do the "obvious" thing from there
alternatively ||induction on a probably works in the original statement||
I know what mod is just like isnt it trivial, as in you can represent it in other ways
how though
it doesnt make sense that 3^2k + 63 / 72 = 3^2k-9
that is not how mod works
63 is congruent to -9 mod 72 as their different is divisible by 72
isnt like the first number the X second the residue and third Y for X/Y
$a\equiv b \pmod{n} \iff n\mid (a-b)$
Lochverstärker
ah yeah a-b
and well, then a number is divisible by n iff it is congruent to 0 mod n
I need to brush up on mods
so like if 63 is congruent to -9 and if we add any number to both sides
its the same
oke
sure but like
3^(2k) = 9^k
and 9 - 9 = 0
so you want 9^k to be congruent to 9 mod 72 for every k
most of the time you just want to write down a congruence and change numbers by adding or subtracting the modulus (in this case 72)
e.g. 63 - 72 = -9, so they are congruent
and -9 is kinda simpler, and its easy to notice that 3^(2k) = 9^k, so that is what i did here
anyways, review the mod relation and what "substitutions" are legal
I see, thanks
Hello. I hope this is not an advanced topic. Can someone brief me up about Riemann's hypothesis?
Or recommend me a YouTube video or article?
Please ping. Thank you.
it's about locating zeros (roots) of a complex valued function (or the analytic continuation thereof), the riemann zeta function
without a decent background in complex analysis, it's not really possible to explain what even the riemann zeta function is
if you want a good introduction for laypeople, i can recommend this video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sZhl6PyTflw
it's german, but there are english subtitles @sacred junco
alternatively there is https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sD0NjbwqlYw for pretty pictures
Das wohl wichtigste ungelöste Problem der Mathematik.
KORREKTUREN: http://weitz.de/corr/sZhl6PyTflw
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Das NEUE Buch: http://weitz.de/PP/
-
Weihnachtsvideo 2020: http://weitz.de/y/ewePLstlRcA/gVIEV0NDrdc?list=PLb0zKSynM2PAuxxtMK1bxYPV_bUoPtpTB
-
Weihnachtsvorlesung 2019 (mehrere Teile) ab hier: http://weitz.de/y/gVIEV0NDrdc?list=PLb0zKSynM2PAu...
Unraveling the enigmatic function behind the Riemann hypothesis
Help fund future projects: https://www.patreon.com/3blue1brown
An equally valuable form of support is to simply share some of the videos.
Special thanks to these supporters: http://3b1b.co/zeta-thanks
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Posters/shirts for this visualization at h...
how does this happen
n+4 | 3n-2
n+4 | 3*(n+4)
Are you supposed to find which numbers satisfy n+4 | 3n-2?
The first and second statement aren't related, the second one is always true since n+4 must divide 3*(n+4) and can be used to help you find the solutions to the first one. But without much context I can't know
$2^2 + 4^4 + 6^6....50^{50}$
Prove that this is not a perfect square
Epifor
I have tried turning them into same factors or like grouping
but no relevance
Maybe mod 3, but not sure how to get it to that
Mod 3 is the answer
All squares are either congruent to 1 or congruent to 0 modulo 3. Try reducing this expression modulo 3, you'll see something...
is it not modulo 4 ???
The square of an integer is congruent to either 0 or 1 both modulo 4 and modulo 3
This question can be solved reducing the expression modulo 3
I'm not sure if this is the right channel
but
I've heard that in some fields of maths people sometimes define 0^0 to be 1
where and why do they do that?
Show that if p is a prime number greater than 3, p^2 -1 is divisible by 24.
So far I have only determined that (p-1)(p+1) is a product of two even numbers, and thus is divisible by 2
It also has to be divisible by 3, because p/3 must give the remainder of 1 or 2, so (p^2 - 1)/3 doesn't have a remainder
@scarlet geode what do you think?
this is enough?
yeah, but i'd have to prove that it's divisible by 2^2 too
so far I have only proven 2, 3, and 6
You need to prove it's divisible by 8 actually
don't i have to prove it for all prime factors?
sqrt(8k + 1) = p
You proved it for 3
The other prime factor power is 8
If you show it's divisible by 3 and 8
Then it's divisible by 24
ik
dunno how to prove it
oh
it's a product of two even numbers
so it must be divisible by 8
thanks
Zero to the power of zero, denoted by 00, is a mathematical expression with no agreed-upon value. The most common possibilities are 1 or leaving the expression undefined, with justifications existing for each, depending on context.
