#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 37 of 1
CRT helps you solve this. You can either solve explicitly for the set but it's significant strength is the existence of such a set of infinite solutions
@weary eagle lemme know when you come online, we'll go step by step
It's surprising that they had to wait this long.
In any case @weary eagle you can watch a youtube video about it and then ask questions about what is unclear, that would make it easier for people to answer.
And if it is that nothing makes sense to you then I think you should start at the beginnings of modular arithmetic.
I know that it exists and works for that
I have mastered fermat,wilson,toitent
Just one piece
How to use crt is left
I wanna learn how to use crt
I know what it is
@graceful pebble
(again,mods pinging for doubt)
I know like when like
X mod 5(mod 3)
X mod 7 (mod 4)
We let x= 3x+5=7y+4
Then we do 7x-3y=-1
Ie 3x-7y=1
Wait.... Isn't this the whole concept
But for this we have to plug and chug too much
Which is not good is there any like algorithm or smth for exact soln
Yes
There is
A sec
Here is the second challenge. I think that's a nice problem
Please post images (such as PNGs or JPGs) of the question rather than other filetypes such as PDFs which have to be downloaded. Non-image downloads can potentially contain viruses or other security risks.

p2 was a putnam problem i think
or an IMO problem
seomthing along those lines
Oh, great! The whole exercise is part of the French tournament “Évariste”
I tried chatgpt on problem 2, it can actually solve it
yes chatgpt is good at problems it knows the answer to
do we have special terms for "set of products of n biprime numbers"?
that's semiprime
this one is "products of it"
semiprime set\this one =
{16, 24, 40, 60, 64,...}
Are you sure that 64 belongs here? Because I'm thinking you meant to say 4-almost primes ... ?
...uhh, not what i meant
basically if we have a set of semiprimes, choose n numbers from it, can choose members multiple times, multiply the chosen numbers, then you get another set
would that be union of the sets of 2n-almost primes
oh that's the name
oh right, 729 is also in this set
so 2n-almost primes it is
also by this page, 64 is a 6-almost primes, right
So I have this problem where I need to solve $5x + 1 \equiv 13 (mod 23) $
I don't know how to do that
I know through equivalence classes modulo n that the equation $5x + 1 - 13 = 23k$ but I don't know how many different x's satisfy the equation
Heavy_Hussar
if you can compute the inverse of 5 mod 23, you can multiply both sides by that inverse
(we know an inverse exists because 5 and 23 are coprime, and more generally since 23 is prime every nonzero number has an inverse)
Alright that should work. Now I need to figure out how to take modulo inverses
extended euclidean algorithm works
alternatively you can try guessing a power of 5 such that 5^n is congruent to 1, and then 5^(n-1) will be the inverse
for any nonzero number x mod prime p, you can always write the inverse of x as x^(p-2), and then reduce
(this is essentially fermat's little theorem)
What does the reduction look like here using Fermat's Little Theorem?
5^(21) is what I get but I don't know what reduction for that looks like
I'm not doing this for an assignment (I'm doing this for fun) but I'm very lost here
I know the extened euclidian algorithm better so I'll use that
5^21 · 5 = 5^22 == 1 (mod 23) due to Fermat's little theorem.
So 5^21 is multiplicative inverse to 5 modulo 23.
You may be more familiar with using Fermat to evaluate modular powers, but it won't help you with 2^21 here because the exponent is already smaller than the totient.
Instead you could use exponentiation by squaring: compute 5^2, 5^4, 5^8, 5^16 by squaring modulo 23, and then 5^21 = 5·5^4·5^16. That's 6 modular multiplications -- not super quick for pencil and paper, but better than the 20 you would need to raise to the 21th power naively.
You can also just wing it: Multiplying your initial 5 by 5 gives 25 == 2, and multiplying 2 by 12 gives 24 == 1. So the inverse of 5 is 5·12 = 60 == 14 == -9.
Yeah I got that from the extended euclidian algorithm approach
Now I need to translate that into the equivalency directly
Which I also don't know how to do >.>
now that you know 14 is the inverse of 5, you can multiply both sides of your congruence by 14
this gets rid of the coefficient of x, and you can solve for x
and because you're multiplying by an invertible number, your new congruence is equivalent to the old one, so you don't add any extraneous solutions or lose any solutions
But wouldn't 60 or -9 also work if they're equivalent?
They're all equivalent I guess
-9 or 14 or 60 all work, it's just a matter of making the arithmetic simpler by choosing the smaller one.
I guess 14 is the easiest number to deal with then
Also how does one find the other modular multiplicative inverses? I only got -9 from the Euclidian Algorithm approach
You can get the others by adding different multiples of 23 to the one you found.
when doing anything mod n, you can think of 0 to n-1 as being the "only numbers"; any two integers that are n apart will have the same properties mod n when adding or multiplying, so you don't have to distinguish between e.g. 0 and 23
multiplicative inverses are defined by how they behave when multiplying, so this property is preserved for all numbers 23 away mod 23
1+1=3
Ah, Z/1Z.
working mod 23, all of those are just different ways to write the same number, so they all work for the same reason that multiplying by "7*2" would also work
Hi, I'm really struggling with this problem, looking for just a small hint/push in the right direction
Not sure how to proceed at the moment
ah wait i think i just got it
"the length of the path through any one circle is always known" seems to be a pretty fat hint...
im not good enough at this to understand why thats a big hint i guess
The path being described consists of two radii in each circle, so it's really just asking us to sum all of the diameters.
However, the sum of the diameters of the circles that touch the red ones is at least 1.
