#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 73 of 1
I don't see how the lemma is helpful at all if you can't show anything is coprime though
im all ears
Suppose the statement is true for n = k. We prove it for n = k+1.
If gcd(a1, ..., ak) = 1, then every sufficiently large integer can be written as a linear combination of a1 to ak and we just add a zero coefficient to a(k+1).
the a1,a2,a3,...,ak arent necessarily the same as those of the n = k+1 case
Wut?
we're proving a statement about a certain size not about specific numbers
like
we can assume that the gcd of k coefficients is 1
but when we consider the k+1 case those arent necessarly the same coefficients
Yes, so we have proven it for every list of size k. Now we take an arbitrary list of size k+1, and say if the first k are comprime we can use the n=k result.
and gcd(a1,a2,a3,...,ak+1) = 1 does not necessarily mean that gcd(a1,a2,...,ak) = 1
I know, that's why I said if. The if not part is coming
If gcd is not 1, let d be the gcd. Then d and a(k+1) must be coprime, since any common divisor would divide all of the ai. Then we apply the lemma, so sufficiently large integers must be a linear combination of d and a(k+1), but d is a linear combination of a1 to ak so we can sub that in.
The end.
I still don't understand theirs lol
Very badly, haha
Suppose every thing we want to be true is true. Then everything works well. Q.E.D.

thanks a lot
it's not a very complex proof if you think about it but i had trouble wraping my head around the frobenisu number and the gcd at the same time
kept mixing them up
That makes sense. Np. I haven't seen you around in a while. I don't known if that's because I am less active or because you are.
i wasnt active for a while cause i was pretty sick and couldnt do shit
:( glad you're better. Good luck with maffs.
otherwise for a bit i hung around #multivariable-calculus whenever id be reading up on diff eqs
thanks
@wise oyster I think you don't even need induction
Let d = gcd(a1, a2,..., a(n-1)). Then gcd(d, an) = 1. So there exists N such that for M > N, M = xd + ay for some x and y. Since d is a linear combination of a1 to a(n-1), we are done. This seems like a complete proof.
@wise oyster oh noooo
I've led you astray
d as a linear combination of a1 to a(n-1) can have negative integers
I feel like this can be solved using mod
Ah i wake up, get on, and see lunasong typing
Lol
Suppose the statement is true for $n=k$, and show it is true for $n = k+1$. Let $d = \gcd (a_1, \dots, a_k)$, then $\gcd(\frac{a_1}{d}, \dots, \frac{a_k}{d}) = 1$. So there exists $N$ such that every $M > N$ can be written as a linear combination of $\frac{a_1}{d}, \dots, \frac{a_k}{d}$ with nonnegative integers. Choose a prime greater than N which does not divide $a_{k+1}$, say P, then $dP$ is a linear combination of $a_1, \dots, a_k$ with nonnegative integers.
Now $\gcd(dP, a_{k+1}) = 1$, so we apply the lemma to find an $N_0$ and we can sub in dP as a linear combination of the $a_1, \dots, a_k$ with nonnegative integers.
Lunasong
@wise oyster I hope that works, but I might realize why it doesn't again in 10 minutes
gcd(dP, a(k+1)) is 1 because gcd(d, a(k+1)) is 1 and gcd (P, a(k+1)) is 1
Yeah
I had tried a proof using the division by gcd but i hadnt thought about the prime step
Thing is
Wait no
I figured you just needed something that is coprime with a(k+1).
I personally cant see anything wrong with the proof but couldnt see anything wrong with the last one either at first
Thanks
I gtg to my MRI now ill be back in a few hours
Thought more about it and still cant find any flaws
Yay
there's likely a nicer proof we can come up with though, namely in replacing P with some better bounded number so that we can glean more information on how large the frobenius number is. Cause this proof works but taking a prime p that doesnt divide ak+1 can allow for a number likely much larger than necessary
so that problem boils down to, can we find a nice expression for j such that gcd(g(a1,a2,...,ak) + j, ak+1) = 1
or at least some bounds for j
how we can prove there are no solutions in Z, with modular arithmetic, n^3-3^m=2022
mod 9?
i tried
Cubes can either be 0, 1 or -1 mod 9
thanks!
(try that out yourself)
It should be smooth from here
Can there be intuition given behind why for every integer $n$ we have $n^2 \equiv (a - n)^2 \pmod{a}$
LINEAR_ALGEBRA_GUY
Intuitive reasoning for why it is true, not just a proof?
the proof is very intuitive
(a - n)^2 = a^2 - 2an + n^2, that's just clearly going to be equal to n^2 mod a
we could try difference of two squares
(a - n)^2 - n^2 = ((a-n) + n)((a-n) - n) = a(a - 2n) == 0 mod a
that's kinda pretty
start from -n = a-n mod a, then square both sides
(2m+3)(3m+4) = 35^n, solve in positive integers.
i think only m=n=1 is a solution in positive integers but i dont know how to prove
consider the gcd between the 2 factors...
so...?
