#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 26 of 1
No, they're used all the time almost everywhere in maths. We used them since high school..
When someone does not know their meaning, these advanced university-level channels are certainly probably not for them.
bruh
i'd agree with the opinions of the ppl above here
ofc if u use them ppl will understand what they are
but a lot of ppl seem to forget that if u write a proof words would be useful lol
Proofs are polluted by too many words in natural language. Sure, it is a choice of style, but mathematicians must understand such basic formal language.
wrong
Definitely not.
First I mistook this for an advanced channel 
Proofs are polluted by too many words in natural language
surely this is not serious lol

It is obviously both serious and true. But nvm, I didn't mean to talk to students about this.
me when my proofs look like this
Misses the point. You could still structure that nicely.
This is an example of good proof structure.
Of course I know what they mean; at the same time I very rarely see them in textbooks or papers, and I think that’s for a reason. Keeping in the words “or” and “and” make things easier to parse for most people, and prevent overloading of notation in contexts like diff geo or top, where the symbols can mean wedge
this has to be satire
i genuinely cannot comprehend this not being a joke
I guess you would prefer to fill multiple pages with dense text instead? Disgusting.
yes i would good lord
You do realize that symbols are shorthand for words, you can write down a proof practically only using words
Of course, to make it entirely ugly, overbloated, unreadable, and harder to validate.
???????
Unreadable 🔥
proofs are about communication
this is prob readable if you know full well what each of these symbols mean, now imagine having to introduce another reader to whatever you are doing
this is why math literature is written in English
an alien writing things down in a box does not mathematics make
There should be proper grammar in a proof just like a text
So it’s not overbloated or unreadable if you take the time to write it nicely, after all we’re humans
bait used to be believable
You guys should realize that social proofs are not formal proofs (see this introduction), and they come in many shades, from purely natural language proofs to formal proofs.
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
im gonna start tweaking
don't tell me how to do my job
what you posted seems like neither lol
a proof is something that convinces my supervisor to stfu
weren't you a cringe mod for a little bit or something
valley have you just been in a time capsule for like a year
Mathematics is a social activity lmao
not human-readable and not a program that a proof-checker can read, what's the point then
idk 
have i seen you?? am i crazy
Don't make false claims about what I did.
Do you think Principia Mathematica is too much language @modern canyon
assuming the convo started from this, I agree that mixing up logic symbols for their literal meaning in English is kind of silly and hurts human-readability
silly, because they're defined as an operator in first order logic not as shorthands for phrases like this
if this is a troll they're the best troll since like, the balloon capacitator guy
and this is really funny
You told me
Mathematics is a social activity lmao
after I used the term
social proofs
for the usual way in which proofs are written.
Do you see your error?
but if this isnt a troll idk what to think
you come here and start yapping about how every professional mathematician since at least Newton have been writing proofs wrong
scratch that, since Archimedes
idt it's a troll just kind of pedantic about the wrong things altogether
I'm off this convo lol
bye deri!
Are you a robot?
I'm not trolling, you just suck at interpreting my words correctly.
u said this?
lord
Maybe try giving it to us in symbols then, big dawg
Natural language sucks, the issue is, most humans suck even more at formal language.
Question is what the research is for - humans or automation.
therefore we should use the word "and" instead of a symbol for it, right?
Natural language is beautiful
When I write a “proof” in a paper, my goal is not to give a completely rigorous argument. My goal is to invoke in the reader’s mind the right ideas to allow them to construct a completely rigorous argument, should they do choose
Definitely not. I do not want such ignorant people to believe they understand anything about my proofs.
I wish
Strongly disagree, but that's just a matter of taste 🤷
So you do have emotions!
Move on <3
move IN
The former
You sure? To taste or to disagree are not emotions. 😄
Oh so you’re admitting to be a robot then?
This essay by Bill Thurston might be of interest to you https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/9404236
Wrong, this kind of stuff is what I care about the least when it comes to mathematics. I'm not that interested in culture and history.
can you all continue this in #math-pedagogy or somewhere else pretty please
what's y'all's favorite cute number theory problem that looks difficult but is easily solvable w basic tricks
good to know! i'll be sure to give it to the baby freshmen to play around with!
actually might do this
that sounds really funny
The things in between ⟦ and ⟧ are literally formulas (the first being an axiom of a deontic logic system). I gave that as an example because it is impossible to give a good proof there in only natual language, and those that mainly use words just bloat it up unnecessarily.
The formal symbols used outside of ⟦ ... ⟧ are pretty basic — a good high-school student should already know all of them, at least we did here.
it's not about knowing them it's about being able to actually understand what is going on
sure if someone spends like an hour working through the symbols they might get it
but like
they probably just won't
and if they actually need to check it then it's a nightmare
unnecessarily
The proof structure is X <=> (A => B), and A => ... => B. There is nothing hard about this.
there are literally nested brackets that begin and end on different lines
Just like in every simple program in almost every programming language. Still nothing hard about this.