And the sum of the diameters of the next "layer" of circles is again at least 1.
And (if I interpret the figure right) there keep being new layers of circles whose diameters add up to at least 1 in each layer.
(It actually seems to take a bit of finesse to even convince oneself that the description does define a "path" in the sense of the continuous image of a real interval. I think it does -- but it will not be a continuous injective image of an interval).
what does "continuous injective image of an interval" mean?
i may be in over my head here
It is common to define a "path" in the plane to mean a continuous function f: [0,1] -> R².
I'm saying that that definition does seem to be possible for the description in the problem, but f cannot be injective.
Like the path is continuous but it overlaps itself?
More precisely, the circle centers for x-coordinates just below ½ converge to (½,0) and so to the ones with x-coordinate just above ½. So the path being described must have a part where it goes straight up from (½,0) to the center of the largest white circle, and then straight down to (½,0) again.
Yes.
theoretically that occurs at every circle no
Right.
at first I thought the length would be |N| but that makes it feel like |R|
that was helpful, thanks. ive found this class to be really challenging lol, i may be under equipped to do a lot of these problems
There are only countably many circles.
The x-coordinate of the path function will look something like the Cantor function (but not exactly that), and the y-coordinate will be a fractal mess of triangular spikes.
where is this from?
looks like a fun problem
my number theory class in hs
those problems were already due, and i didn’t have time to solve that one so i was just curious as to what the approach might be
I fail to see the "number theory" in the problem.
Maybe that's just me being stupid, but could someone explain what the connection is?
I don't think it really looks like number theory either. Perhaps miscategorized due to some language barrier.
so where would such a question go to
#real-complex-analysis might be our best match.
It does feel a bit weird to direct a question from a high-school course to a channel in the advanced category, but on the other hand #real-complex-analysis is a bit dubiously placed -- I had real analysis in my first year of university for example.
(And it's an unusually tricky question for the high school level).
Right
that’s just where i got it from lol
there have been a lot of problems like that with tangent circle packing involved in the problem sets and i’m generally not very good at them
Oh I didn't mean to question why you were posting it here, I was just confused about why a number theory class would discuss such problems.
ah okay
here are some other questions that go with that diagram, are these more number theory related?
That's more of a number theory flavor.
these are ford circles right ?
17 is a very number-theoretic topic; 16 falls into a somewhat neglected area at the intersection between number theory and geometry.
if so im pretty sure at some point in time you would have covered and hence know the exact radius of each circle and their centres, from there it should be quite easy to calculate
they are connected to something called Farey sequences, so maybe you can dig around there too
Interesting. So it does make sense, even though the problem in isolation doesn't look like it has much to do with number theory.
i cant lie i wouldnt be able to tell that this is a number theory question if i hadnt already knew about them lol
Ah
Interesting
no idea, the class is all like exploratory so we never learn the real names of things
yeah no worries, but heres a wiki page if you care enough
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ford_circle
i have (poorly) written some stuff on this too, I can dm you a file if you would like
sure i’ll take a look
no non-computative solutions for this one?
they fused geometry and NT ☠️
Can you dm it to me too?
if you are into it then I think Topology of Numbers by Hatcher may be worth a look https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&opi=89978449&url=https://pi.math.cornell.edu/~hatcher/TN/TNbook.pdf&ved=2ahUKEwi8jcvRtb2UAxVBR2wGHV5EHgwQFnoECBwQAQ&usg=AOvVaw00yB33LDhhiP-0vVhUj2R6
(not pirated, available for free on author's website)
what do you mean by non computative?
non-computative solution
solution that doesnt require computations, or actually bruteforcing all the possibilities
not all, but, just proving its existence
hmmm, let me think
i think it might be hard
because showing that an infinity of such primes exist is an open problem
should say "is there a proof for this that doesnt require any computation"
your question is pretty related to that
oh btw
I think one might
use PNT
bounds on primes in general
and show if all such numbers are primes then we run into problems with the bounds
i dont think you can get a "clean" which talks about the "structure" of numbers of such form because that would be close to solving an open problem. dont take my word though im not experienced
hmm, i cant think of anything more than a heuristic argument, nice question though
@rain wren you might want to look into the bounds for primes maybe that will help, you can find them in Hardy and Wright or Number Theory a Masterclass by Granville, I think Granville has a chapter on formulae to represent primes I think he might have discussed it there
oh, will this actually belong to #advanced-number-theory though
I think its fine here
eh true
aren't you that guy
we talked about that theorem that all naturals except 1, 4, 6 are a sum of distinct primes
i remember the pfp, nice to see you working on primes again
yes
cool
small server for one with 300k people
@rain wren lol i was having tea and i came back to say this
i think i got it
we know that all primes are either of form 6k + 1 or 6k - 1
(im probably going to make a fool of myself but anyways)
wait, is this the 1,4,6 one?
no your question about primorials
so
when you reduce mod 6
your primorial + 1 is a product of -1's and 1's
- 1
where am i going wrong though
this would imply it can never be prime
ah i was missing the 2
regardless
let me phrase it well
in one go
@rain wren So lets call the primorial P, now looking at P + 1 after reducing modulo 6 we have 2(S) + 1 where S is a product of -1's and 1's
now S can either be 1 or -1
in the first case P + 1 is congruent to 3 mod 6 and hence composite
in the second case it maybe prime
oh wait, i thought 1st case means 1st primorial
my bad
Yeah so the whole problem is reduced to showing that S will be 1 infinitely often
we know that will happen infinitely often
because note that there are infinitely many primes of form 6k + 1 and also infinity of form 6k - 1, now by looking at n-th primorial say its not congruent to 1 mod 6, go to (n+1)th primorial say even it isn't congruent to 1 mod 6, keep going to the next primorial and eventually we should hit a prime of form 6k - 1 making the primorial congruent to 1 mod 6
thanks
i’ll check it out
im so sorry, i meant to say 6k + 1, let me edit
nah lol im right
I think you should convince yourself of the last fact about it being congruent to 1 mod 6 infinitely often
I probably butchered the explanation
but its a really simple fact
by the fact that primorials themselves are always multiple of 6?