..?
gcd( 2m+3, 3m+4) = gcd( 2m+3, m+1) = gcd( m+2, m+1) =1
so... what happens next? This highly constrains 2m+3 in terms of n
firstly if a solution exists, m must be odd, it cannot be even
what else?
it was actually @sacred junco 's question
thank you !
galois
what is the proof for $14n\neq2^m ; \forall n,m \in \mathbb{N}$
galois
7 does not divide 2^m
is this an axiom or can you explain it more?
well just consider the prime factors
ok
so it goes
$ \begin{array}{c c c c}
&\mathrm{E}&\mathrm{I}&\mathrm{N}\
&\mathrm{E}&\mathrm{I}&\mathrm{N}\
&\mathrm{E}&\mathrm{I}&\mathrm{N}\
+&\mathrm{E}&\mathrm{I}&\mathrm{N}\
\hline
\mathrm{V}&\mathrm{I}&\mathrm{E}&\mathrm{R}
\end{array}$
galois
$\forall\mathrm{E,I,N,V,R} \in X \land 0 \leq X \leq 9$
galois
||821||
I only got half way through the problem then I used a computer to solve it
but I want to know if there is a better way with algebra and modular arithmetic
just naively writing it out in modular arithmetic is gross because of carries
I got $1236 \leq \mathrm{VIER} \leq 9840$
galois
yes I started writing all the set notation
is there any extra information about the digits
it was a huge mess
like each digit only appears once or in descending order or whatever else
i don't think this is number theory really
i mean there's a little bit but it seems much more like casework and involving upper bounds and things
yes two variables can'tbe the same number
why didn't you say that?
sorry
is there more you're leaving out
no thats all
how can it be 9840, that's way too high, ein is a 3 digit number
oh wait
eh, it's pretty standard for these sorts of questions
I did work out another number
It's definitely less than 4k
987x4
sure, I'm just giving him a hard time for asking the question and also using a gross amount of set theory notation
use english words
iiii don't think 987 works? lemme doublecheck
it's just going to be casework
there is exactly one solution I posted it already in spoiler tag
I have already checked with a computer
but are there are easy tricks that make this simple?
or is it just a lot of crazy set theory
it's not set theory or modular arithmetic mainly
it's just going to be casework
i think
and one-time tricks
like, v is restricted to between 0 and 3 inclusive
yes
r is 2, 4, 6, 8, 0
you didn't specify that >.>
you never have leading zeros in math
shhhh
unless there is a decimal
but anyway e is then restricted based on r
ok
the e i swapping is the strongest condition i think
yes it totally solved it when I put that in the computer
but how to write that as congruence I don't know
I got lots of intervals
it's not going to be a congruence imo
it's just going to be casework
i don't think there'll be a clean way to solve this
I got all the intervals easy
hnngh
but then finding the intersections of all those intervals was crazy big work
ok
it's meant to be long and annoying
I didn't know that there were no tricks
there are tricks
I just assumed congruences
there will be shortcuts that reduce the work down to something manageable
something with inequalities using algebra?
inequalities, eh, only to frame it to begin with
to set initial restrictions
i don't see the other ones
but the e to i thing
uhhhh
you tell me
i don't know wtf to do with that
this isn't really modular arithmetic, for the last time
you can decompose decimal numbers into digits
krumpf
pretty sure this is number theory
i think i'm actually going to go sleep now instead
this is just going to be really drawn-out
ok thanks anyway
not a fan, first step is be lucky and pick two digits mod the right thing then the second step is make a huge table
after I got the upper and lower bound and figured out the 4|VIER i HAD 670+ in the set
I didn't even look at them just the order of the set
so then I figured E can't be 0,1,2
then I was at like 450 ish
deleted answers without all unique digits
it was a process
got down to {821,820} then I put another condition on it got back 821
so not once did I manually check it
Hint on proving that for every integer n, $3 \nmid (n^2 + 1)$?
LINEAR_ALGEBRA_GUY
look at n^2+1 mod 3
Yes I tried that, so then n^2 + 1 = 3x + 1, or n^2 + 1 = 3x + 2. But then n^2 = 3x, which does divide if n is 0...
part of the point of modular arithmetic notation is so that you don't have to write all that out, you just focus on remainders
just look at n=0,1,2 for each case
You say I don't have to write it all out, but if I do write it out then I see that for n = 0 it fails
0^2+1 = 1, 1^2+1=2, 2^2+1= 2 none are 0 mod 3, that's all you have to do
you're mistaken, you didn't add 1
If n^2 + 1 has a remainder mod 3, then that means we can write it in one of two forms
i) n^2 + 1 = 3x + 1, since the remainder of it can be 1 or
ii) n^2 + 1 = 3x + 2, since the remainder of it can also be 2
So I did add 1?
$0^2+1 \equiv 1 \mod 3$ always has remainder 1
Merosity
Why can't I write it in that form?
n^2 + 1 is always some integer
So if n^2 + 1 has a remainder of 1, when divided by 3, I should be able to write n^2 + 1 as 3x + 1, for some integer x
sure
Okay, so n^2 + 1 = 3x + 1..... Then if we subtract 1, we get n^2 = 3x.
yep
Right so, it does divide for n = 0...
You're trying to show 3 doesn't divide n^2+1 my dude

not 3 doesn't divide n^2
So then what is n^2 = 3x?
It's just an equation that doesn't have anything to do with what you're trying to prove
The statement you wrote there is what you are trying to prove
So you can't just assume that when you are trying to prove this statement
So how can I prove it?
I pretty much lay it out for you here already
\begin{align}
(0)^2 + 1 \equiv 1 &\pmod{3} \
(1)^2 + 1 \equiv 2 &\pmod{3} \
(2)^2 + 1 \equiv 2 &\pmod{3}?
\end{align}
LINEAR_ALGEBRA_GUY
you're welcome 👍
thanks
@fervent crest is welcome
👀
nice
I have a question, I'm not sure if putting it out here is the right place
I have n digits, each can be between 0...9 inclusive
I am creating a number with these digits. (number can start with 0)
Only constraint is that no 2 consecutive digits can be alike
This would make 10 * 9 * 10 * 9...
possibilities
I'm not sure how to express this in terms of n
is there a way to merge those two?
$90^{\floor{\frac{n}{2}}}10^{n%2}$
MoonBears-D-
Is it really 10×9×10×9…
I think so
we can put 10 different digits in the first place
then we can only put 9 in the second bc one is occupied
Then 9 for the third one?
Like can't be the same with the second one
yes, my thinking was faulty
I was arguing that we can arrange for the third to be some step before or after the second and since the second covers 9 it can cover 10
but that doesn't work
Is it just 10*9*9*9*9...