I'm not reading a program I'm reading a piece of text trying to communicate a proof.
But it gets messy when not using indentation properly.
this is not effective communication
Misses the point. It's not about what you read, it is about that there is nothing hard about this.
yes it is
says who
It's true w.r.t. common definitions of "effective communication", who says or believes it or otherwise doesn't matter.
what?
But part of this is "complete and concise".
do you hear yourself?
we should listen to merosity chat
or read yourself i guess
Which makes using many words instead it not to be effective communication.
if nobody can read it it's not effective
at least 3 mathematicians here have said explicitly that it's difficult to parse
Many people can read this. And of course it is not effective for those who hate formal language. But idgaf about those.
BTW, all programming languages are also fully formalized.
good luck in your academic career then
And many people love to code.
I would rather kms than having to deal with people professionally who hate formal language.
if you have ||prime factorization|| at hand then this becomes much straightforward btw
@everyone Find a formula that describes all fractions that kiss 13/31 and
are less than 13/31.
Repeat for all fractions that kiss 13/31 and are greater than 13/31.
Hint: How would you tell if one fraction is bigger than another?
i found the diophantine equation
31x - 13y = 1
and i got (-5-13n)/(-12-31n)
Yet to prove that
which represents all kissing fractions
but how do you find the fractions less than 13/31 and greater than 13/31 but still kissing???
whats... kissing... 😳
trying to ping 200k ppl for that is crazy work btw
ad-bc = 1
ok
and that's for fractions a/b and c/d I'm guessing?
is finding (a method to calculate) 2¹⁰⁰ #elementary-number-theory ?
maybe it is
So I counted at least 3-digit 4×32 (number of rules of my yellow pad paper) powers of 2
and I'm noticing a pattern
for ones digit it's simple: it cycles from 1, 4, 8, to 6.
For tens digit, it cycles every 20 numbers
For hundreds digit, it's every 68
But
in actuality, the cycle of the next digit begins after every 5 cycles of the previous digit
with an offset of 3 numbers
I've only done it to first 3 digits. Idk if the pattern continues to >3 digits
It could continue exponentially, I'm not sure
Well you can try to prove that there is always a cycle 😊😊😊
You are now almost like the greatest number theorists in history (Fermat, euler, gauss). First, did a lot of calculations and noticed some pattern. Then, proved this pattern.
You are 50% there 😊
i thought you're Merosity
imma continue this later
i think i miscounted this
it's actually 100, not 68
now the pattern looks more obvious
4×5=20
20×5=100
would the thousands digit pattern cycle every 400 numbers?
ohhh that's nice
I've been thinking when does the next digit start
now i see
wait idk
I'll just read it first
oh man i mistakenly said 400
should be 500
bc the pattern is u multiply it by 5
i switched up 4 and 5
I vaguely remember something from number theory that this is a corollary of
Some lifting lemma we used to prove Z/qZ for odd prime power q has cyclic unit group
I should go look back at that
@coral merlin It’s definitely a useful exercise though to try and prove that the periods of the cycles are at most 4•5^(n-1)
I’m happy to give small hints towards that if you are interested and stuck
if n is a Lucas pseudoprime for some (P,Q), is it a Fermat pseudoprime for some base b ?
prove that $ \exists \alpha, \beta : a\alpha + b \beta =1 $, then $gcd(a,b)=1$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
Any hints chat?
d=gcd(a,b) divides both a and b
wdym?
oh yeah, I need it, I suck at ENT
So I thus have to find $\gcd(a, \frac{1-b \beta}{\alpha})$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
Your question isnt even very well formed tbh
i take it you mean if there are integrrs alpha, beta s.t. a.alpha +b.beta=1 then gcd(a,b)=1
simply write down what it means for d=gcd(a,b) to divide a and divide b and maybe substitute stuff into the given equation
Ok, let me post the entire question, I just posted the direction I wanted to prove
prove that $\gcd(a,b) =1 $ iff \exists \alpha, \btea \in\Z : a \alpha + b \beta =1$
$\gcd(a,b) =1 $ iff \exists \alpha, \btea \in\Z : a \alpha + b \beta =1$
$\gcd(a,b) =1$ iff $\exists \alpha, \beta \in\Z : a \alpha + b \beta =1$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
I'm trying to show $\exists \alpha, \beta \in \Z $ such that if $a \alpha + b \beta =1 \implies \gcd(a,b)=1$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
for the other direction is trivial
so I want to show that $\gcd(a, \frac{1- a \alpha}{\beta})=1$
no, youre trying to show: if there are integers alpha and beta such that a.alpha+b.beta =1 then gcd(a,b) is 1.