In algebra and combinatorics, the generally agreed upon value is 00 = 1, whereas in mathematical analysis, the expr...
Find a perfect number divisible by 4 that has 6 divisors
x = 1 + 2 + 4 + a + b + c
What now?
why do you believe this exists
it's a problem
so it clearly does
Find all the natural numbers that satisfy the equation 2y^2 + xy - x^2 = 35
oh, wait
no i thought this was the same question you'd posted before
just check all the perfect numbers
how am I supposed to do this
start from the smallest one and work upwards
are you suggesting that i check if the divisors of each number add up to it?
that defeats the point of the exercise, no?
it's in a preparatory material for the highschool graduation exam, and it is stated that it has been used as an entrance exam to some school
i think it just wants you to know what a perfect number is, ig?
it's a third exercise regarding perfect numbers
well then it seems pointless
0^0 = 1 is correct when you want to study objects via functions on them
we write A^B for the set of functions from B to A (think of ordering B some way and assigning an element of A to every element of B thus generating a |B|-tuple in A)
when using ZFC to model mathematics, we define the natural number n as a certain set of cardinality n, it follows that there are |n^m| many functions m -> n
now there is only one possible choice to model 0 as a set this way, namely as the empty set since this is the only set of cardinality 0 and since there is precisely one funtion from the empty set to itself (namely the empty function) it follows that 0^0 = 1
turns out this pov is "correct" in anything not analysis and often lets you extend theorems in e.g. combinatorics to weird edge cases
@sage fern you've said that the other one is better, but I still don't know how to solve it
just look at the list of perfect numbers
I mean
Find all the natural numbers that satisfy the equation 2y^2 + xy - x^2 = 35
nothing
there is no list of all perfect numbers 🤔
well, i suppose i have to facotrize it in some way
list of the first few, whatever
i have no idea how to facotrize it, though
ok
so reading the question we see that it says 'natural numbers'
and the LHS does look hard to factorise
so this suggests to me that factorisation might not be sufficient, at least by itself
for whole-number equations, looking at mods is usually a good idea
prove it
could you elaborate
modular arithmetic? no?
yeah i know it, but i'm not sure how would i use it to solve this exercise
try something
i mean i don't know whether this will work either, i haven't solved it
but it seems like a likely general direction
i'm not sure how would i go about doing so
btw here's another problem
show that for all natural numbers n, n^5 - n is divisible by 30
i got to
n(n-1)(n+1)(n^2+1)
so it has to be divisible by 3 and 2 (since it's divisible by 3 consecutive numbers)
but I still have to prove it for 5, and I'm not sure how would I go about doing so
bruh
you'll never solve anything difficult if you hop from problem to problem like this
to practice solving difficult things
looking at mod will not work (at least not without super heavy machinery)
you can mostly use it to show no solutions exist as solutions in Z give you solution in Z/n for free
but this equation has solutions in Z/n for all n, so you cannot rule out solutions in Z easily
i might get an idea after finishing another one
that's a good idea when in an exam, but not when practicing
it's worth trying a little longer
20min isn't enough?
ehhh
ngl i wouldn't say you've actually been trying for 20 mins
i mean you've been on here
well, you've been on here, too, and are better than me at math, so that shows my choice was the right one
well, i don't know how would i go about solving it, because I have never seen a problem like this
I mean
I would have to factorize it to something like (a-2)(b+3) = 5
that I can solve
but since idk how to factorize it, and don't have any other ideas, I'm stuck
?
