#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 29 of 1
research-wise, pretty much everything that can be done with just elementary techniques has been done
ofc you could probably find some really obscure problem no one is working on or find a new proof of a proven result
but like we have long since passed the days where you could prove i.e. fermat's last theorem by just some random elementary arguments
there is a way more simpler way to prove that n = 1 is the only case
It is by using the fact given any n, there exist a k such that 2^k =< n < 2^(k+1)
where k is ofcourse an positive integer
within the sum
there exist an unique 1/m where m = q.2^k
where q is odd
so consider the sum S = 1 + 1/2 ... 1/n
you multiply S with r where r = b.2^(k-1) where b is the largest common odd multiple of 1,2,...n
now for any other term beside 1/m
r/t (t =/= m) will be an integer
so r.S = a + r/m where a is an integer
and as r/m is not
r.S can't be an integer
hence S can't be an integer
ahh i see
you see you can extend this for more
wait
like given any set S such that there exist an integer k such that there exist a unique element in S (denoted a) where a.k^m is an integer and a.k^(m-1) is not
oh essentially computing the 2-adic valuation
tbh there is the Bertrand's postulate proof also
which is also extendable in it's own unique way
i remember proving the sum of all 1/a where (a,n) = 1 and a =< n is not an integer
using the same arguement used for the proof of this using Bertrand's postulate
Here is a better one
prove that if p == b^2 (mod 28) for some integer b iff p = x^2 + 7y^2 for some integer x,y
(p is prime)
imma peace out
does $a\nmid b$ imply $\gcd(a,b)\leq |a|/2$?
Axe
What does a not dividing b tell you about prime powers that divide a and b?
there is a prime p for which the power of p dividing a is greater than the power of p dividing b
So you would have to divide a by p (and some other stuff maybe) to find a common divisor
,rccw
❤️
ok i get the hint, but what's the third factor?
11
you find 3 and 673 from the hint, and then try 2,5,7,11 - the first two are straightforward
wow
Why 3 and 673?
I thought the hint just guarantees their existence, I didn't know you can actually find them
I don't think 3 is a factor
But yeah 11 looks right
Do you use fermat's theorem to check 2,5,7,11?
11 doesn't work since it's a factor of 2020, so 2019^2018 + 2020 = 1
11 doesn't divide 2020
oops
2019^2 + 2020 isn't divisible by 11 but you still need to ensure that the other factor isn't filled to the brim with 11s right
there were other problems before this that said "not necessarily distinct"
ah
but yeah that's a good point
wait so do they want distinct or no
i'm not sure
If we don't need three distinct prime factors, all that is needed is that 2019^2+2020 = 4078381 is not itself prime.
It fails the Fermat test immediately with base 2, but that's still a lot of computation if we're supposed to do it with pencil and paper.
Oh, even that is overthinking it.
Let 2019^2018+2019+1 = k·(2019^2+2019+1).
Fermat shows that the large number is divisible by 11, and since each of k and (2019^2+2019+1) are larger than 11 [citation needed], whichever of them the 11 comes from must have a third prime factor in it ...
my bad; I was thinking about 2019 instead of 2019^2+2019+1; so yeah, the point is that the prime factors of this are also prime factors for the initial number, but it's a bit harder to find them (but as Troposphere showed, it is not necessary to find them)
only for 7 and 11
for 2 it's just odd+even
for 5 just use 2019=-1 (mod 5)
thanks 🙏
what's the point of freshman's dream (a+b)^p = a^p + b^p (mod p) when we can say (a+b)^p = a+b (mod p) by fermat's little theorem?
(a + b)^p = a^p + b^p holds more generally in rings of characteristic p (for prime p)
it's a very useful result for studying polynomials in characteristic p rings
for instance a corollary of the freshman's dream is that the Frobenius map f(x) = x^p is a (natrual) endomorphism of rings
(and usually is an isomorphism as well as long as your ring is nice enough)
and that in particular is extremely useful, because in general it almost never happens that a ring endomorphism can be given by a simple polynomial
and also on the diff geo side of things the fact that this endomorphism is a polynomial lends to some nice analytic techniques that I am not privy to
cool, thanks
n is coprime to p^2
wlog you can reduce them to be coprime
cool, thanks
i think this only works when we're looking for stuff congruent to 0
if we want congruent to nonzero k, i think we have to consider the denominator
like if a/b = some sum s, and we find s congruent to 2 mod 3, then i think we conclude a = 2b mod 3
hmm
yeah i think so
I've been trying to solve this proof like since last night
for context, I'm self studying elementary number theory
there's this one problem that goes:
Prove that [x] + [x + 1/2] = [2x]
The [] indicate the floor function
The definition is:
[x] ≤ x < [x + 1]
And, I've been trying to prove this, but I keep going around in circles
you do this one on cases
when x+1/2 rounds up vs down
we define the fractional part of the number {x} = x - [x]
so, case 1: {x}\ge .5, case 2: {x}< .5
Wow, didn't think of using cases 😭
I was so hooked up on manipulating inequalities
And trying to make the thing work
Is it possible to compute (a^b mod c) mod d where mod means finding the representative in 0,…,d-1, and here d is small, c is very large, and so are a and b
@dreamy pine Heltin use x as I +f where I is the integer part and x is the fractional part so the floor function of I+f becomes I. Then manipulate terms a little bit
I mean, why wouldn't it be?
Also, you don't really need to define the mod function here btw.
they might be asking if it can be computed efficiently
Oh yeah, maybe.
But also, not really. That function is fairly elementary hash function I believe. And so if we could reduce it, I feel like we would have found something.
Although, there a couple things we could do.
You could use eulers theorem to solve the inner mod.
Also, if gcd(c,d) != 1, then I'm pretty sure that there's something that you could do.
But also, you'd have to find the gcd which if c is very large, then that could be quite arduous as you'd have to use the ext euc alg.
I did it
Perhaps I've spent too much time on a problem in a textbook (24 hrs+)
Or maybe elementary number theory is still way beyond my level
The whole point is to have an efficient algorithm
Like c is 2^{10^7} roughly
b is on the same order
Which textbook @dreamy pine
My number theory class experience (with emotes for illustration)
- Divisibility 🐣 🖖 ➗
- GCD and LCM 🤏 🔢 🧑🧑🧒🧒
- Primes

- Modular arithmetic 🕰️ 🔃

- Solving congruences
💡 
- Arithmetic functions 🥧 🐂

- Floor function 🧼 🤣 🗓️
- Primitive roots 🛖 🫚 🎰
- Cryptology 🧑💻 🪖 🪵
- Quadratic residues
⏹️ ⏲️ - Diophantine equations 🏺 💰

- Rational points and elliptic curves 📊 🪢

- Analytic number theory 🤡
📈
hey yall, this is a problem from silverman's friendly intro to number theory
im having a tough time demonstrating the first part of the hint
i tried considering quadratic residues but it doesnt seem to work
though now im thinking it has to do with the squarefree-ness of x or smth
i know that x cannot be a square but otherwise idk what else
Hey guys, found a rather puzzling question on Rosen's textbook
"Show that if m and n are integers, and x is any real number,
[(x + n)/m] = [([x] + n)/m]"
But there are loads of counterexamples if m < 0
Ex: x = 4.3, n = 2, m = -3
[(x + n)/m]
= [(4.3 + 2)/-3]
= [6.3/-3]
= [-2.1]
= -3
But
[([x] + n)/m]
= [([4.3] + 2)/-3]
= [(4 + 2)/-3]
= [6/-3]
= [-2]
= -2
-3 ≠ -2
it doesn't say positive integers?
No it doesn't
So.. if I wanted to create a number system where the integers are just consecutive primes. Non primes thereby becomes decimal places..
No stupid questions right?
How would one do this?
what is a "decimal place"
the real numbers and the integers are not analogous in the sense that integers correspond to primes
for example if you multiply or add two integers you get an integer, but if you multiply or add two primes you don't get a prime back
I suppose you mean we don't always get a prime. Just the thought came 2+5=7, so sharing.
I love this thought
it doesnt matter
for it to be possible, we need addition to be closed
but clearly it is not
3+17 and 13+7 would represent the same number, for example
So you have...
er
Non-uniqueness ig
IG you can argue that H = {au + bv : a, b ∈ ℤ} is a subgroup of ℤ, hence equal to nℤ for some n using Euclidean division. Then u, ∈ H ⇒ n ∣ u, v and n ∈ H ⇒ n = au + bv for some a, b ∈ ℤ.