whT is the gcd of a and a?
a
what if a is negative or 0?
||a|
how did you even get to this?
oops
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
the idea is that if d=gcd(a,b) divides both a and b then it divides anything of the form au+bv so it divides the thing on the left of your given eqn, so it divides the thing on the right
1 is on the right. What does it mean to divide 1
a,b are co-prime
1=xy, x,y are integers. what can you say about x?
x=1 or -1
hmm
how is the other direction trivial btw?
did you use the wop for that?
yes
okay
I've previously proven that $\gcd(a,1-a)=1$. Form which it follows that $\gcd(a,1- \alpha a)=1$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
I don;t see how this helps
a= ud, b=vd substitute that into a.alpha+b.beta=1
$u\alpha d + v \alpha d =1$
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
oh
okay
that was trivial
shit
thanks
so $a=k_1a; b= k_2a$, from which $a \mid b$ follows
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
if $ a \mid b \implies b=ak_1$. But we also know the largest integer that divides $a$ is $a$ itself. and that $a \mid b$. so it follows that gcd(a,b)=a
Mr bean is not $\R \setminus \Q$
is this fine?
hi, everyone is a factor of 0 because 0 = k * 0 right
by book says 0 is the only factor of 0
this is wrong right?
yep
or are there multiple definitions?
0 is the only multiple of 0 and that might be what the book was going for, but yeah i don't think there's a reasonable definition of "factor" by which 0's factors aren't just "everything"
wait is it possible that they’re defining their own definition here?
i mean tbh at this point i expect standardised exams to make less mathematical sense than most texts about mathematics
yeah i think the most reasonable way to interpret this is that their definition is just like, "a is a factor of b if b = a * n for some nonzero n" or something
for completion sake
oh
oh ok no that makes sense actually and you just read it wrong
but then how do they say 0 is a factor of 0
"0 is not a factor of any integer except 0"
so this means that like, 0 isn't a factor of 5, which makes sense, there's no number that you can multiply 0 by to get 5
oh
the part of this statement that's about the factors of 0 is "0 is a multiple of every integer" which is the same as "the factors of 0 are every integer"
i’m blind 
someone quoted this and said “only factor of 0 is 0”
they’re wrong right?
yes
(aimed at high schoolers btw)
I just wanted to check, but in the world of say mod 3, 3 and 6 would be considered the "same" right? like in the reals we never say 3 = 6, but in mod 3, 3 = 6 makes sense?
you can say they are in the same equivalence class
so now the question is, what's the equivalence relation?
<@&268886789983436800> just in the unlikely case this is some weird scam server
don’t advertise your server here
right right i see thanks
also what does incongruent solutions mean
hey i was just thinking about this, i know theres a bunch of weird names for types of numbers, so is there a name for a number n such that gcd(m,n) = 1 if and only if m is prime?
Well n cannot be composite (and >1), since any prime factor p of n will have gcd(p, n) =/= 1.
So suppose n is prime. But then gcd(n, n) = n =/= 1.
So the only possibility left is n=1, and gcd(m, 1) = 1 always.
So there exists no such number n.
Yeah
And even if you made m and n distinct it can’t work cause you get gcd(m,n) =/= 1 whenever m is a multiple of n
what makes you think about that
Could anyone hint me what to do for this? Im pretty sure i have to show that (c/p)=1
the groups U_n that contain only primes
like U_12
i made a mistake it shouldnt be iff just if
In the top you actually have Jacobi symbol, not legendre symbol 🤔 because a may be not prime.. but everything still holds, ok
Ok I think I did it lol
Since (a/p) = 1 then there is some d such that a= d^2
We have a^2 + b^2 = 0 (mod p)
d^4 = -b^2
Then d^2 = ib (where i is some sqrt(-1) mod p)
Then
1 = (ib/p) = (i/p)(b/p)
By euler criterion (i/p) = i ^(p-1/2) = i ^(p-1/4)(2) = (-1)^(p-1/4)
So (b/p) = (-1)^(p-1/4)
The name for such a number is 1.
So the numbers n such that 1 < k < n and gcd(k, n) = 1 implies k is prime? Not sure if they have a name, but it seems n must be highly composite, atleast for large n. The first such numbers are 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, unless I'm mistaken
https://oeis.org/search?q=3%2C4%2C6%2C8%2C12%2C18%2C24&language=english&go=Search
could be one of these sequences
yeah it's https://oeis.org/A048597
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 18, 24, 30 is all of them apparently
...it makes sense that there'd be finitely many because there's just too many primes
if p^2 < n then p^2 can't be coprime to n so p divides n
which means that for numbers above 25 they all have to be multiples of 2*3*5 = 30
so the next number you'd try is 60 but that's > 49 so it has to be a multiple of 7 as well, 30*7 = 210
so you jump to 210 but now that covers 11 and 13 so it has to be a multiple of 30030
there's enough primes that you're never going to "catch up" with this process, it will just keep getting bigger and bigger
in fact this condition is equivalent
if you consider any k then you can take its smallest prime factor p, and either that is k (we're done), or k is p * m for some m > p (because otherwise the smallest prime factor of m is smaller than p), which means p^2 is also < n
Find all positive integers k for which there exists a positive integer m such that k!+48=48(k+1)^m
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
Find the least nonnegative solutions of 2x+3y \equiv 4 (mod 7). I don't understand the question, if there was only one variable x then I can find the least solution x
least non negative?
