#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 35 of 1
But what about all our examples? Class of equivalence is elements that share the same property (for example being even)
You are not replying to the content of anything that we said above :)
Anyway, it’s fine, I guess those examples and explanations just didn’t change anything
True, im sorry, let me check it
I think I've finally got it
like a clear image in my mind of what it is
So, a class is just a group of objects which are related by a equivalence relation?
a bit more than that
you also need that everything outside the class is unrelated to everything inside the class
Yeah, because if its related then it's in the class, right?
mhm
I mean
if you represent equivalence relations as graphs, then equivalence classes correspond to connected components
I see, but I mean, you cannot have something outside the class that has a relation with something inside the class
yes
yeah, because if it has relation with something inside in the class, then, that object must be inside of the class
Since $a\equiv \text{ Mod(a,n) } (\text{mod } n)$. If we have $b + \text{Mod}(a,n) \equiv c (\text{mod } n)$, can we rewrite it as $b+a\equiv c(\text{mod } n)$?
Him
Yes
(as a note, in general if you have $x \equiv y \pmod{n}$ you can replace $x$ with $y$ anywhere: $a + x \equiv a + y \pmod{n}$)
Coolempire93
Thx
Yeah that makes sense. Thank you
Hello, I don't know if this goes in this section, I'm trying to rewrite the Trachtenberg Method for multiplication in hexadecimal, I only have get the times 8 rule: Reading from right to left, if the number is even add the half of the right number next to it, and if is odd additionally add 8. And if result greater than 15 carry 1
But with the C-12 base 10, I discovered a secuence on the product is 0, C, 8, 4.
I.e\
0 * C = 0\
1 * C = C\
2 * C = 18\
3 * C = 24\
4 * C = 30\
5 * C = 3C\
6 * C = 48\
7 * C = 54\
8 * C = 60\
9 * C = 6C\
A * C = 78\
B * C = 84\
C * C = 9D\
D * C = 9C\
E * C = A8\
F * C = B4
Any suggestions?
are there infinitely many n such that (2n choose n) is coprime to 105?
I believe so but it's not immediately obvious. How would you go about showing that (2n choose n) is coprime to 3?
Probably using Kummer's theorem + CRT will do the trick
Is this not from the Erdős problems website?
Indeed: https://www.erdosproblems.com/376 -- it's Open as of now, nice try @elder dew
Graham offered $1000 for a solution to this problem (as mentioned in [Gu04] and [BeHa98]).
the largest known such n is 24991943715007537, currently
Seems like the site and problems blew up in popularity since the viral news that AI was used to solve a few of them.
haha, now probably many people bombard AI sites with requests to solve those problems
Yeah
Alright so I'm a freshman in college rn and I'm a little desperate when it comes to math so I decided to study some Number Theory in order to do some research with my professor in the summer. Issue is, I can't understand what most of the questions are telling me to do, like I can't envision it. Mainly in this problem:
If I can get some tips for Number Theory that could help me through it that would be great :)
For a), you need to verify the definition of a group for the set of powers of a. Track down that definition and work through what it requires.
What book is this? If you're a freshman this does not look like what I'd recommend to get into number theory
It's a book my professor gave me called "Fundamentals of Number Theory" by William J. Veque
Idk if questions should be this hard on page 11 or im just stupid
You're not stupid, I think the book is maybe assuming that you're a junior
Sure - if it's the book your professor recommended, you can always try to work through it but jump to other books that are less terse along the way
Wait so would that mean that, for example, for a^2, it would be a*a?
the * being the tiny circle thing
Mmhm!
I got that but I didn't thiink it was right bc of letter B
Idk what B is saying at all
Do the hint first
(Hint to the hint: there are infinitely many positive powers of a, all in the group, and yet the group is finite...)
that would only be possible if a was 1 right? Or do I have the wrong idea?
It's prob wrong since a is just anything
Something is going to be one, but there are finite groups that aren't just boring
For instance, {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} where the group multiplication a*b = "the remainder of a + b divided by 5"
(Multiplication in the group is just a word for an operation - even if that operation is something else!)
Ask for a different book, would be my suggestion then
(I don't think I'd have gotten this via self-study as a freshman, fwiw)
sigh I really wanted to be able to do this, but I guess you're right.
This is elementary group theory (on which many treatments of elementary number theory are based), if you want to hunt down other resources or videos or such
But there are also number theory treatments that get right to the primes without digging into additional abstractions - that's what I do when I teach the course, for instance!
yeah I kind thought I'd be playing with primes which is why I was excited, but I just ended up getting pranked by my professor :/
So like, what would I have to do to get to elementary group theory?
Like is there other aspects of math I need to know?
Check out Abstract Algebra by Dummit and Foote.
that's a crazy combination of names but thanks
Smart and Hand
It’s not exactly the easiest book if he has difficulty with definition of a subgroup or order…
I used it along with Artin when first studying algebra. I found it quite good and accessible.
Yeah, I use and like it too, a great book
You can check out Silverman’s “A Friendly Introduction to Number Theory”, it’s the friendliest one. https://www.math.brown.edu/johsilve/frint.html
Or Burton “Elementary Number Theory”
Hungerford’s undergrad algebra book is quite accessible, from what I recall - and I think it focuses on number theory before abstracting to other structures
The thing is my professor gave me this book bc I wanted to research with her during the summer. I didn't really know what to research so I just said number theory would be cool, and so she gave me her old book on it.
any good resources to learn modulo arithmetic
i really want to understand the concept
i can apply it to algorithms and problems but my understanding of the identities is very superficial
an example of my usecase of the topic (it might be much more than this in the future)
I really liked how our book (ENT by rosen) developed it but that's probably to heavy for what you need
I basically just reference my list of theorems from that book whenever I work with modular arithmetic now 😆
i just read the part on congruences, i like it
i can cover chapters 5, 6, and 7
Yeah I mean profs will just either make you read prerequisites or force you into their research
Unless you know what you're talking about
What prerequisite math do you know already?
The idea of a group and subgroup should (I think?) Come a lot more naturally to you if you have studied linalg and know about vector spaces
If you are still intent on reading that book I can help you through the first exercise by explaining groups and subgroups to you
pretty much nothing significant, I'm just learning calc 2 and I read a little bit of proofs and logic
Is the textbook private? I can skim it to see if it's not written that well
Like I said, I'm desperate to get into the complicated stuff, and waiting for the college to teach me it not ideal for me, so I try to force it almost.
No, I have a file of the whole book
If u want I can send it somehow
Well that's good; it's pretty difficult to shift from the computational stuff you've done your entire life to abstract stuff
Sooner or later you'll need to persevere
After reading this book, that reality hit me like a truck
Let me skim rq
are you gonna find it urself or you need me to send it?
Can you send in dms
I don't think I can find it on gogole frown
idk if I can send a file that big
ill try tho
yeah nah
says its too big
I found the book online so I mean if you try it you should find it
Is your professor requiring you to read the book
If I want to do research with her during the summer, yeah. But I dont need to do it.
I literally asked her before leaving her office with the book if I need to know any other aspects of math and she told me no.
Lmao
So what precisely is troubling you with this problem?
That's a good thing. It's better to start things earlier
If i'm being honest, I wish I started earlierer, like in high school. Cuz I didn't know math was "abstract" until I first got into college.
I literally dont understand what it's telling me to do. Like it almost seems like it's in another language
mainly 2b and 2c, I already figured out a.
2b is worded a bit weirdly
It's not like I hate it though, if anything it made me love math more, but I really wish I had known.
So a finite set has a finite number of elements right
yup
But the group generated by a is of form {..., a^-2, a^-1, 1, a^1, a^2, ...}
right
So if all these powers were distinct the set would be infinite
But it's a finite set
So are all the powers distinct?
It wouldn't be distict since it's finite then right?
No, the problem tells you it's finite
If your group is finite, any subgroup of it must be finite. Including the one generated by any element a
