#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 79 of 1
if we show that infimum of (a+1)*sqrt(2)-(a+1)>0 then we know there exists a b that fulfils the inequality
d=2 says that this bound is in fact best possible without actually using information about the prime p. so I guess I'm also asking how information about p would even appear in the proof.
(For d=2, this is somewhat apparent, but less so d=20.)
I suppose depending on if p=1 or 3 mod 4
it would change things, cause you have sqrt -1
yeah, that's how it gets in for d=2. I don't have data for what d>2 does, but I am not totally convinced that (mod 4) information is sufficient
the answer is kind of complicated if I remember, I derived it a few months ago in more generality after watching the second lecture of the 'Quadratic forms and the local global-principle' here: https://www.math.arizona.edu/~swc/
it splits up into 4 cases
I'm about to head off to sleep but I'll look at it tomorrow and see if I can explain it in a less complicated way
thank you so much!
Hello everyone! Random question, not school related (been out of school for years, I was an accounting major). Was referred here to ask this question. Is there a name for the function that returns the sum of the prime products for n? IE, for n=6, f(n)=5 because the prime factors are 2 and 3 which sum to 5. I would be curious to read about this function.
Either “sum of prime factors” or “sopfr(n)” refers to that function
Thank you!
Thank you!
a ^ (1/n) and b ^ (1/n)
are both rational
because x is rational, and because they're relatively prime (so their factors will not interact with each other)
now only way each of those could be rational is if all of their prime factors' exponents are some k*n, for k, natural number
because the exponents must still be natural numbers after being divided by n
would it be possible to use a lemma that the if k'th root of a natural number is a rational number, then the k'th root is natural?
oh mb I read that wrong
let me read carefully lol
maybe I read it correctly 
Yes I think so @lyric geyser
my only concern here is that a/b and x aren't natural numbers, so i am not sure how to use that lemma
a, b are both natural
x is rational, thus there exists some p, q, such that x = p / q
p, q both being natural bc integers and > 0
yeah then we would have something like $\frac{p^n}{q^n} = \frac{a}{b}$
add
ye, then remember
a, b are relatively prime
and
p, q are relatively prime
so you get
p^n = a
and
q^n = b
how would i verify that a is only an n'th power of p and nothing else?
like proof by contradiction
bruncho chraa
thus
$q^n = \frac{b}{h}$
bruncho chraa
b, h are relatively prime
because h was a part of a which was relatively prime to b
so
h is either 1, or q^n is not a natural number
(q and n both given as natural, this cannot be)
Okay I also got it without contradiction
(different variables)
for relatively prime (a, b) and relatively prime (x, y), $\frac{a}{b} = \frac{x}{y} \iff y = \frac{xb}{a} \implies a = x$
bruncho chraa
this was from a contest which ended 2 days ago
#9 isn’t that bad
but #10 though
how do you even do it in less than 9 minutes
(a^3 + 4b)^3 = 256(a + b)
very cool
now what
a^3 + 4b has to be of the form 8k
a + b is then 2k^3
from here we know a and b are both even
so we can let a=2m, b = 2n where |m|, |n| <= 1010 and get:
512(m^3 + n)^3 = 512(m + n)
so
(m^3 + n)^3 = m + n
m^3 + n = cbrt(m + n) <= cbrt(2020) \approx 12.5
so |m| <= 10
now casework
now note that if (m, n) is a solution then so is (-m, -n)
here are the trivial solutions:
(0, 0)
(0, 1)
(0, -1)
(1, 0)
(-1, 0)
(1, -1)
(-1, 1)
(1, -2)
(-1, 2)
now aside from some of those ^^^ note that m and n can’t be the same sign
so assume m > 0 and n < 0
wait wtf
(m, -m^3 - m) is a solution to this
so for each |m| >= 2 there’s at least one solution there
but I think those are the only solutions because the answer is indeed 9 + 2(9) = 27
dang so basically you need to prove (m, -m^3 - m) is the only solution for |m| >= 2
and then you’re done
also I don’t see how you just observe this; I only figured it out after guessing and checking the first couple solutions
anyways it took me an hour and that was supposed to be a 9 minute question during the actual contest lol
Hey! So I've been really stuck on this one topic and I think I've been missing something. It would be really helpful if someone could explain/ outline the steps on how to do something like this:
$x^2= -1 mod 65$
pineapplewhale31
I know how to do this specific example, but when I try to apply it to other examples, I can't seem to be able to do it at all (pls ping)
bruncho chraa
and ofc we know 64 is 8^2
this is more difficult for something like
$x^2 \equiv -1 (mod 73)$
bruncho chraa
bruncho chraa

And it was at this point I believe we were told to just "keep trying numbers" until it worked out
I think the relatively effective way to do it was to go through multiples of 73, like 73, 146, 228, etc.
subtract one (this will now be congruent to -1 mod 73)
and then take the square root
for example
73 * 10 = 730
730 - 1 = 729
729^0.5 = 27
@warped helm
thank you @deft verge i just had my final in it, but I actually managed to figure it out just before the exam XD if you are interested, you don't have to trial and error it, you can split it into simultaneous congruences of the factors of 65 which makes things a lot easier to deal with
Can you show me that?
Is this ok, so far?
this isn't the approach I'd take since you have that 9 which you can't make out of multiples of 5
I'd think in terms of the euclidean algorithm
in particular I'd concentrate on solving 1=3a+5b, 0=3a+5b, and 8=3a+5b (the last two equations should be obvious to solve, the first you can solve with the euclidean algorithm or just guess by inspection)
then build up all integers >= 8 from these
now's probably a good time to learn then
Well ok ty
even if you wanted to do it your way, case 1 is done without any work 
to solve for x, you need to divide by 63
which you can do my multiplying by the inverse of 63
the inverse of 63 is a number that when multiplied by 63 will be congruent to 1 (mod 143)
this also happens to be x
You can use the Extended Euclidean algorithm to find this, if you talked about it in class
Is there a definition of "primitive" (with respect to polynomials) that doesn't actually require looking at the coefficients of the polynomial?
I kind of get the feeling that primitive doesn't "really" care about the exact coefficients but only the behavior of the polynomial because, say, f(x) is primitive if and only if f(x-a) is primitive for some shift a. However, I don't know how to codify this intuition.
I guess one thing to focus on is that both define the same extension field
No zero degree divisors other than 1? I don’t know if that is what you mean when you want a definition without coefficients.
oh hmm that makes sense
im trying to find which odd numbers can appear in primitive pythagorean triples
just by looking at a list of ppts i believe that all odds are able appear but i have no idea how to prove it
Is it possible to prove infinitude of primes using just the process of Sieve of Eratosthenes? I found one paper from Romeo Mestrovic from 2018 titled "Euclid's theorem on the infinitude of primes: a historical survey of its proofs (300 B.C.–2017)" which references to one online forum posting (page 10), that B. Joyal had proven IOP that way. Unfortunately the forum post can't be found anymore. (edit: wrong paper)
Pythagorean triplets cant have all odd numbers or one odd and two even. Is this what you are asking?