ok so
it'll factorise into something of the form
(ax+by)(cx+dy)
or really just
(x+ay)(bx+cy) WLOG
is there some trick to factorization
or do you just stare at a problem for long enough
well you can try and find brackets of a form that will give something like what you have
for example this
yeah
well i just thought
'what will you need to multiply together to get x^2, xy and y^2'
x by x, x by y and y by y
so it'll be like this
ok, i got that
a = b = c = -1
so
(x+ay)(bx+cy) = (x-y)(-x-y) || *-1
(x-y)(x+y) = x^2 - y^2
x^2 - y^2 = 35
x^2 - y^2 + 35 = 0
and idk what to do
that's not how you factorise it
ay * bx = xy, so a = b
no
x * bx = -x, so b = -1
ay * bx = ab(xy)
what
well, i looked at your form and looked at the original equation
and tried to figure out the coefficients this way
since i didn't know what else to do
after you edited it, that's right
so ab(xy) = xy
therefore ab = 1
not a = b
just because x^2, xy and y^2 are whole numbers doesn't mean the quadratic has to factorise with whole numbers
consider x^2 - 2 = 0
(x - sqrt2)(x + sqrt2) = 0
i was just going off what you have said before
you didn't go off it rigorously
well
keep going
ab(xy) = xy
no
you worked out that ab(xy) = xy, so ab = 1
keep going
do the same for x^2 and y^2
their coefficients
becaus ethen you have x * bx = -x^2, so b = -1
ok
but since you don't know that a = c, you can't figure out ay * cy
ok so
you have:
b(x^2) = -x^2, ie. b = -1
ab(xy) = xy, ie. ab = 1
ac(y^2) = 2y^2, ie. ac = 2
that's sufficient
oh
well
b = -1
and from
ab = 1
ac = 2
we know that b = 1/2 c
so c = -2
(x+ay)(bx+cy)
(x-y)(-x-2y) = 35
(x-y)(x+2y) = -35
no
?
-1
yeah so
why is there no - in your brackets
where a should be
yeah
(x-y)(x+2y) = -35
(y-x)(x+2y) = 35
just to make things easier
and now it's just some brute force
how
factors!
oh
that
35 = 7 * 5
(y-x)(x+2y) = 35
(y-x) = 7
(y-x) = -7
(x+2y) = 5
(x+2y) = -5
(y-x) = -5
(y-x) = 5
(x+2y) = -7
(x+2y) = 7
almost
firstly you can quickly rule out some of these options since x and y are natural numbers, so they are non-negative
also 35 = 1 * 35
wdym
(x+2y) = -7
this is impossible
35 * 1 = 7 * 5
(y-x)(x+2y) = 35
(y-x) = 7
(x+2y) = 5
3y = 12
y = 4
x= -3
FALSE
(y-x) = 5
(x+2y) = 7
re
(y-x) = 35
x+2y = 1
3y = 36
y = 12
x = -23
FALSE
(y-x) = 1
(x+2y) = 35
re
???
@sage fern
yes
isn't it incorrect
why
there exist number for which this is correct
according to my solution there don't exist any
what does re mean
the same as before
(y-x) = 1
(x+2y) = 35
what's wrong with this
ok
and as shown above, it doens't work
why not
cause it would mean that x is negative
no
if:
(y-x) = 35
x+2y = 1
x is negative
_ _
if:
(y-x) = 1
x+2y = 35
this is a different set of equations entirely
with different solutions
(y-x) = 35
x+2y = 1
(y-x) + (x+2y) = 35 + 1
3y = 36
y = 12
12 - x = 35
x = -23
(y-x) = 1
x+2y = 35
(y-x) + (x+2y) = 1 + 35
3y = 36
y = 12
12 - x = 1
x = 11
so one solution is (11, 12)
yes
yes it is
according to the book from which this question comes from, the solutions are
(x,y): (1,4), (3,4), (23, 12)
since we have had 4 systems of equations to solve, and one is incorrect, all are
wait
hm
2y^2 + xy - x^2 = 35
(2y - x)(x+y) = 35
2y - x = 1, x + y = 35
3y = 35, y = 12
x + y = 35
x = 23
right so you screwed it up
ah you factorised wrong
2y^2 + xy - x^2 != (2y - x)(x+y) = 2xy + 2y^2 -x^2 - xy
didn't notice bc it looked similar
2y^2 + xy - x^2 = (2y - x)(x+y) = 2xy + 2y^2 -x^2 - xy
thanks for help, anyways
i'm tired of this problem, though
show that for all natural numbers n, n^5 - n is divisible by 30
i got to
n(n-1)(n+1)(n^2+1)
so it has to be divisible by 3 and 2 (since it's divisible by 3 consecutive numbers)
but I still have to prove it for 5, and I'm not sure how would I go about doing so
<@&286206848099549185>
prove that if (a^2 + b^2)(c^2 + d^2) = (ac+bd)^2, then ad = bc
a^2 * c^2 + a^2 * d ^2 + b^2 * c^2 + b^2 * d ^2 = a^2 * c^2 + 2abcd + b^2 * d^2
so
a^2 * d^2 + b^2 * c^2 = 2abcd
no idea what to do now
show that if x^2 * y^2 + z^2 = 2xyz then z = xy
no idea what to do here
isn't the first line direct statement of cauchy schwartz inequality?