that makes sense yeah
The only way this set can be finite is if powers aren't distinct
Mathematically how would you say two distinct powers are equal?
if you let j, k be distinct positive numbers (let's just ignore the inverses for now)
I actually don't know, I feel like the answer is obvious though
I'm actually pissed I cant figure this out
My question might be a little ill-posed
Or like written poorly
Umm lemme think
wdym how would I say they're equal "mathematically" if they're just equal?
You understand though that the set is finite only if some of those powers are equivalent rigjt
Just like a equality
Only some? it doesn't have to be all?
yeah
Can you rearrange this to get 1 on the right hand side
if you divide by a^2 on both sides then yeah
Ok so you get?
Yes
wait so if you do that for all the powers they could all end up equalling 1?
No no I'm just giving you a specific example in which a^2 = a^5
oh ok mb
This is not necessarily true for any subgroup generated by a, I'm just giving it as an example
So now I want you to compute the following
a^0
a^1
...
a^7
All in terms of a if needed
using a^5 = a^2 right?
a^0 = a^-3
a^1 = a^-2
a^2 = a^-1
a^3 = 1
a^4 = a^1
a^5 = a^2
a^6 = a^3
a^7 = a^4
so then that means for example that a^5 = a^2 = a^-1?
No
Ok here wakt
UGH
Oh
a^0 = 1
a^1 = a
a^2 = a^2
a^3 = 1
I should've specified that. Now continue onto a^4, ..., a^7
Ok wait sorry I didn't see that you did it alreadg
So if you formed a set with these elements
You'd notice elements would repeat, but recall sets contain unique elements
So the set would look like {a^-3, a^-2, a^-1, a^0, a^1, a^2, a^3}
Since a^4 = a^1, it's already in the set
a^-4 = a^-1 which is also already in the swt
And this is the only way that will happen if the subgroup were finite. One power must be equal to another in this subgroup if it is finite
Ok I understand it
So
so since it's kinda like a loop it ends up being finite
Yes exactly. There's a name for this subgroup btw, it's called a cyclic subgroup
fitting name
When a cyclic subgroup has a finite number of elements, multiplying by a multiple times will cycle you through the group
Ok now you're like basically already there
In this proof, you need to explain that if G is finite, the subgroup generated by a is finite too (since subgroups are contained in the group G).
Then you need to explain why, if the group generated by a is finite, some powers must repeat.
After establishing some powers must repeat, fix two positive integers j, k with j > k such that a^j = a^k. Then rewrite into the form a^n = 1 for some positive n
Then I think you're done
Apologies for the confusing questions and stuff I'm not that good at helping, but I hope you understand how to do 2b now
I gtg so if you have other questions just ask in this Channel
So the if I do a^j = a^k and I solve it for 1, which would be a^j-k = 1, a^n = a^j-k?
Yeah no its ok you've helped me so much I appreciate it
Yes
And j - k is a positive integer
yeah, omg I got it. Thanks a lot again
whats the bestplace to learn elemenatry number theoryh
uni
online
https://projecteuler.net/archives if you also like programming
A website dedicated to the fascinating world of mathematics and programming
is reading books that much better than videos
Usually I would say read the book, anywhere you need more context watch a video on it
In general the barrier to publication for a book is higher than a video, which (ideally) correlates with quality
Also generally videos usually are made to learn topics, not to learn subjects
If you find a series you'd need to make sure it also comes with exercises
and not just boohoo ones made to make the viewers feel good and like the video, real exercises so you learn
Meanwhile there are already well-touted books that have been published, reviewed, revised, passed through multiple editions
tbh the best place to learn anything is taking a uni course if the prof is up to mark. my number theory prof is former Yale University assistant prof, 3 times silver medalist in IMO. he never follows a single number theory textbook. instead he has set out his own goals in the course:
classifying integers which are sum of two squares, then four squares and finally three squares. this is probably not the standard way to study NT but the course has been so original and mind blowing so far that he brought so many areas of mathematics together to prove many number theoretical facts and develop tools for our goals, although most of his work is algebraic. kinda feel blessed taking the course ngl. i've taken a NT course in my former uni as well but it was a standard course following David M Burton. the current NT course i am taking is a new exposure to the field in a very original way. i find it much more better to interact in class as well, online videos never clicked for me, but as they say to each their own. still I'd say having an actual expert in the field guide is the best way, and that is by taking a course. i am just talking about the best way, not the best way which can be compatible for everyone perhaps because many may be just learning NT on a whim and not professionally as a graduate student or just to do programming. again i am just talking about my experience with NT, might be different for everyone.
Pick up a book on abstract algebra
There are some things you just won’t find videos on
Chapter 3 of “A Primer of Abstract Mathematics” by Robert Ash gives an interesting introduction.
how do yall feel abt underwood dudly number theory
you could also try michael penn and his course playlists (he has his main channel and a 2nd channel called MathMajor and he has a number theory playlist as well)
books are definitely more in depth but i personally think its best to have both
i had readed this way way back but honestly i find it a pretty good introduction to i suppose elemetary nt.
pretty basic, easy to follow for me. So i think anyone could follow it if they took the time
you need sufficient background in the subject to appreciate these kind of approaches.
else you just get more confused.
With some good background, a great teacher always helps.
analytic number theory?
little bit ig he brought calculas, algebra, graphs, combinatorics together, even measure theory. this is just an elementary course, we have separate courses for algebraic and analytic. but since he's an algebra guy, he does his things algebraically mostly.
altho he likes to make the course as hard as possible, but it's still by book the first course in number theory at our uni
What topics are being covered now
we shall classify all numbers that can be expressed as three squares now, we'll start with quadratic reciprocity to that end and then we'll learn quadratic forms over Z and dirichlet's thm on primes in arithmetic progression to classify them
Howdy, I'd really appreciate some help in something (it's late so I can't get my professor's help now):
We're building up in class for proving the existence of a primitive root in multiplicative groups mod p.
Now, the prof introduced a lemma:
let q be any prime factor of p-1, and suppose q^e divides p-1
Then there exists an equivilence class/element a in Z/pZ* where a has order exactly q^e
I'm confused because the proof the professor provides (copied from my notes) is this:
consider b (equivalence class) an element in the set {b | b ^{q^e} = 1} and {b | b ^{q^{e-1}} = 1}
Then the 1st set is the set of roots x for x^{q^e} -1 and q^e divides p-1 so the set has q^e elements (this much I understand)
Similarly the 2st set has q^{e-1} elements (this much I understand, too) which is fewer elements
So there exists an element a in the 1st set i.e. the order is one of 1, q, q^2, ... q^{e-1}, q^e
but a is not in the second set i.e the order is NOT one of 1, q, ... q^{e-1}. So the order of a is exactly q^e
MY question: It feels a bit artificial the way we defined b to be in both of the sets. Where did this come from? Because I don't quite get the initial definition, my understanding of how we arrived to the conclusion is a bit shaky even though I understand why the elementary pieces along the way work.
I appreciate any help 🙂
b looks like just a name in the set-builder notation, and is not used outside of that.
so the argument is: One set has more elements than the other, so there is an element in one set which is not in the other set, which is exactly what you want.
Fair thanks! I get it 🙂
Looks like apostal content
might take a look
apostal is good for before going to analytic number theory, so might be possible
Clumsy repost
write 1002 = -995, 1003 = -994, etc, and factor out the -1s and voila you have 995!
How did you get it though?
Is it just (1002-1997)...
And how do you count them?
So you count 1997-1002 or 1996-1001, I don't know where the count starts for how many elements we've transformed.
And we're going to -1 so 1996 is the end
So it's either 1996-1001 or 1996-1002 elements
Asking that because of sign (-1)^k
yeah you start at 1002 and end at 1996, so 1996 - 1001 = 995, is the number of (-1)s at the end
There are multiple places that I can ask this, but I guess I'll ask it here
Is there a way to find a formula for what I'm deciding to call the "sub-subfactorial", which is the amount of permutations of {0, ...., n-1} (addition here is modulo n, so n-1 + 1 = 0) such that no number gets sent to itself or itself + 1