yeah it doesn’t make sense to me either but i don’t know much number theory
i mean i guess you can just say like, (2,0) and (2,7) are both nonnegative solutions but (2,7) isn't a least one because (2,0) is strictly smaller than it
but (2,0) and (0,6) aren't comparable so they can both be minimal
Find all primes such that there exists positive integer m such that:
2(p-3)!+1=p^m
the (p-3)! being present makes me want to use wilson's thm
however it doesn't work
lte is too much of a curveball
ok this is very much a sketch of an idea
but rearrange to get
2(p-3)! = p^m - 1
then take v_2 of both sides
LHS is ~linear
m is even for p large enough
so RHS is v(p-1)+v(p+1) - 1 + v(m)
note v(p-1) and v(p+1) are <= O(log(p))
so v(m) ~ linear - log ~ linear
so m ~ kp for p large enough
then you get a contradiction with size
that's a very unrigorous sketch of a proof, but tbh it's not the cealnest
potentially someone might have a better proof
you gotta work with what you have ig
Real idk why they hating
unfortunately all Wilson's theorem says is when we reduce this mod p that it's true, since m is positive and -1 = (p-1)! = 2(p-3)! mod p
I also reached the same conclusion, #elementary-number-theory message
hey, so I am trying to prove the following:
Except I am stuck. I don't even know if the stuff I did is right.
here's the theorem. I used btw
oops I might have had the solution all this time but thought it was too trivial
I believe this is right
This "exercise" is often used to prove the theorem.. so potentially might be a circular proof...
for the second problem, why is it valid to work with modulo 25
instead of modulo 100
oh is it just chinese remainder theorem
wait actually no i dont understand it
yes
work mod 4 and mod 25 instead of mod 100
I am TAing for this course and a student was talking about the sequence of primes p_{2^m} for m in N. Does anyone know if this was studied?
for all m there exists at least one prime between the m and m+1 term...
sorry not that I'm aware, you could try plugging it into OEIS and see what pops out though, that's as good as it'll probably get
okay. Yeah I presume it would be really difficult
I don't know what's difficult about it, what's interesting about it?
Oh just showing that limsup(p_n - p_(n-1) ) = infty by looking at this subsequence
$(x^2-1)(x^2-2^2)....(x^2-18^2)=x^{36}+a_1x^{34}+...+a_{17}x+a_{18}.$
Show that $a_i \equiv 0 \pmod {37}$ for $1\le i\le 17$
somethingwrong
Any clues on what to do with this? I know that it having 1,2,3,..36 modulo 37 as roots might help but Idk what to do from here
hint: ||x^36 - 1 also has the exact same roots||
(note you do have to be careful since ||0 also has (almost) the same roots||)
I think using
m<p
--> v2(m) < log2(p)
Then v of RHS is all log and LHS is linear so yes there is a contradiction with size
What is the source of the problem btw
LOL
if I'm sorting a range of integers so that they descend by the number of 0s in their binary representations, why might it produce sets in a 6,15,20 pattern (i.e. always return triangular numbers)
this might make 0 sense I have visuals if necessary
this isn't number theory, check out #❓how-to-get-help to make a question channel for help, good luck
NicknamedTwice
i want to code golf this, but my C program is too slow:
#include <stdio.h>
int last(unsigned long long n) {
if (n < 10) return (int[]){1, 1, 2, 6, 4, 2, 2, 4, 2, 8}[n];
int cycle[] = {6, 2, 4, 8};
int result = last(n / 5) * cycle[n % 4] % 10;
for (unsigned long long i = n / 5; i > 0; i /= 5)
res = res * 6 % 10;
return res;
}
int main() {
unsigned long long n;
scanf("%llu", &n);
printf("%d\n", last(n));
return 0;
}
there are more powers of 2 than powers of 5 in N!, so the power of 10 dividing N! is the same as the power of 5 dividing N!.
A trick for finding the power of $5$ dividing $N!$ is called Legendre's theorem, $$v_5(N!) = \frac{N-s_5(N)}{4}$$ where $v_5(x)$ is the power of $5$ dividing $x$ and $s_5(x)$ is the sum of digits of $x$ in base $5$.