I think so
10 * 9 * 9 * 10?
Fourth also depends on the third

https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/359052604149465088/794296022016720896/80e40ebe2f5473a80050e87d1b57a070.png does anybody have an efficient method for solving this problem? (without playing with numbers and guessing my way to the answer?) :)
Use AGM @storm sinew
Is this a typo?
Show that the set $S=\left{t \in \mathbf{Z}: t^{2} \equiv 4(\bmod 5)\right}$ contains infinitely many elements.
LINEAR_ALGEBRA_GUY
\begin{aligned}
&\text { Let } t=5 k+2, \text { where } k \in \mathbf{Z} . \text { Then } t^{2}-4=(5 k+2)^{2}-4=25 k^{2}+20 k+4-4=5\left(5 k^{2}+4 k\right)\
&\text { since } 5 k^{2}+4 k \text { is an integer, } 4 \mid\left(t^{2}-4\right) \text { and so } t^{2} \equiv 4(\bmod 5) \text { . }
\end{aligned}
LINEAR_ALGEBRA_GUY
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Why do they conclude that 4 | (t^2 - 4)?
I think that's a typo, it must be 5| (t^2 - 4)
I think so too but I am not completely sure
because this clearly is not divisible by 4, 5k^2 + 4k = 4(k^2) +4k +k^2, so (t^2 - 4) not divisible by 4 every time
it is only divisible by 4 if k is an even number
@lusty hornet i already tried that but i couldnt solve it. Could you show me how you'd do it?
that is a useless method which I gave before , sorry. I didn't read it clearly
@storm sinew there is a Brahmagupta Fibonacci identity which gives you all solutions of $a^2 + b^2 = c^2 + d^2$
To work it out , you can do like this, take : $x = p+ iq$ and $y= r+is$, you may know that $|x \bar y| = |x||\bar y| = |xy|$ So, upon solving $|x \bar y| =|xy|$ you would get $\newline$
$(p r + q s)^2 + (q r - p s)^2 = (p r - q s)^2 + (p s + q r)^2$ . So, all the solutions will be of the form: $\newline$
$(a,b,c,d) = (pr+qs, qr−ps, pr−qs, ps+qr)$
oh wow, ill check that out. thanks!
So, if just seen a proof for this that I understand, where e(a,p) denotes the highest power of p that divides n!.
However
I cannot for the life of me understand how it leads us to this corollary
any help, whether intuitive or just a proof would help me out here
i feel like im missing something super obvious but i cant figure it out
I think it might be clear if you give that function a name, $s_p(n)$=sum of digits of n when written in base p
Merosity
then write out what e(binomial(n,k), p) is
then you can start to reason through what happens to the sum of digits when adding and carrying
also I'd probably write it more symmetrically
$\binom{a+b}{a} = \binom{a+b}{b} = \frac{(a+b)!}{a!b!}$
Merosity
that way you can think of adding just plain a+b
why thing is im not sure how to figure out e for binom(n,k) in the first place
oh, binomial is just a product of 3 factorials
and the e function (the p-adic valuation lol) is additive
im having trouble reasoning on whther or not that means i can just multiply out the e function for the other ones
oh true id add
ahh
ill give this a shot later
ok good luck
oh yeah just realised you must be really familiar with this stuff due to p adics no?
the main thing to think about is what I mentioned here, how the sum of digits changes when you carry, probably just write something out and think about it
yeah, very lol
yeah ill work through a few examples
personally I prefer to write legendre's formula as $v_p(n!) = \frac{n-s_p(n)}{p-1}$
didnt notice when doing this it was related to p adics
Merosity
and the completely additive property (it's basically a logarithm base p, blind to other powers) $$v_p(xy) = v_p(x)+v_p(y)$$
Merosity
aight thanks ill give this a look
same v_p(x) = e(x,p) function so nothing new here just change of notation
i think my main issue is being a little too unfamiliar with expressing numbers in other bases
like i get it but i dont work with it enough to get quick intuitions
yeah, in particular you can think of getting the digits by repeatedly looking at the number mod p and subtracting off that remainder and dividing by p
dunno if that's really that helpful to say, you probably already know that
hm actually hadnt thought of it
like say you want 12 in base 2, well first you know it ends in two 0s
but that makes sense yeah
just like base 10 the number of 0s is the number of times 10 goes into it
then you think, what's 3 in base 2?
i mean for binary i tend not to have problems from having worked with it a lot
so in all 12 is 1100 in base 2
yeah true, personally I am most comfortable with base 2, 3, 5
in binary it's a little easier cause you can think of just activating or deactivating powers
instead of having coefficients
you could think of base 3 that way if you use a different set of coefficients
you could use 1, 3^n and -3^n lol
that's fair
maybe fair, but kind of silly hah
doing that means you need to change your rules for arithmetic, like what is carrying now?
my problem with thinking about bases is we talk about other bases but still write with base 10 numbers so it's a little confusing
yeah I know what you mean
I got too used to it though that I say confusing things about base notation without realizing it lol
just realised that what you said about taking a number mod p, subtracting the remainder and dividing is what's being used in the proof of the earlier result anyways lol
im an idiot
haha
awesome
yeah you're welcome
now you're basically ready to compute the radius of convergence of the p-adic exponential series 😎
noice
i mean this is part of an elementary number theory course so i dont think they get to p adics
MIT opencourseware is a godsend
haha yeah probably not
is there a particular piece of notation used to denote the number of carries you get when adding a and b in base p
i like to have concise notation in my notebook and if i can avoid inventing it, the better
none that i'm aware of, the only time I ever think about the number of times I carry is when proving that problem lol
haha nice
I think that I said something slightly wrong earlier about your notation
$v_p(n!) = e(n,p)$
Merosity
your e function only is talking about the number of prime powers in the factorial
the p-adic valuation can have any rational number in it
I think that was probably part of the confusion about how to get the binomial out of it earlier now that I realize that
yeah i changed notation anyways
it's aight
adopted the v notation
though i still use e
yeah it's easier, cause it's just log rules
might as well also mention, but probably not useful to you
$|x|_p = p^{-v_p(x)}$ this is the p-adic absolute value
Merosity
and $x \equiv y \mod p^n \implies |x-y|_p \le p^{-n}$
Merosity
I guess to really make use of that you have to know the ultrametric inequality at a minimum but I think maybe that's already too much so I'll stop haha
i need to redigest this for the 3rd time
right okay yes
so $|54|_3 = \frac{1}{3}$ for example?