I will read about being closed to better understand it
Hello
Prove that there exists infinitely many positive integers 4n²+1 divisible by 5 and 13.
Does anyone know this?
||4n^2+1 = 0 (mod 5) has solutions n = 1,4 (mod 5) ||
|| 4n^2+1 = 0 (mod 5) has solutions n = 4,9 (mod 13) ||
|| then n=4+65k is a solution for any k ||
chat is this true? $k! \mid (p^{n - 1} - 1) \ldots (p^{n - 1} - k + 1)$ where $p$ is an odd prime and $n$ is a positive integer and $1 \leq k \leq n - 1$
Neamesis
i don't think so

Oh yeah makes sense
@high frost how do I write math like u do in chat
I think you use latex. By adding $ before and after your latex commands, then the bot auto generates the math text
I learned what closed means! Just sharing because I think it's beautiful
nice!
closure is a pretty important thing to consider for various algebraic structures
considering those structures require that closure is satisfied
So wonderful, can't wait to study abstract algebra
Thank you so much for your support!
Thanks
$1$ $+$ $1$ = $2$
ζaνδυsaξzar
You can encase entire mathematical expressions within the delimiters instead of every term. For example, $1+1=2$. If I wanted to do display math, I could do $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x}{y}, \mathrm d x $$
Alex W.
Quick question: why does the following hold? Here the sum runs over primes.
$$\sum_{p \le Y, \ p^k > Y} \frac{1}{p^k} \le \frac{1}{Y} \sum_{\sqrt{Y} \le p^k \le Y, \ k \ge 2} 1$$
We can upper-bound $\frac{1}{p^k}$ by $1/Y$, but I just don’t see why we get this particular index set...
octopus
Seems strange. Do you have a source for this particular inequation?
I would believe it if it was something like this
$$\sum_{p \le Y, \ p^k > Y} \frac{1}{p^k} \le \frac{1}{Y} \sum_{p^k > Y, \ k \ge 2} 1$$
So, the index set on the right side is greater than the index set on the left
EastSyberian
But then, it would be infinite. Okay, I need to think about it
It's from a textbook (https://people.math.ethz.ch/~kowalski/probabilistic-number-theory.pdf, page 72).
i can get a bound of $\ll \frac{1}{\log{Y}}$ without too much difficulty using PNT, is that enough?
LY
i mean the RHS is probably roughly 1/log(Y) anyway so asymptotically should be fine
oh wait sorry nvm it's k>=2
i kinda cba to read through all this to understand the context, try posting in advanced NT to see if anyone can answer ur Q
Understand haha. Will do!
27 ain’t prime
😵💫
Hello everyone, I'm new to the discord, so forgive me if this is not the correct board to post such a question on. I'm just beginning to work through Understanding Analysis by Stephen Abbott, and I've immediately encountered a point of confusion. While working through the preliminaries section, the first question asks the reader to prove that sqrt(3) is irrational, then to prove that sqrt(6) is irrational, and finally it asks the reader to detail the issue with applying the same method of proof to the sqrt(4). I think that I completely understand the proof for the sqrt(3). Begin by assuming there is a rational number p/q in lowest terms whose square is equal to 3, then show that both p and q must have 3 as a factor which is a contradiction. But, I am a bit confused as to how this is extended to the proof for the irrationality of the sqrt(6). I assumed the reason we could confidently say [p^2 = 3(q^2) ] ==> [3 divides p] is because of Euclid's Lemma stating that if a prime number p divides the product of two integers ab then p divides a or p divides b. So since 3 is prime and divides p^2 it must divide p. Isn't the same not true during the proof of the irrationality of sqrt(6)? Beginning with lowest terms p/q, then p^2 = 6(q^2) aren't we unable to confidently say that since 6 divides p^2 it must divide p?
But 6 is not prime?
Exactly. That's where my confusion comes from. I thought the fact that 3 is prime was a crucial part of the first proof. In that case, It doesn't seem like we can apply the same logic for the proof of the irrationality of sqrt(3) to prove the irrationality of sqrt(6). Is there a different approach that is needed or is there something that I'm missing that allows us to use the same method: assume p^2/q^2 = 6 and arrive at a contradiction?
You could use the fact that if a divides c and b divides c with a and b being coprime, then ab divides c.
Thank you both! Those explanations were very helpful.
No problem. The statement 6 divides p^2, then 6 divides p actually does hold though because ||6 is square free||
Hello there,
I have a small question to people that might have saw something similar before.
Let $\left ( a_{k} \right ){0\le k \le n} \in \mathbb{N}^{n+1}$ be a sequence of whole numbers. Can we say anything on the divisibility of $\left (\sum{k=0}^{n}{a_{k}} \right )^{2} - \sum_{k=0}^{n}{\left ( a_{k} \right )^{2}}$ by a prime number ? In a non rigorous way, for $p$ prime,
\begin{center} $\left (\sum_{k=0}^{n}{a_{k}} \right )^{2} - \sum_{k=0}^{n}{\left ( a_{k} \right )^{2}} \equiv ? \left [ p\right ]$\end{center}
For me with no constrain on the sequence $\left ( a_{k} \right )$ we can't really say anything except for $p=2$ in which we can use Fermat's small theorem about the congruence of the power of any number by a prime number
Lilly Astar
newton identities?
if you fix the first few numbers and let the last one be a variable then this is equal to a linear function in that variable. and linear functions hit every possible value
but i dont think you gonna get something
except for the case that the coefficient turns out to be zero
(which is the case for p=2)
I see where you are going but since we have some squares all over the place won't it be non linear ?
Yeah taht's the thing sadly
the square cancels
I am only considering the last variable
I dont care about the rest. I consider those as constant
you get $2\sigma_2$, in the end
♱
it's because of that that it works for p = 2
the rest is like a bunch of permutations of ai's summing
For the case p=2 you can apply a bit of Fermat's theorem to say that $\forall k$, $a_{k}^{2} \equiv a_{k} [2]$ and $\left (\sum_{k=0}^{n}{a_{k}} \right )^{2} \equiv \sum_{k=0}^{n}{a_{k}} [2]$ so it works itself out
Lilly Astar
Oh that's well seen
idk why you're trying to apply fermat little theorem as well since it's only algebra
maybe i'm missing something
I mean isn't this channel for arithmetic and whole number theory ? Divisibility and etc ?
I got recommended here by someone in an help channel
And since it's arithmetic I am doing some arithmetic. Btw have anyone saw how to prove fermat's theorem in a genral way for any ring ?
I recommend the lecture of it it's really nice
hello! this may be hard to read so please let me know if i should resend it, but can someone help me verify where i went wrong in the last part?
i need to use the descent method to find a reprsentation of 2125 as two squares.
Hey y'all, imma apologise in advance cos I'm on my phone and I can really type set. So, for convenience define eulers totient function as t(n).
I'm trying to find all nilpotent elements of Z_n
So obviously 0 is a nilpotent element, so assume a is some non-zero nilpotent element
Then we have that a^t(n) = 1 mod n by Euler's thrm. => a^(t(n) * k) = 1 mod n for all k
Wait, my bad. I answered my own question by writing it out. Sorry y'all.
That is not true, though; the Euler-Fermat theorem explicitly only works when you assume gcd(a,n)=1.
For instance Z_4 has two nilpotent elements : 0,2
Ye, I know. That's what I meant by I answered my own question.
Didn't specify cos I didn't realise I needed to lol
Can anybody check if my reasoning is valid for this proof
I'm proving that (-a) | b given that a | b.
What I've written is, "if -a | b then b = -a × c. Because b > 0 it follows that c < 0, so b = -a × -c". Is this complete or is my reasoning lacking somewhere
the this | that operator doesnt care about positive/negative, only that that = this * an integer
its not restricting you to positive integers only, so you dont need to care about signs
so given that a | b, that means b = a times c, so you can then immediately say b = -a times -c without needing to care about signs and youre good
hi, sorry if it's a misfit to this channel.