Merosity
getting the sum of digits in base 5 shouldn't be too hard, just c += N % 5 and N/=5 to pull the digits off one at a time
i see thanks
yeah let me know how that goes
it was midnight for me and now i have to go to school
but i'll code it up when i reach back home
that theorem was still too slow and didnt work for really big numbers
i found another method to do it though and it works with inputs up to 10^19
const int a[] = { 1, 1, 2, 1, 4 };
int f(int k, unsigned long long x) {
int r = x < 5 ? 3 : f(k + 1, x / 5);
int d = x % 5;
return d ? r * a[d] * (1 << (d * k % 4)) % 5 : r;
}
``` i used this to help https://www.mathpages.com/home/kmath489.htm
how´d you implement it? I just ran it myself and was almost instantaneous
doing it computes it for 10^10000 in 39 ms
for me at least
but I implemented it in pari-gp as this one-liner
f(N) = m=N; s=0; while(N>0, s+= N%5; N=floor(N/5)); return((m-s)/4);
that's some kind of insanity
you just divide by 5 and add, it's maybe only twice as fast but you look sane
f(N) = s=0; while(N>0, N=floor(N/5); s+= N); return s;
``` so like this or something
idk I'm distracted at the moment but I don't think that'll return the same thing
I guess maybe you're doing the N-s_5(N) all at once with that, or that's the intent?
i'm not trying to optimize yours, idk how it works
oh most of that is just getting the sum of digits in base 5
yes but i don't know why it works
so you need the s+=N%5 step since that gets the remainder when divided by 5 of N
it's just unnecessry complicating
is it?
generically speaking $n=n_0+n_1b+n_2b^2 + n_3b^3 + \cdots$ is the base b expansion of $n$. Hopefully clear that we can get the first digits by looking at the remainder when divided by b
Merosity
then floor(n/b) throws that digit away and moves the next one up and repeats the process
until eventually hitting 0
maybe there's a more efficient way of doing this you have in mind that I don't understand
we are both looking for the amount of trailing zeroes in the decimal expansion, or the power of 5
no
I'm looking for the sum of digits of N in base 5
$$v_p(n!) = \frac{n-s_p(n)}{p-1}$$
Merosity
the left side yes, that's ultimately what we want, but via the formula on the right
yes, like i ran your thing, it says F(72838) = 18205
oh ok, that's good
the idea is that you count multiples of 5 in 1..N, then count multiples of 25 then count multiples of 125...
and all the double counting matches what we want

I feel like we're back to here again idk what I can tell you right now
it's not more efficient clearly, because divmod is a thing, you can find remainder and quotient in the same time as just one of them (idk maybe)
just far less complicated
i don't know how to solve the original problem from here, that's the interesting part
yeah, it was pointless ok
I'm just busy so idk how your thing works yet
us has some kind of gender reveal party going on rn
neither of our things helps the problem
idk why you think that
LOL you're right I just looked at the problem no idea what I'm doing
whack, I'm going to suspend my posting privileges of myself from this channel until I'm sober 🤣
Prepping for an exam tomorrow and I'm a bit stuck on this problem -- split it into two congruences (x^2 \equiv 1 mod p and x^2 equiv 1 mod 2p+1) and tried proceeding via CRT but got stuck. Is this the correct approach?
Yes
what is the precise definition of a pseudoprime to the base a? Sometimes I saw a^n /equiv a (mod n), different sources wrote a^(n-1) /equiv a (mod n). For the first form I don't see they specify (a,n)=1 so that I can cancel a to bring the congruence to the second form
pari/gp is meant to handle for way larger numbers than C can handle
i was limited by the 64-bit integer size in C but pari/gp's arbitrary precision arithmetic makes it better for handling huge numbers like 10^10000
I think that's besides the point, the algorithm I have is just completely wrong so doesn't matter how fast it is
oh ok
Hey, can sb please give an explanation to this: Determine all ordered pairs $(a,p)$ of positive integers, with $p$ prime, such that $p^a+a^4$ is a perfect square.
Proposed by Tahjib Hossain Khan, Bangladesh This is a recent IMO Shortlist Problem (I think 2023), the official solution uses a lot of case works. Maybe somebody can provide a nicer solution or could explain the motivation behind the case works. Thanks! Best Julius!