Little Narwhal
Little Narwhal
yup
forgot to actually exponentiate the p
hah
also is that an iff or just an implication
the second statement
wait done answeer that
lemme find a counterexample
good question 😛 yeah, there is a common use case when it's <=
$|x-y|_p \leq p^{-n} \implies v_p(x-y) \geq n$. So there is a power of p $e \geq n$ such that $p^e|x-y \implies x \equiv y \mod p^e \implies x \equiv y \mod p^n$
is this correct?
Little Narwhal
almost, the last => is not right
Little Narwhal
oh nevermind that's fine sorry haha
aight cool
although this is true it doesn't quite tell you when it's invalid
there is a restriction on n that has to pop out
hmm
I guess as a hint, remember x,y are rational numbers
oh okay yeah i was trying to figure that out in this context
$|x|_p$ is perfectly fine with say, $|1/p|_p = p$
Merosity
so it breaks when $n \le 0$, otherwise it's fine
Merosity
yeah that's it
one of the reasons p-adics are useful is it lets you divide by p, which you can't really do mod p^n
and so that's basically what's going on there, we're moving up from being in these rings to a field
ah, well mod p is a field when p is prime
mod p^n is never a field for n>1 since it has 0 divisors
so what you say makes sense at least
in other words, things that multiply to make 0 that aren't themselves 0
namely, p*p=0 mod p^2
right
it's kind of an irritating thing to have to worry about division by p, but when you work with p-adics you still have the modular arithmetic stuff and you can always 'round down' to the number in mod p^m in the end
I guess I should say, every time you're using p-adics you pretty much are using base p, since that's naturally how you think of digits mod p^n anyways
I could show you some simple problems maybe to play with if you want, trying to think of stuff that doesn't require too much work but show some tricks
that would be awesome yeah
sorry for the late reply i was writing the proof in my notebook
I guess it's worth mentioning we also have that infinite sums work here too, so long as they get larger and larger powers of p in them
wdym
$|p^n|p = p^{-n}$ so as n gets larger, $$\lim{n \to \infty} p^n = 0$$
Merosity
oh yeah
you can think of this as being, p^n is 0 mod p^k if you make n large enough
another thing to mention
fair yeah
in $|x-y|_p=p^{-n}$ that n is the number of digits they have in common when written in base p
Merosity
right cause then those become 0 in the subtraction
substraction*
wait actually im missing the point i think
so ok here's a problem for you, for an odd number x, look at 3x+1. How are the digits of x in base 2 related to the number of times you can divide 3x+1 by 2?
lemme pull out some paper
well what's for sure is 3x+1 is at least divisible once by 2
yup
and x being odd guarantees that the first digit in base 2 is one
so i imagine that generalises lemme see
all 3x+1 does is offset the base 2 representation of x twice to the left
I guess to be particular, let's say you divide by 2 exactly n times, how do the digits of x look like in base 2 specifically?
oh wait i messed up
okay okay im getting somehwere
wait i just found something only to realise that wasnt at all what you were asking anymore haha
oh what is it
I just tried to make it more precise, not different haha
if you answered the original thing to some extent that's probably a good step
that $S_2(3x+1) = 2S_2(x) - 1$ but that doesnt have anything to do with the original thing anymore XD
Little Narwhal
yeah idk what i was thinking i went off ona random tangent
now im having trouble recalibrating my brain
|x-y|_p or v_p(x-y) is more what we need to look at to see if something has digits in common with something else
I guess maybe I should give a bit more help I think I might have dropped you in the deep end of the pool and let you drown a bit
but that's good for you 😛
im having so much trouble concentrating idk why
I guess two important things to notice:
$|3x+1|_2=2^{-n}$ means 2 divides 3x+1 exactly n times
Merosity
and that n is the number of 0s at the end of the binary representation of 3x + 1 right?
$|x-a|_2=2^{-m}$ means x and a have exactly m digits in common from right to left
Merosity
yeah exactly
number of 0s on the right is the number of times it's divisible by p in base p
4x +1 -x = 3x + 1 so that means that 4x + 1 and x must have n digits in common from right to left
is that gonna help?
for my solution in mind, nope haha
basically I'm thinking about both of these absolute values I've written above
and now thinking, how do I determine the digits of a?
that will basically answer our question of how m (how the digits of x look) and n (the number of times 3x+1 is divisible by 2) relate
okay
the number of pairs of digits in x is the same as the number of times 3x + 1 is divisible by 2, minus 1?
or am i completely off
cause here's my reasoning
wait nvm i messed up
thought there was smth weird
cool, I was making tea
I don't want to let it drag on too much longer cause I think I haven't really shown you enough examples of how it works to really expect you to solve it I think
i dont like brain farts like this
besides it's tricky haha
especially with a binary question, got a question on binary in an entrance exam and got a brain fart and figured it out right after the exam
was so pissed at myself
I wanted to let you struggle a bit so you get an idea of what things are
ah that sucks haha
so here's what we have $|3x+1|_2=2^{-n}$ so first thing we can do is factor out the 3
Merosity
$|3x+1|_2 = |3|_2 |x+\tfrac{1}{3}|_2$
Merosity
since $|3|_2=1$ we're already closer to $|x-a|_2$ like we want to relate it to
Merosity
$|3x+1|_2 = |x- \tfrac{-1}{3}|_2$
Merosity
ok the problem is, how do we determine the base 2 expansion of -1/3?