(except 2)
No
im sorry i messed up the explanation a little
i mixed up S and P
my bad
I'll go again
So far it is clear that P + 1 will be equally to 2S + 1 obviously, now S is a product of consecutive odd primes
Now to show that P + 1 is composite infinitely often we will show 2S + 1 is congruent to 3 mod 6 infinitely often, which implues P + 1 is congruent to 3 mod 6 infinitely often and consequently P + 1 is of form 6k - 3 and thus a multiple of 3.
2S ≡3 (mod 6) (wrong)
it cant be
rh wait
Thats impossible
S ≡ 3 (mod 6)
No
It can only be 1 or - 1 cant be 3
I think we should get on the same page about what P and S are
here
P is the nth primorial and S is the primorial without 2, only odd primes in S
so it was
P+1=2S+1
therefore
P=2S
known that
P+1≡1 (mod 6)
thus, because P=2S
2S+1≡1 (mod 6)
Yeah
but we don't need that
Oh Fuck
I forgot 3
3 isnt of form 6k ± 1
shit
let me see if the proof still works
perhaps should we use P=6S
yeah
since 6k±1 primes only begin at 5
wait, i think can assume it's in form of
6S+1= AB
which, gives prime for A=1
I don't see that going very far
so 2 choices
A,B≡1
or
A,B≡-1
which, indicates composite 6S+1 if
A≡-1 and
B≡-1
now we should prove existence of A and B such that A and B ≡-1
Welp
sucks my proof doesn't work
the 6 in the 6S makes reducing mod 6 irrelevant
So we cant exploit the structure of S which we know is a product of 1s and -1s that was the key thing
let me read what you wrote closely
Hmm
i don't see any steps beyond what you said
but notice that it works if you remove 3 from the primorial
so if we ask for nonprime P/3+1 we can use that?
yes
eh, true
Is there another number like 6
30
i mean 6 has a the property that all primes are 6K ± 1
unfortunately primes in form of 30k+n will be
30k±1, 30k±7, 30k±11, 30k±13
which, is impractical
yeah
basically primorial±coprime
there is 8 with 8k ± 1, and 8k + 3, 8k +5
8k+3 and 8k+5 can be unified as 8k±3
yeahh
then we have ti worry about
what will S be?
smallest such prime is 8×0 + 3 = 3
So we have 2S + 1 = P + 1
this time fr!
wait, P without 3 or normal P?
then we have S congruent to ± 3^k
mod 6 or 8?
8
wait
(all mod 8)
S(1)=3, 3≡3
S(2)=15, 15≡-1
S(3)=105, 105≡1
S(4)=1155, 1155≡3
i think it tends to be ±1 though? wronh
composite P+1
last time what i wanted was to show that 2S + 1 is of a particular form infinitely often and that form is always composite
wait, i think instead of proving their existence without computation, maybe i should just ask to find smallest composite P+1 in the given range of numbers
elaborate
the question? hmmm
maybe like this
smallest composite primorial(n)+1 that is over 1 million.
nvm it seems bruteforceable
smallest composite primorial(n)+1 that is 100 digits long
"it is extremely likely that P + 1 is composite as P grows to infinity"
thats not a good answer
i just asked Claude to pursue the Prime number theorem lane and it brought in some weird Borel Cantelli lemma and something i have no idea of
its proof seems bullshit
so i think reduction modulo different numbers is our best bet
if we try reducing to 4
we do have S being -1 or 1 but we then run into the problem that
2S + 1 will be -1 or 3 mod 4 which we can't guarantee will be composite
But i think it is clear form that why P + 1 will be composite infinitely often because for it to be always prime it should hit at ONLY THE PRIMES of form 4k ± 1 and AVOID ALL COMPOSITES OF THAT FORM
Thats really really unlikely
maybe if we can show that primes of form 4k ± 1 are rarely P + 1 we are done
but that sounds hard too
anyways I'll ask a friend, I'll text you later @rain wren
!noai
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
Didnt know, sorry, it was just so it could give references, i wasnt expecting it to give me a proof, i expected that it would spit out garbage, which it did.
Anyways wont repeat that
I cant believe I wrote a thing as stupid as that.
@rain wren "As of 2025, it is not known whether there are infinitely many primorial primes, and it is also not known whether infinitely many numbers of the form p_n# ± 1 are composite."
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primorial_prime
In mathematics, a primorial prime is a prime number of the form pn# ± 1, where pn# is the primorial of pn (i.e. the product of the first n primes).
Primality tests show that:
pn# − 1 is prime for n = 2, 3, 5, 6, 13, 24, 66, 68, 167, 287, 310, 352, 564, 590, 620, 849, 1552, 1849, 67132, 85586, 234725, 334023, 435582, 446895, ... (sequence...
It's a goddamn open problem
well, nothing we can do about it for now i guess
or perhaps it's a literal unsolvable (like ellipse perimeter)
Yeah, though your question was a little different, i.e. can we show it will be composite atleast once without computation
true
I don't see if that can be done easily, if that can then I think it would give a clue about how to solve the original one
Can I add you?