don't know it
and this is direct application of AM GM inequality
don't know it either
neither of these is required, anyways
the knowledge of them
i mean yeah this becomes a perfect square so
so either you are supposed to figure it out by yourself without having any knowledge of cauchy schwartz or am-gm, or there's some other method
see for this problem
we can re write it as (xy)^2 + z^2 - 2xyz=0
which is same as (xy-z)^2=0
number theory is all about approaches so don't worry just keep this in your catalogue
this is also similar to the above problem
by rearranging you can write (ad-bc)^2=0 and so
BTW you can read about AM GM ineq and Cauchy swartz ineq, they are simple and very powerful
happy to help mate👍
as for
show that if a + b = 1 and a^2 + b^2 = 7, then a^4 + b^4 = 31
i just solve this by calculating b^2, substituting it in, solving the quadratic, then substitutitng it again to solve for b, and then squaring both, right?
or is there any other method?
yeah, i'm aware of their usefulness, but haven't had the chance to learn them yet
a friend of mine recommended me this book called cauchy schwartz master class but apparently it uses calculus
so rip
i think this would require Binomial theorem
are you aware of it?
i recall learning it, but don't remember it anymore
i don't think combinatorics is required here, though
like, wouldn't my method work?
no not combinatorics i just need binomial theorem for expansion of (a+b)^4
yeah it definitely is correct
it is just that sometimes extraneous roots creep in when we form quadratic equations so we have to be careful of that
what do you mean by extraneous roots?
ummm
let me think of an example to explain it just a moment
say we want to solve x=sqrt(x+2)
so we would probably square, rearrange and write x^2-x-2=0
and we get x=2,-1
but x should be positive because square root is always positive (since x= sqrt(x+2) so x must be greater than zero)
so x=-1 is called an extraneous root
got it
happy to help 😀
thanks
wdym? there are many people who have sqrt to be + or -
In such a case -1 would be a solution because:
x=sqrt(x+2)
x substitute for -1 (the supposed "extranious" root)
-1 = sqrt(-1+2)
-1 = sqrt(1)
and since the sqrt of 1 is plus or minus 1, the equation is true, because it is telling us it is equal to -1
square root, by convention is always non negative that is zero or positive
square root of 1 is +1 ONLY
but x^2=1 means x can be +1 or -1
square root is the inverse of squaring, and since there are always 2 numbers (positive and negative) that square to a positive, the square root must be plus or minus
It does not matter what we do by convention, it is plus or minus anyways.
using "convention" is like prioritizing an answer, that is bias in maths which we can't have
this "prioritizing" is done frequently to turn sqrt into a function
one then distinguishes between the square root and solutions to some quadratic equation
if you dont do that notation like $\sqrt{x}$ doesnt really work, since it wouldnt be well defined
Lochverstärker
why would anybody want to force sqrt to be a function
actually, that wouldnt even be sqrt anymore
sqrt is a multifunction, and there is no reason for one to turn it to a function, besides hiding answers to quadratics or higher
as a matter of fact, it is not only sqrt that is a multifunction, all roots have multiple outputs for 1 input
As for a good definition
a definition for sqrt is "find a number that multiplies by itself to give you the number under the root"
and since there are always + and - varients, it will always have 2 outputs
it is simply a consequence of the definition, that is not quite like other previous operations but it is simply something new that we dont like to experience

square root is not multi functioned
for example plot y=sqrt(x) and y^2=x on desmos
square root is always positive and that is a convetion and this convention is utilised in framing some really good problems at competitive maths at school level
though yeah maths is not about problem solving only but i've been under this arena for quite some time this is what is going on so.........