Julius
Bro is expecting us to solve a imo problem 😭😭💀💀
is there a formula i could use if i wanted to find the sum of digits in n! instead?
is that even doable without storing the full number 🤔
or like how about the last k non-zero digits
should still be possible with modular arithmetic
i mean, ur effectively solving
$p^a + a^4 = x^2$
LY
a^4 and x^2 are squares
so you can do a difference of 2 squares
$p^a = (x - a^2)(x+a^2)$
LY
and then u can do stuff from there probably
i mean that gives you
$2a^2 = p^t + p^l$ where $t+l = a$
LY
might be able to derive a contradiction with size or smth
yeah then you get
$a^2 \geq p^{a/2}$
LY
if p = 2 you only need to check up until a=16
and then for p=3 a=7 is limit
p = 5 no sols
so only cases are p=2 and p=3
i suspect this'll be the official sol
lemme check
oh wait whoops messed this up
that's what i get for trying to solve it on discord lol
anyway yeah you look at p^t - p^l and then think abt what u can do with that
size is no longer something we can consider so try thinking about prime divisors instead
the official solutions with give like the best write-up but that's not necessarily how u should think about the problems
a lot of the times u just start by trying to do it and then it becomes clear u'll need to split into cases
thanks!
why is this part true
order(r) = n mod p^k
n | phi(p^k) = p^(k-1)(p-1)
I also agree
r^n = 1 mod p
so I thought we can conlcude is simply
order(r) mod p must divide n
and I mean I would also agree that
order(r) mod p must divide ph(p) = p-1
I just dont see how they have
(p-1) | n
n is a multiple of order (r)
unless order(r) mod p = p-1
is it simply the fact r !=1?
OHHH
I legit missed the first assumption
"choose a primitive root, r, of p"
order(r) = p-1 mod p
.close
by phi(5) do you mean the totient of 5
i see
yeah i get this, but how is it related to the picture
Imagine we were looking at 2^400
Note that 400 = phi(5) * 100.
So what's 2^400 mod 5?
It's (2^phi(5))^100
Think about what this means and how you can use it in your question
oh so in this case we know 2^(151*phi(5))==2^phi(5) mod 5
oh i think i get it
so 2^606==2^(151*phi(5))*2^2= 4 mod 5
Is solving Diphantine Equations in any way connected to other math fields or is it often (always) just for the sake of solving them? Or maybe applications in other sciences?
physics and chemistry
And in other math fields?
Guys I was watching a lecture on p-adic numbers and there was a strange thing
Basically a guy made a series $9 + 9 * 10 + 9 * 10^2 + ...$
and said that this is an infinite geometric progression. And used a formula for infinite geometric progression to conclude that the sum is equal to $-1$, since $\frac{9}{1-10}=-\frac{9}{9}= -1$
☀eek
Why the hell did he use it if the progression is non-decreasing?
And he also said that this makes sense since if we add +1 on both sides of $-1 = 9 + 9 * 10 + 9 * 10^2 + ...$ then the LHS is $0$ obviously and RHS is also 0 since we $9 + 1 = 10^1$ and then we pull 1 to the next summand, then $9 * 10 + 10 = 10^ 2$, and so on RHS becomes $0 + 0*10 + 0 10^2+010^3+...$
☀eek
And since all coefficients are 0, LHS equals RHS
This is so wild. How is it even an argument and why does it align so well with the formula for geometric progression? Is this a coincidence or it is what people do in analytic number theory?
the progression doesn't have to be decreasing
this formula is valid as long as it converges
But the funny thing that it does not, but the guy lecturer says it's -1
It's mind blowing
Ok, so this all boils down to the way how we defined 10-adic numbers and it converges only in this narrow framework?
Nah
the fact that it diverges boils down to the way we defined the real numbers, and it diverges only in that narrow framework :)
but yeah basically, it converges in the 10-adic numbers and doesn't converge in the real numbers
or well, you don't actually have to skip all the way to the 10-adic numbers
Thank you, you clarified me this huge misunderstanding
you can look at this in the rationals and just use the 10-adic distance as your notion of "convergence"
What do you mean "look at this in the rationals"?
you can interpret this series in the rational numbers
and just, instead of the normal concept of distance between rational numbers where the distance between x and y is |x - y|
you use the 10-adic distance
then the series converges to -1
the main problem this has compared to using the 10-adic numbers directly, is that some sequences will sort of look like they "should" converge but don't actually have a rational number as their limit
the same way that the sequence 1, 1.4, 1.41, 1.414, 1.4142, ..., can't have as its limit (under the normal distance) "sqrt(2)" because that's not a rational number
the point here is that
a sequence x_n approaches a limit L if the values of x_n get arbitrarily close to L, right?
but that means you have to define what "close" means
yes
and stuff like "9 + 90 + 900 + 9000 + ... = -1" are just the result of a different notion of "closeness"
I mean we can define convergence without using distance functions right
Only using topology
well yes you can
that's just not really relevant in this case lol, given that both the normal Q/R and the p-adic numbers are metric spaces
Sorry, I don't know about p-adic distance so I did not fully understnad what you wrote
I will reread what you explained once I understand it
As far as the 10-adics go, it's probably best to define the 10-adic absolute value first. Then you can get your distance from that and use that to define your topology based on that metric.
for rational x, you define |x|_10 = 1/(largest power of 10 dividing x). So for an example, |20/17|_10 = 1/10
another thing you might want to see is what happens as n gets large here? |10^n|_10 -> 0
on the other hand, this sequence of rational numbers diverges because it 10^-n will become large 10-adically. This doesn't necessarily mean there isn't a sqrt(2) in the 10-adics, just that this sequence of rationals that converges in the reals doesn't converge to it. There are many algebraic numbers in the 10-adics, although they will usually not share the same sequences of rational numbers converging to them. That being said sqrt(2) isn't in the 10-adics, but there are others.