Speaking of ellipse perimeters
There is an interesting connection to something called the arithmetic geometric mean, worth checking out
Unless you know already
Its absolutely beautiful, my favourite math ever
🎉
||It is fairly straightforward to see that 2n must factor into two numbers of opposite parity. Hence, the number of representations of n as a sum of two or more consecutive positive integers equals the number of odd divisors of n, excluding 1. Therefore, the apathetic numbers are precisely the powers of 2, while every prime number is truly striking (and thus there is no largest truly striking number).
If d is an odd divisor of n then the last term of the representation is n/d+(d-1)/2.
The representation has 2n/d terms when d>sqrt(2n), and d terms when d<sqrt(2n).
Hence, for n=1001 we have 7 nontrivial divisors d=7,11,13,77,91,143,1001 which give representations: 140..146, 86..96, 71..83, 26..51, 35..56, 65..78, 500..501.
For the last task we need the smallest number with exactly 1001 odd divisors.
By the divisor function, this number should be 3^12 * 5^10 * 7^6 =610581076259765625 since larger exponents should go with smaller primes.||
any numbertheorists wanna help me with my proof over at #help-7|zen1thxyz
How to do ts guys?
Reposted and resolved: #help-7|zen1thxyz message
once again cheers
@carmine tide now to prove fermats little, would it suffice to use same proof, but replace the set with {1,2,...(p-1)}
pretty cool problem from my homework i thought i'd share here
it shows up everywhere lol
pretty easy to see why it comes up here but i thought the presentation was relatively unique
||Consider the fraction x/y for integers x,y. The probability that x,y do not share a common factor of p for some prime p is 1-(1/p)^2. Taking this product over all primes p, as the number of fractions goes to infinity, the probabilit ythat a fraction is in lowest terms is the product of 1-(1/p)^2 over all primes.
P = prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (1-1/p^2)
1/P = prod_{n=1}^{\infty} 1/(1-(1/p)^2) = prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (1+(1/p)^2+(1/p)^4+...)
Thus, by fundmanetal theorem of arithmetic, 1/P = 1/1^2 + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + ... = pi^2/6
Thus, P = 6/pi^2||
Correct
cool problem
yea i thought it was pretty neat
do u have any other cool problems?
this one is kind of cool
i think generally its because 2 mod 3 factors create 1 mod 3 factors
gotta find a way to prove it tho
yea i had the same idea
i kinda went though a few examples
mm alr
so consdier like any number n
it has a 1 mod 3 factors that are prime*
and b 2 mod 3 factors that are prime*
0 mod 3 factors don't rlly matter
and u want to find how many factors of n are 1 mod 3 or 2 mod 3
so the product of any collection (possibly empty) of 1 mod 3 factors is 1 mod 3
and if u consider 2 mod 3 factors
an even number of them make 1 mod 3 factors
so 2 mod 3 prime factors contribute at least as many 1 mod 3 factors as 2 mod 3 factors
cuz (b choose 0) + (b choose 2) + ... + (b choose b-1) for b odd is 2^(b-1) ≥ 1/2*2^b
and (b choose 0) + (b choose 2) + ... + (b choose b) for b even is 2^(b-1) ≥ 1/2*2^b
that should be it i think
this applies for any residues x,y (mod n) where x = 1 (mod n) and y^k = 1 (mod n) for some k ≠ 0
isnt this kind of treating it like it independently decides if each divisor is 1 or 2 mod 3 but the residue would depend on the product across all the primes at once
unless im misunderstanding
cuz of the exponents
wait can u explain
you can independlty decice if each divisor is 1 or 2 mod 3 becuase of the multiplciative structure of divisors for a number n i thiknk
yea but i think assigning each divisor as like a 1 or 2 mod 3 wont work because the exponent of each prime factor changes it differently
like 2^a * 5^b for example
2^0 *5^0 = 1 mod 3 and increasing either of the exponents but not the other makes it 2, and then increasing both makes it 1 again
like basically if u just look at the 2^a factor its not enough to know if it will make it 1 or 2 mod 3 because sometimes the 5^b causes them both to flip
you assign only the prime factors as 1 or 2 mod 3
and you detremine the residue of the rest of the factors mod 3 using the reamineder mod 3 of hte prime factors
but doesnt it depend on the exponents of the prime factors
you count multiplicity of prime factors
so if ur number is 2^4 * 5^3
the prime factors aare 2,2,2,2,5,5,5
Just wanted to make sure I understood the problem, the factors of 10 are 5,2,1, does that count as two 2 mod 3 factors and one 1 mod 3 factor?
no, 10 also counts
ah
so it would be two 2 mod 3 and two 1 mod 3
So we know that when $d \equiv 2, 3 \pmod{4}$ the ring of integers of $\bQ(\sqrt{d})$ is $\bZ[\sqrt{d}]$ and when $d \equiv 1 \pmod{4},$ it's $\bZ[\frac{1 + \sqrt{d}}{2}]$
Neamesis
But
But instead of writing it as $a + b \left( \frac{1 + \sqrt{d}}{2} \right)$ where $a, b$ vary over integers it seems you can also write it as $a + b \sqrt{d}$ where $a, b$ vary over halves of odd integers?