Bruh, desmos arbituarily defines it to be positive
anyways, if it was a function, it would no longer be in inverse to squaring
btw, why the hell are we talking about square roots only
this applies to any root besides 0 and 1
and -1
even some super roots are multifunctions
show that for all natural numbers n, n^5 - n is divisible by 30
i got to
n(n-1)(n+1)(n^2+1)
so it has to be divisible by 3 and 2 (since it's divisible by 3 consecutive numbers)
but I still have to prove it for 5, and I'm not sure how would I go about doing so
just hit it with modular arithmetic
it's trivial for n = 5k-1, 5k, 5k+1
so consider what happens for 5k+2, 5k-2
not even modular arithmetic
just... case-checking
and factorisation
k ty
(n-1)n(n+1) is always divisible by 6 you should just see if the expression is always divisible by 5
didn't write it because it's irrelevant, only 3, 5, and 2 matter
yeah you can also just look at it mod 5 and check all cases, but its also not very nice
overall this is a finite problem and you can just check all cases
the "nicer" way is observing that n^5 - n = (n−2)(n−1)n(n+1)(n+2)+5n(n^2−1)
so its the sum of two numbers that are both divisible by 5
i think it really can't get shorter than that
nice job on that one👍👍
meh, that's hard to see imo
to prove that k in N is composite => 2^k - 1 is composite, can't you just say that 2^k - 1 = 1+2+...+2^(k-1) <=> 2^k = 2*( 1+2+...+2^(k-2)). but this expression is only non-composite if (1+2+...+2^(k-2)) is 1, which is true iff k = 2. but since k is composite, we have that k is not equal to 2, hence 2^k -1 must be composite?
that works
ok thanks
calculate all natural numbers a and b for which the following equality holds a^2 - b^2 = 24
a^2 - b^2 - 24 = 0
and i'm stuck
(a-b)(a+b)=24
now factor 24 into two parts
like 2x12, 3x8, 4x6 etc
and compare
like for example set a-b=2 and a+b=12 so on and just remember a and b are natural numbers
thanks
ngl you shoulda been able to get that from when we did that other factorisation one
yeah ik but i was being lazy with solving these questions ofr a long time
i was supposed to have been done with all that i wanted to do by the end of sept
i know sry
Hi everyone. I have a homework question which I don't know how to start. It states: "Find a nonzero rational polynomial P(T) that has sqrt(5) + cbrt(7) cube root of 7 as a root". Any advice would help as I have no idea where I should start
I have discovered that Wolfram Alpha gives this polynomial, but I have no idea how it got this answer. Advice always helpful. Thank you!
i think the procedure is like this:
rewrite it as x-sqrt(5)=croot(7)
then cube on both the sides to elliminate the cube root from seven
now on RHS still has some terms with sqrt(5) so bring them all to one side
and then square so now the whole equation becomes radicle free
and now just rearrange and you would get this polynomial
welcome👍
It worked. I really appreciate it @sacred junco . Thanks again for the help. The mistake that I made was in thinking that if I were to cube sqrt(5), I wouldn't get something simplifiable
Oo yeah that's a genuine one
anyways elementary number theory is all about approaches so you're all set now
I agree. Thanks again! Enjoy the rest of your morning/afternoon/evening
Thanks man( it's morning here). Same to you!
Show that for each k the number k(k+1)(k+9)(k² +1) is divisible by k.
By inspection it's clear that it's true for k 1,2,3,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10, but I'm not sure how to prove it generally
Because when you substitute k for any of the digits, either of the terms becomes diviisble by5
What?
Ok never mind that
What does it mean for a number to be divisible by k?
I’m gonna go now but this problem is very quick if you know what it means for a number to be divisible by k and apply that definition to the scary looking number in the question
x | n => n = kx
Oh in that sense
I tried to do it this diff way because I recall there being some problem of this type in which.it wasn't possible
Sorry for asking this question
Should have looked at it for a bit
marc
Does the set S only contain 1 integer because a,b and n are constants, so b - na should be 1 integer only?
Or is n changing since it is every number which when multiplied by a > b?
Is not m the smallest n here? Because the set consists of only b -na for different positive values of n, and m is the smallest of them?
yes
Can you tell me how?
m is the n that minimizes b - na
Interesting stuff.
you look at the number b - na here
m is the value which makes b - na the smallest positive integer in the set?
so the numbers b-a, b-2a, b-3a, ....
Yes.
and if you assume this is always positive, there must be a minimal element
Is this true?
Yes.
smallest positive integer, but yes
Cool!
So this is how m is related to n?
sure
no
Proof verification:
- Prove that a set S of n elements has precisely 2^n subsets.
Proof: Since the subsets are every combinations of the n elements, we get two choices while considering each element. We can either pick it or leave it. That's why there are 2^n possible subsets.
QED.
- Use question 1 to give a combinatorial proof of the formula:
${ 2^n = 1 + {n \choose 1} + {n \choose 2} + {n \choose 3} + ..... + {n \choose n} }$
Autumn
Proof: In the right side, 1 is the number of subsets with n elements, ${n \choose 1}$ is the number of subsets with 1 elements, ${n \choose 2}$ is the number of subsets with 2 elements.. in this way, we get the total number of subsets of a set S with n elements. From exercise 1, we know the total number of subsets is $2^n$ for S. Thus, the statement in the question is proved.