it's not even an integer
seems wrong
infinite expansion or smth right
yeah, well mod 2, 4, 8, etc we have -1/3 is perfectly well defined
so we can pull out the digits that way looking each time
yeah, but we can do better
$\frac{-1}{3} = \frac{1}{1-4} = 1+4+4^2+4^4+\cdots = ...010101$
Merosity
ah yeah
so the number of times you divide 3x+1 by 2 is exactly how much the digits of x look like ...01010101
ahhh
the first digit it misses by is where you divide
6 times
yeah good
so technically we didn't probably need to use all this stuff but it was kind of convenient
but we sort of reasoned about an entire bunch of mod 2^n things simultaneously which was nice
wait so why was x being odd important here
ah cause if x is even then 3x + 1 is never divisible by 2 anyways im stupid
i even said it earlier lol
sure, we could consider any other similar type of problem
I just made this cause it was like, related to the collatz conjecture I guess
and it was simple enough to not need the strong triangle inequality
ah
Merosity
but even better, when $|x|_p \ne |y|_p$ then $|x+y|_p = \max(|x|_p,|y|_p)$
Merosity
so like in general all integers satisfy $|x|_p \le 1$ and so if we look at any integer x, $|8x+1|_2 = 1$
Merosity
im trying to convince myself of the max thing
yeah there are two max things to prove here, that it really does satisfy the first version and the second is when they're nonequal it becomes equality
to convince yourself, think about two numbers written in base p
wait i see why
and what happens when you add them
you can see from a decomp i think
like $|x+y|_p = |x|_p|1+\frac{y}{x}|_p = |y|_p|1+\frac{x}{y}|_p$ and those fractions are gonna impact the modulus depending on the distance between x and y mod powers of p
Little Narwhal
yeah, maybe write $x=p^a s$ and $y=p^bt$
Merosity
with $|s|_p=|t|_p=1$
Merosity
hmm yeah
and if $|x|_p = |y|_p$ then $a=b$ so the fractions become $\frac{s}{t}$ and $\frac{t}{s}$
Little Narwhal
yeah, I'm thinking more like, |x|=|y| means a=b so you have
$p^{-a}|s-t|_p$ and so now either they share no digits in common and $|s-t|_p=1$ or they do and $|s-t|_p<1$
Merosity
wait why s-t shouldnt it be s+t
oh whoops, doesn't matter really
I guess maybe we should show other things like multiplication |xy|=|x||y| but we've assumed that
i mean i see why that's true
like in our case |-t|=|-1||t| is probably good to see
yeah
$$t=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_np^n$$
Merosity
$$-1 = \frac{p-1}{1-p} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (p-1)p^n$$
Merosity
so here's the digit expansion of -1, just p-1 repeating
huh interesting way to write -1
now we're not gonna multiply them, but we could
we can directly think about what we need to add to t to make -1
then add 1 to that to get 0
$$f(t) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (p-1-a_n)p^n$$
Merosity
see how p-1 is the largest digit in base p
this means p-1-a_n is also another digit and so this is its digit expansion
and satisfies f(t)+t = -1
yeah
right
and then check that |t|=|1+f(t)|
and we saw that from the fact that it's equivalent to similar digits
yeah pretty much
like if it has all 0s there then it becomes p-1
but when you add 1 it's like
let's look at an example in base 10
32000 would become 67999
and adding 1 to this gets you 68000
well whoopse not quite
it becomes ...999967999
I just disregarded the 9s to the left as irrelevant
right yeah i was a little confused
adding 1 to that gets you ...999968000
the point is the number of 0s on the right is identical
yeah
the negative sign is kind of superfluous in this notation
i guess there's still one result we've been using a lot that im not too confident on, and that's that the number of digits which are the same from right to left of a and b is the same as $v_p(a-b)$
Little Narwhal
yeah lots of stuff going on haha
yeah, and do you see why it's equal to the max when they're not equal?
or don't you mean?
yeah mb
yeah in p-adics things are a bit nicer cause carrying happens to the left
in the reals you're like fighting carrying to the left with getting smaller to the right
but in the p-adics everything just goes to the left haha
not sure what you mean
like when you add fractions, 0.1+0.9 = 1.0
small numbers can end up giving you digits to the left
in the 10-adics however if you add 1+9=10 you will only get smaller or the same size
oh okay yes
if carrying happened to the right we'd be in the same kind of situation
like for example, for a series to converge in the p-adics $\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n$ all you need is for $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=0$
Merosity
im having a bit of trouble understanding what the a_n is here
so all the annoying limit tests etc of real analysis/calculus aren't around
the p adic modulus of a number?
oh I thought you took calculus 2 or something maybe I'm over assuming
a_n are terms of an infinite sequence
like 1, 1, 2, 6, ...
what do you mean by a_n "in the p adics"
$$x=\sum_{n=0}^\infty n!$$ is a well defined p-adic number
Merosity
I guess I have to back track a bit I forget what we covered exactly
right so you mean $\lim_{n\to\infty}|a_n|_p$
Little Narwhal
not the limit on a itself
well the definition of a limit is the same as in real analysis just with the absolute value changed out
ohhh
so it's a limit in the p adic numbers
right okay that's gonna be a little hard to reconcile with
here we say $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = a$ if for all $\epsilon>0$ we have an N such that $n>N$ implies $ |a_n-a|_p <\epsilon$
Merosity
epsilon is real
woo epsilon delta
haha
yeah haha
I didn't much care for analysis when I originally took it
but I grew to like it eventually lol
yeah takes time to really think about and internalize the definitions and feel like they're natural
im gonna head off now it's getting late
but thanks for this it was very interesting though i had a lot of brain farts
I was wondering if someone could help me on how to prove this. I’m not really sure how I would begin.