Might be what you're looking for.
Thanks @paper lion, I did find that also. The given answer uses the properties of density of periodic sets, and you don't need SoE at all. I was hoping the B. Joyal proof would indicate the infinitude arises from steps in Sieve, and not division properties of natural number, and thus extendable by modifying the Sieve beyond the divisibility rules.
I'm not very well-versed with the technical details here, but would look up for something in the morning. Let me know if you stumble across something!
Yes I did contact the author of the paper, if for some reason he has more information on the proof. Did not receive response yet, but I'll let you know if I find something.
Thankyou!
@urban peak oh you asked if all odd numbers can appear? As PT are form a = m^2 - n^2, b = 2mn, c = m^2 + n^2, where n,m are natural numbers, then setting n = m-1 => m^2 - (m-1)^2 = m^2 - m^2 + 2m*1 - 1^2 = 2m - 1, so all odd numbers do indeed appear
for $m, n$ relatively prime and $p, q$ relatively prime, and $m, n > 1$ and $p, q$ > 0 would it suffice to say that $m^q = n^p$ cannot occur because the prime factorization of $m$ and $n$ are different, so even after raising them to those powers they cannot be equal?
add
yeah
does that sound too handwavy? i feel like i could word it better
i am trying to prove that ln(m) /ln(n) is irrational with a contradiction
You can show this claim from contraposition: if m^q = n^p, then m and n should share a prime divisor after dissolving everything into prime factors
help
Sir, That's physics
Let N= 115737. Show using the Sieve of Eratosthenes how to find all prime numbers between 10N and 10N+100.
apply bezout's identity @mystic herald
Im try to show that the gcd(f_n,f_n+1) of fibonnaci sequence is always equal to 1
specifically, im trying to do so by induction
but, Im getting stuck on the induction step
and maybe im doing something wrong but it goes something like this: (sorry my work is messy)
can you show how you are getting stuck?
This is my work so far
Im basically using the notion that if m and n are coprime then af + bn = 1 for some a and b
or trying to, atleast
bezouts? i mean you would have to modify it a bit along those lines ig
you are probably better of using like, euclidean algo
like gcd(a,b) = gcd(a-b,b)
The thing is im not too comfortable with that yet
but i will
also, doesnt my reasoning lead to the opposite conclision?
1 + af_k can only = 1 if af_k = 0
well you need some a,b doesnt need to be the same for the two pairs
so like af_
af_k +b f_(k-1)= 1 implies a' f_(k+1) + b'f_k = 1
and u dont need a= a' or b=b'
my hint along this line would be to just combine the f_
f_k terms on ur inductive step
so you are asking wether there is a (a,b) such that a f_(k+1) +b f_k = 1? thats the same as asking wether af_{k-1}+ (a+b)f_{k} = 1 for some a,b
The reason i combined the terms like that is because we do know by the induction hypothesis that af_{k-1} + bf_k = 1 for some specific a and b
So i get that the a and b could be different when you increment, but if you take an a and b for a known case of a and b, specifically the a and b for k and k-1, then a brick wall seems to be hit
alright let me help you along
lets say $af_{k-1} +b f_k =1$ for some a,b. Now $a' f_{k+1} +b' f_k = 1\implies a' f_{k-1} +(a'+b')f_k =1$
JohnDS
so can you find a' and b' that works here
hi
can someone help me find how this is can be proved to be an ideal of R
like i got the addition part of it
im just confused about the second multiplication part i have to prove to show that its an ideal
Well, how is multiplication defined for your ring?
im geussing the product is just component wise multiplication
geussing
goosing
I'm gaussing most of the time
um to show that its an ideal of R i have to show that for some a,b belongs to R a-b belongs to I and that for some r belongs to R and a belongs to I, ra belongs to I
how do i prove the ra part
you take an arbitrary element of R and an arbitrary elements of I and multiply them
no because it is talking about the congruence relation
mod is really not uniquely defined
there's an entire equivalence class of possible values, for instance what would you say 1/2 mod 5 is? @sacred junco
1/2 is one possible answer, but there's an entire equivalence class of possibilities like 3 = 1/2 mod 5
3=8 mod 5 too
3=-2 mod 5 as well
they're completely indistinguishable when you start talking about modding out, for instance
2 * 1/2 = 2 * 3 mod 5
have you learned of fermat's little theorem maybe?
you can think of 2^(5-1) = 1 mod 5 but you can look at it for one integer power less as 2^(5-2)=2^-1 mod 5 if that helps
as long as the denominator of the fraction doesn't divide n, you can do it
which is what they mean by b and n being coprime
yeah you're welcome
if m is prime, then you need a to not have m as a factor, otherwise it's 0 mod m and has no inverse at all
there are two directions to go here, euler's theorem that if a and m are coprime then a^phi(m)=1 mod m and this works for any m, not just prime
but the other direction is if you're wanting to compute inverses, you can compute them with euclid's algorithm
Guys, just to clerify general notation [x] is whole part of x? In example [3.2]=3?
yeah, it's called the integer part or greatest integer function
Thanks :3
you're welcome
:3 hehe
it rounds towards 0, [-5.9] = -5 @deft verge
o yeah I missed the sign
still glad to hear it's not -6
yeah, it's distinct from the floor or ceiling functions which round towards -infinity and +infinity respectively
wait I've definitely seen older texts use [.] to mean floor because of typing
might be something to watch out for, or maybe I'm crazy
well they're the same as long as you're looking at positive numbers so it's not really that big of a deal
no, greatest integer function of [-5.9] will round up to -6
as it is greatest integer less than the number inside [ ]
It should be -6
I'm going by this here: https://oeis.org/wiki/Integer_part
You can check this out as well
Also, the greatest integer function is also known as Step Function, because it's graph is like this
i prefer the greatest decimal part
what are the squares mod 7?
i know it's 1,2,4 but i don't understand how it's the answer
1 is always a square
2^2 = 4 mod 7 so i guess that's a square?