I have a specific problem where, for given y, I want to chose x such that xy-3 is a square of an integer (or more likely to be a square).
basically I want to reduce number of x's before finding such a number, without trying all (0 <= x < y is all I need to check) candidates.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
My first instinct is to spam mod contradictions
Ex. Because all squares are either 0 or 1 mod 4, we can exclude all x where xy is 1 or 2 mod 4
good idea, I think I know how it works. thanks.
for what I'm doing tho knowing how much I can reduce will be useful too.
let's say I have a pre-computed table of if it can be a square for all values mod p for prime p.
for randomly selected values, how much are gonna filtered as "non-square"?
should I make the modulus some prime powers like p^k? or try something mod abcd where all factors are distinct primes? etc.
thank you for quick response btw, I'm willing to learn more.
How large is your y? It might be feasible simply to check all k<y/2 to see whether k²+3 is a multiple of y.
(Once you have found such a k, y-k will also work, because k and y-k has the same square mod y.
It's pretty big, to the point I'd like a less naive approach
I think k has at least 2^32 patterns or something
Wait, if you only want x<y, then you only need to check k up to sqrt(y) or so.
uhhh iirc there’s (p+1)/2 quadratic residues mod p for prime p
You may also want to filter mod powers of 2
Then amongst the remaining numbers, maybe you can find their p-adic evaluation for small p
If any of them are odd, then it can’t be a square
I have seen this proof in math stack exchange on how many quadratic residue mon n are there for n=p1,...pk
I just dont understand the step he does here from getting that there are 2^k solutions simply saying there are phi(n)/2^k quadratic residues
i would like to highlight that the post is explicitly definiting a quadratic residue to be coprime to n, which is not the conventional definition. For instance, 4^2 = 4 mod 6 is a noncoprime quadratic residue mod 6. So the result is saying that there are phi(n)/2^k coprime quadratic resides mod n
consider the function f: A->A where f(x) = x^2.
then the # of QRs in A is exactly f(A).
So if you want to find # of QRs you can just calculate the size of f(A), and since f is 2^k to 1 |f(A)| = |A/2^k| = phi(n)/2^k
How to Prove that there is no integer between 1 and 2.
Depends almost entirely on which facts (or axioms) and definitions you have to prove it from.
well, first things first, what is your definition of the integers?
And then, what is your definition of the ordering relation that the word "between" presumably refers to?
Z={0,±1,±2...} all positive and negative number included0
that's not a definition
what do you mean when you say 2? what do you mean when you say ±?
Could you please answer it..and dont know about it.
because otherwise it just follows from that. You define Z={0,±1,±2...}, so there is nothing between 1 and 2 by construction
Yeah thats correct..that means there is no specific proof of this.
again, it's a question of how you're defining the integers
Is there any other way of defining integers..
In mathematical logic, the Peano axioms (, [peˈaːno]), also known as the Dedekind–Peano axioms or the Peano postulates, are axioms for the natural numbers presented by the 19th-century Italian mathematician Giuseppe Peano. These axioms have been used nearly unchanged in a number of metamathematical investigations, including research into fun...
so just a lesson here but in questions like no integers between 1 and 2, when someone is asking you questions you think are dumb like what are integers? you should take a step back and before you respond know that people answering know a lot more than you. theres a reason theyre telling you certain things
it only seems obvious because you know much less
1 is an integer, 2 is an integer, 1000 is an integer, and so is -9. that does not say there isnt one between 1 and 2. it only says you wrote a bunch of integers
you need a definition down to a very axiomatic system to explain why "2" whatever that means as a math symbol comes after "1" and nothing is inbetween
for example what if i wrote the set of all integers are {0,1,-1,-2,-3,-4,...}?
this is certainly correct, but of course its not a good way to write out all the integers. what about +2, +2? but i didnt ommit them im just writing all the negative ones first.... and here you have a problem. when do i include 2?
so i wrote all of the integers, yet i never wrote "2", so does 2 not exist?
of course it does
just because you didnt write an integer between 1 and 2, does not mean it doesnt exist. thats what you want to prove though
you need fundamental axioms, not just "i know everything this question is obvious and dumb" attitude
I think you're being a little uncharitable towards the OP there.
It does sound like they're not aware of how a key role of definition is to support proofs instead of simply to tell the listener which numbers we call "integers".
But I don't see them calling anything "dumb" or displaying the kind of arrogance you seem to be arguing against.
my brain is lagging
if i have 4 unknown numbers, which i know are each one of two options, and im summing them, theres no combinatorics right? i just do case by case (how many option 1s)
Hi everyone, I am looking for distinct solutions of the form (a, b, c) to the following equation:
(a*b) (mod c) = (a+b) (mod c)
I have come across one non-distinct solution, which is of the form (c, n*c, c), for some naturals c, n
by the chinese remainder theorem, it suffices to solve the equation when c = p^k for some prime p
How to prove there is no number which are prime but not irreducible
what is your definition of prime and irreducible?
n belongs to N is irreducible if n=ab then a=1 or b=1
what about prime?
P>1 is irreducible if a divides p and b divides p then ab divides p
this fact follows immediately from the Fundamental theorem of arithmetic, but here's a proof that doesn't use that:
Suppose p = ab where p is prime.
Further suppose for a contradiction that a,b are both not 1.
Then as p is prime p has to divide, let's say WLOG a.
Then a = np for some n, and p = npb.
but then dividing from both sides we get nb = 1, and so n=b=1, which is a contradiction.
oh ffs determining whether there are integer solutions for ax^2+by=c (where a b and c are given and x and y are the variables) is already np-complete
how does anyone solve diophantine equations
there is no general method, that's the fun part
Look up Hilbert's tenth problem
Thank you for responding! I must admit my number theory knowledge is basically non-existent, I have to learn what the Chinese remainder theorem is.
A follow up question, why would this be an equivalent statement?
That is essentially the statement of the Chinese reminder theorem
That if n = p1^n1 … pk^nk is the prime factorisation of n, then the set of solutions to a problem mod n is exactly the same as the set of solutions to that problem mod pi^ni for all i
So (mod 10) would be equivalent to solving for (mod 5) and (mod 2)? I will search this up in more detail soon I am slightly busy atm
Yes
Ah okay
The larger idea in which I am posing this problem is in the context of rings. More specifically, let R be a ring and let D = {r in R: r*r = r+r}
I wanted to know what D could look like for different rings R. If R was the reals then D = {2}
oof, that sounds like an impossible problem
in PIDs I believe the CRT still holds and you can do something similar
but in generality I have no idea
oh wait, you mean a=b=r?
in that case, you solve and get that r(r-2) = 0.
so if your ring is an integral domain then r=0 or r=2.
if your ring has zero divisors, then r, r-2 belongs to the pairs of zero divisors, and your problem reduces to finding all the zero divisors
and if the ring is noncommutative then the problem reduces to finding all the left and right zero divisors, depending on if you start with 2r or r2
wow
If anyone is up for a read, here's my attempted proof at proving Goldbach via modular seiving. Surely I've made a mistake but unfortunately I don't see it yet !!
Thus, the failure of the Goldbach conjecture for E is equivalent to the condition [E/2, E] ⊆ S.
...no it isn't (or at least you definitely haven't proven that)
that condition is impossible, because E - 1 is an element of [E/2, E] and isn't an element of S
Congratulations, you've just proved Goldbach!
i think the deeper problem here is that you're not really being clear about what claims you're even making
like i looked through the rest of it and i am not convinced that there is essentially any correct reasoning in this "proof" at all, but i'm not sure how to identify any particular problem because i can't even figure out what any of it is supposed to be proving
well yes i got that the point of the entire thing is to prove goldbach's conjecture
but that doesn't help with following each individual step
Which step
I think some symbols disappeared when you copy-pasted this text (from chatgpt?)
Ahh okay wait
.... To formulate a counterexample, a set S is defined to contain only composite numbers, thereby obstructing all potential Goldbach pairs. A modular sieve is constructed to replicate the exclusion pattern of S, targeting specific nonzero residue classes modulo small primes. The system is then translated by a carefully chosen K such that the sieve eliminates values in the zero residue class modulo each prime. For such a sieve to block all shifted primes, those primes would need to occupy a single nonzero residue class modulo 3. However, this scenario is ruled out by the equidistribution of primes among all reduced residue classes. A contradiction is thus obtained, invalidating the assumption of a counterexample.
So am I correct in saying this is from chatgpt?
Yeah
I'm just writing quickly cos I'm on the move
The proof is mine
If that's what your implying ?haha
Attempted **
Right right
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
Sorry I'm new here
Okay mate
What do you mean the proof is yours? Do you know what a modular sieve is, or what a reduced residue class is, or is that chatgpt speaking?