Do you understand the usual base 3 representation?
$\sum_{i=0}^{n}c_i 3^i$ where each coefficient is 0,1 or 2
MoonBears-D-
Every positive integer can be written in this form in a unique manner
Now, replace wherever 2 occurs with (3-1) (i.e, 2*3^i becomes 3^(i+1)-3^i)
@grave carbon
This shows every non zero integer has a representation of that form(For negative integer a,just find the the representation for -a and multiply that with -1)
You have to show that's unique
Thank you, I’ll work with this @leaden swan
similarly to what merosity and i were discussing yesterday, consider looking at n mod 3^j
I need help with this: Disprove the statement: There exist two distinct primes p and q such that the six integers pq +- 2, pq +- 4, and pq +- 6 are all primes.
Obviously p, q need to be odd for it to be even remotely possible
But the product of two odds + an even = odd, so that doesn't get me anywhere.
you also cant have p or q be 3
Why?
Oh right
i cant figure out more right now im thinking
What are you talking about?
ahhh
Why 3?
for any of those cases one of the others is congruent to 0 mod 3
but that's equivalent to the cases given mod 3
Why not 2?
in fact they have to all be odd
I don't understand that reason 😦
thanks @sage fern i was going of on a wild goose chase
@sacred junco since they all differ from pq by some multiple of 2 they are all congruent to pq mod 2
so you cant reason any differently between them
meanwhile pq +- 2 = pq + 2 mod 3, pq +- 4 = pq + 1 mod 3 and pq +- 6 = pq mod 3
Ohhh
That makes sense I guess
so for the three scenarios of pq where either pq = 0 mod 3, pq = 1 mod 3 or pq = 2 mod 3, one of pq +- 2, pq +-4 and pq +- 6 = 0 mod 3
But how did you know to use 3?
any number smaller than 6 that is coprime with 2 4 and 6 would work i believe
so just 3 and 5
anyway so now there's just the fiddly bit where one of the numbers can be 3 and it dodges the not-prime thing because it having a factor of 3 is fine because it is 3
which is why there's 6 numbers, not 3
yeah cause the +- guarantees that two numbers will be congruent to 0 mod 3

you've got it covered, right?
What do you mean by dodges?
ok so we're showing it's not prime by pinning it down to reveal that one of them has to have a factor of 3
but if that one is in fact 3 it could still work, because 3 | 3 but 3 is still prime, obviously
but if there's one there's another, so it's all fine
Alright
aight i just need a confirmation on a fact that I believe Ive proved but Im never confident so I just want to make sure that this fact is actually true? Would someone be willing to confirm that $\binom{p^i-1}{k}$ is not divisible by $p$ for $0 < k < p^i$ and $p$ prime?
Little Narwhal
and i > 0
i dont need a proof because i believe i have one, just want to make sure the statement is true
which granted i should be convinced of by my proof but just in case
p = 2, i = 3, k = 1; 7C1 = 5040, 2 | 5040
7C1 is not 5040?
it isn't?
nC1 = n
lol thanks though
i actually already have confirmation that (2^i - 1)Ck is odd, i was trying to generalize in coming up with my above statement
can't think of any counterexamples
ima look it up actually shouldve probably done that first
@wise oyster Care to share your proof, then we can check it at least?
Yes lemme just finish my lunch
right so
thanks for the confirmation
here's the proof
it's based on a statement merosity helped me prove yesterday, which states that the highest power of p with p prime to divide $\binom{n}{k}$ is equal to the number of carries you get when adding k and n-k in base p
Little Narwhal
in the case n = p^i - 1, note that the base p representation of n is (p-1)(p-1)....(p-1) with i digits
when i add k and n-k in base p, i need to get that representation
but note that the last digit cannot have been made from a carry
so the last digits of k and n-k when added do not make a carry
this then implies that the next digit cannot have been made by a carry either and so on
more rigorously youd show this by induction
since there are no carries when adding k and n-k, the biggest power of p to divide $\binom{p^i-1}{k}$ is $p^0$
Little Narwhal
so the result follows
Interesting. I don't know the carry thing, but I'll look up to find it
yeah it's a bit far up
Alternatively
just scroll a lot
huh, even more general
From this it follows that (m choose n) is divisble by p iff n has a base p digit greater than m's
But since all the digits of p^i-1 are maximal, this cannot be
yeah
thaniks for showing me that theorem, are you aware of a proof of it that isnt too complicated?
Good luck with it then. I want to learn more NT. It's fun lol.
yeah ive recently started and it's hella interesting
learning from this : https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mathematics/18-781-theory-of-numbers-spring-2012/lecture-notes/ and various other online sources when confused or want more info
and of course all you wonderful folks on the server
huh the proof for lucas's theorem is surprisingly simple
Thanks, I'll look at that too
ugh okay i said lucas's proof was easy at first but that last equality for the generating functions proof took me a while to understand. Not incredibly intuitive I wonder if there's a nicer way to split that last step into smaller steps
Problem: Let $a_1, a_2, \dots, a_r$ be odd integers where $a_i > 1$ for $i = 1, 2, \dots, r$. Prove that if $n = a_1 a_2 \cdots a_r + 2$, then $a_i \nmid n$ for each integer $i ~ (1 \le i \le r).$
Suppose the contrary, that if $n = a_1 a_2 \cdots a_r + 2$, then $a_i \mid n$ for each integer $i ~ (1 \le i \le r).$
Observe that each $a_i$ is odd, so $\prod_{1 \le i \le r} a_i$ is odd by a previously proven result of the product of odd being being odd.