3^2= 9 mod 7 = 2 mod 7? Apparently this is also a square?
but then why wouldnt 4^2 = 16 mod 7 = 2 mod 7 be a square then?
it is
it's already in your set, you just said 2 was a square
3^2=4^2 mod 7
once you get up to halfway, you can write 4 = 7-3 = -3 mod 7
so it's more obvious to see it as saying 3^2=(-3)^2 mod 7
ah i see
all we care about in modular arithmetic is effectively the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 since they are representative of all other integers up to adding a multiple of 7
i know that by some thm that i can't think of, the size of multiplicative (z/pz)^x is 6. so there must be 3 squares and 3 nonsquares
3,5,6 are nonsquare because none of the elements in {1,2,3,4,5,6} return 3 mod 7, 5 mod 7, or 6 mod 7 when squared (respectively)? EDIT : 0 shouldn't be there since it's multiplicative
yeah, for a prime Z/pZ forms a field and so the only element that's not invertible is 0
the fact that they split half and half is a separate thing to prove depending on how you want to look at it
one way is to think that since (Z/pZ)^x is a cyclic group it has a generator so call it g and then every element is g, g^2, g^3, g^4, g^5, g^6 and that's everything
and so the even powers are squares, everything else isn't, so that's half and half
yeah that's true
0 is a square but it's not a square in (Z/7Z)^x since 0 is not in the group because it has no multiplicative inverse
Ah ok I understand now! thanks for the help!
cool you're welcome
If n is odd, then the answer is 4 times the number of distinct factors of n. Else if, n =m2^k where 2 doesn't divide m, then the answer should be k-1 times the number of distinct factors of m.
honestly no idea
n=5 does not even hold
Just read the other response
I think it's just wrong
take any odd prime number
oh yeah thats true 
for n = 5 it seems there's 4 solutions
but they say it should be 8
the other response just says how to get the solutions
not how many there are
😔
Once you know how to get the solutions, you should be able to count them
For example, with n=5 (or odd in general), the point is that we are essentially counting the number of distinct divisors of n
n with powers of 2 requires a bit more work
shouldnt we be counting divisors between sqrt(n) and n 
I'm not sure what you mean
factorize $n$ as $n = pq$ where $1 \leq q \leq p \leq n$. The solutions to equation are $(x, y) = \br{\frac{p + q}{2}, \frac{p - q}{2}} = \br{\frac{p + \frac{n}{p}}{2}, \frac{p - \frac{n}{p}}{2}}$. The number of possible $p$'s will determine the number of solutions. Now, $p \mid n \implies p \leq n$. Also $p \geq q = \frac{n}{p} \implies p \geq \sqrt{n}$. As there are a finite number of $p$'s that satisfy $\sqrt{n} \leq p \leq n$, the number of solutions is also finite.
soαρ
I think we can set x-y equal to any divisor
i was working on the previous prob
Are you restricting x and y to be positive?
yes actually
Yes, then that will change things
Actually let me think a second
Techincally we can let x and y vary over all integers and then divide by 4 at the end, right?
or am I silly :/
(unless n is a perfect square, in which case the y=0 only has 2 solutions)
Like, even if you're only interested in counting positive integer solutions to x^2 - y^2 = n, you can still forget about the positivity to solve first, and then divide your number of solutions by 4
Well, not all x and y will work
There is some technicality to deal with when n is a perfect square or a negative of a perfect square, but you get th eidea
yeah makes sense
but i dont know how to work it out without the restriction of positivity tho
I mean, this is described in the first response, right?
like u said, "the point is that we are essentially counting the number of distinct divisors of n"
i dont get that exactly
yeah 
How many distinct divisors of n are there? Set x-y to one such positive divisor, and then x+y is theother
When n is odd, these are the same parity for free
(namely, they are both odd)
Distinct solutions (x,y) will yield distinct [divisor pairs] (x-y, x+y) and vice versa
You can prove this if it worries you
hmm that does make sense 
i thought about for a while and it makes a lot of sense now. thnx for the help
@fervent grove
no problem
yw
Let x^6-12=k^2
Then (x^3-k)(x^3+k)=12
Just take cases
And show no such k is possible
(x^3-k)(x^3+k)=12 is ez enough
or no?
and vice versa
but probably same thing since x^3
hi! can i ask for help for this problem? :))
i think that the order of n is 2k and i was able to get n^(2k) = n^(2^(s+1)) = 1 (mod p) from the given but i don't know how this proves that the order is indeed 2k
This will prove the order divides 2k, hence is some power of 2. Can you see what to do now?
yup, i got it now, thank you so much!!
Hi, could someone explain this?
I just don't understand the "multiplication by the inverse" and how that results in 1 mod p
Fermat’s little theorem says: a^p=a mod p. So multiplying by a^-1 we get a^(p-1)=1 mod p
Np
How's Niven's textbook for number theory? I'm taking a class that uses this textbook and am wondering if I need any other reference book besides it.
if the course uses it then I don't think you will need any other one lol??
and we dont know anything bout the class or what you already know sooo
posted this in abstract algebra channel bc i'm working on it for an algebra problem but realizing this is actually a num theory thing
whoops
I'm trying to find the integral solutions to the equation $4x^3-27=y^2$ but I'm having a hard time getting much further than showing that $y$ must be odd. I don't have too much experience with Diophantine equations so any help would be appreciated!
panoramatopia
This is an elliptic curve, more specifically an instance of Mordell's equation (a solution to your equation induces y^2 = x^3 - 432). I don't have a full solution written down, but I'll say (1) there are similar examples here https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/gradnumthy/mordelleqn1.pdf, and (2) you might get a better response in #advanced-number-theory
It's also possible there is an elementary solution I've missed
oh yeah my professor did mention that that specific elliptic curve tied into this problem
i'll look more into the mordells paper thank you 
I'll also say that (if I had to guess), this equation's classification of integer solutions is going to be most like Theorem 3.4, but I'm having trouble working out the details
Hey, i have a advanced question about modular calulations, can someone get me started on how i calculate:
$$ x \equiv x^{25} \mod 65$$
Luka835
I was thinking about writing it like x^25 - x = 0 mod 65, and then splitsing it up into mod 13 and mod 5
okay
Can’t someone help me with this?
What exactly is the question? Are you trying to find the x for which x = x^25 (mod 65)?
Or are you trying to do something else?
Yeah: solve for x 🙂
x=0, next question please
some ppl here are funny
what have u done after subtracting x
what did you try after splitting this up?
stop copying me :(
after splitting this as mod 5 and mod 13, we have $x^25=x mod 5$, $x^25=x mod 13$.
phi(5)=4, phi(13)=12. note that any x works. since if x is co prime then x^4=1 mod 5 => x^24=1 mod 5 => x^25=x mod 5.
similarly, x^12=1 mod 13 => x^24=1 mod 5 => x^25=x mod 5.
if x is not co prime we easily see it is 0 mod prime. hence x^25=x=0 follows
any x works right?
Thanks a lot! 🙂
Hey so I'm a bit confused here. I got part a down just fine. But in part b, where they say the "Using part (a)" how do they know that?
Like how do they know that because part a was proven correct, that 2x6x10x14x...x(4n-2) >= 2^n(n!)?
They're asserting that 2^n > (2n)! / (n! n!) [this is wrong]
can you see why this is true and/or why it's what we want?
Not really. Honestly this whole "induction" thing is still super confusing to me.
This step is not using any induction
Oh.
The product $2\cdot6\cdot\ldots\cdot(4n-2)=\frac{(2n)!}{n!}$ from (a), right?
Oh wait.
dfoiler
sorry continue
Oh so since it equals that we want to prove that it is greater than 2^n(n!)
Yes!
Ooooooh okay. I thought they just somehow automatically knew it was.