Yes of course I do I was literally just using gpt to write that comment cos I was on the move!!
I've been working on this for a while.
Okay, what is a modular sieve?
I constructed a sieve using a mod P residue classes to cover the composites
And then I translates the sieve
By a K
...
Please stop
This is rude
What else do you want
...he didn't ask what you did, he asked what a modular sieve is
Ita a system of modulii that sieves numbers in some way
Wait, who are you talking to? 💀
that's really vague
if that's all you know about what a modular sieve is, then you do not know what a modular sieve is
there are prerequisites but if you cant describe a thing in very formal, understandable way
or its properties how does that say you know something lmao
you said it is a moduli that sieves numbers in “some way” but what is such a way
perhaps this is the famed modular sieve https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zr2v2R7Z1j8
Time to move into modular machinery with a multi-block sieve to get easy Basalz, and upgrade our AE2 system to automatically craft for us!
:0 your into modded?
i looked up “modular sieve” and this was one of the top results
lmao
Language is not the same as understanding. there are millions of people that cannot express themselves in formal language but they are many fold more intelligent than you...
I'd rather live my life focusing on those claims about which people are able to communicate their understanding than worry about people who are 'many fold more intelligent' than me but for whatever reason lack a means to communicate with me.
Thanks to an actually friendly cough user on Reddit I have now edited the proof. I had made a fairly big error in the set up where I was implying the initial sieve covered compsoites, which was very confusing, when it was meant to be primes Q [E/2, E] Thankfully the translated sieve still seems to act on the zero residue prime classes , and create a contradiction in the same way. As the primes Q are all forced into one residue class ... Not all prime numbers [E/2, E]can sit in one residue class mod prime due to equidistribution .
Sure but never be dismissive before you've even smiled
It's the kind of "say it to my face like that".
writing about things and then publicating ur works are all about communication.
if you cant communicate with people well, how do you say ur doing a publication, or how even they know if you ever understood it

Nope this doesn't mean you can be rude still...be respectful. Talk to people here as you would to someone on the street...
I don't think asking someone to explain what a modular sieve is can be called rude, when the person in question claims to have produced original work using it.
This isn't what he was doing. He was being snyde and sarcastic and impmying I didn't know. He didn't say, excuse me , would you mind explaining what a modular seive is.
Cmon guys not rocket science
Implying *
If you claim to solve long-standing open problems, prepare to be grilled.
Noo even still....
I will be be grilled nicely thanks
man the fuck going on here
so i was messing around,right
and in a problem i recognized that if you just do nx-n its just n(x-1)
but im wondering,can you have an nx-c=n(x-c) for what c
What you've written boils down to nc=c
Yoo I found new formula now and try if it get many prime and see if it works, the quadratic formula is 6n²-42n+103
And I think it stop at n=34
So I’m taking number theory this coming fall
And the intro is all about PEANO
Is this considered elementary?
Description:Prime numbers, the unique factorization property of integers, linear and non-linear Diophantine equations, congruences, modular arithmetic, quadratic reciprocity, contemporary applications in computing and cryptography.
yeah that looks standard
the class itself will probably be skipping the peano part
it's not relevant to number theory
Okay
So which type of proofs this subject matter focuses on?
Induction or more direct?
proofs are proofs
when I am building a house you do not ask if I need more nails or screws
you just give me both
Hey
You know that thing
With exact formula for harmonic
And euler masceroni
Like
H(n)=log(n)+(euler masc)+(some exp tending to 0 as n increases)
Chatgpt wasnt very helpful
But when was this found out
And how
This isnt obvious right?
not sure when it was discovered
but the how is you just partial summation it
In mathematics, Abel's summation formula, introduced by Niels Henrik Abel, is intensively used in analytic number theory and the study of special functions to compute series.
Cool
Never heard of this
Choosing the right function also seems hard
Or like lucky
Whatever helps you integrate
i mean u pick 1/x lol
differentiate 1/x, and ur sequence is just a_n = 1
Oh wait
I meant in general
Like choosing to rewrite a partial sum as the product of these two things
oh i mean it's like a really common thing in analytic NT
so you get more familiar with it
the sequence will usually either be a_n = 1 or a_n = indicator of primes
Oh 
It's a product of messing around with asymptotic formulas regarding average sums that are "convenient" to use in number theory
You can check Apostol's analytic number theory book. He covers the basics there
how can i show that $(b-a)^2+(b^4-a^4)^2$ is a perfect square only if $a=b$?
Cobain
(b-a)²+(b⁴-a⁴)² = (b-a)²(1+(b+a)²(b²+a²)²)
For the whole expression to be a perfect square, if b-a≠0, then 1+(b+a)²(b²+a²)² must be a perfect square
I see. I tried that
I could see how 1+x² would result to a perfect square
wait what does perfect square mean
are they the numbers like 1, 4, 9, etc?
if some numbers a perfect square then there exists an integer such that the square of it equals that number
1+x^2 is never a perfect square if x is a natural number or some integer thats not zero
oh ok
since if there does exist one then $k^2=1+x^2$ which factors to $(k+x)(k-x)=1$ and the only factor of 1 is itself
Cobain
oh yea i see. true
Hardy has amazon account
Do y’all have tips for formulating proofs in textbook exercises
read through it and look out for accidental handwaviness
if ur proving something for the first time you should put effort into formulating it with as much relevant detail as you can
What do you mean handwaviness
sometimes youll phrase something and realize you left some detail out because you thought it was more obvious than it actually is
i do this all the time
sometimes ill phrase something and think its obviously when subconsciously im actually just not comfortable with writing it out with as much rigor as it demands
Ok
How does one proof that equality c holds for every integer
Work modulo 7 and 5, then combine them
(the fast way to solve this is to see that the Carmichael lambda function of 35 is 12)
I have no clue what ghe carmichael lambda function is lol
Lol, forget about that, it's just a teaser of future attractions 😅 Just try to form two congruences and see if you can combine them to a congruence mod 35
Euler's theorem for 5 and 7
Yes i did so
I kinda did something very stupid when i first tried it so thats why it didnt work
Doing something stupid is the best way to start 💪
😭
Did you try the hint?
number theory got me fcked up
i can't be doing these proofs bro 😭
i aint never done a proof in my life
What you working on
The exercise is to prove that recursive functions are uniquely determined for all f(n) that’s a positive integer
Sounds like induction
Can you reduce the expression (a + 1)(a + 2)(a + 3) ... (a + n), where n is a positive integer, to a simpler form?
$n!\binom{a+n}{a}=\frac{(a+n)!}{a!}$
Civil Service Pigeon
you can factorize 35 and then do it seperately
we know that a^4=1 mod 5 for all a, so a^13=(a^4)^3*a=a mod 5 and something similar holds for mod 7
Prove that there is no rational number whose square is 12
Let $r \in \mathbb{Q}$ with $r^2 = 12$. Write $r=m/n$, where $m,n \in \mathbb{Z}$ are coprime. Then $m^2 = 12n^2=3(2n)^2$. We see that $m^2$ is divisible by $3$, hence $m$ is divisible by $3$ so $m^2$ is a multiple of $9$. Thus $(2n)^2$ is a multiple of $3$, so $2n$ and thus $n$ are multiples of 3. So $m$ and $n$ share a divisor, which contradicts $m,n$ being coprime. Thus $r$ is irrational.
heavenly_lamb_61155
Is my proof correct ?
yh looks fine
Better yet, x^2-12 is irreducible by Eisenstein with p = 3 
lmao
But yeah there isn’t much to it lol
in your country, is sequences a lesson in the curriculum of a 10th grader?
Here's a cool combo/nt problem: Given sequence $a$ such that $a_1=a_2=a_3=1$, and $a_{n+3}=a_{n+2}a_{n+1}+a_n$. Prove that for every natural number there exists a term in $a$ that is divisible by it.
buboblakistoni
small thing, not sure if others agree
"we see that m^2 is divisible by 3 hence m is divisible by 3" on its own isnt enough, you need to say since 3 is a prime (and possibly refer to a theorem)
12 divides 6^2 but 12 does not divide 6
a little pedantic but still important imo
Ah i see
Does it work for higher powers? Like if p is prime, and m^k is divisible by p, then m is divisible by p?
yes
try it using induction
for example, for k=3, you have p|m^3 implies p|m or p|m^2. If it's the first then done, if it's the second, then p|m^2 implies p|m or p|m. In both cases we are done.
just to add more to ^ comment, a|bc means a|b or a|c if a is prime. set "a" prime, and "b=c" to get p | b^2 then p | b if p is prime. thats where this comes from. in class, or books, or online youll see it "Euclid's Lemma"
so in your original proof, i think you should say since 3 is prime and using euclids lemma (so 3|m^2 => 3|m) is properly cited
so now you have name, proof, higher powers
something to think about. if a^3 | b^2, does a|b?
what about if a^2 | b^3?
oh i forgot to completely mention your first line... I inherently just take that as the definition of prime ;-;
yes
no, take a=2^4, b=2^3
"Let a divide c and b divide c. Show that if a and b are relatively prime, then ab divides c"
Is there away to prove this without using the fundamental theorem of arithmetic? I want something more elegant and less overkill. I feel like I should use Euclidean division and bezout's lemma, but I don't know how.