Without loss of generality, let $a_i = a_1.$ Then since $a_1 \mid n$, let $n = a_1 x$ for some integer $x$. Then $$\prod_{1 \le i \le r} a_i + 2 = n \implies \frac{\prod_{1 \le i \le r} a_i + 2}{a_1} = x.$$ And $x$ is an integer, so the sum $$\prod_{2\le i \le r} a_i + \frac{2}{a_1}$$ is an integer, except it is not since $a_1$ is odd and larger than $1$, so it can't be an integer and thus we have a contradiction. One remark is that we set $a_i = a_1$ to make the proof easier to follow and keep our notation tidy, but we didn't use a fact that is exclusive to $a_1$.
LINEAR_ALGEBRA_GUY
Does this proof work?
First line is wrong
The contrary would be that there is an integer i for which ai divides n
Not that each ai divides n
same misconception as your question from the other day with the negation of a for all statement @sacred junco
Yeah
I know
That was an accident
@wise oyster @abstract flax The proof still works though, just have to change for "for each a_i" into "exists an a_i, suppose a_1 is the one that divides n"
Right?
The proof is fine, but it would be a lot cleaner if you just used divisibility notation
Do you know a | b as notation for a divides b?
yes cause they used it lol
Well yes considering I used it
Well, do you know the result that if a |b and a|c then a|(b+c)?
Yes
just use that
^^
Well first of all a_i | (n - a1a2 * ... * a_n) = 2 doesn't really make sense?
Because a | b tells us that a divides into b, not that it's equal to something?
I mean ai divides the expression in the brackets, and that expression equals 2
So ai | (n-a1a2...ar)
But n-a1a2...ar = 2, so ai | 2
Well, unnecessarily detail since you aren't using already proven results
And it's not exactly the same
With more details, it would be. Suppose ai divides n. Then n = ai(q) for some q. So 2 = ai(q-a1...a(i-1)a(i+1)...ar) which is impossible.
somewhat related, suppose you're wanting to look at the taylor expansion $$\sqrt{1+x} = (1+x)^{1/2} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \binom{1/2}{n} x^n$$ which comes from repeated differentiation, so you naturally have the polynomial $$\binom{m}{n} = \frac{1}{n!} \prod_{k=0}^{n-1}(m-k)$$
Merosity
@wise oyster turns out the only primes in the denominator of $\binom{1/2}{n}$ is 2, and this is general, you can show it from the p-adic absolute value
Merosity
maybe not the direction you were headed in, since now this is considering rational numbers in the binomial coefficient lol
yeah but still an interesting fact
ive rounded off on my notes on binomial coeffs for now though and ill get back to them later, i still havent really gotten to congruences yet (though thankfully im already familiar with them) so i wanna move on lol
ill get back to binomial coeffs when i decide to write down the proof for lucas's theorem
Hi
👋
Problem: Solve the diophantine equation, P(x,y) = y^2-x^3+5x over rationals/Integers.
over rationals or only over integers? @hexed echo
Both
I thought of this, y^2 = x^3 - 5x , any integer mod 5 is 0, 1, 2,3,4, the squares of those mod 5 are 0,1,4,4,1 and the cubes of those mod 5 are 0, 1,3,2,4 "respectively" , so LHS= y^2 mod 5 takes values 0,1,4,4,1 while RHS = x^3 + 5x mod5 takes values 0, 1,3,2,4 , now it is clear, that we take only the matching remainders. so the solutions are of the form (x,y) = { ( 5a+1, 5b+1) , ( 5k+2, 5l+4) , ( 5u+3, 5v+4), ( 5t+4, 5q+1) } a,b,k,l,u,v,t,q are integers
so I thought about integers
I don't know if this is really the right way to do it though , tell me if something is wrong
@hexed echo
Yeah
we can write a in terms of b as it is just a quadratic like (5a+1) = sqrt ((5b+1)^3 -(5b+1))
and you can do it further
It's related to elliptic curves I think
similarly we can write k in terms of l
is this method wrong to do for integers?
I haven't studied elliptic
I posted it only because of my curiosity.
I haven't even seriously studied number theory till now , only bits of it from here and there
so what do you think of my method?
Are you in University?
once you have come up with solutions mod 5, you can use hensel lifting to lift them to higher and higher powers of 5
Hmmm
@torn escarp could you tell me if I have the right approach for integer solutions?
in theory this gets you all integers and rationals that have no 5 in the denominator
but it also gets you a bunch of extra 5-adic ones as well so
It's not like the solution I want
it's like saying you can solve it in the reals in a sense
in other words, it's just not really precise enough information without doing some other work too
what work, that I don't know, just keep trying random tricks, maybe there's something you can try in particular
I don't know much about elliptic curves either
lol
I was just responding to Kanishk
wolfram alpha says there are 5 integer solutions but I don't know if that list is exhaustive
@hexed echo what have you tried?
I typed up a bit of basic 5-adic stuff for the problem earlier and almost forgot, it's probably alien looking so I added a bit of annotation in there. http://mathb.in/48570
pls help me
let us simplify it a bit, I will write in(x,y) , ok, \newline $x^2 -x -11 = y^2 \Rightarrow x^2 - x -(11+ y^2) =0 \Rightarrow x =\frac{ 1 \pm \sqrt {45 + 4y^2}}{2}$ now you have to solve $45 + 4y^2 = m^2$ where m is an integer, $4y^2 - m^2 = -45 \Rightarrow 4y^2 \equiv m^2 $(mod 3)
I think you can solve further on your own, using Pell's equation ? @sacred junco
Kanishk
thanks a lot
idk if i can solve further but i try
i dont know so good pell’s equation
@sacred junco you can ask again, if you can't
i cant........
so when looking at the case p = 1 mod 4, it seems the only characteristic of p that makes the argument possible is that p is odd. Yet when p = 3 mod 4 this is also the case. Without considering the part of the proof that shows that p = 3 mod 4 wouldnt work, where does the argument that it works for p = 1 mod 4 breakdown for p = 3 mod 4?