I was confused by the wording.
ah no problem
But I did wanna ask about induction.
wait I think I'm wrong
Oh.
Okay.
ok no I'm not wrong, I'm just silly
the "Using part (a)" is asserting something we want to prove, not something that we know to be true
anyways
Okay I think I got that.
So the whole general idea of induction.
So we start off with a general case of f(n=1).
And if that holds to be true we can move onto step 2, which is f(n=k).
Which we are temporarily assuming to be true.
So if we take this thing, f(n=k), that we are temporarily assuming to be true, and it also holds for f(n=k+1), then that means that our original assumption of f(n=k) is true which also means that the basic f(n) is true.
Is that the right idea?
I think your logic at the end is a little frazzled
Okay.
The idea is that we show "statement holds for n=1" and we show "if statement holds for n=k, then statement holds for n=k+1" [put quotes around statements]
This much you have correct
It is a bit difficult to intuit why this tells us statement holds for all positive integers n, but we can kind of see this like a process
Wait
waiting
You can imagine the process as proving to someone you can climb a ladder
In order to climb a ladder, you need to show that you can climb the first step (this is the base case)
Then, imagine that at some point you’ve climbed k steps. Well to show that you can climb the ladder, you’ll need to show that you can climb the next step
If you can show this, then by virtue, you’ve shown it to be true for 1, 2, 3, …, n steps (assuming your base case begins at 1)
It is also like a car race. 1.) u need some initial velocity. 2.) and some acceleration to always keep pushing.
what
What
what
nyani
f(1) true initial velocity. f(n) true implies f(n+1) true implies f(1)-> f(2)-> f(3) true.. - acceleration.
but cars stop
Curious about a problem that I thought about, is there idea behind finding the last n digits of a number (say a^m) ?
Like is there a nice closed form way of getting those last digits of an exponentiated number?
This can be computed in log(m) time using exponentiation by repeated squarings. As alluded to above, if you only keep track of the digits you care about (if you only want the last 10 digits, you only ever have to store the lsat 10 digits), then this can be done in constant memory as well.
I doubt there is a "closed-form" way of doing this
Hopefully this isn't too basic but is there any function that given a natural number n, calculates the exact distance to either the next prime number (the first prime > n) or the previous prime number (first prime < n)? EG some function where I can input say "31398" and I will get a response of "71" for the next prime distance, or "1" for the previous prime distance?
I have been digging around for a few months now and it seems the status quo is to use a sieve function, and generally iterate from n up or down until you can factor out a prime. I haven't come across anything that can just take a number and then calculate the distance to the next or previous prime.
Thanks I figured as much, but I wasn't sure.
We can't even find a prime p given the right number n such that p>n
If you want to implement some sort of code,a hash table is probably your best friend
Putting aside computational complexity for a minute - if there were a brute-force function that could say "hey, the next prime is x many digits thataway" (even if it computationally takes longer to figure out than just factoring out each number along the way) - are there any known algorithms? Like an algorithm that can look at the number 7, and without factoring out 8, 9 and 10, instead work out the next prime is +3 digits away? Or would that be fairly novel?
Definitely is novel
Put another way if there was a function "getDistanceToNextPrime(n)" and "getDistanceToPreviousPrime(n)" that could figure out the distance from the properties of n alone, would that exist currently in any form, regardless of computational expense?
If that's the case just iterate till you get a prime?
It's horrible but it works
Primes are not very well behaved
true
What are you trying to do?
Nothing in particular, I'm just interested in prime numbers. But I work from home and as a hobby so I don't have any faculty or anyone to talk to, so it's good to bounce ideas off people online.
I've written a function that can take n, and give me the nearest prime > n or < n
without stepping through one at a time and factoring out each candidate
but... I don't know if I've just found another way to do something mundane that everyone in maths knows about
Can you explain what your function does more concretely
If it does what you say it does then its quite novel i think
I'll set up a github, give me a little while, and I am now just quadruple checking my logic now that you say that, because "novel" in this context is scary. I'm kinda hoping this is just something mundane taken out of context.
why do you hope its mundane?
Probably afraid of getting shut down or rejected or something. Which is kinda depressing because new novel things can come from anywhere
And if it isn’t new or novel then who cares, the heart of it is just someone that likes this stuff trying to contribute and explore on their own
sorry I wasn't planning to show code today, bear with me just doing some formatting
Sorry I couldn't get away from javascript and had to use a custom mod function* as js doesn't do modular arithmetic properly: https://github.com/AlexanderParker/nextprime.js/blob/main/nextprime.js
To summarise if you "Find all modulo of "-n" for factors 2..n and return the lowest missing mod value + original input - this is our next prime number"
Or to go backwards (find p < n) - Find all modulo of "n" for factors 2..n/2 and return the lowest missing mod value + original input - this is our previous prime number
but basically all I keep seeing are people saying there's no way to figure out how to get from n to the next prime or n to the previous prime, but (even if it's computationally onerous) here is a way to look at all of the factors of n, and figure out the distance to the nearest prime in either direction
which is why I hope this is in fact mundane, so I can learn something
If this is just eratosthenes sieve in another form again I swear... 😛
I don't think this number is necessarily prime.
Ok
just a sec
How does the notation of mod even work?
If you do modx(n) then you're not necessarily finding the distance between x and n
I may have misunderstood
this is just a screenshot of numbers 0 is in the middle horizontally, 0..infinity to the right, 0 to negative inf to the left
rows contain mods of 1..n etc
anyway look inside some of the highlighted boxes, negative or positive
So it would be like 0 0 0...
0 1 0..
0 1 2..
on the negative side, missing mods are the distance to the next prime
no sorry my bad for being unclear
hello!
green cells are factors - where n mod f === 0
the bordered areas are some prime numbers and their factor mod remainders
how do I prove every irreducible element in a bezout domain is a prime element ?
the missing remainders are the distance to the next factor
Understood
The remainders that aren't green?
They're all distances to the next factor if you count 0 as a distance
I'm not sure what this means, sorry
should I ask this in another channel? (sorry if I interrupted your convo)
oh
I don't understand them though
Maybe the question channels? but I'm not sure how fast you will get a response
I am new here
Ok so this graph looks at every factor, not just prime factors
Ohhhh
I see
yeah I have graphs that look at prime factors
Ok I understand
Black rectangles
Lead down to rows that are prime factors
Correct?
sorry I was trying to explain then another user wanted to use the channel which is why I got sidetracked and suggested maybe taking the discussion elsewhere. I'm new here too so I don't want to flout the conventions etc.
Oh
But ok so across the top we have natural numbers, 0 is in the middle and negs are on the left and positives on the right
Yes
ok so look in the negative mods on the left, if you look at n mod -2 for example...
actually
sorry I mean where n > 2
look at say, -15
Sorry I have to eat, I will be back
what is the missing remainder?
ok well I'm off to bed
goodnight 🙂
(I'll give you a hint for after - 2. Which is the distance to the next prime)
anyway, enjoy your meal! Thanks for the chat.
ok I might stay up another hour, as it's nearly 6am. Why not. Why not be awake for longer! Bring it on.