Why is the fundamental theorem of arithmetic "overkill" here?
I know this sounds silly, but I'm simply not a fan of using the fundamental theorem of arithmetic for proofs
It's a weird personal thing
Bezout should be enough
So we have ap = c, bq = c and as + bt = 1
Just a hint on what to use and how to start would be enough
In the Bezout lemma identity?
Ah
Yup
The fundamental theorem of arithmetic is really strong. I also try to avoid it as much as possible
Any luck?
I have ||(as)(bq) + (bt)(ap) = c|| which becomes ||ab(qs+pt)=c||. So, ab divides c.
Thank you
This shows that the result is true in a bezout domain, not just a ufd
So really, FTA is overkill
What is a bezout domain and what is a ufd?
Ufd is a unique factorization domain. So basically good enough rings (integral domains) where every element can be factorized uniquely (upto units). For example Z.
A bezout domain is one where the sum of two principal ideals is also a principle ideal.
The main thing is, there are things that are bezout domains but not ufds (for example, the ring of all algebraic integers). The proof goes through for them as well.
You can look them up to get a better understanding :)
Could someone check if this proof is correct?
Seems okay
I like the statement, it's pretty neat. I think it implies that (n-1)! is always equivalent to either 0 or 1 mod n, depending on whether n is prime or composite
Wilson essentially gives an equivalence. (n-1)!=-1 mod n iff n is prime.
n=3 => (3-1)! = 2! = 2 is not 1 mod 3
why is (n-1)! = nq+1 for some q if n is composite?
n=5 ==> 4! = 24 = 5(q)+1, what is q?
^ did i miss something?
oh im stupid, i read it backwards
is there any example at all when its even true?
like for what n is (n-1)! = 1 mod n
n=2. I think the result I proved in combination with wilsons theorem could be used to prove that's only possible case
yea its the only case for trivial reasons
Since we need -1=1 (mod n)
the same reason soooo many theorems use odd primes 😄
imo this is a nothingburger, its never true except yea p=2
and thats not a prime reason, thats just a #2 reason
no numbers less than it
I never imagined 2 as being "trivial" member of the primes, but you do have a point
-1 when n is prime
2 for n=4
and 0 for everything else i think
hello, are you still looking for a study partner?
i'm under the impression that the division algorithm doesn't strictly imply (n-1)! = nq+1, for some integer q, rather it implies (n-1)! = nq+r for some 0=<r<n. (and integer q) Am i being silly?
That is correct. We subsequently get r=1 from the fact that (n-1)! mod n = 1.
This turns 0<=r<n into 0<=1<n. Obviously 0<=1 so we can scrap that side of the inequality, and 1<n is given in the questionnaire so we can scrap that as well.
Oh, makes sense
can i get help proving for fibonacci numbers (n choose 1)f_1 + (n choose 2)f_2 + ... (n choose n-1) f_n-1 + (n choose n) f_n = f_2n?
strong induction is getting me nowhere 😭
it looks kinda like binomial theorem maybe but i have no clue how that would be relevant here
no generating functions since thats a later chapter
how do i prove ts 💀
Think about how you can decompose f2n into a sum of f1 through fn
Do I just recursively use the Fibonacci relation?
Also, are you missing a (n choose 0) f_0 term at the start?
Uh maybe
Probably
Because the sum doesn’t look right without a n choose 0 term
You still use induction
If you want another hint, think about it like this
Try and understand what I’m trying to communicate with this image lol
I’ll draw a better one in a bit
@fathom ridge
hmmmmmmm
ok i think i get what ur getting at
it's like 2 sequences that r overlapping on the same fibonacci numbers that becomes like one bigger one or smth
also no apparently not
i mean at n=1 youd get 2 when you should get 1
or im acc not sure what the 0th fibonacci number is considered
but like yea
I’m pretty sure it means f0 = 0 then
yea ig f0 = 0 so that term is js ignored
ok can get a further hint on how to relate f2n to fn im js getting weird stuff
So suppose we have managed to split F_2n into a sum of some middle numbers
Let’s say a sum from F_i to F_j
Well the first goal would be to keep spitting it down further until the biggest term is F_n
Does that make sense
yes
so u js like keep splitting
and i think the coefficients are also fibonacci numbers?
So now, given a sum from F_I to F_j, how do you move it down a term?
decompose f_i ?
You move it once back, and then separately move it twice back, and add their sum
That’s just from looking at the definition of Fibonacci numbers
And that’s how you reduce the sum up to k into a sum up to k-1
yea but it gets like messy when u repeat it a bunch
So now the goal is to inductively show that you get n choose k every time you do this once
Well ok
So it’s
1
1 1
1 2 1
1 3 3 1
When you push the indices back
Those are the coefficients, and you are just overlapping the previous one with itself in the way I described
When you push the maximum index in the sum from 2n back to n
cause rn the thing id wtp is f_2k+2 = sum from i=1 to k of k+i choose i F_i
Why do we get binomial coefficients
There’s actually a very nice reason why this happens but I’ll explain that after you’ve proven this
Because the explanation takes longer
ok
i see what ur tryna say tho this does look like an easier way to approach the problem
i dont rly see how its induction yet but maybe once i work ts out itll become clear
but like rn as i keep going im getting fibonacci coefficients
like f_2k = f_2k-1 + f_2k-2 = 2f_2k-2 + f2k_3 = 3f_2k-3 + 2f_2k=4 = 5f_2k-4 + 3f_2k-5
yk
oh u like break apart all the terms at each step?
and it becomes pascals traingle or smth??
Ignore Pascal’s triangle (although that does give a neat visual proof)
Just prove via induction that the coefficients at each step are exactly n choose k
im sry i thin kim still a little confused on the process
from one step to the next does every term become broken apart?
cause i got different coefficients than you
Yes
We want to show that the binomial expression is preserved
Every time we reduce the maximal index
hm
so it's just like assume the current step is expressed binomially, prove the next step is?
Yes
ok
sry i gotta go eat dinner ill return with more thoughts in like 30 mins
ty for help
ok yup i worked everything out ty again
Hey so I'm studying about pseudoprimes, and I have a weirdly specific question,
Can there be any overlap between carmichael numbers, and lucas-carmichael numbers?
In case definitions vary, here it is:
squarefree composite n is carmichael numbers IFF for any prime p|n, it's the case that (p-1)|(n-1) is also satisfied.
squarefree composite n is lucas-carmichael numbers IFF for any prime p|n, it's the case that (p+1)|(n+1) is also satisfied.