Neamesis
I don't see how they're equivalent 
Expanding an expression from the first form gives
$$x+y \left(\frac{1+\sqrt d}{2} \right)=\left(x+\frac{y}{2} \right)+\frac{y}{2} \sqrt d$$
for integers $x$ and $y$. \
Setting this equal to $a+b\sqrt{d}$ yields $a=x+\frac{y}{2}$ and $b=\frac{y}{2}$. When $y$ is an odd integer, $b$ becomes a half-integer. Since $x$ is a whole integer, $a$ is also a half-integer. This means that $a$, $b$ are always either both integers or both halves of odd integers;
Civil Service Pigeon
Neam learning algebraic number theory
peak
Thanks a lot 
Just a bit
Something to think about is what is the 2 representing here
discovered that for a "custom fibonacci"\
$F_{a,b}(n) = f(n+2)a + f(n+1)b$\
with:\
$f(n)$ is the $n$th fibonacci number with 0th term of 0 and 1st term of 1.\
$a,b$ being the 0th and 1st term of this\
"so called" custom fibonacci
like, should be obvious, but my gullible mind wished for other fancy stuffs that dont involve the original fibonacci numbers somehow.
tsuitachi (tuitati)
hello
hm never thought about that
It's a fun problem
Compare it with the ring without the 2
I have a question regarding this form of modular arithmetic. Given an $a \in \mathbb{Z}_n$, find an element $b \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ such that $a + b \equiv b + a \equiv 0 (\mod n) $
Heavy_Hussar
I don't know how to find the other element b in this equivalency problem
The integer b has to be added to a in such a way that it always produces no remainder in relation to n, but I don't know how to do that with addition
I guess a + b must have n as a factor for this to be true
I don't know how to go about proving that though or what b would be in that case
How about b = n - a?
Since a \in \mathbb{Z}_n then a < n and then b = n - a \in \mathbb{Z}_n
Yeah that one is pretty easy to be honest
It just felt like that was too easy when I was looking at it
Happens sometimes, had that happen thrice with me today.
Are sequences to be discussed here?
If you're interested in things like whether the sequences converge, one of #precalculus, #calculus or #real-complex-analysis will be better.
Depends
I think this one is tricky
i found one pair that works 😅
as for all of them i’m lost
cool problem though i will try a bit more than guess and check bs
|| a =16 b=2 should work ||
a and b both have to share the same set of prime factors
i think ||(3,27) ||works as well
owo

hi

am i late
what is that sum
depends on ur index set @sacred junco
another channel to mute 
:'(
i won't if griff is here explaining number theory
always!

num-theory
yay new channel

is number theory related to math?
is maths related to science
no
😵 this channel became a shitpost channel as soon as it opened
Yup
Indeed
If i have a repeating decimal (like 0.333...), i can express it as fraction as $$\frac{\text{the sequence to repeat}}{\text{99999... the number of 9 is the number of digits in that sequence}}$$
$$$$
Prove that this is true for all repeating decimals.
is that tru? :0
prove that, for each k>0, there is a highest natural n so that the prime factors of n(n+1) are all at most k
Channel alridy taken griff...
But i think it’s true
Wdym by n(n+1)? Is n a prime factor?!
No
lol okay that makes it way easier
My bad
I hate how mathbot makes its fractions. Anyways
let A be that repeating sentence, and n be the length
=tex \frac{A}{10^n-1} = \sum_{k=1}^\infty A*10^{-nk} = 0.[A][A]\ldots
I have soooo much difficulty vizualizing sums...
But it’s a way to prove it, 
NEW QUESTION
Prove that there are no such possible sequence 0.9999999..., or disprove it
:(
I know right?
here's one for you @craggy osprey
=tex \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^n \left{\frac{n}{k}\right}
{x} is the fractional part of x.
I don’t do sums.
:(
It’s gay.

“~”? “Squarefree”? Reeeeeeee
If somfin is <= n, and if it increases over time, obviously it ~n, am i right?
counterexample: sqrt n
it does?
=_=
=pup Plot[Sqrt[n],{n,1,10}]
Query made by @mossy sun
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Mmh
stuff like that
Ok... and...? Is balance a thing in this? Like:
3~n
27~n^3
Man idk
Id have to do research
But can you answer my question???
QUESTION
NEW QUESTION
Prove that there are no such possible sequence 0.9999999..., or disprove it
if f(n) ~ g(n) and F(n) ~ G(n), then f(n)F(n) ~ g(n)G(n)
and 1/f(n) ~ 1/g(n)
what do you mean "possible sequence"
what do you mean "possible"
yes
it's 1
any sequence of decimal digits is a number between 0 and 1
it may not be the unique way to write it tho.
But does it exists, or is it just 1?
Oh, ok
here's a nice problem
find the infimum of the set of positive real values \theta such that
=tex \sum_{q \leq \sqrt{n}} \left(\left { \frac{n}{q} \right } - \frac{1}{2}\right) = O(n^\theta)
Sums are censored
what do you Fuckening have against sums
I can’t visualize them geometrically
tfw trying to apply geometry to number theory
=_=
Good question
Anyways, i just am awful at it
I never know of to put these into fractions
into fractions?
oh that was just the geometric series
Oh ok
Oi, new channel lol
@mossy sun googology/large ordinals channel (that'll probably become #chill-2) when?
wait this wasn't here before
Lol
inb4 how do i solve $$3x^2 + 3 = y$$?
$$\forall x \in \mathbb{Z}, y = 3(x^2+1)$$
what if we let x be in the complex numbers
$$\forall x \in \mathbb{C}, y = 3(x^2+1)$$
Find $$y \in \mathbb{Z}$$ ?
yes
Rendering failed. Check your code. You can edit your existing message if needed.