It's best for you to sleep, friend me so we can speak about this later
ok
I think it's pretty cool that there is a compass pointing from any number n to the nearest prime, even if you do have to calculate the mod of every factor of n.
Hi
I have a (trivial?) proof I need help with
The “if” direction is trivial
But idk how to prove “only if” part
Like, how do I prove “doesn’t imply” rigorously?
Indeed there is no such thing as "doesn't imply". Instead, if:
A is "ka = kb (mod n)"
B is "a = b (mod n)"
C is "gcd(k,n) = 1"
Then the original statement is:
(A → B) ⇔ C
It sounds like you are trying to prove the only if with a contrapositive? So:
~(A → B) → ~C
We can use a logical identity to make more sense of this:
~(~A U B) → ~C
(A ∩ ~B) → ~C
So we can instead prove:
If ka = kb (mod n) and a ≠ b (mod n), then gcd(k,n) ≠ 1
@viscid wave
Wait I just realised, is providing 1 counterexample enough
Lol
Is this not the contrapositive of the “if” statement?
I wish to prove the “only if” part
…so, a counterexample should be enough right
nop
nop to both. This is the "only if" and you want to show this for any a,b,k,n.
@viscid wave
how can i prove that $(x+1)^p \equiv x^p+1 \pmod{p}$
kingphilip77
Binomial theorem
kingphilip77
induction
You should i^p=i mod p implies
(i+1)^p=i+1 mod p
Using this result
I think of (x+1)^p = x^p + 1 mod p as like x^p = (x-1)^p + 1 = (x-2)^p + 1+1 = ... = 1+1+...+1 = x, slowly taking out 1 from x one piece at a time
cant u just use fermats little theorem and multiply by x on both sides 
Same question, but why multiply by x?
(x+1)^p mod p = x+1. x^p mod p = x. So x+1 = x+1 mod p?
Or is FLT not allowed?
mods invasion
this holds in all commutative rings of characteristic p
Hello, are the corolaries of Wilson's theorem also biconditional?
So like (p-2)!=1 (mod p)
And
(p-3)!= (p-1)/2 (mod p)
If and only if p is prime
I think yes but I wanna be sure
Pls ping when answered
Pretty sure yes. The idea behind Wilson's theorem is that the inverses mod a number is unique. However, for composite numbers, the factors don't have an inverse.
(p-2)! = 1 mod p is just a consequence of the fact that (p-1) = -1 mod p so we get that (p-2)! * (p-1) = 1 mod p, so (p-2)! must be 1 mod p. This can also be understood via inverses mod p.
@plucky basalt
$n^2 = 3m^4 - 4e^4$
Yes ツ
Havent checked the deets but mod 3 + infinite descent seems good
ok thank you!
mod 4 infinite descent also works and is a little faster interestingly
I don't have any criteria to judge which method of infinite descent should be faster beforehand, but I'll think about it, seems like it might be something possible to judge beforehand
in particular, I am just guessing that we could predict it's faster because 4=2^2 and so stepping through exponents with 2 and 4 would get you there faster than 3 which would roughly take twice as long for things to match up
Thanks
cannatt
is there any sort of extension/generalization of gcd(a, b)*lcm(a, b) = a *b ? like with more variables or something. 
you can sort of invent one
if you look at gcd and lcm as being the min and max of the exponents in the prime factorizations of a,b respectively
then you can make one for n variables that picks the nth one when they're arranged in order
for 3, as an example:
$$\gcd(a,b,c) = \prod_p p^{\min(v_p(a), v_p(b), v_p(c))}$$
$$new(a,b,c) = \prod_p p^{mid(v_p(a), v_p(b), v_p(c))}$$
$$lcm(a,b,c) = \prod_p p^{\max(v_p(a), v_p(b), v_p(c))}$$
Merosity
then $\gcd(a,b,c)new(a,b,c)lcm(a,b,c) = abc$
Merosity
makes sense? @wispy creek
it does make sense but it sounds very non-useful 
I guess it also kind of redistributes the factors so that gcd(a,b,c) <= new(a,b,c) <= lcm(a,b,c) and would always work that way, if we're looking to try to cook up some use for this maybe that's a way to think about it
it's the power of p dividing a
v_2(12) = 2 and v_3(12) = 1 for instance
ic ic 
it's called the p-adic valuation
ofc ur using p-adic notation
lol
aight thanks for the help. ill go read some more 
yeah, I guess something else to look for now that you got me thinking is
gcd is easy to compute with the euclidean algorithm for 2 numbers so you can compute the lcm(a,b)=ab/gcd(a,b)
can we also do something similar for multiple numbers?
computing lcm in this way for multiple numbers ?
like compute gcd(a,b,c) then now we are stuck with only abc/gcd(a,b,c) = lcm(a,b,c)*new(a,b,c) so we need to do something else to split these apart
like in general what's the algorithm for getting all these functions evaluated as easily as possible when you have n variables?
not just lcm but also the other functions like 'new'

how can i start to prove $\frac{1}{k+1} \binom{n+1}{k} \binom{n}{k}$ is an integer?
peter17
for lcm, we can write lcm(a,b,c) = lcm(lcm(a,b),c), so efficient computation is possible (say, inductively)
the approach you suggest can also get you new, but only three variables
I wouldn't be surprised if being able to do something like new is infeasible in general
I imagine it's probably always possible to write it in terms of smaller ones and write a formula for the relation
What is "it" here?
what do you mean
it's an open ended problem I suggested to soap who was asking about generalization of the gcdlcm identity
feel free to find whatever algorithms compute these functions as fast as possible
I imagine it's probably always possible to write it in terms of smaller ones and write a formula for the relation
literally what is it referring to here
are you talking about new?
Find $\gcd(a^{2^m}+1,a^{2^n}+1)$. Hence, show that there are infinitely many primes.
Five23
I thought I'd find the gcd to be 1, like in the case of Fermat Numbers (a = 2) and hence could show that there are infinitely many primes like Pölya did with Fermat Numbers, but dont know how to proceed here to find the gcd
Five23
Two (in line 2)*
Do you still want a hint?