@buoyant mason
The main thing I'd want is a recursive formula like n! = n * (n-1)! or !n = (n-1) * (!(n-1) + !(n-2))
for n >= 4, it's defined by the recurrence a(n) = n * a(n-1) + (n * a(n-2) - 4 * (-1)^n)/(n-2), according to the OEIS
i have no idea why
but i checked up to n=10 and it does seem to work
checking the OEIS as if it would ever be wrong is crazy work
You dareth challenge our sequential gods!
has anyone went beyond +1, and in general, what work is there on these weird permutation counting functions
I have seen variations of this questions in a book on combinatorics. maybe stanley, enumerative combinatorics? not sure
So
Yeah
Number theory!
Actually its my favourite in maths
after geometry
Does anyone here do AoPS?
i did it when i was younger
is it good?
whats that
its a website
Find all $m,n$ and $k$ integers such that $\newline\newline n-k|m+k\newline n+k|m-k$
Vanellope von Schmugz
@opal marsh @ionic latch @patent depot Noticed this pattern when watching a video and decide to formulate it as a problem. I haven't completely solved it yet but got some progress. I'm rusty in number theory. Deriving some lemmas again
I like Alcumus and the books
Interesting
by the time you spent typing, I thought you were about to send the solution lol
no spoilers haha
Haha not the solution, just working through some constraints, like m >||= n + 2k||
saw that one, did nothing with it
I'm trying to demonstrate the lemma ||a|bc, (a,b)=1=>a|c|| again, but I'm not sure whether I'll be able to use it. Maybe I'll weaken the original problem so I can use to see if I get to some final answer
Using Wilson theorem Prove \ $(i)1^2 3^2 5^2...(p-2)^2 \equiv (-1)^{\frac{(p+1)}{2}} (mod p)$ \ $(ii)2^24^26^2...(p-1)^2 \equiv (-1)^{\frac{(p-1)}{2}} (mod p)$
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
In the future, please show what you've done so far when asking for help along with any other relevant context - it gives us more to work with and saves time from explaining things unnecessarily. \ \
Assume $p$ is an odd prime. \
\begin{subparts}
\subpart Note that
\begin{align*}
p-1 & \equiv -1 \pmod{p} \
p-3 & \equiv -3 \pmod{p} \
\vdots \
2 & \equiv -(p-2) \pmod{p}
\end{align*}
\subpart This is false for $p=3$.
\end{subparts}
Civil Service Pigeon
I tried this
No idea how to proceed after this
Ok
Why do operations on congruences such as division, roots, etc require the modulo to be prime (or the divisor and the modulo to be coprime in divisons) ?
For example if I were to say 6
4x² ≡ 4 mod 8
What makes this different than if the modulo was prime let's say 5 for example
“Dividing” is really the same as multiplying by the inverse. Now recall the condition for an inverse to exist.
I'm not sure I understand this
Wouldn't that be just that the inverse multiplied by the number = 1, and that the number is different than 0?
Unless I'm having a different idea of an inverse
the difficulty is that inverses are only guaranteed to exist when you taking modulo a prime
Are you asking about $4 x^2 \equiv 4 \pmod 8$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
That's just a random example but yes ig
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
You can show this is equivalent to $2 | x^2 - 1$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I.e. $x^2 \equiv 1 \pmod 2$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
But is that different than the original one?
Is that a property of prime numbers?
This is equivalent to the original one
yes
Its equivalent to being prime in fact
That everything nonzero mod n is invertible
I guess that kinda makes sense
(Well apart from n = 1)
I assume this holds generally for coprime values?
But what about square roots for example
Yes because of bezout’s identity
I think even for primes this is weird
$x^2 \equiv -1 \pmod p$ for example
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I think this equation has solutions only if p = 2 or p = 1 mod 4?
I'm not sure I understand the second solution, but my idea is that you generally can work around division and multiplication algebraically
So for instance, division might not hold because if you have something like $4x \equiv 2 \pmod 8$
Then that's just $4x = 8k+2$ for any integer k
Then you can divide the whole equation by 4 and make adjustments to the k value
ScoobySnacks
You may be interested to know the following
But this doesn't work out with square roots, similarly it doesn't always hold logically
$a | bc \iff \frac{a}{\text{gcd}(a, b)} | c$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Sounds about right
When the modulus is not prime you have to be careful since you can't always invert elements. The reason you can always do this when the modulus is prime is because you are working over a field so every element has an invertible element for free
I solved 9.a but have absolutely no clue how to handle the rest of them
that's a nice theorem
I have tried for multiple hours to solve it and also took the help of ai and have basically gotten no lead on 9. b
Sadly I don't know about the formal/proofs side of continued fractions, so I can't help you 😔 but I would wonder how you proved D is periodic without being able to prove (b) that the continued fraction is periodic
I basically used the pigeonhole principle
And that each term is determined by the previous term (I haven't properly expressed it but I hope you can get what I'm saying)
Hmmm
By inspection I see this is true but this is also somewhat simple for square roots
I must be taking a lot of shortcuts if this is a hard problem based on what the tools you have available
If no one comes by to help I'll look at the continued fraction part of my number theory book and see if there is a theorem that can help you
maybe something that encapsulates the process I am using
Hello everyone 👋
So I've come across this issue where if you have an equation of the form
ax + by = c
I usually would solve this using congruences such that:
- x ≡ c (mod b)
- y ≡ c (mod a)
Which generally works, but I've always had some inaccuracies which I've come to realize why
So when it happens to be the case where there's only one form of solutions, the constant k can differ. For example:
x = bk + d
y = ak' + p
It's easy to overlook the fact that k and k' aren't the same
And the solution I've come to is that my method is incorrect and that it's not always correct, instead I should be substituting my x (or y) values in the main equation to get the y (or x) expression
But now I'm having a different issue, which is when is it the case that substitution is enough and when do I have to solve for x and y separately
My only note is that when b is negative, the k value is followed by opposite signs + and - for x and y
Which might be the case as to why there are different forms of sols
I think, assuming a and b are coprime, the usual approach would be to solve ax+by = 1 using the extended Euclidean algorithm, and then multiply by c. That gives a single solution (x0,y0), and the other solutions are then (x0+kb, y0-ka) for integer k.
So basically finding a specific solution and then solving a system of linear equations?
Yeah.
(Of course if a and b are not coprime, then c had better be a multiple of their gcd, and you can divide through by the gcd before solving).
Ok I still get two different sets of solutions nonetheless
So you get:
a(x-x0) + b(y-y0) = 0
That gives either
- (y - y0) ≡ 0 mod a
- x-x0 ≡ 0 mod b
Which is essentially two different solutions upon substituting
Two sols for (x ; y)
(for any integer k ofc)
So I guess my question is that, is it always the case that you find two possible sols? And if it isn't (you find only one sol), how can you tell?
its not the same k in both formulas
both families are the same (i.e. if you consider the sets you get when you plug in all possible integers for k, you get the same sets)
you can write 7k+5=7(k-1)+7+5=12+7(k-1)=12-7(1-k) and if you now set m=1-k then this is just 12-7m so just the second formula
similarly for the other formula
@rich meadow
Oh so one suffices?
That's interesting
I feel like it's intuitive to ask, why is it so different?
flip the sign of the k and they already look near identical to me
Yeah that was interesting, it almost makes so much sense
That's why I could notice the "second formula" more when ax and by had the same sign ++/--
Because the k values had to be of opposite signs, therefore it looked very different than usual
But I guess that's very relieving
Thank you
yw
where can i learn modular arithimetic online?
any number theory book
silverman a friendly intro to number theory
golden book to start off
pun intended
you can also find a playlist over it on youtube or something
michael penn or richard borcherds are some good people with playlists over number theory in good depth
Can anyone have a look at this?: We call a polynomial P good mod n if all the coefficients of the polynomial are coprime to n and P(x)=0 (mod n) for all x coprime to n. Let d(n) denote the minimum degree of a good polynomial mod n. How can you efficiently determine d(n)? Its a little vague but basically reduce the problem to something so that we can compute d(n) for n<100 in a reasonable amount of time
so far I have just found 2λ(n)-1>=d(n)>=max prime dividing n - 1