Oh wait
Lol
Nvm
You need to use \frac{}{}
Yea i misunderstood something
Nvm
I thought Z as C idk why
...
Oh hey, we have a number theory channel now! How cool!
@glad nacelle lol it's all kinds
i have a deep hunger for analytic number theorists here
Lol the funny thing is I've never seen your type of analytic number theory before
Very direct with the asymptotic analysis
really? huh
Really ??
I had only known about zeta function/complex analysis stuff
ohh right
Like I know some asymptotics are there
like using poles and shit to directly prove asymptotic
Just by virtue of what you're trying to study
You should check Tennenbaums book
But I've never actually seen what it entails
yeah it's cool shit. if you haven't read apostols book i recommend it
Intro to Analytic and Probabilistic number theory @sacred junco?
true^
And @mossy sun I know of two books of the sort
At some point number fields / algebrzic integers just basics
One is like, modular forms and Dirichlet series
right yea he has intro and modular forms
The other is the intro
intro is great, I've read some of modular forms
need to go more in depth with it when I'm freer
Eventually I would like to pick some up. Complex next quarter is gonna do a bit I think
I have notes from the last time this prof taught the class
Anyway they had some I think. One second
These aren't particularly good notes, they were basically study notes for her final exam
So they only did the second half of the class (first half was just standard material on complex analysis)
Apparently this professor's approach to things is quite specific to her. I'll probably supplement using Freitag
hadamard factorization!
Hadamard factorization is awesome stuff.
I need to learn more about it honestly. I only have barebones knowledge of complex analysis.
just enough to do contour integrals for number theory stuff
So funny thing is, I did have a complex analysis class but it was done in a kind of strange way
yeah? how so :O
Like, okay part of it was that it went a bit more slowly than I wanted since we spent time reviewing a few things from real analysis that people should've known cold
Like it took him a week to prove that holomorphic functions are analytic because he reviewed convergence, so that was annoying
But also we just kinda did things more topologically
For example, we phrased the argument principle in terms of winding number
ohh right! that's neat
Like I came in the third week of the class
First week I think he reviewed complex numbers and norms, did derivatives and the basic stuff like chain rule, then Cauchy-Riemann. Second was stuff like Cauchy's integral theorem, and then he started talking about branches of the log
💙 branch cuts!
I got there and he was still doing the log, then he talked about winding number, FTA, and Cauchy integral formula
I love proofs of FTA
Which he stated in terms of winding number.
But yeah then he did holomorphic implies analytic, Liouville, max modulus, argument principle, singularities and meromorphic functions
good shit!
After that we did residue theorem, restated a bunch of stuff from earlier in terms of that, tiny tiny bit about differential forms, Laurent series, and infinite series
But that last part was like, 2 weeks only
And we didn't have many problems on computing things
Like, we had one problem which was like, find the radius of convergence of 13 power series, another which was like, find the residues of a bunch of functions
right, I love residue stuff
Residue theorem is amazing when it comes to contour integration.
But we rarely had to compute integrals at all
Actually I think we maybe had one or two integrals over the whole course, and at least one of them was like
only two???
Really?
A rational function where one residue was easy to compute, and then you note that the sum of residues including infinity was zero
Yeah it was very much not computationally intensive
I can pull up some of the psets, but you'll see that it's all theoretical problems
yea lemme see!
^
But yeah I think it may have to do with the fact that the guy teaching wasn't an analyst
He does algebraic geometry
ohhh yeah.
Okay so these were his notes from last year, though he changed them up
This was like, one of the few computational things we had
Neat.
The problem from the book which had all parts except m was computing some radii of convergence
This was a pset which was more winding number-ish
Our psets had a mix of such problems but I felt more were like the latter
Oh yeah it's slick
dami did you see the contest problems??
I did look at them briefly but never had the chance to work them out
There was one I recognized from my analysis final
It was the Baire category theorem problem
ahh right
i've been thinking about one that's similar to number 4
=tex f(x) = \int_0^\infty g(t)\cos(tx)dt
Ugh an integral gotta run away now goodbye
where g(t) is a nice function and f(x) converges for x>0 and has a limit as x tends to 0
trying to prove convergence of f(0) 🤔
under whatever growth conditions on g(t)
Hmm, what method did you use to do 4 btw?
it's in the solutions pdf but I can copy it in here
are you familiar with tauber's theorem?
if a sequence a_n is abel summable and has |n a_n| -> 0, then a_n is summable
more specifically
=tex \lim_{x \to 1^-} \sum_{n \geq 0} a_n x^n \in \mathbb{R}
=tex |n a_n| \to 0
then a_0+a_1+... exists.
Oh lord this is nothing close to how I did it
you have a solution? :O
Or wait hold on I think we're thinking of different problems
You talked about 0.4 in hw6
OH
And were like yeah it's cute
OH kek
I thought you were saying that my homework problem 4 was similar to a contest problem
And was like uh
Consider making it a contest problem actually
True, delete what you mentioned
We can discuss it in PM and if it's appropriate then yeah
yeah cool
It was probably one of my favorite problems from algebra
conjecture:
2 is prime
no
sqrt(2)^2?
yeah I guess
conjecture 2:
sqrt(2) is prime
📷 | Can I get your opinion on my idea?Thanks, any help is much appreciated.
https://imgur.com/a/dJr7v
@unique vault what is this for????? What is your idea????????
tfw bot
Oh wow I missed that.
What about it
$$x^2(x^2+8) = (y + x)^2$$
I solved it don't worry
Four solutions only in $$\mathbb{Z}^2$$ ?