Anyone?
prove that $a^{2^m}+1$ divides $a^{2^n}-1$ for $n > m$
Pappa
the rest is hopefully clear
I think the rest is pretty much like working with Fermat Numbers once we have proven this result
I meant that it was similar
This F_n - 2 here is 2^(2^n) - 1 and is very similar to a^(2^n) - 1, and hence I thought of a similarity
So ive been thinking about trying to find all n such that the all the residues that are invertible mod n are their own inverse
n=12 is an example
but im running out of ideas on coming up with conditions on n
crt is a good place to start
should i first be solving x^2=1 (mod p) then?
cause that only has solutions for x=1, x=-1
hmmm
okay so i can see how that works out for my n =12 case
im having trouble arguing anything for the general case though cause idk how to simplify all the multiplicative inverse you have to calculate when applying crt
if i could then it might be easier to find a condition on when $\pm H_1N_1\pm H_2N_2\pm ...\pm H_kN_k$ is coprime to n
Little Narwhal
where the Hs are the inverses we calculate and the Ns are the products of the intermediate modulos
(so n/q where q is one of the full prime powers)
cant you just do it like this: Note that if $x^2 = 1 \mod n$, then $x^2 = 1 \mod p^k$ for all maximal prime powers $p^k$ dividing $n$. Now simply by size considerations we must have $p^k = 2, 4, 8, 3$
Pappa
why do you say that by size considerations those are the only available prime pwoers?
that's definitely the key idea im missing
if p != 2 then just look at 2^2
i dont follow
if p != 2, then 2 is in your reduced residue system
right
now you need 2^2 = 1 mod p^k, but 2^2 = 4 and so p^k = 3
sure
my only problem is with p^k=4?
oh no nvm
right yes i see
and so now i need to prove these are the only possible prime powers
ill give it a think
thanks tons
ah i see
if p=1 mod 4 then p^k = 1 mod 4 and since squares are =0 or 1 mod 4 there are no solutions to the required congruence. We can't have p=0 or p=2 mod 4. If p =3 mod 4 then p^k = (-1)^k mod 4. For even k we get the same as before. For odd k we need the square to be 0 mod 4 and now i need to think some more
dare I comment a bit of intuition, that if you think in terms of x^2-1=0 having roots mod p^k as k gets larger is basically putting you closer to being in the p-adic field, and a field only has at most 2 roots for a degree 2 polynomial, so it's kind of conspiring against you
i should have guessed p adics would show up when i saw you typing
lol
don't forget about hensel lifting, you can take solutions mod p^k and raise them mod p^(k+1) and it turns out that they are unique within a ball (in the p-adic topology) of radius dependent on the size of the derivative
hmm fair
for p>2 it's straight forward that the solutions x^2-1=0 mod p are uniquely determined mod p^k for all k>1 is why I say that
right so i only need to look mod p then since i can use hensel's lemma to lift to p^k?
exactly
so if i can rule out all prime bigger than 3 like that and then rule out the higher powers of 3 id be done
and since you know each step of hensel lifting uniquely determines the next digit in the base p expansion, it means you have only 2 solutions mod p become only 2 solutions mod p^k
yeah exactly
ill give it another think later honestly im not progressing mentally right now cause im just tired
but thanks for the help
yeah you're welcome
hensel's lemma and the chinese remainder theorem help simplify down a lot of modular arithmetic and make answering similar questions like you just asked more tractable, definitely worth thinking about and appreciating
yeah im aware of that i just wasnt sure how to approach this here in particular, i think im mainly just missing practice
idk look at 2^n
I'd probably focus on every divisor of N will be of the form a*b=N with a <= sqrt(N) and b>= sqrt(N),
I can't see the future, I can't tell you if it helps you or not
all I'm saying is I'd focus on it for at least as long as I'd think it seems useful, if it doesn't then I'd throw it out and try something else
I think I came up a proof using that trick
by induction suppose $\Omega(k) \le \sqrt{k}$ for all $k < N$. When $N$ is prime it is obvious that $\Omega(N)=1 \le \sqrt{N}$, so we can assume $N$ is composite. (Also notice this takes care of our base case). Now let's look at factoring $N$ into two smaller nontrivial factors, then $\Omega(N) = \Omega(ab) = \Omega(a)+\Omega(b) \le \sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b} \le \sqrt{ab} = \sqrt{N}$. To prove the inequality $\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b} \le \sqrt{ab}$ we can without loss of generality assume $b \ge a$ and since $a$ is nontrivial $a > 1$ and we have $b \ge \frac{a}{(\sqrt{a}-1)^2}$ which we can square root to get $\sqrt{b} \ge \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{a}-1}$ then multiply through to get $\sqrt{b}(\sqrt{a}-1) \ge \sqrt{a}$ and then we have $\sqrt{ab} \ge \sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b}$.
Merosity
Am I missing something? sqrt(a)+sqrt(b)<=sqrt(a*b) inequality isn’t true (for example a=3 and b=2)
Neither is b>=a/((sqrt(a)-1)^2)
haha probably not, it was just wishful thinking on my part
maybe the argument can be saved for sufficiently large values or something
yeah it works for sufficiently large a,b
since this is eqv too
1 <= (sqrt(a)-1)(sqrt(b)-1)
I haven't thought it through, but I think it might be possible to rework the proof instead of with an inequality on k<N instead make each step of induction be the set of all numbers with exactly m prime divisors, with the base case of all primes like I did
ok this cleans it up to do it that way, unless I'm being too reckless with my inequalities again 😎
Suppose $\Omega(k)\le \sqrt{k}$ when $\Omega(k)\le m$. Then $\Omega(pk)=\Omega(k)+1 \le \sqrt{k}+1 \le \sqrt{pk}$. This is true when $1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} \le \sqrt{p}$ so the only case this causes an issue is when $p=k=2$ but we can check manually that $\Omega(4)=\sqrt{4}$.
Merosity
*-*
it doesnt hold for k=3 either!!! wtf mero 

p adic expansion through inverse limits
In Z_(7) how to find 7-adic expansion of 2002 through inverse limit approach?
same way you would find the base 7 representation of the number
that I know..but I want to do it without finding base 7 representation
look at it mod 7 to get one digit, then subtract it off and divide by 7 and repeat
I want to completely go through inverse limits definition
alright, what's your definition of an inverse limit
it's going to be the same thing because the reduction mod p is the homomorphism
example 8.15
in that they have not provided criteria to find out uniquely a_n
a_{n+1} = a_{n} mod p^n is used
now how would this help me to find a_1 and then subsequent a_{n+1} uniquely. For example 2002=(0,42,287,...)
they are unique because a_n is unique in the set {0,1,..., p^n - 1}
why 42 is coming, why not 35 or 28 etc
42 is 2002 mod 7^2
this representation is not the digits in the base p expansion, just the representative mod p^n
then the a_2 = a_1 mod p condition is seen as 42 = 0 mod 7 here
if a_1=0 then a_2=a_1 mod p, therefore a_2=0 mod p , but we also know a_2 lies in Z/49Z so we have many options that is 7,14,21,28,35,42
only one of those is 2002 mod 7^2 though
Why not just define a_n=k mod p^n in p adiac expansion of k
,calc 2002 % 7^2
Result:
42
,calc 2002 % 7
hmm I know that is coming from the usual expansion of base p
Result:
0
,calc 2002 % 7 ^3
Result:
287
Thanks merosity...but from the theory given above in the notes...they are just refering to a_{n+1}=a_n mod p^n , that is why I could not think that I need to check 2002=42 mod 49
well you can compose morphisms
a_{n+2} = a_n mod p^n as well, or even higher
think of the mappings going on
I have to go sort of soon but maybe Salicina can help more if you need it, you're welcome 👍
hmm i understand that these are like successive projections...but I could not follow from notes anything more than just checking on a_2=a_1 mod 7 and then how to find that unique a_2 in Z/49Z. But since u mentioned that we also need to see that 2002=a_2 mod 49. This was new to me. Thanks for your time and help Merosity.
yeah you're welcome, is this part of a course you're taking or you're self studying?
self studying from the notes to self study automorphic forms lectures of kevin buzzard...😷
haha cool sounds fun
if you want someone to study automorphic forms with when you get to that point let me know
yeah I am at a very beggining stage..because I have never took such courses during my uni. So had to come back to basics first.