That is unknown :(
ugh, thank you for the info btw!
how did they deduce b from a
If this holds for any b, then you just replace a=b^n, then rename a to b.
they say fix b>1 it still works like that?
i think u can just plug in b^1/n for (a) right? since b>1 => b^1/n > 1
Yup
That means it holds for any b>1. So yes
find x1,x2,x3 for which the equation hold
im stuck
like i can go calculate 2^16 mod 105 but im supposed to do this without a calc
105 = 3 * 5 * 7
yes i know that
but then using the chinese theorem idk english name
i will get 1 + 105z as solution
with z an integer but then i would still need to know which number would be an exact cubic
i tried to use congruence of euler thats how i got 2^48 = 1 mod 105
(chinese remainder theorem)
ah thanks
well that's what you get if you put in x = 1 mod 3, x = 1 mod 5, x = 1 mod 7
but there are two other solutions
OOOOOH
wait
can i put in
ok ehm nvm
let me think
nope i dont get how to get the other solutions
is there a different set of equations?
how do i find those
well from x^3 = 1 mod 105 you know that x^3 = 1 mod 3, x^3 = 1 mod 5, x^3 = 1 mod 7
yes i get that
so you can just solve each of those separately
yeah that gives 1+3k
1+5k
and 1+7k
nope
huh
those are all valid solutions but they're not all of the solutions
ok i think i know what to do but idk how to do it
cuz these solutions are for the equation x = 1 mod 3 but we got x cubed so we also need to include the cubic roots of 1+ak but idk how to find those perfect cubes
or am i totally wrong now
OH WAIT
ok nvm
istg i had modula maths
imma eat lunch
well you can just take each number, cube it, and see if you get 1
0^3 is always going to be 0 which isn't 1 so you can skip that
for mod 3, 1^3 = 1, 2^3 = 8 = 2 which isn't 1, so x = 1 is the only solution
for mod 5, 1^3 = 1, 2^3 = 8 = 3 which isn't 1, 3^3 = 27 = 2 which isn't 1, 4^3 = (-1)^3 = -1 which isn't 1, so x = 1 is the only solution
for mod 7... well you should get the pattern by now, i'll let you fill in this one
Yeah i had finally figured ut out
2 and 4 also work as solutions
But is there no trick for it? Just brute force calculate all the cubics of the numbers below it?
Ok now i got it
Now i need to check 1+15k mod 7 = 2 for which k
So 16 works
And 46 we get from 1+15k mod 7 = 4
So the three solutions are 1,16,46
Omg that makes much more sense now
Thank you
So I made this triangle where first I assign 1/2 -> 1, 1/4 -> 2, 1/8 -> 3 and so on. And then I assign any fractional number z the possibly smallest sum of the integers that are assigned to 1/n's whose total sum is z. For an instance 3/8 -> 5 because 3/8 = 1/4 + 1/8, 1/4 -> 2, 1/8 -> 3, 2+3=5. It's true 3/8 = 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/16 but that does not keep it miniamal.
What name does this actually have and what interesting properties can easily be found from this?
what i can immediately see here is that, for a fraction 1/n, the result z will be the power of 2 of n, assuming n's only prime factors are 2's. this would mean that 1/32 will yield 5, 1/64 will yield 6, and so on. if you want to calculate, say, 1/3, then you may realize that 1/3 cannot be constructed using 1/n, where n's only prime factors are 2's. this is simply because 1/3, when written as an egyptian fraction expansion, is also 1/3. if you would have, say, 2/17, the egyptian fraction would be 1/9 + 1/153.
Riight
I am gonna test what funny stuff would happen if I give 1/p natural numbers or really for any given subset of natural numbers 1/s for s in the subset
My ex also proposed assigning 1/n's primes, and then instead of sum, go with product to see what other funny shit would also happen
I'll do it at least after this week which would be finally the summer break for me
im studying about proving primality
and well this is a fun topic!
it's known that it's easy to do so, if p+1 or p-1 is easy to factor. (say p is the number you're trying to prove primality)
because if p is prime a^(p-1) = 1 (mod p)
and using its quadratic extension for example, the order becomes (p^2-1) = (p-1)(p+1). and I think that's where the p+1 comes from. got it.
you don't immediately see which is "better" to find some kind of large primes, like ones in GIMPS or PrimeGrid or w/e
so I run my code and ones that p+1 is easy to factor seems more likely to be a prime (than p-1 being easy to factor)? at least for primes of my interest?
for example
[p-1 is easy to (partially) factor]
2^n + 1 is a prime when (n = 1,2,4,8,16)
4^n - 2^n + 1 is a probable prime when (n = 1,2,4,32)
4^n + 2^n + 1 is a probable prime when (n = 1,3,9)
[p+1 is easy to (partially) factor]
2^n - 1 is a prime when (n = 2,3,5,7,13,17,19,31,61,89,107,127,521,607,1279,2203,2281, 3217,4253,4423)
4^n - 2^n - 1 is a probable prime when (n = 2,4,5,9,10,18,38,45,50,57,108,161,208,224,225,240,354,597,634,1008,1080,1468,1525,1560,3298,3329,3846,4129)
4^n + 2^n - 1 is a probable prime when (n = 1,2,3,4,6,10,16,24,26,35,52,55,95,144,379,484,939,1284,1300,2651,3644,3979)
and n was tested up to 5000.
Q: is there a reason that the top list looks a lot more sparser?
it's not only sparse, but it looks like the list "stops" - in a sense that I don't think there are more of them.
Seems like you found the 5 known fermat primes (2^{2^n)+1, note that that list has only powers of 2 and that is not a coincidence) and some of the mersenne primes (2^n-1, note that this list has only primes, not all though like 11 is not there)
I can't comment on the others yet, haven't checked really. But it might be related to the fact that we know only 5 Fermat primes but a lot of mersenne primes
About the fermat primes, we don't know if there are more. I think we can say similar statements about the others too.
Ok, ty for comments!
Made some things clear about 2^n ± 1 but not entirely sure about others still
hi, can anyone give me a hint please. I tried to prove that number is a Liouville number but i don’t if it is correct
||think about base 2||
This might be a simple question. But can an irrational number ever be rational in a different base. How about a rational number becoming irrational in a different base. Seems that the answer to both of those is no but I wouldn’t know how to go proving that
no, but that's assuming the base itself is also rational
but in general irrationality is something that is not dependent on how you choose your base (assuming you are choosing "nice" bases)
Fair enough. So the assumption breaks down in an irrational base then? Eg pi in base pi
Yeah fair enough
Ai overview lied to me once again ahaha
Not that I’m overly trusting with it, especially with math questions
honestly in terms of terminology i'd say, no, a rational number is rational and an irrational number is irrational
it's not "rational in a base" because the property of a number being possible to write as a ratio of two integers doesn't mention a base at all
Yeah that makes sense
an interesting question instead would be to ask if "rational if and only if the decimal expansion is finite or periodic" holds true in general rational bases. and the answer is indeed yes, as one would expect
if you mean the equivalent property of having an eventually periodic decimal expansion, then yeah i think that's equivalent to being rational in all rational bases, and in irrational bases you definitely get weird stuff (because like, "10" would be irrational)
It's pretty off the beaten path to consider positional systems with non-integer bases in the first place, though. Never mind the rational/irrational distinction; arithmetic becomes super weird.
so as it’s decimal expansion is not periodic, because you got a bunch of zeroes, the number it’s irrational ?
well, binary expansion
sorry i don’t get it
Your explanation was correct (if a bit informal), except you should have said "binary expansion" instead of "decimal.expansion".
Can someone help explain all but the last step
How can you rewrite the sum?
Which sum
Of course it’s the product but I don’t see how that helps
Maybe there’s a combinatorial interpretation to why ${2n \choose n}$ is divisible by every prime between n and 2n
just write them down lol
Every prime in the interval (n,2n] appears in the numerator
yeah so you get that the product <= the binomial
So each must be a factor of the binomial coefficient
Do you see how do you get O(n)?
yeah that’s just stirling
Digesting
does anyone know the state of the art for finding goldbach pairs
i found an approximate linear method

for some n=p+q, 1.85 * nth(largest_prime_divisor(n)) ~ nth(p > q)
so finding a goldbach pair for any given n is a quick lookup if you have a table of primes
the relationship itself is quite interesting. why should the prime indices have a linear relationship?
Nah haven’t gotten it yet
First try to understand the sum $S(n)$ of $log(p)$ over all primes less than $n$, by breaking it up into the sum over those between $n$ and $n/2$, those between $n/2$ and $n/4$, those between $n/4$ and $n/8$, etc. and summing the convergence series. Then notice that the relevant sum at the start may be written as $S(n) + S(\sqrt{n}) + ...$, where you have at most $log_2(n)$ terms in the tail of that sum
Nathaniel Kingsbury-Neuschotz
if you want another one, see if you can show $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{10^{k!}}$ is irrational. also fun thing this is also transcendental and "almost all" numbers are transcendental. thats irritating for intuition.
rochambo
I was thinking that, but what about the different coefficents on log p
WDYM by different coefficients? The fact that you sum for every prime power less than n, not just every prime less than n?
Note that I define S(n) to be the sum only over primes, and I handle the remaining terms (higher prime powers) in my last couple of sentences
ok so i was looking at this example problem. Why is that step justified?
is related to the inverse operatoin
If you multiply 10 on both sides, then the LHS becomes 100, which is 1 mod 11.
Note that the 2 at the end is the same 2 they already had at "2 + 10a10 = 0".