The question was given that gcd(x,y)=d. Prove that x=d and (y/d +1)^2 = d^2 +8
Then solve in N
x = 4, y = 6
No, a example gcd(x, y) = 2.
Oh. Yeah but you just gotta work with d as a parameter to help you solve the equation
$$x \neq 2$$
@noble jay what was ur old discord name?
Dusty
R u sure u didn't have one before that
Heres a good one
n is in N* btw
I still haven't done it so please don't tell me the solution
Yes
alright
Don't you use that notation?
yeah I don't use that one too often
right okay
so S_n = (n(n+1)/2)^2
so we can just find the GCD of n(n+1)/2 and (n+1)(n+2)/2 and square it
do it by cases with n=2k or n=2k+1
even first
k(2k+1) and (k+1)(2k+1)
GCD is obviously 2k+1=n+1
now if n=2k+1
(2k+1)(k+1) and 2(k+1)^2
GCD is either k+1 or 2(k+1)
you can do that one by cases again
yea :D
So p is prime
Prove that if p=1 mod 4
Then {(p-1)/2} ! is a solution to the equation
x^2 + 1 =0 mod p
alright, one sec
this is gauss' theorem right?
here we go
maybe, sorry, it's been ages
1*2*...*((p-1)/2) is congruent to (p-1)*(p-2)*...*((p-1)/2+1) mod p
which is easy to show, each factor on the right is negative one of the ones on the left, and there are an even number of factors
so (p-1)! = (((p-1)/2)!)^2 mod p
wilson's theorem says that's negative 1, which is what we wanted.
Omg
Nice, and elegant
Do you have a phd
I skipped 4 questions and gave you the application. The first 4 are wilsons theorem proof
right
mhm
essential skills for olympiad
wilson's theorem proof isn't too bad
Im in highschool and i dont think i can figure that out that fast
Practice makes Perfect! 🍻 :
A year of 23/24 hours of practice a day probably
I spent an hour a day for 2 years, was averagish for my state
I ❤ Number Theory
I will spend the next 8 hours doing all 106 problems. Good night
cya!
Niven and Zuckerman's Introduction to the Theory of Numbers is a nice book, starts from the basics and works up pretty fast
niven is cool yea.
That and Arthur Engel are the only books I keep from my Olympiad prep days
That reminds me, I lent Arthur Engel to Someone 🤔
yo hey alright guys strap in
👁
we're gonna prove that if π(x) log(x)/x tends to any constant C, that constant is one.
:seatbelt:
I have two proofs but I'll show the one that uses zeta
Yes!
right, so we only use zeta for a real variable x greater than one
Oh I wasn't thinking of that when I said it was too computational, I thought it was more the method of continuation. But anyway I'm interested in hearing this as well so let's go
p being all primes.
Prime zeta?
yep
right, so we start with Euler's product form of zeta
=tex \zeta(x) = \prod_p \frac{1}{1-p^{-x}}
Oh nice
use the series for log (which is justified for x>1)
=tex \log \zeta(x) = \sum_{p, m \geq 1} p^{-mx}/m
m are just all naturals.
so now we have
=tex \log \zeta(x) = \mathbb{P}(x) + \sum_{p, m \geq 2} p^{-mx}/m \leq \mathbb{P}(x) + \sum_{p, m \geq 2} p^{-mx}
we can bound that last dude by the sum for p being all naturals >= 2, m being all naturals >= 2, which telescopes to 1
so:
=tex 0 \leq \log \zeta(x) - \mathbb{P}(x) \leq 1
x in R+ right?
x>1.
right, so now we're gonna digress for a second
to calculate a limit
=tex \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\log(n)} \int_e^\infty \frac{dt}{t^{1+1/n}\log(t)}
use the substitution u=n/log(t) to get
=tex \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\log(n)} \int_0^n \frac{du}{u e^{1/u}}
the integral between zero and one converges and can thus be thrown out
=tex \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\log(n)} \int_1^n \frac{du}{u e^{1/u}}
using e^(1/u) >= 1, there's an easy upper bound of 1 on that limit
then, if we fix a real n>r>1, we can split the integral into two parts, one constant depending on r, the other getting lower-bounded by log(n)e^(-1/r)
since e^(-1/r) tends to one as r tends to infinity, the limit is one.
right, so we are now returning to zeta
we can use that continuation I mentioned to prove
=tex \log \zeta(1+1/n) = \log(n) + O(1)
now we use Abel's summation theorem on P(1+1/n):
=tex \mathbb{P}(1+1/n) = (1+1/n) \int_2^\infty \frac{\pi(t)}{t^{2+1/n}}dt
now, since P(1+1/n) = log zeta(1+1/n) + O(1) = log(n) + O(1),
=tex \int_2^\infty \frac{\pi(t)}{t^{2+1/n}}dt = \log(n) + O(1)
if \pi(t) is asymptotic to C t / log(t), then we can plug that in (with error terms we're gonna ignore) to get
=tex \int_2^\infty \frac{C}{t^{1+1/n}\log(t)}dt \sim \log(n)
this is the integral we mentioned before (plus a small error)
the integral on the left is asymptotic to C log(n) as we said
so:
=tex C \log(n) \sim \log(n)
Cool
there's of course a less analytic way to do things
therefore
=tex \sum_{n \leq x} \Lambda(n) \lfloor x/n \rfloor = x \log(x) + O(x)
then use θ(x) = O(x) which is elementary
=tex \sum_{n \leq x} \Lambda(n)/n = \log(x) + O(1)
you use abel's on this thing and do a few transformations to get
=tex \int_1^n \frac{\theta(x)-x}{x^2}dx = O(1)
the convergence of this integral is equivalent to PNT
but it's obvious if theta(x) tends to something not equal to one it'd diverge to +-infinity
that's all uou
I didn't entirely follow. But you always see some of the coolest stuff just lurking around here.