QED.
Autumn
Can anyone verify if the proofs are correct?
you double count the number of subsets with n elements this way
I can't figure out how
you said that $1$ is the number of subsets with $n$ elements, but the last summand is $\binom{n}{n}$ which is the number of subsets with $n$ elements as well
Lochverstärker
so you count those twice?
I saw that one too. The last one is the empty set
what
The empty set can be a subset of set S, and it's only 1
Has my language created confusion?
yes that is true, but its not what you said in the original post
if that is fixed, both proofs work
Okay thanks for seeing my proofs
I thought the proof would work even if I don't clarify that $n \choose n$ is the number of empty sets. I didn't specify the cases for $n \choose 3$, $n \choose 4$ etc., used dots to show they come next
Autumn
Or do I have to specify for the empty set too?
$\binom{n}{n}$ is the number of n element subsets by definition, so its weird to do it this way anyhow
Lochverstärker
actually you can just notice that $1 = \binom{n}{0}$...
Lochverstärker
so the sum is actually $\binom{n}{0} + \binom{n}{1} + \dots + \binom{n}{n}$
So (n 0) means the empty set?
Lochverstärker
it's the number of 0 element subset of a set with n elements
there is only one set with 0 elements, namely the empty set and it is a subset of every set
so \binom{n}{0} = 1
Alright, makes sense. It actually came to my mind before but I thought using n element set would be the same. I'm glad for being able to discuss, learned something new
does it make sense to talk about $a(\mod n)$ as $n \to \infty$?
gmod
probably not in the way you are thinking
then in what way?
as a sequence (of numbers) it will be pretty boring
you can instead consider the sequence $(a + 1\bZ, a + 2\bZ, \dots)$ which is an element of the profinite integers $\varprojlim_{n}\bZ/n\bZ$ and this is then an interesting object
Lochverstärker
oh so the sequence ${a (\mod n)}_{n \in \mathbb{N}$?
gmod
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I see, but what does the arrow under the limit represent?
tending to the front of the sequence?
0?
its an inverse limit, its a category theory meme
oh
its some subring of $\bZ/1\bZ \times \bZ/2\bZ \times \dots$
Lochverstärker
a subset that is also a ring
yeah
hey for somthing like this:
2a^2 = 4a^4 (mod m)
is it ok to divide by 2 on both sides as long as m is never 2?
What do you mean m is never 2?
You can divide by 2 if 2 and m are coprime which means 2 has a multiplicative inverse
But think of it as multiply on both sides by the multiplicative inverse of 2, rather than dividing
thats fair
yeah i meant if m is always odd my bad
i have the smallest exposure to finite rings so please remind me why them being coprime makes 2 have a multiplicative inverse?
and also maybe explain exactly how thats relevant?
@empty falcon the gcd of two integers a,b is the smallest positive d that you can write as d = ax + by for integers x and y
right
So a has an inverse x mod b iff ax = 1 mod b for some x iff ax - 1 = by for some x, y iff 1 = ax + by for some x,y iff a and b have a gcd of 1
ok that i dont as well understand
particularly the ax - 1 = by part
That's the definition of congruence
👍
so then how would you use this to find that very inverse
Do you know euclidean algorithm?
ive barely been exposed to it
You use that
It allows you to find the gcd of any two numbers using division
Then you can reverse the equations
To write the gcd as a linear combination of your numbers
ok
So when you have 1 = ax + by then x is the inverse of a mod b
could you give an example for the inverse of 2 mod 3
That's a bit easy lol
3 = 2(1) + 1
So 1 = 2(-1) + 3(1), then the inverse of 2 is -1 (which is the same as 2 mod 3), so 2 is its own inverse
wait how did you get 1 = 2(-1) + 3(1)
I subtracted 2(1) from both sides of the equation 3 = 2(1) + 1
Let's do inverse of 3 mod 35.
35 = 3(11) + 2
3 = 2(1) + 1
1 = 3 - 2 = 3 - (35 - 3(11)) = 3(12) + 35(1)
Then 12 is the inverse of 3 mod 35
Yes, if you don't get gcd = 1, there is no inverse
why might adding 1 to b and deviding by a not work tho
Huh?