Hmm. If n is odd I think given one solution you can always find a polynomial with any larger degree that is also a solution, so then we can just look at prime-power n and take their maximum.
how do we increase the degree?
I've only fully thought through the case where n is a prime, but then we can just either add or subtract x^k - x^(k-p+1), according to which direction won't kill the existing coefficient of x^(k-p+1).
(This immediately generalizes to odd squarefree n by the CRT, of course -- prime powers may need more thought).
right
i feel like it works for prime powers too no?
it cant be that c+1 and c-1 both are divisible by odd p
where c is the coefficient of the smaller degree
My gut feeling is it does too, but I can't rattle off a proof just yet.
(I'm not completely sure how far I can stretch the gut feeling, because Z/p^m is not an integral domain, so e.g. the usual rule about how many roots a polynomial of a given degree can have is not available).
like if n=9
then -1-x-x^2...-x^5+x^6+x^7+...x^11
(lambda(9)=6)
so we add x^12 - x^(6) or add -x^12 + x^6
latter here
like it always works
this gives that d(2m) = 2
if m odd
we take m(x^2+x) because x^2+x is always even
wait no
mb
doesnt work
I agree that that polynomial of degree 2lambda(n)-1 has to work -- but I'm not yet quite convinced it's always necessary to go that high when n is a prime power.
yeah its mainly more of a proof of existence than a good upper bound
a problem is that since i cant come up with an efficient algorithm i dont have a good table of data to conjecture with
So with my extension property above we can improve 2lambda(n)-1 to max of 2lambda(p^m)-1 where p^m ranges over the prime-power divisors of n.
On the other hand, even if some p^m has a solution of degree smaller than 2lambda(p^m)-1, we can't necessarily extend that to every higher degree, so just taking max of d(p^m) may not always work.
i dont get that
For a concrete example, suppose n=49. Then we know the systematic solution mod 49 would have degree 2·6·7-1 = 83. But for all we know so far, it might be that by some fluke there is a solution mod 49 of degree 35. If there is, then it's not given that we can extend that to have degree 36 too, because we only know how to introduce terms modulo 49 if there's already a term 41 degrees below it to cancel it out.
all ok
such a polynomial has more roots than degree
but that is definitely possible
When p^k is an actual prime -- that is, k=1 -- I think we're good. If there was a solution of degree < 2phi(p)-1 = 2p-3, then we could reduce that to some polynomial of degree p-2 (not necessarily with nonzero intermediate coefficients) with p-1 roots mod p, which is not allowed. So in that case the 2phi(p)-1 bound is tight.
so you're saying that firstly d(n)>=p-1 (as stated before) and if d(n)<2p-3, we can reduce every power >=p-1 to a power <p-1 and not affect the coefficient of p-2 (which is nonzero), thus we dont get a zero polynomial
nice!
does that mean d(p) =2p-3?
this also gives an explicit solution for odd square free numbers
Yes, that's how far I've gotten.
Even squarefree numbers too, because being a solution mod 2 only requires that the degree is odd, and 2p-3 is that.
ok
wait i dont exactly see how we can directly combine the polynomials with CRT. by your extension property, we can increase their degree but the polynomials for every prime wont necessarily be the same coefficient wise
No, but use the CRT on each coefficent, to get a combined coefficient that equals the original ones modulo each p.
d(9) < lambda(9)
P(x) = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + 7x^4+ 7x^5 works
so you are right the extension does not necessarily work for p^k
(btw d(9)=5)
Yes, I was just about to post the same solution, calculated independently.
The next one to try would be n=25, which is a heck of a matrix to row reduce ...
i wish i knew the magic to do these
this was brute force nothing clever about it
maybe ill write a program in c instead of python
(1+x+x^2+x^3)(1-2x^4+x^8) = 1+x+x^2+x^3 - 2x^4 - 2x^5-2x^6-2x^7 + x^8+x^9+x^10+x^11 works modulo 25.
wow fast
(And this is actually too short to be extended by adding/subtracting a binomial).
Actually 1-2x^4+x^8 is already 0 mod 25 for all coprime-to-25 inputs; the other factor is just to make every coefficient nonzero.
Ah, neat.
so if we look at (1-x^{p-1})^2(1+x+x^2+...x^{p-2})
at least for p^2
an upper bound is 3p-4
it can be generalised
p^n is (n+1)p-n-2
I found the above by deriving conditions on the coefficients for n=25 by Gaussian elimination, and the pattern I see looks like there are actually solutions for all degrees >= 11 .. even though the simple extension method I proposed first won't work.
oh this may not work for n>2 (binomial coefficients not coprime)
hm
this works for n<p
Yeah, then the binomial coefficients in (1-x^(p-1))^n start vanishing.
which is (almost) always less than lambda(p^n)
a similar thing could be achieved by taking the solution in p and raising it to the power n
(though the bound is worse)
I'm not sure, there might be a risk of cancellation in the middle coefficients.
That's more than I can visualize without reaching for paper. :-)
i was thinking about degree p^2
i think it is the case that if the degree is <3p-4
the polynomial looks like $a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 + ... + a_{p-2}x^{p-2} -a_0x^{p-1}-a_1 x^{p} ...-a_{p-2}x^{2p-3} + ...$
wait i might be wrong
CherryMan
yeah i made a mistake
but it will be true if degree <2(p-1)
btw 3p-4 = 3(p-1)-1 which is kind of interesting
also i think this proves that d(p^2) > 2(p-1)
which we knew already
:(
ignore all this then
Quick question:
Consider a congruence of the form
ax ≡ b (mod n)
So we say that this has solution if gcd(a,n) (let's call it d) divides b, so d|b
Apparently from what I've seen, we should get d many solutions, each separated by the integer (n/d)
So if we have
5x ≡ 20 (mod 50)
- We have sols since 5|20
- We should get 5 solutions separated by 50/5 = 10
We get:
x ≡ 4 (mod 10)
So here's what I don't get
Supposedly we write this again with the original modulo then we add 10 each time to the remainder; so:
x ≡ 4 (mod 50)
x ≡ 14 ≡ 24 ≡ 34 ≡ 44 (mod 50)
And those should be our 5 solutions
So my question is, wouldn't it suffice to just go off of:
x ≡ 4 (mod 10)
And therefore: x = 10k + 4 for any integer k
And this should cover all 5 solutions?
This:
34 ≡ 44 (mod 50)
makes me go "whaa??"
But I do understand what you mean. FWIW, I thinkx ≡ 4 (mod 10)is correct (and good enough)
You don't get that x ≡ 14 (mod 50) and x ≡ 24 (mod 50) are the same solution, just that both of them are solutions.
Yeah I meant to say
- x ≡ 4 (mod 50)
- x ≡ 14 (mod 50)
- x ≡ 24 (mod 50)
- x ≡ 34 (mod 50)
- x ≡ 44 (mod 50)
It all boils down to x = 10k + 4
The rest are just different k values
I just happened to hear that there exists x many solutions, which I presumed was x many forms of solutions
I agree with ElNando that "x == 4 (mod 10)" is a perfectly good description of the solution set. Unless perhaps you were specifically looking for solutions as elements of Z/50Z.
Aight, thanks a lot 🫡
i think this is as far as we go
By my calculations from yesterday, (1+x+x^2+x^3)(1-2x^4+x^8) is optimal for n=25.
i think that just gives d(25)<=11 no?
also interestingly for the composite numbers it is the maximum of d(n) over all divisors n of that number
like d(16) = d(8) = 3
d(20) = d(10)=d(5)=7
No, because my program (doing partial Gaussian elimination mod 25) actually gave me exact relations the coefficients need to satisfy:
a0 + a4 + a8 == 0 (mod 25), a4 + 2a8 == 0 (mod 5)
a1 + a5 + a9 == 0 (mod 25), a5 + 2a9 == 0 (mod 5)
a2 + a6 + a10 == 0 (mod 25), a6 + 2a10 == 0 (mod 5)
a3 + a7 + a11 == 0 (mod 25), a7 + 2a11 == 0 (mod 5)
oh alright
Basically treating the system
a0 + 1·a1 + 1²·a2 + .. + 1¹¹·a11 == 0
a0 + 2·a1 + 2²·a2 + ... + 2¹¹·a11 == 0
a0 + 3·a1 + 3²·a2 + ... + 3¹¹·a11 == 0
...
a0 + 24·a1 + 24²·a2 + ... + 24¹¹·a11 == 0
as twenty equations in the unknowns a0, a1, ..., a11, and then applying standard methods from linear algebra to describe the solution set.
can you link any resources that would tell me how to implement this
Many textbooks in linear algebra lead with a description of this early on. A good keyword for a web search would be "Gaussian elimination".
The textbook methods are only phrased for cases where the coefficients come from a field, which the integers modulo p^2 unfortunately isn't. I had to deal with that by ad-hoc workarounds, which I'm not sure are described anywhere, and they worked out nicer in this case than I think I had any right to expect a priori.
(Namely: sometimes allow a pivot element to be 5 instead of 1, and accept that it cannot clear rows above and below completely. The equation I described as a4 + 2a8 == 0 (mod 5) above actually came out of the matrix as 5a4 + 10a8 == 0 (mod 25)).
you can use the hermite normal form over Z which would give you a row-reduction and doesnt lead to fractions, although the numbers might explode
maybe a sequence of compute hnf, reduce mod, compute hnf, reduce mod, ... might give you a good system
<@&268886789983436800>
jesus fucking christ, I'm a Sonic fan, rings shouldn't be giving me trouble
anyways I'm forgetting what number theoretic transform (NTT) is supposed to be doing and how I should be implementing it even though I studied rings before in my postsec math courses and cryptology