Instead of multiplying by 10 they could just have added a10 on both sides. The 11a10 on the LHS disappears since 11=0, and we immediately get 2 = a10.
ah I see
just to add another perspective, using 10=-1
10a = 9 (mod 11)
(-1)a=9 (mod 11)
a = (-1)9 (mod 11) multiply both sides by -1
a = (10)9 (mod 11)
so either multiply both sides by 10 to get 100 = 99+1 = 1 mod 11
do what i wrote above using 10=-1
do what tropo said about just add a to both sides so 10a + a = 11a = 0
James's number theory thread
Hello, I would be going through this course page in the thread https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/18-781-theory-of-numbers-spring-2012/
If interested, do join :)
is anyone here into vibe proofs
Wdym?
i might've just proved that 2p' always has a sum p+q
Then 2p'=p'+p'
well- yeah
well they aren't unique in general, 2*11 = 22 = 3 + 19 = 5 + 17 so there are multiple (p,q) pairs
hang on no this example doesn't work lol
i am too sleep deprived for this
fixed it
Get some good sleep
i think it's still progress and interesting, if my result works they have to be unique
Go on go on
the starting idea is that every n has some greatest prime factor k, and if you consider this in reverse, every k has some smallest n
empirically you get a linear relation between k and max(p,q) for n smallest
you can define a lower and upper bound for where the smallest n will fall to explicitly define that relation
for a prime k, wouldn't the smallest n that has k as its largest prime factor be... k
or if you exclude that then it's 2k
yes, and that is very handy
so the slope is about 1.85 between prime indices of k and max(p,q)
and you can bound it as [2-log2/logp_k, 2+log2/logp_k]
this comes from pnt and min and max reasoning about p and q
if we then consider some starting point where we know every k has a goldbach pair, we can reason inductively from there
if we suppose that the next k does not have a goldbach pair, we can show a contradiction
...how
deriving the gap and showing it contradict's nagura's
if no goldbach pair exists then that implies 2p_k-p_i=q_i is always composite
ok so how do you get a contradiction from that
take it easy on me and let me type, i'm taking painkillers and ignoring a headache
there are k such values, and they're all composite
2p_k-2 is the largest, 2p_k-p_{k-1} is the smallest
so we get a prime gap of (2p_k - 2) - (2p_k - p_{k-1}) = p_{k-1} - 2
nagura's says the gap is at most p_k - 4/5p_k
...by a "prime gap" do you mean that all of the numbers in that range are composite?
yeah, that has to be true if a goldbach pair doesn't exist
why?
if you want a more concrete question, why does the nonexistence of a goldbach pair imply that 2p_k - 9 is composite?
(for sufficiently large k obviously, so that 9 < p_{k-1})
9 should be prime, but gimme a sec
9 isn't prime, it's 3 * 3
i know but we're only checking primes
no
you said that "prime gap" means all of the numbers in that range are composite
and 2p_k - 9 is a number strictly between 2p_k - 2 and 2p_k - p_{k-1}
(for sufficiently large k)
it is, but p_i must be prime
i don't know what you mean by p_i in this context
when i write p and q, they must be prime
i'm responding specifically to your claim that there is a prime gap between 2p_k - 2 and 2p_k - p_{k-1}
anything outside of that is irrelevant
and you defined "prime gap" as meaning that every number in that interval is composite
so my question is why 2p_k - 9 is necessarily composite
and if that isn't necessary, then why is there a prime gap of that length
okay, let's arrive there from the beginning
actually let's not do that
if a goldbach pair exists then there is some 2p_k =p_i+q_i
you should be able to look at the concrete claims that i'm claiming you made and at least tell me which of them you're actually making
you don't need to explain the entire proof again
if 2p_k - p_i is always composite, there is no goldbach pair
ohhh
this skips values though doesn't it
so the run of values 2p_k-p_i for i<k will be composite
but there are values between them and whether they're prime, idk
exactly
well, at least i think it's interesting to show the existence of the 1.85 band
any issue with that reasoning? it must be composed of the smallest n values per k if it exists, every 2p_k implies a new k value and fills it (so there are no gaps), and its existence is inferred from the bounds
and it is still true that each 2p_k-p_i would be composite without a goldbach pair for k
perhaps there is another avenue of reasoning to consider
i guess this defines a goldbach prime gap
perhaps nagura's can be adapted
any ideas for showing a [n,f(n)] bound for goldbach primes?
hm, i found another interesting angle
assuming goldbach's fails for some p_k implies a certain count of composite values
there is a limit on how many p_k can fail before you overcount composites
so goldbach's can only fail for some finite quantity of 2p_k
(with enough failures, it would imply too many composites in the lower range starting from 0)
another idea: all the complements implied by 2p_k no goldbach must be smooth up to the greatest prime less than 2p_k
okay, progress
as we consider larger n whose largest prime factor is k, i.e. ck for c > 2, the complements defined by (p_k, c*p_k) grow, and must be fit into the same range (0, p_k) by mirroring. eventually, this defines more complements than k smooth numbers, yielding a contradiction
so every k has some minimum n after which there exists at least one goldbach pair
the joys of vibe math.. ask for the same plot, get two different results
regardless of which graph is correct, the reasoning is solid i think
i need a nap
this is close to proving strong goldbach
i realized an error in my nap but also a fix
the actual intervals should be, uhh, (0, c * p_k) and (c * p_k, 2c * p_k)
but it's amendable because the prime count in the left interval grow asymptotically faster than the prime count in the right interval
so for a large enough k, there is always a c that implies an overcount of composites in the right side
mm, never mind
honestly maybe i should write a little paper about the results already because it does show that goldbach's is actually quite profound and interesting
the linear relation is between constructing composite numbers using prime factors and building prime numbers using prime summands
and if goldbach's is true, the relation is proven
so this would prove, at least, that the conjecture is deeply interesting
that is to say, given any subset of primes, it's in a class of linearly related subsets determined by goldbach pairs
so you can iterate infinite classes of ksmooth spaces by goldbach pairs
this makes some primes quite a lot more interesting than others
break time
So, I was working on a problem to find the number of trailing zeroes in $n!$.
I started reading about it and stumbled on Legendre's formula for finding the highest power of $p$ that divides $n!$
$$\nu_p\qty(n!) = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor\dfrac{n}{p^i}\right\rfloor$$
I understand that I need to find $\text{min}\qty(\nu_5(n!), \nu_2(n!))$, but this line from wikipedia confused me
The formula actually counts the number of factors 5 in n!, but since there are at least as many factors 2, this is equivalent to the number of factors 10, each of which gives one more trailing zero.
Why are there at least as many factors of 2?
garamgaramsamose
oh wait nvm it makes sense, i am stupid
When you're trying to figure out how many trailing zeroes are in n!, the key is realizing that each trailing zero comes from a factor of 10 and 10 is just 2 × 5. So, for every pair of 2 and 5 in the prime factorization of n!, you get one trailing zero. Now, here's the trick: 2s are super common because every even number contributes at least one, while 5s are way rarer since only multiples of 5 add a factor of 5. That’s why we usually just count how many times 5 appears in the factorization of n! (using Legendre’s formula), and not worry about 2s there are always more 2s than 5s, so 5s are the bottleneck. That line from Wikipedia just means that since 2s are always more abundant, the number of 10s (and therefore trailing zeroes) is completely determined by how many 5s are in there.
b+|b|\ge 0. It can be 0 as well. But S only has those b+xa such that b+xa>0. So this does not show that S is non-empty. You have to tweak your choice of x a little.
I would suggest using euclid's division lemma to do this quickly (which hides the well ordering inside the proof of the lemma).