Sure..That would be very nice. I will try my best to understand the prerequisites and then reach automorphic forms stage. I am new here and I am happy to find this server.
Yes ...I have only finished first lecture yet 😅
keep asking questions and participate in stuff you should be good, lots of people to learn from here that like talking about all this sort of cool stuff
Great!...silly question...but by any chance you know how to change my nickname here?
lol I don't think you're allowed to but I don't know the rules have changed more lately
I think you can ask to have your name changed
basically to deter people from trolling I guess, not sure why they have that
I gotta go now, but seeya around hopefully
Take care Merosity. 👍
You need to have active role,I think
Send enough messages in the right channels and you will get that role
Thanks , I will wait to find relevant questions to post here and wait for the active tag
not sure what you're wanting to do here, like determine exactly the power of each prime dividing n!? @wispy creek
im trying to prove (m-1)! = 0 (mod m) when m is composite
and m >= 6
the proof in ss only takes care of the proof when the primes are distinct
oh I see
i found this which works but i was wondering if u could expand on the proof in the ss
I guess I don't know why they did it that way
I suppose the main thing is once you know it works for distinct prime factors, then it should be easy to extend for repeated prime factors
I guess the extreme case is when m=p^a * b since (p^a * b - 1)! has to be shown to be divisible by p^a
I don't think I can say anything much better than Bill Dubuque says there tbh
looks like he explains it 2 lines down from there
funny this same inequality basically came up yesterday
here
lol
no clue I haven't consciously considered it before, just a consequence of factoring to make things work because you know your numbers are of a certain size
How can I use the Descent Procedure for a non-prime?
i am asked to use the procedure to write 65 as the sum of two squares starting with 14^2+57^2=53*65
i thought it only worked for primes 1 mod4 so idk what to do
well 53 = 49+4, so I'd probably divide that way
at least I assume 'descent procedure' is something like computing (14+57i)/(7+2i)=a+bi and then getting its norm
how would that allow me to write 65 as the sum though? im using Fermat's Descent procedure and it will give me my chosen prime as a sum of two squares
problem is it only works for primes 1mod4
@urban peak 65 isn't the sum of two squares, so I'm not sure what you're asking?
im not sure either -- my textbook asks me to darry out the argument (for Descent procedure) for 65 starting from the equation 14^2+57^2=53 *65 to express 65 as the sum of two squares
a quick wolfram alpha tells me that 65 is the sum of two squares. trivial one is 8, 1
what is the descent procedure
I described what to do but I guess that wasn't clear
my bad
Oh 13 is 1 mod 4 whoops
hurb
I'm not sure what starting from that equation means. But the descent procedure works by factoring 65 = 5 * 13 and writing both of those as the sum of two squares
fermats descent procedure. its a procedure that just gives us two squares that are equal to our prime 1 mod4
i will try the 65=5*13. didnt even consider it but seems like it is exactly what they want
Then using the usual identity to write their product as a sum of two squares
Yeah, I'm just not really sure what they mean by starting with that equation
if you want 65 as a sum of two squares then you should work from 53=7^2+2^2
otherwise it doesn't make sense using what they give you, if you're just going to side step it
I'm not sure how you would work backwards from the descent idea though, solving for the variables doesn't seem feasible
$14^2+57^2=(7^2+2^2)*65$ is the same as saying $N(14+57i) = N(7+2i)65$ is how I see it
Merosity
why would i start with 53 if i am trying to find two squares that sum to 65? looking at these examples i am fairly certain you start with the prime you want to find the additive factors for
I'm assuming the descent procedure is effectively equivalent to just dividing the complex numbers and looking at the norm
but you're memorizing it as a special formula called this procedure
you might be right, i have no idea how the procedure is derived or what it actually means. textbook doesnt say anything
$\frac{14+57i}{7+2i} = 4+7i$
Merosity
so 4^2+7^2 = 65 when you look at the absolute value squared
$$65 = \frac{14^2+57^2}{53} = \left|\frac{14+57i}{7+2i} \right|^2 = |4+7i|^2$$
Merosity
maybe it helps to write it out like this
try walking through this with general numbers like x+iy and a+bi and see if the result is the same thing as the descent procedure
For the miller-rabin test, we write a prime number as $p = {2^k}q + 1$, where q is odd. What is the proof that all prime numbers can be written in this form?
RisenSteam
This only works for odd prime numbers. Using this, you can see that p - 1 is even, then just keep factoring out powers of 2 until you get an odd number. Alternatively, you can think about the prime factorization of p - 1. This has some power of 2, then the rest are powers of odd primes, which is odd.
@cloud oracle
Thank you
Does any know about book or texts which give properties for generalized exponential integral of the form $$\int \dfrac{z^t}{t^y}dt$$ where $y>0$?
Suraj Singh Khurana
I guess I'd look for things related to the gamma function since it's pretty similar to that
It is related to incomplete gamma function actually
$\frac{t^{-y} (-t \ln (z))^y \Gamma (1-y,-t \ln (z))}{\ln (z)}$
Suraj Singh Khurana
yeah, just a few substitutions in the integral form for the incomplete gamma function to derive this
but this formula is not allowed for z=1. I wonder how to make this meaningful for z=1 and also for other values of z
Merosity
so that's not too bad
Incomplete gamma function is defined through an integral and how do we make sense if my z is say -0.2 or something
I know that is elementary but I wish to find a formula which makes sense for z=1 and for other z as well
I suppose through thinking about the log in the complex plane
I wouldn't worry about this kind of thing if I were you, this sort of thing happens all the time
like the integral of x^n has an exception at n=-1
yeah but then the usual definition of incomplete gamma through integral works ? when z is -0.2 then the second argument becomes complex
where it doesn't follow the power rule
I don't know, I'd start looking into the incomplete gamma function to see where it's defined or if it can be analytically continued or has a pole or something
depends on why you want to do that in the first place I guess too
well, this isn't really #elementary-number-theory even though it's loosely related to analytic number theory I imagine that's how you got to it, probably better asking in #real-complex-analysis or #advanced-analysis about the incomplete gamma function
Yeah basically i will ask $\Gamma(s,x)$ for x complex is defined in what way?