Is there any relation between 2-adic numbers and Collatz Conjecture?

It’s true though, the collatz conjecture are about numbers and the 2-adics are also numbers
idk why yall are reacting like this, there are pretty deep connections tmk
im not well educated on them though. I've only like. researched something adjacent before
i think one research direction that often tends to be pursued is how, yeah, it's pretty straightforward to extend the collatz map from Z to Z_2 (the 2-adics) and then from there people do dynamic systems analysis stuff
I'd say more but, the reason im not well educated on it is cuz im not a dynamic systems person
you might want to ask in that chat
but in particular, to do collatz, you really just need a way to
- multiply by 3 and add 1
- determine if a number is even or odd
- divide even numbers by 2
note that for p-adics with p>2, there won't be a sense of even vs. odd because then 1/2 is a p-adic
i can elaborate if needed, idk your knowledge level
well okay what i can say is this: the benefit of extending to Z_2 is that you get a lot more topological structure to work with. a huge part of dynamical systems is studying the topological behavior of maps from a space to itself, so a lot of tools can start being used that couldn't be used on Z. the downside ofc is that they don't actually resolve collatz lol
At least for me the reaction was less to do with the 2-adics and more a gut reaction to Collatz
As 99% of discussions of the problem lead to crankery
ok i won't lie. on one hand, i was gonna reply saying "that feels like it could throw the baby out with the bathwater", but then again, i searched OP's message history, and i am realizing that they are actually someone who claims to have proven collatz
ok, here's my argument for taking the question seriously anyway. firstly, i think it's pleasant to be encouraging, especially in a good direction, as opposed to just saying "no dont do that"
secondly, i think there is interesting mathematics to talk about here
I think that is the right approach to every problem but Collatz XD
I think we can and should warn early stage mathematicians "if you work on this you will be seen as a crank, build a reputation first"
i would argue that "trying to prove collatz" is actually a healthy activity when treated as a "im probably not gonna do this and im just trying to get a sense of why it's so hard", the issue is when people get stuck on it
on the other hand im being naive. you're right that there should be a clear reputation warning
Yeah, the path is lined with skulls 💀
well put
anyway im a little heated cuz i have an emotional connection to specifically using ring completions to study collatz
i proofed collatz
when i was first learning ring theory, i rediscovered an obscure result from 1987: there's actually a known nontrivial example of an unbounded collatz sequence in the ring F_2[x], if we use a multiplication factor of x^2+1 instead of 3, and divide by x instead of 2
i only found that what i had found had been found already after the fact but. it was fun
the reason is that the orbit actually converges x-adically, i.e. in F_2[[x]]
also i didn't prove it, i just found it computationally
if yall are curious about the details. (obviously i wasn't alive in 1987 but i should probably link the people who found it first rather than my own writings lol)
tl; dr i personally has a positive experience w/ thinking about collatz stuff, although maybe i should accept im in the minority
So the Collatz conjecture is false if you ignore (binary) carries.
essentially 
well, it's true if you naively use x+1 as a multiplication factor, just by a degree argument
Ah, x^2+1 rather than x+1. Missed that. So it's the 5n+1 version that would be false.
yea
i believe x^2+x+1 is open still
and probably just as dangerous to one's career