I need to look at Abel's Sum
it's the best
:( @somber rampart it's not even that bad
joke, I just legitimately don't understand what just happened :P
@main plume
:o I should follow this channel more lol
hmm
6*(abcdef)+21 = defabc
then def=6(abc)+k, where k=3,4,5
100≤abc≤165
also
def=6(abc)+k
6(def)+21 = abc+1000k
6(def)=36(abc)+6k
21=994k-35(abc)
3=142k-5(abc)
3+5(abc)=142k
2k ≡ 3 (mod 5), and 3≤k≤5 → k=4
→ 3+5(abc)=142(4)=568
→ 5(abc) = 565
→ abc = 113
→def = 6(113)+4 = 682
thus
n = 113682
@mossy sun how would I show that the other part of the integral (from your first proof of PNT) is bounded by log(n)e^(-1/r)?
Right.
=tex \frac{1}{\log(n)} \int_1^n \frac{du}{u e^{1/u}} = \frac{C(r)}{\log(n)} + \frac{1}{\log(n)} \int_r^n \frac{du}{u e^{1/u}}\
\geq \frac{C(r)}{\log(n)} + \frac{1}{\log(n)e^{1/r}} \int_r^n \frac{du}{u}\
= \frac{C(r)-\log(r)/e^{1/r}}{\log(n)} + \frac{1}{e^{1/r}}\
now let n -> infinity
=tex \liminf \frac{1}{\log(n)} \int_1^n \frac{du}{u e^{1/u}} \geq e^{-1/r}
you can pull out the exponential factor in the denominator?
Ah, I think I see why now. I think...
the substitution for the original integral is pretty clever imo
By the way, that proof for PNT made much more sense than the first one I was introduced to, which was the one with Chebyshev functions.
@silk breach it's not a proof of PNT.
it's weaker than PNT
PNT says it converges to one
my thing says if it converges, it's to one
there's a subtle difference but it means all the difference in difficulty
Ah, I see.
Okay.... I'm interested.
alright, let's do this
I used the convergence to a constant C, @somber rampart
PNT means C=1
I assumed the main bit of PNT and proved the rest
but
?
=tex \zeta(s) = \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{1}{n^s}
woot woot more zeta
using the euler product, it has no zeros for Re(s)>1
we wanna do the same thing for a different function
(also seems like griff should bump this channel to advanced mafs?)
I wanna have a number theory channel here
k
=tex \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{\Lambda(n)}{n^s} = -\frac{\zeta'(s)}{\zeta(s)}
where \Lambda(p^k) = p if k>0, \Lambda(n)=0 otherwise
mhm
next
=tex \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{\Lambda(n)-1}{n^s} = -\frac{\zeta'(s)}{\zeta(s)} - \zeta(s)
alright, so we're gonna look at the RHS first
particularly we want to prove it's analytic for Re(s)>=1
can I assume zeta has no zeros on Re(s)=1?
it's a standard trick
if we do, it's up to showing the poles at s=1 cancel out, which is a standard trick again for log derivatives.
so, RHS analytic for Re(s)>=1
now, what's the LHS
we use Abel's theorem on it.
=tex \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{\Lambda(n)-1}{n^s} = \lim_{N \to \infty} (\psi(N)-N)*N^{-s} + s \int_2^N \frac{\psi(x)-\lfloor x\rfloor}{x^{s+1}}dx
we restrict for a second to Re(s)>1, so that
=tex \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{\Lambda(n)-1}{n^s} = s \int_2^\infty \frac{\psi(x)-\lfloor x \rfloor}{x^{s+1}}dx
What is $$\psi(x)$$?
the sum of \Lambda(n) for n <= x.
Okay.
right so now
you remember contest 1 problem 7?
so clearly since this thing is supposed to be analytic for Re(s)>=0 and we have Re(s)>=1, we need to shift it a bit
=tex \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{\Lambda(n)-1}{n^{s+1}} = s \int_2^\infty \frac{\psi(x)-\lfloor x \rfloor}{x^2} x^{-s}dx
this dude extends analytically to Re(s)>=0.
k.
moreover, since psi(x) = O(x), which is easy, we have (psi(x)-floor(x))/x^2 = O(1/x)
and problem 7 applies
and the integral (and with a reverse Abel's, the sum) converges at s=0
=tex \sum_{n \geq 1} \frac{\Lambda(n)-1}{n} = C
we can find the value of C exactly if we wish by taking the limit of -zeta'(s)/zeta(s)-zeta(s) as s approaches 1, but we don't need to
=tex \sum_{n \leq x} \frac{\Lambda(n)-1}{n} = C + o(1)
=tex \sum_{n \leq x} \frac{\Lambda(n)}{n} = \log(n) + C+\gamma + o(1)
notice that this is a huge strengthening of the result log(n) + O(1) which I derived earlier by easier methods
apply Abel's:
=tex \psi(x) = \sum_{n \leq x} \Lambda(n) = x(\log(x)+C_2+o(1)) - \int_2^x (\log(t)+C_2)dt + o(x)
=tex = x \log(x) + C_2 x - (x \log(x)-x + C_2 x)+o(x) = x + o(x)