Suraj Singh Khurana
I'd say don't be too concise otherwise it will sound too technical for someone to help you with
I'm not sure but I think if the incomplete gamma function is defined for negative values then it should mean the regular gamma function is too
I understand. I think it is quite specific. Just would be lucky to find someone used to incomplete gamma function.
The regular gamma function doesnt have the second argument. The second argument represents where we cut the integral
from there we get upper incomplete gamma function and lower incomplete gamma function
like the way I'm seeing it is I know it's a simple substitution to go from your integral to an incomplete gamma function and from there it boils down to seeing where that converges which is probably the same points the regular gamma function converges
unless something weird happens in that finite interval
0 is a natural number
Im trying to prove this problem for $\gcd(b,m)=1$. Suppose that $\gcd(k,\phi(m)) > 1$. Show that either $b$ has no $k^{\text{th}}$ roots modulo $m$, or else it has at least two $k^{\text{th}}$ roots modulo $m$.
kingphilip77
to be honest i have no idea how to start or an idea of what idea i could use here
Can anyone give some further hints? My current reasoning is that -1 in the multiplicative group corresponds to (p-1)/2 in Z_p-1. but not sure what's next.
right if -1 corrosponds to that, what would a 4th root corrospond to
I'm kind of stuck on this. If 4x is congruent to (p-1)/2 (mod p-1), then 8x is congruent to (0 mod p-1) ? but then I only know there's an element of order 8, which property a lot of group has.
well do you know lagranges theorem?
that the order of an element divides the order of the group
oh that makes sense! I know the thm but in the the context of this problem, lagrange hasn't been introduced so far... there got to be another way?
oh yeah sure
well i gave you the main idea that 8 should divide p-1
can you figure out a way to prove that
if 8 doesn't divide p-1 there must be some contradictions? I guess it's closely related to Lagrange's thm. Maybe I should just refresh my memory on how it's proved.
sure, but in this case its a bit easier to get that directly from the congruence
thanks! I'll try to come up with a proof that doesn't use Lagrange.
help
what is all the solutions in positive integers to m! + 5 = n^3
im pretty sure its only 5
but how to prove it
I think this problem is easier than Brocard's problem. Notice that once m becomes 10 or larger, the left hand side can't be a cube since its only divisible by 5 once. You can see that the left hand side is always 5 mod 25 for m at least 10. That just reduces it down to a finite search
Hey so how did they get 9 and -2 for x and y here?
I assume they're following this rule.
I mean that is the answer. Like I was even told by the professor that that answer was correct and would be a correct answer using that rule.
I just need to know how they got the 9 and -2
I assume it's something to do with the 2 and 9 in front of the 2 parts of the gcd
Yeah, you know that the coefficients must work for all choices of integer a. One way to go about it is find the coefficients for examples of different integers a until you are sure you have the right ones. This is a "cheap trick".
a = 1 --> (3, 13) ... 9(3) - 2(13) works.
Then you make sure for the general case.
The thing is what if the question is show (a^2 + a^4 + a^6, 2b^2 + b^4) = 3k? When the question is about linear components that might mean something in some cases, but I'd avoid rules like that at this level. Questions can get challenging quickly.
Once again, I have the solution to this problem but I'm confused how to get to the answer.
Namely how they figured out why to do 3a+2-3a
Well, if d is divisor of a and b then it is also a divisor of a-b
this was pretty natural in this case
g) says exactly that
But that's + though.
-1 is an integer
shore
I get this for the most part but how did they get the 9 and -7 at the end?
oh that's the easiest part thankfully
Cool
it's solving the special case when 56x+72y=0
since solutions of this can be added to any solution without changing it
so divide out 8
7x+9y=0
then x=9, y=-7 will make this 0
How do we know to do that and not x=-9 and y=7?
doesn't matter cause it's all multiples of that
Oh so it can be either?
yeah
Okay cool
when you plug it in and work it out, you'll see the t part cancels out to make 0 by design
yeah
Hint: what does R look like modulo the integer grid? (Ie: looking at the space formed by equating two points in the plane when they differ by integers on both coordinates)
Ok i’ll try to be a little more explicit, Imagine sliding all the squares of the integer grid into the unit square, and move the parts of R in the square along with them, in this unit square we now have all the parts of R somewhere. If R never intersects any integer translation of itself, do you see that none of the pieces will overlap once we move them will in the unit square?
here's a different approach, you can think of translating the shape to any point 1 unit away as moving the center to a point on the circumference of a circle. We can imagine now rotating that shape around the circle, which is equivalent to just moving one shape a unit distance and then rotating them both in the same angle and same speed and look for intersections. The largest shape you can do this with will fit inside a circle of radius 1/2, and since pi/4<1 it means you can't do that with a shape of area 1.
yeah i agree. R wont overlap in the unit square
Ok but now if R’s area is >1 this will be impossible as we have now fit R into a square of area 1. So by contradiction R intersects an integer translation of itself
you're not compressing anything, you're more just rolling it over on top of itself
imagine we have R drawn on the cartesian plane, now imagine cutting up the cartesian plane into 1x1 squares where the vertices of the squares are the points that are integers in both coordinates. Place all these squares on top of each other on the square whose bottom left vertex is the origin. These squares may have parts of R on them and I’m saying that if no integer translation of R intersects R, none of these parts of R will overlap with another on this square at the origin
cant we end the proof after the red part has been shown ?
why do we need the blue part ?
Yea,you don't need the blue part
aight thnx for the clarification
in order to prove ϕ(mn) = ϕ(m)ϕ(n) when gcd(m, n) = 1. they set up a bijection between these two sets
in order to prove the surjectivity of this map, they prove chinese remainder theorem
this just guarantees a solution. dont we have to show that its relative prime to mn so back in the domain set ?
like if the solution is a number thats not in the domain, the map cant be surjective 
So you accept Chinese remainder theorem is correct?
If x=a mod m and x=b mod n and a and b are coprime to m and n respectively x=c mod mn will have c coprime to mn,assuming c->(a,b)
You can show that by explicitly constructing c

if its not too complicated can u show how i would construct that ?
wait lemme try it out first
wait is this incredibly simple ?
c = a mod m and c = b mod n. so c is coprime to m and n(cuz a, b coprime to m,n). hence c coprime to mn
is this right ? 

u mean unnecessary ? 
Mb
oh ok
If you want,I can give you the construction
Let mm'=1 mod n and nn'=1 mod m
Then amm'+bnn'=a mod n and b mod m.
Yea, It's very simple
You know m' and n' exist because (m,n)=1
And apply Euclidean to get m' and n'
Or you can use this
a's inverse in mod m would be a^(phi(m) - 1) 
For that you need to show (Z/n)* is a group
Which requires that every element in (Z/n)* has a inverse
ye they proved eulers theorem in the prev chapter
How did they prove it