there's a paper from 2006 that proves asymptotics on it though
You proofed Frog.
I am curious as to what the author meant by the last statement. 
,w (1003/2)^2 - (1001/2)^2

I wonder what exactly exercise 64 has in it
rationals are closed under addition but $1002 + y^2$ is always irrational
Coolempire93

yeah
also does modular arithmetic even work properly in fields
I feel like you need a ring specifically
since a field is more than just a euclidean domain
it's a PID
true but well the exercise is from the first chapter called "Integers" from a book on Abstract Algebra, so I suppose the reader is not expected to know rings and fields
Thankfully you don't need to know algebra to know hypocrisy
all nonzero elements are units
um
that's the end of my thoughts

pigeon.exe has stopped working
$a = kb$ is satisfied by everybody
Coolempire93
uhm?
yeah I feel like it would be trivial since either it's all gonna collapse or nothing changes
perhaps I'm being thick though
I'm still confused as to how the reader is expected to prove 64
is what I'm saying
$64 \in \mathbb{Z} \in \mathbb{Q} \in \mathbb{R} \in \mathbb{C}$
Civil Service Pigeon

oh for a moment I thought, you were demeaning me
yeah well
No no 😅
hypocritical writers
writing is hard 

me when embeddings
It's really interesting how algebra makes numbers more than just numbers 
$[64]_{64} \in \mathbb{Z}/64\mathbb{Z} \in \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Q} \in \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{R} \in \mathbb{C}/\mathbb{C} \cong {0}$

oh no that's horrible
Civil Service Pigeon
hm
If you quotient a field with itself
do you just get {0,1}
or is it just {0}
I think it's just {0}
Oh you wrote that

maybe if I took the time to read
Yes ideals and field extensions are very interesting
I guess this means that the index of a field with itself is 0
me when 0 dimensional vector space over myself
pigeon.exe has stopped working.
orz
I assume that's related to how dimension of the field extension arises
beri interesting
literally
wtf

<@&268886789983436800>
||Let x=k²q, y=7²(k²+q²) and r=(x: y).
Then r must divide both qy-7²x=7²q³ and k²y-7²qx=7²k⁴, so r can only be 1, 7, 7². Just choose some examples.||
what?
They just replaced a with k and b with q
you skipped some steps I dont follow
what do you mean?
I am at d = gcd(x,y) with x = k^2 . q and y = 7^2 . (k^2 + q^2) @mint stone
can you expand brackets?
I am at d = gcd(x,y) with x = k^2 . q and y = 7^2 . k^2 + 7^2 . q^2 @mint stone
so, substitute this into qy - 7^2x and expand brackets
I don't understand what is unclear for you in this solution
why qy - 7^2x = 7^2q^3
because we have
qy-7²x=q7²(k²+q²)-7²k²q=q7²k² + 7²q³ - 7²k²q
so, the last term cancels with the first one, since they are equal
and we are left with 7²q³
I dont think I follow how you got there from
I am at d = gcd(x,y) with x = k^2 . q and y = 7^2 . k^2 + 7^2 . q^2 @mint stone
multiply q by y and expand brackets.
you mean multiply y by q?
sure. It's standard in math to write qy if you want to multiply q by y, or abc if you want to multiply a by b by c
care to elaborate? I dont understand how you got here
I don't know, it's just a basic math, like a(b+c)=ab+ac. Maybe it's worth revisiting those first
Exactly. And here #elementary-number-theory message I wrote the rest of the solution
the second line is what I dont understand
Then r must divide both qy-7²x=7²q³ and k²y-7²qx=7²k,
r divides both x and y, so it divides any number of the form sx+ty where s,t are any integers
Are there some ways to compute factorisation of ideals in a ring of integrs of some finite extension of QQ, if we know its generators? At least for some good fields like QQ[sqrt(-3), sqrt(5)].
I know how to do it for QQ[sqrt(d)]. If I is an ideal in O_k, we can find n s.t. I = (n) J and ZZ+J= O_k. Than O_k/J= ZZ/(J cap ZZ) = ZZ/norm(J).
In ZZ/norm(J) we can find minimal decomposition of (0) to a product of prime idels and take their preimages in O_k. This is factorization of J.
To factorize (n), it's sufficient to factor (p), p is prime in ZZ. It's done for example here
But I cant generalize even for biquadratic fields.
Is this still considered elementary NT and not #advanced-number-theory 🥴
Is it better to send this question there?
I think so
Actually reading again groups rings fields may have been better 🤡 well we'll see what the good people of that channel tell you
does even the problem of
what would the smallest square number to start with 777
belongs to ENT?
Debatable. It doesn't take much trial and error to find 882² = 777924, but there's not much theory going into it.
most questions that depend on what base you're looking at aren't that interesting
maybe thats an overstatement but usually the interesting ones will look at properties of the base number
$ calc 'sqrt(0.777)'
0.88147603484156051104
$ calc 'sqrt(0.778)'
0.88204308284799785056
$ calc 'sqrt(0.0777)'
0.27874719729532707895
$ calc 'sqrt(0.0778)'
0.27892651361962706036
So 882 is the smallest natural number whose square is written as 777 followed by an odd number of digits, and 2788 and 2799 are the smallest natural numbers whose squares are 777 followed by an even number of digits.
how can you prove that if gcd(a,b) = 1 then gcd(a^n, b^m) = 1 for n != m
Assume p is a prime that divides gcd(a^n,b^m). Derive a contradiction.
ok so, for example
Let p be a prime such that p | a^n and p | b^m
then, it follows that p | gcd(a^n, b^m)
then what?
p | gcd(a^n, b^m) is what I suggested you assume.
ok sorry lets start again
Let p be a prime such that p | gcd(a^n, b^m)
by the definition of gcd, the gcd of two numbers divides both numbers,
then,
gcd(a^n, b^m) | a^n and
gcd(a^n, b^m) | b^m
then because divisibility is transitive
p | a^n and p | b^m
That's a good start.
but I got stuck
I'll let you think about what more you can conclude now.
I mean if p | a^n and p | b^m then gcd(a^n, b^m) >= p
That was actually so simple, I love the approach
Prove $\phi (mn) = \phi (m) \cdot \phi(n) \cdot \frac{d}{\phi(d)}$ \ where $(m,n) =d$
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
Thats a nice theorem
what is (m, n)
Greatest common divisor
number theorists coming up with the worst notation known to mankind
[a,b] is lcm
$$\left(\frac{m}{n}\right)$$
oh yeah the legendre symbol is the worst
Use chi(m) if you're annoyed by it
But the legendre symbol gives you a nice way to look at reciprocity
$\chi(m)$
nah, man, don't talk trash about my beloved phi
$\lambda\alpha\tau\varepsilon\chi$
Vanellope von Schmugz
I have no idea how to start
Do you know under what condition $\phi(mn) = \phi(m) \cdot \phi(n)$
Coolempire93
Good 👌 sorry for the delay I was trying to cme up with a way to prove this without invoking prime power factorization but I could only come up with ways to do it through using it
Do you know the formula for $\phi$
Coolempire93
$\phi(p^a) = p^a-p^{a-1}$ ?\
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
👌 we can use that
Alr
Rewriting a little bit, $\phi(p^a) = p^a\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)$, right?
Coolempire93
Ok
So using the fact that phi is multiplicative for coprime numbers, consider this:
We can write $n = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2} \cdots p_n^{a_n}$ as the prime power factorization of $n$ (are you familiar with this?)
Coolempire93
Yep
Coolempire93
if it has the prime power factorization above
$\phi(n) = n \prod (1- \frac{1}{p_i})$
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
✅
So all we need to do is characterize the prime power factorizations of m and n
Say $d = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2} \cdots p_i^{a_i}$ and $n = p_1^{a_1 + b_1}p_2^{a_1 + b_2} \cdots p_i^{a_i + b_i}q_1^{b_{i+1}}q_2^{b_{i+2}} \cdots q_j^{b_{i+j}}$ and $m = p_1^{a_1 + c_1}p_2^{a_2 + c_2} \cdots p_i^{a_i + c_i}r_1^{c_{i+1}}r_2^{c_{i+2}} \cdots r_k^{c_{i+k}}$
Ah I forgot to add d
This is annoyiwng xd
Coolempire93
It's alr take ur time
So what we have here is q represent prime factors unique to n
r represent prime factors unique to m
And d is the gcd
Now all we have to do is write out $\phi(mn)$
Coolempire93
And we can simplify to the form that you were given
Well really writing out the right side will be easier
And then simplifying to phi(mn)
So based on the prime power factorization what is $\phi(m)$
Coolempire93
Should be easy since the powers don't matter
(what I'm saying is to use this)
Funnily enough the rest of this process comes from definition of gcd, so the powers were really just for formality 😭
$\phi(m) = \prod (1- \frac{1}{p_i}) \prod (1- \frac{1}{r_i})$ something?
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
Exactly 👍
Don't forget the m in the front
But yeah
$\phi(m) = m\prod\left(1 - \frac1{p_\ell}\right)\prod\left(1 - \frac1{r_\ell}\right)$
Coolempire93
Okay now how about $\phi(n)$
Coolempire93
$\phi(m) = n \prod (1- \frac{1}{p_i}) \prod (1- \frac{1}{q_j})$
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
Finally, what about $\phi(d)$
Coolempire93
$\phi(d) = d \prod (1- \frac{1}{p_i})$
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
\hsize=2000pt
$\phi(m)\phi(n)\frac{d}{\phi(d)} = m\prod_{\ell = 1}^n\left(1 - \frac1{p_\ell}\right)\prod_{\ell = 1}^k\left(1 - \frac1{r_\ell}\right) \cdot n\prod_{\ell = 1}^n\left(1 - \frac1{p_\ell}\right)\prod_{\ell = 1}^j\left(1 - \frac1{q_\ell}\right) \cdot \frac{d}{d\prod_{\ell = 1}^n\left(1 - \frac1{p_\ell}\right)}$
Useless latex
Coolempire93
Better I guess
You should be able to simplify the common terms here
And then realize that the result is phi(mn)
And then as a final step I'll summarize what we did more succintly
since I added a little bit of unnecessary stuff in the middle
Okae
let me know once you finish simplifying