alright nevermind i figured it out
p-1/2 is odd when p = 4k + 3 aight
Suppose a and b are fixed integers and let c = ax+by, where x and y are arbitrary integers. Does anyone have any ideas for an algorithm to compute the smallest value of |x| such that |c| < |x| for some y? If it helps anything, a and b can be assumed to be relatively prime, but in the case I want to solve they are on the order of 20 digits. I am currently running what is basically a brute force algorithm, which involves looping over n modding a*n out by b (call that value m) and taking the minimum of m and |m-b|. But this is quite slow and I am not sure it will finish in a reasonable amount of time
hmm, there's LLL, probably
no idea though, I'm just putting it as an option while thinking
so you want |ax|<|x| mod b
also I might add, it is not necessarily the case that there is a good algorithm, since it's a part of a problem that I mostly made up
yeah, so with LLL, you can choose vectors
(b 0)
(a 1)
and you should get
small small
but that's all I got so far
oh wait @sacred junco found a heuristic, choose these vectors
(b 0)
(a 1-epsilon)
which means you have a basis vector
(c, (1-epsilon)x)
so, if epsilon is well chosen, you'll expect c and (1-epsilon)x to be about the same in magnitude, so |x|>|c|...
hmm I don't know anything about LLL and don't understand
how do we know that f'(a) has an inverse mod p?
it's the only step of the proof im unclear on
nvm i just figured it out
it's always like this haha
aight another question that i hope ill figure out on my own before you answer
This is for a proof that there are primitive roots mod m iff m = 1,2,4, p^e, 2p^e
I dont get how g being odd implies that it is a primitive root mod 2p^e
i imagine there's a way to combine g^(phi(p^e)) = 1 mod 2 and g^(phi(p^e)) = 1 mod p^e into g^(phi(p^e)) = 1 mod 2p^e but my brain is dead and i cant see how
reeeeee this is driving me crazy i feel stupid
<@&286206848099549185>
mod 2p^e only depends on mod 2 and mod p^e since p^e and 2 are relatively prime
im not sure i see why that helps
in regular circumstances maybe i would but my brain has melted from 7h straight of number theory
wait i think i mightve just seen something
is p^e + 2 coprime to 2p^e? If so then ive got it
it probably is lemme see...
right the prime factors of 2p^e are 2 and p while the prime factors of p^e + 2 do not include 2 or p since p is odd
aight got it
wait no
nvm yes
got it
lol
now to figure out the even case
i dont even know what they mean by add p^e to it
aight i need to take a break and sleep but id really appreciate it if anyone could shed some clarity on this odd even argument to get the primitive roots mod 2p^e... Ill read it in the morning if anyone responds
i understand the rest of the proof (thank fuck) this part is the only part holding me back
Prove that for any given irrational number $u$, there are infinitely many rational numbers $\frac{p}{q}, p,q \in \mathbb{Z}$, such that $\abs{ u - \frac{p}{q}} < \frac{1}{q^{2}}$
MisterSystem
I really don't want to the full proof of this problem
Just to discuss ideas of how to solve it.
I'm supposed to prove it using the pigeonhole principle
One thing to notice is that it's always possible to find rational numbers p/q such that the absolute value of the difference u-(p/q) is less than or equal to 1.
Ofc
Just take p\q = floor(u)
So without loss of generality, we can suppose we will suppose |u - (p/q)| < 1
I guess that's the first thing to do
Now, 1/q² divides the interval [0,1) into q² pieces
In the sense that $[0,1) = \bigcup\limits_{k=1}^{q^{2}} [\frac{k-1}{q^{2}}, \frac{k}{q^{2}})$
MisterSystem
Sorry for the bad typesetting
But I think you get what I mean
These are all disjoint
So these can be our "pigeonholes"
But I really don't see how to keep up with the proof
Maybe I should give a proof by contradiction? I don't really see how could I construct all these infinitely many rational numbers.
Looking for a proof by contradiction seems more natural.
sure
I'm not sure what to do next really
I guess something natural to prove is this
for any given q
there always exists a p<q^2 with |u-(p/q)| < 1/q^2
so that the pigeonhole principle would naturally fit in this proof
this is a conjecture of course and a much stronger statement than the one I'm trying to prove
but I really don't know what to do
could you give me some tips of what to do next?
@keen furnace my main problem with that is that i was only able to show that g^phi(2p^e) = 1 mod 2p^e when g is odd, not that phi(2p^e) was in fact the order of g mod 2p^e... and if i add p^e to g id first have to show that g+p^e is also a primitive root mod p^e right? (Though I think I see how that could be done)
alright so correct me if im wrong but is this a good argument for the odd case:
$g^{\phi(p^e)}\equiv 1 \mod 2 => p^e\cdot g^{\phi(p^e)}\equiv p^e \mod 2p^e$. Similarly $g^{\phi(p^e)}\equiv 1 \mod p^e => 2\cdot g^{\phi(p^e)}\equiv 2 \mod 2p^e$. Adding the two gets us $g^{\phi(p^e)}(p^e+2)\equiv p^e + 2 \mod 2p^e$ and so $g^{\phi(p^e)}\equiv 1 \mod 2p^e$ because $gcd(p^e + 2, 2p^e) = 1$. This shows that $ord_{2p^e}(g) | \phi(p^e) = \phi(2p^e)$. Conversely, if $g^k \equiv 1 \mod 2p^e$ then $g^k \equiv 1 \mod p^e$ and so $ord_{p^e}(g) = \phi(p^e) | k$. So the smallest value of k possible is $\phi(p^e)$ and we know that that value works so the proof that g is a primitive root $\mod 2p^e$ if g is odd and a primitive root $\mod p^e$ is complete