Of course that's not unique to irrational numbers, you've already seen -1 has a sequence of rationals that converge to it in the 10-adics and not in the reals. On the other hand .9, .99, .999, ... is a sequence of rationals that converges to 1 in R but diverges in Q_10 even though 1 is definitely in the 10-adics
Hello, in this video I Solve a number theory question using a system of congruence, and I wanted to share it. For those who watch it, I would appreciate some advice on how to improve my content. https://youtu.be/QPAqng3HGKs?si=Y7ZmqhXwdvMitFJG
If you want to send questions for me to solve, please send them to 555amry.math@gmail.com
I need help with this question if anyone can assist?
Show that the order of 2 modulo F_n all less than or equal to 2^(n+1) with F_n = 2^(2^n)+1 is the nth Fermat Number.
$ord_{F_n}(2) \leq 2^{n+1}$ with $F_n = 2^{2^n}+1$ is the $n$th Fermat Number.
just fyi on formatting if you put _ or ^ to keep everything together use {}
ah kk
Suiadan
huzzah
For some reason I smell proof by induction on this (though it doesn't necessarily need to be a proof)
I think it can be done directly for n, but I've not thought about it too hard so could be wrong on that
especially cause I'm thinking I've proven that the order is exactly 2^{n+1} and doesn't seem like it's too much extra work to say that
so kind of suspicious I'm wrong since I've proven something stronger
well tbf there is no restriction on "n"
what have you got so far?
"By definition of order, $ord_{F_n} => 2^d$ is congruent to 1 (mod $F_n$) for some $d \in Z$.
This implies that $2^d$ is congruent to 1 (mod $2^{2^n}+1$) by substitution.
Note that, $F_n = 2^{2^n}+1$ which implies that $F_n -1 = 2^{2^n}$ by subtracting 1 from both sides of the equation, since...
Seems legit
This is targetting a different route than induction btw
Dunno if I can somehow use $2^{F_n-1}$ is congruent to 1 (mod $F_n$) by Fermat's Little Theorem, but I am unsure if Fermat Numbers are prime?
Suiadan
yeah looks pretty good, I think you sorta left some parts out here in the first line at least
I'm thinking you meant to say $d=ord_{F_n}(2)$
yuh, I should clarify that 😓
you're on the right track, I wouldn't worry about Fermat's little theorem though here
Nah?
we just need an upper bound and you're pretty close I feel
dunno, I feel lost on how to tie together the conclusion to my progress so far... 😦
you have 2 to a power congruent to -1 mod F_n
that's nearly 2 to a power congruent to 1 mod F_n
hmm
Merosity
Implies $2^{F_n-1}$ is congruent to $F_n-1$ (mod $F_n$)
Suiadan
oh it's "equiv" kk
hmm the F_n in the exponent wasn't what I was going for
I'm thinking more like comparing these two
$$2^{2^n}\equiv -1 \mod F_n$$
$$2^d\equiv 1 \mod F_n$$
Merosity
Implies $$2^{(2^n+1)-1} \equiv (2^n+1)-1 mod F_n$$
Suiadan
using the fact that (-1)^2 = 1
Implies $$2^{(2^n)} \equiv (2^n) \mod F_n$$
Suiadan
hmm
Cuz I think I know what you mean by this
I see, I skimmed over that
reduce your $F_n-1 = 2^{2^n}$ modulo $F_n$
Merosity
or reduce the definition of F_n from the beginning and rearrange it a bit
hmm
I could say that $F_n = 2^{2^n} - (-1)$ by algebra and by definition of congruences, we obtain $2^{2^n} \equiv -1 \mod F_n$
Suiadan
I think that's how you got that!