Does that mean done 😆
So what I get here is ....
\hsize=2000pt
$mn\prod_{\ell = 1}^n\left(1 - \frac1{p_\ell}\right)\prod_{\ell = 1}^k\left(1 - \frac1{r_\ell}\right) \cdot \prod_{\ell = 1}^j\left(1 - \frac1{q_\ell}\right)$
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
Coolempire93
Okkkk

Okay now for the more succinct version
So at the beginning we showed that if $n = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2} \cdots p_n^{a_n}$ is the prime-power factorization of $n$, then $\phi(n) = n\prod_{i=1}^n\left(1 - \frac{1}{p_i}\right)$
Coolempire93
But notice that in that formula for phi(n), we never use the a_i
So we can write this a bit more clearly
If $P$ is the set of prime factors of $n$, then $\phi(n) = n\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)$
Coolempire93
We can now manipulate this for our problem
Okk
Let $m$ and $n$ be natural numbers with $Q$ the set of prime factors of $m$ and $R$ the set of prime factors of $n$. Then if $(m,n) = d$, the set of prime factors of $d$ is $P = Q \cap R$
Coolempire93
Do you agree with that so far
Yup
Makes sense
Perfect
this can be done just by individually considering the multiplicity of a singular prime p on both the LHS and RHS right?
acc nvm
Yeah, that's ultimately what I'm trying to do now
oh alr
The powers are unnecessary, we just need the primes
So then $\phi(d) = d\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)$
Coolempire93
And now we have our final result
\hsize=2000pt
\begin{align*}
\phi(mn) &= mn\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)\prod_{q \in Q \setminus P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{q}\right)\prod_{r \in R \setminus P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{r}\right) \
&= m\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)\prod_{q \in Q \setminus P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{q}\right) \cdot n\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)\prod_{r \in R \setminus P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{r}\right) \cdot \frac{1}{\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)} \
&= m\prod_{q \in Q}\left(1 - \frac{1}{q}\right) \cdot n\prod_{r \in R}\left(1 - \frac{1}{r}\right) \cdot \frac{d}{d\prod_{p \in P}\left(1 - \frac{1}{p}\right)} \
&= \phi(m)\phi(n)\frac{d}{\phi(d)}
\end{align*}
(notationwise, if P is the shared factors of m and n, then Q \ P is the set of prime factors of m that are not prime factors of n, and Q \ R is the set of prime factors of n that are not prime factors of n)
Oh I guess I can add in one more line so that is clearer
Oh I put the q in the wrong place too
okay give me a sec to fix that 
Coolempire93
a lot of tracking of terms has to go on here but let me know if anything is confusing 
After putting $\prod_{p \in P} \left(1- \frac{1}{p}\right)$ in both numerator and denominator
TᖇᗩᑎᔕᑭᗩᖇEᑎT ᔕᕼᗩᗪOᗯ
Mhm 👀
Oh wait since d is common divisor of m and n putting them gives the full factorization of m and n
Nvm I got it
Tysm ✨🍁
My dumb ahh finally got it
No problem 💃 
Glad that you got it 🙂
I think this leads to probably what I think is most fun
That $d\phi(m)\phi(n) = \phi(d)\phi(mn)$
Coolempire93
Ig the proof skills in me is still not polished yet
(Which I think can be proven by some form of counting argument but seems annoying
)
This one was just particularly difficult without the formula for $\phi$
Coolempire93
It would require you to actually work with the powers in the prime factorization
long algebraic process
Sure
But in general if you're given an equality you can just plug whatever formulas you have into each side
Cancel like terms, etc, until you reach a tautology
Which is what you would have had to do
Thanks again
Finally I can sleep it's almost 3 am
Yes sleep sleep
Goodnight ✨🌸
Goodnight 
how can you prove that if x in Z such that x > 1 then his prime factorization contains at least one prime?
Well-ordering principle helps with this one
care to elaborate?
Essentially what we are proving is that every positive integer > 1 has a prime divisor
One way to go is by contradiction
So suppose the set of positive integers > 1 with no prime divisor is nonempty
By WOP it has a smallest element, call that y
If y is prime, then it has a prime divisor (itself), so y cannot by prime
But if y is not prime, what does that mean
(think: what does it mean for a number to be composite)
im new to wop
Simply, it's the principle that every set of positive integers has a smallest element
every nonempty set
So since the set of positive integers > 1 with no prime divisors is a set of positive integers, when we suppose that it is nonempty, that means that it has a smallest element
What is your definition of prime
positive divisors himself and 1
More specifically, $x$ is prime if it \textit{only} has as positive divisors $1$ and itself
Coolempire93
why cant the smallest element cant be prime
The only here is the keyword
ok
Because if y is prime, then y has a prime divisor
Which is itself
If $p$ is prime, then since $p | p$, $p$ has a prime divisor
Coolempire93
what about it
What is the negation of this
What does it mean to not be prime
I dont understand
What do you not understand
how
To write it in symbols, WOP says that $\forall S \subseteq \ZZ_{> 0}, S \neq \emptyset \implies \exists s \in S(\forall t \in S, s \leq t)$
If we define $S = {x \in \ZZ_{>1} : x \text{ has no prime divisors}}$
Coolempire93
That is, S is the set of positive integers greater than one with no prime divisors
Coolempire93
For our proof by contradiction, suppose S is nonempty
Then since S is a set of positive integers, WOP applies
S being nonempty means that S has a smallest element
Therefore the set of positive integers greater than one with no prime divisors has a smallest element
But it is empty
Oh ok