I did
|b| + 1, right?
if $\frac{a^2+1}{ab+1}$ is an integer (a,b integers and greater than zero), is a=b?
poka luka wan
it feels obviously true but I can't think of any proof for some reason
if a^2 + 1 has a 1 mod a factor, then it must have at least 2
but the smallest 1 mod a factor not 1 is a+1, and (a+1)^2 > a^2+1
are you still on the problem?
why does a^2+1 having a 1 mod a factor imply that it has at least 2?
since b can't be bigger than a (trivial), you have to prove that in fact b can't be smaller than a and therefore it must be equal. I did it by adding convenient factors to the numerator.
as in like say (ab+1)(qa+r)= a^2 + 1, then r=1
hey yall, is this a good time to ask what a trailing zero is?
eg 720 has one trailing zero and 4961000 has three trailing zeros
looking at $\frac{a^2+b^2}{ab-1}$ (integer solutions, a>0, b>0). why is it always 5 (e.g. a=1, b=2 leads to 5)?
poka luka wan
every integer solution with 0<a,b<100000
nvm solved it
Hi! Are there any lists of unsolved problems related to Pythagorean triples? I know at least two: 1) Are there infinitely many Pythagorean triples where all sides are triangular numbers? 2) Are there infinitely many Pythagorean triples where one leg and hypotenuse are primes?
not precisely on pythagorean triples, but perhaps related. the problem of determining whether N can be the area of a right triangle with rational side lengths
Interesting. Thanks
this is a stupid question but im really curious, can it be proven that if the sum of all digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the number itself is also divisible by 3?
forgot to add; if yes, how? lol
I'll just do the 3 digit case, you can generalise it to the rest.
Suppoes that "abc" is a 3 digit number such that a+b+c is divisible by 3.
Then "abc" = 100a + 10b + c = (99a + a) + (9b + b) + c = 3(33a + 3b) + (a+b+c), so "abc" is divisible by 3
It's easier to prove if you know modular arithmetic: it boils down to the fact that 10 = 1 (mod 3).
If (x_1, ..., x_k) are the digits of a number n in reverse order, then n = x_k * 10^(k-1) + ... + x_2 * 10 + x_1 = x_k + ... + x_2 + x_1 (mod 3), so n and its digit sum have the same remainder modulo 3
I considered explaining it that way but then i realised i didnt want to deal with the question of "what is modular arithmetic", so good luck lol
Lol, I think I also want to back out of that explanation 😅 kinda hard to explain when typing on a phone
Does a(2x + 3y) + b(x - y) = x have any integral solutions for a and b
are x and y variables?
or are they fixed numbers as well
They're just basis elements of a free abelian group G, I'm trying to prove this problem
in this case you just solve the linear system in Q
and by Gauss's lemma it will give you a solution in Z
Oh I lowkey forgot that lol
honestly thats simple and beautiful
Do you know where I can find an exact statement of this theorem? I tried googling it but I just got the product of two primitive polynomials is primitive
you read me well
there are a few equivalent forms
let me pull up my notes, but the version of it that you're looking for here roughly tells you that if you have an integer polynomial, then solutions in Q correspond to solutions in Z
Oh okay thanks
If f(x) is a polynomial, define the content of f(x) to be the gcd of all of its coefficients.
A polynomial is said to be primitive if its content c(f) = 1.
- Gauss's lemma (version 1).
The product of two primitive polynomials is primitive.
- Gauss's lemma (version 2).
c(fg) = c(f)c(g)
- Gauss's lemma (version 3).
If D is a UFD with F the field of fractions of D, such that f = g1g2 for some f(x) in D[x] and g1,g2 in F[x], then there exists scalars c1,c2 in F such that c1g1, c2g2 in D[x] and f = c1g1 c2g2.
essentially, it tells you that factorization of polynomails in the field of fractions can always be "normalised" into factoriation of polynomails in the base ring
actually, wait, is it even needed here?
lmao you don't need Gauss's lemma, you just solve the linear system
my bad
I'm assuming here that the idea is to argue either that at least one factor is not irreducible, or that we have equality up to units. I am having difficulty proving either of these in practice. For the first one for example, I don't think 5 +/- sqrt(3) is an associate of 2 or 11, so I should be arguing that e.g. 2 or 11 is reducible. If 2 is reducible, then there should be an element of Z[sqrt(3)] with norm 2, but I cannot find any with coefficients <100, similarly for elements with norm 11. Am I missing something?
2=-(1+\sqrt 3)(1-\sqrt 3)?
ah true thanks, I forgot we could also solve for -2
all good
What if you took a=0 and b to be any other integer? You would still obtain the integer 1 but clearly a does not equal b.
a and b are given to be > 0
I am blind
sorry, I don't know if this is the right place to ask, I want to know some number theory book recommedations?
Maybe #book-recommendations is more appropriate channel. By the way, now I read "Number Theory:
In Context and Interactive" by Karl-Dieter Crisman. It is free and has pretty good interactive web version. I don't have any previous number theory experience so this book is good for me
Uh wait is it even possible to write x and y as linear combinations of 2x + 3y and x - y with coefficients in Z
Am I trippin
ok maybe chat gpt is wrong
Well if I say a(2x + 3y) + b(x- y) = x and compare coefficients, I get a = 1/5
No -- the sum of the coefficients of x and y will always be 0 modulo 5.
Oh that’s nice
I wanna ask a potentially stupid question. why are primes so important? to the point where a ton of research has been done centered at them. As a newbie to number theory, my only conclusion would be because they represent the perfect chaotic system, but that may be a very stupid conclusion lol
I guess at a basic level cuz primes are the multiplicative "building blocks" of the integers: by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, every positive integer is uniquely factorisable as a product of prime powers. So for any sort of (multiplicative) question about the integers it is usually useful to break it down and consider it for primes. (But also just because they're very interesting to study lol)
divisibility works the best with primes
as a very basic fact, in general if a divides b^2 that does not mean a divides b
but if you can't say something as simple as that it's nigh impossible to prove anything about diophantine equations
but if you restrict yourself to primes, then it does become true
Okay so I will lay out what my approach has been so far...
I computed n(a, b) for some specific instances of a and b and was able to notice a common pattern
which is...
$n(a, b) = ab - (a + b)$
James
Now I think I need to go about proving the claim that n(a, b) can't be represented as ax + by with x, y \in N+ and that every greater integer can be represented in such a way
I think for the former contradiction should suffice?
and for the latter, I am thinking along the lines of induction maybe (not very sure about this)
what happened to the thread?
it's there i believe....i just posted here to get some visibility
Definitely you should learn McNugget theorem
https://artofproblemsolving.com/wiki/index.php/Chicken_McNugget_Theorem
Funny name lmao
I think there's just a bit of logic I don't understand here for the last inclusion. I computed all relevent quantities: we have $Tr(\theta) = 3u,$ $Tr(\delta \theta) = 3dw,$ $Tr(\delta^2 \theta) = 3dv,$ and $N(\theta) = u^3 + dv^3 + d^2w^3 - 3duvw.$ Clearly $\mathbb{Z}[\delta] \subseteq \mathcal{O}_K,$ but I don't see exactly what to do with these quantities to prove that $\mathcal{O}_K \subseteq \tfrac{1}{3} \mathbb{Z}[\delta}.$ I know that if $\theta \in \mathcal{O}_K,$ then $Tr(\theta), N(\theta) \in \mathbb{Z},$ but I am not making much more progress.
elliot
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
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this belongs in #advanced-number-theory btw, this channel is more for like basic stuff i.e. bezout crt etc.
but as for ur question, recall that the trace and norm of an algebraic integer are (rational) integers
so the goal is to use ur expressions for Tr(theta), Tr(deltatheta), Tr(delta^2theta) and N(theta) to deduce that u,v,w are in Z/3
Yes, I have a proof. View your equation 10^k x +y=(x+y)^2 as a quadratic equation in x with fixed y. If there is one positive integer solution to it then the other solution is also a positive integer. Both x1, x2<10^k. Then reduce them mod 9. The discriminant mod 9 equals 7, so one of the solutions is always x=-y (mod 9). So, x+y is divisible by 9 and by 5. Thus, (x+y)^2 is divisible by 2025.
I just need to prove that for odd k there are no numbers divisible by 5.
I would only have to prove this, I know from a computer program that this is the case, but the mathematical proof is missing
You won't prove this bc it's not true
say x=8784160, y=588225, k=7
Anyone online
no, everyone is offline
Noone can prove this
This looks false
13^3 - 13 = 3^7 - 3 = 2184.
That was fast, did U use wolfram alpha or smtg
No, there is an OEIS sequence and a paper about these
Michael Bennett, On some exponential equations of S. S. Pillai, Canadian Journal of Math. 53 (2001)
And
What does the paper really say?
That there are finite counterexamples?
I never read a paper before
No, it just says that there are at most two solutions if you take some c and a, b >= 2 and want to find x, y so that a^x - b^y = c. OEIS linked the article, I haven't read it, not sure if it states anything directly about the counterexamples you ask for
But just check OEIS, they give two examples
One of them is of the form you are looking for which I wrote down
I see, thanks