It's a coincidence this works
Try finding the inverse of 9 mod 35
Oh nvm
Lol that works too 1 sec
Okay, for example
Inverse of 23 mod 35, won't work
This only works when you do 1 = ax + by, and y happens to be 1
how about adding up to what you need to
ummm
so like 23*2 = 46
thats like adding 11 then deviding
so it should be 2?
or no not at all
i see
What's the justification for doing this now? If you happen to add the right number then sure it will work lol
me seeing a pattern and seeing if it works lmfao
Euc Alg is best, or just trying all the options until you find the inverse lol
23 * 32 = 736 = 1 mod 35
can something have more than one inverse
No
I mean, there are infinitely many integers that work
But they are all congruent
surely the key factor is that they're not coprime
I didn't mean it doesn't have an inverse, but that his way of finding it won't work there
oh right
Ok another question
How would you go about proving that 1 is never congruent to 2a^2 mod 8k + 3
After some research I've found that this is the same question as "when is 2 a quadratic residue mod n"
It's a good thing I only care about n being prime
Because then I can use the result that 2 is only a quadratic residue mod p when p is +/-1 mod 8
So therefore my 8k + 3 is no problem if 8k + 3 is prime
no
c=b , d=a is a counterexample
set b=1
How to prove "The product of any n consecutive positive integers is divisible by the product of the first n positive integers" by using induction and the relationship $\binom{n}{r} = \binom{n-1}{r} + \binom{n-1}{r-1}$ ?
Autumn
I saw some inductive proofs, and I don't understand them.
If anyone knows how to prove it, can you share your proof?
I need some help with a variation of stars and bars:
I want to find how to generate those tuples.
or preferably, count how many there are
in other words, I'm struggling to find the number of k-tuples which sum to n where order does not matter, which I believe is just the number of tuples there in that example. Stars and bars takes the number of permutations of those tuples, if I understand correctly.
$$
x_1 + x_2 + \dots + x_k = n ;; where ;; 0 < x_1 \leq x_2 \leq \dots \leq x_k
$$
blorgon
It's not that easy, see: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partition_(number_theory)
see if this helps
marc
A brief description and guide on how to use me was sent to your DMs!
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gmod
what’s after tetration?
sweet
i was trying to figure out what like, H_5(3, 2) would be
oh lol
but yeah idk I feel like negative n values would probably just be inverses of their respective operation
that sounds reasonable
but I have no clue about non-Z values of n
penetrated 
bro ann💀
What is number theory
the theory that numbers exist
Dedekind cuts are elementary number theory confirmed \s
The study of properties of numbers
@wooden crater In your opinion, what is the difficulty level for this problem?
I'd like to hear others opinion too, if anyone is interested
I read a proof which uses the binomial coefficients are integers, but this one states using induction. I find this problem hard, perhaps I need to study more combinatorics
if math problems were hot sauce, mild
Properties of 666
In this video, I will discuss some really cool properties of the number 666. Usually seen as an evil number, it's actually pretty cool! See what 666 has to do with magic squares
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666 is a special number



happy halloween 
lol
Idk if this is the right channel but here goes
You know how we use a base 10 number system, could base 1/2 be a thing?
yes
What would it look like?
just take base 2 and send the last digit before the decimal point to the last digit before the decimal point
swap the second last digit before the decimal point with the first digit after the decimal point
swap the third last digit with the second digit after the point
and so on
1 in base 2 is 1 in base 0.5
10 in base 2 is 0.1 in base 0.5
etc.
yes
Thanks
What about irrational numbers or do they make no sense?
irrational numbers you would do the same thing, but it gets interesting
it's not even just irrational numbers
so say you have 1.010101...
this is 1 + 1/4 + 1/16 + ... = 4/3
but when you flip that into base 1/2, you get like.
...1010101
Yeah
so could you have base pi for example
i mean sure
it would be awful, but sure
have you heard of the golden ratio, phi
where phi = (1+sqrt5)/2
How would that work? Like use the approximation of pi or something else
Yeah I am aware of the golden ratio
ok so a lot of what ppl say about it popping irl is a bit rubbish
but if you have base phi it has quite nice properties
idk off the top of my head what they are i just remember it's nice
you would use the exact value of pi, but then you'd have to approximate all the other stuff
Did you read about it somewhere? If so I would like to look at that too
wikipedia i think lol
Which wiki page was it?