What is the asymptotic density of the set of all x^2 + y^4 asymptotically equivalent to
Or what is #{x^2 + y^4 <= n for x,y>= 1} asymptotically equivalent to (and then divide that by n to get the other one I guess lol)
I just heard it be mentioned as a "sparse set that wasn't as sparse as the set of all x^2 + 1's" so I was curious
I guess you could frame this question as, what is its sparseness asymptotically equivalent to
Ok one thing
this is bounded above asymptotically by x^(3/4) that is for sure
because the amount of x^2 + y^4's
is lower than or equal to the amount of (x,y)'s that satisfy x^2 + y^4 <= n,
which is lower than or equal to the amount of all (x,y)'s such that there exists a y1 and x1 such that x^2 + y1^4 <= n and x1^2 + y^4 <= n,
ake the product of the amount of x's for which there exists a y1 such that x^2 + y1^4 <= n and the amount of y's for which there exists an x1 such that x1^2 + y1^4 <=n,
aka the product of the amount of x's such that x^2 + 1 <= n and the amount of y's such that y^4 + 1 <= n
aka floor(sqrt(n-1)) * floor(fourthRoot(n-1))
which is lower than or equal to sqrt(n) * fourthRoot(n) aka n^(3/4)
It lowkey does seem to be asymptotically proportional to n^(3/4)
and what is this weird ~0.7 value its approaching?
for 10000000 (10^7), I optimised the code to make it so that it only calculates it for each floor(10^7 * m/1000)
Honestly I am kinda confused by the growth rate
I got the fact that the amount of (x,y)'s such that x^2 + y^4 <= n is asymptotically equivalent to n^(3/4) * (integ from 0 to 1 of sqrt(1-k^4) dk)
but that is still technically not the same as the amount of x^2 + y^4's <= n
ok lets be real its probably (very likely) asymptotically the same but I know not of how to prove that
more specifically, I need to prove that the amount of duplicates is o(n^(3/4))
I mean its obviously true but uuuuh I don't know how to do it
the obvious duplicates (from x^2, y and y^2, x) are o(n^(3/4)), but I don't know if they are all the duplicates
Honestly the graph is weird considering that the amount of x^2 + y^4's is likely n^(3/4) * (value in picture), but it still does seem correct even with that
(the picture in question)
like it does seem to approaching this value but like why so slowly lmfao
I looked at it a bit in desmos, I think I sorta see where it comes from (there is an O(sqrt(n)) factor in the o(n^(3/4)) difference between n^(3/4) * (value in picture) and the amount of (x, y)'s)
the formula at the bottom (x,y's) is not necessarily the same as my intended result (x^2 + y^4's) but still
Wait… Is that an integral? I thought number theory was about ℕ?
I'm estimating the sum with the integral
Sweet summer child, you seem to know nothing of analytic number theory, not that what I'm doing here is anything close to that
Daily reminder this is number theory
hodge-podge
It seems the amount of x^2 + y^4's approaches the amount of (x, y)'s asymptotically very slowly
Even after 10^7
Even 10^8
Like holy fuck what is the algorithmic complexity of the amount of duplicate (x, y)'s (that have to be cut to give the amount of x^2 + y^4's)
does anyone find it interesting that there is a one page proof that every prime is an s unit solution in lesser primes?
What does "s unit solution" mean?
((p-1)+(p+1))/2 = p
(p-1) and (p+1) are <p smooth
expressed as an s-unit equation, u-v=2
in other words, if you enumerate a friable monoid (of primes up to some p) in sorted order, the first gap is the next prime
by siegel's there are finitely many u-v=2 and the upper bound on the exponents is large, empirically there are large solutions
all solutions are coprime to the prime set
a google search says this theorem is not known, but the proof is a trivial one pager
idk if it's one of those things that is so obvious no one writes it down, but i find it interesting
notably you can do stuff like express any statement about primes in terms of s units
and in fact any statement about integers becomes expressible in terms of s units
any number = product of s unit solutions, recursively
Just read the relevant chapter on David M. Burton. Well written imo.
anyone have a good free pdf to learn number theory from
Have you tried looking in #book-recommendations ? For example, here:

damn that channel could be a real goldmine
yeah this one looks great thanks a ton again
I've asked this before here and I'll ask it again, anyone have a proof that these are the same (of course 1. -> 2., but how do you get 1. from 2.)
look at the condition for b for 2.
because such a condition isn't there for 1.
it's all integers for 1.
There's a theorem later in the article that Carmichael numbers are always square-free, and if that can be proved just from definition (2), then (1) would follow using the Chinese remainder theroem.
I get what you're saying
b^n = b^(p1, p2...., pm) -decompose> b^p1, b^p2, ..., b^pm = b, b, ..., b -recompose> b
In fact: Suppose n is not square-free. Then n = p^k·m, where p is prime, k>=2, and m is coprime to p^k.
The multiplicative group modulo n has order p^(k-1)·(p-1)·φ(m), so by Cauchy's theorem it contains an element b of order p.
Since b^p == 1 (mod n) we also have b^n == 1 (mod n) and in particular b^(n-1) == b^-1 (mod n). But b^-1 is not 1 because the order of b is p > 1.
Thus, this n does not satisfy the second definition.
can I get some help with this?
is asking that for the following predicates with p in N, p > 1, which of them are a definition to the prime numbers p
what have you been able to figure out so far
quite a few things but nothing really productive
say for example if a) is a characterization of primes p, then
p is prime <=> a)
you can prove right (=>) and left (<=) direction
yea, a) is a definition of primes
good question
so, prime => b) is true, because the only divisors of p are 1 and p, and p^2 ∤ p
but on the other hand, <= is false
here's a hint: what happens if a number doesn't have any square divisors? (except 1)
care to elaborate?
for example, think about p = 2 * 3
here p is composite, what about it
does 6 satisfy b) ?
say p = 6, then take d = 3 , d > 1 yes because 3 > 1 and also d | p yes because 3 | 6
furthermore 9 does not divide 6, this is also good, and then b) holds but p is not prime, thus
b) => p is prime
is false as shit
are you here? @supple acorn
ah thanks for the ping
yea
also you would need to check d = 2 and d = 6 cases
but ultimately it works because the only square divisor of 6 is 1
so yea so far we have a) is a definition of primes and b) is not a definition of primes
cuz it says ∀
?
thats the thing, we just need to find one d such that p is not prime and we good.
oh to be clear the free variable in the statement is p
d is bound to the quantifier
what about it
you are correct if you say "we just need to find one p such that p is not prime"
and we chose p = 6
then we need to show that p satisfies b)
and to show that, we need to show it holds for all d
so we then see that we first require d > 1 and d | p
the only d that satisfy this are d = 2, 3, 6
and indeed, for all such d, d^2 ∤ p
only one d is enough
that is not how the ∀ quantifier works
I dont think I follow?