nope
Damn
mod 2^{2^n} is entirely different than mod 2^{2^n}+1
wait that was my first way
Consider this one
yeah that's right
Squaring both sides:
$(2^{2^n})^2 \equiv 1 \mod F_n$
Suiadan
yeah that's it
Simplifying:
$2^{2^n}2^{2^n} \equiv 1 \mod F_n$
Suiadan
$2^{2^n+2^n} \equiv 1 \mod F_n$
Suiadan
$2^{2*2^n} \equiv 1 \mod F_n$
Suiadan
Merosity
back to elementary school! 😛
yeah regular exponent rules but there are a bunch of exponents up there so I see the pain haha
Suiadan
yeah, now weird thing is all divisors are just smaller powers of 2, so I think we can prove this really is the order of 2 now
by definition of order, that d is the smallest positive integer such that 2^d \equiv 1 \mod F_n
Suiadan
hmm
but I realize why that conclusion I jumped to is wrong haha
I know the problem doesn't ask me for that but I'm curious
Is it by this proof that we cannot garuntee it?
nah, this just gives us an upper bound
we'd have to get more in depth in what 2^{n+1} is mod phi(F_n) I think to really determine the order
yeah that's what I was thinking on how that might follow
Thanks for your help @torn escarp !
you're welcome!
Prove that a sum of integers is odd iff the sum of squares of those integers is odd
@torn escarp
Why is this true

Oh this is obvious if u work mod 2
0^2 =0 and 1^2=1 mod 2

you're welcome 😉
It's unclear what a, a^2, ..., a_phi(n) means.
If you mean a, a^2, a^phi(n) instead, then this is clearer.
The reasoning being simply that all of a, a^2, ..., a^phi(n) are distinct mod n and relatively prime to n, by definition they must each be congruent to some a_i as chosen.
the one with subscripts mean different numbers
But you wrote a, a^2 with the two being superscript and then a_phi(n) with phi(n) subscript!
So again, it is unclear what that means.
This is just after your therefore symbol whoops, see below
The last line
the set with superscripts mean the powers of a while the subscripts denote that there are n different integers
I know. I am fully aware.
Let me explain one more time
On the last line you write $a_1, a_1^2, \dots, a_{\phi(n)}$. Since you put the last thing in subscripts here, although the first two appeared to be superscripts, it is unclear what this set is.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
Oh I am sorry
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
In which case, I have explained the reasoning here I hope.
Yes, you are right
But why? which theorem or lemma is being used to come to this conclusion
Or uh if I'm being actually correct here, you mean $a, a^2, \dots, a^{\phi(n)}$
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
Yes, this
You have phi(n) things out of a list of phi(n) things, so you have all the things.
I am sorry for the confusion
This is the correct one
Is this clear or no?
No, its not clear
a_1, ..., a_phi(n) is a list of phi(n) things.
Every one of the a^i is one of those things
We have phi(n) of them, because they are all distinct.
So we have all of them.
This is nothing to do with modular arithmetic and everything to do with counting
If I show you a list of 100 things and I show you another list of the same 100 things, then they must be the same list but in a different order.
To be clear, the proof you gave doesn't really explain why a, a^2, ..., a^phi(n) are distinct. It is true because a is a primitive root, so a has order phi(n), and if a^i = a^j for 1 <= i < j <= phi(n) then a^(j-i) = 1, contradicting the fact that a has order phi(n)
Is there an efficient way to determine if a high degree polynomial is irreducible mod 2? For instance, something like x^180+x^45+1 or x^36+x^27+1 etc.
Well these polynomials seem kind of special
i guess you could try like adjoining a root $\alpha$ of $x^4 + x + 1$
LY
and then adjoin a root $\beta$ of $x^{45}- \alpha$
LY
and try showing that $[\mathbb{F}_2(\alpha, \beta):\mathbb{F}_2] = 180$?
LY
just a suggestion
alr, I'll try that, thanks for the tip!
@everyoneThe remainder of 10 divided by 2 + 3ω. How do we find this?
what's ω?
@tranquil nacelle maybe try modulus, It's basically defined based on remainder. Assuming w is some positive integer; for w >2 the answer is just 10, and then for w = 0,1,2 it's 10 mod(2,5, and 8) so that is 0, 0 and 2.
Btw, was discord out for just or was anyone else unable to reply to messages for a while?
2+3w is a factor of 7, so the remainder is 3. (Also using a fact that 2+3w is a prime with norm 7, so all its residue classes are: 0,1,2,3,4,5,6)
@forest plank 2 +3w is a factor of 7? maybe w is not an arbitrary positive integer then, what is w?
Also, can some one help me with this, I was trying modular obstacle but I'm missing something or everything cause I cant figure it out
I guess w is the root of x^2 + x + 1 = 0
Hmm I think reduction modulo 7 works to get a contradiction 😊
I tried 3 already but I'll go al the way through with 7 this time
@forest plank It had solution mod 7 and mod 3 doesn't seem to give any contradictions, maybe there's some other way than modular obstacle?
I must be tired or something, I wonder what I did when I checked
Thanks
@forest plank I must have checked for x^2 - z^2 for what ever reason
can anyone proof that 1+1=2,is it even proved
you need to think about what the symbols 1,2,+,= even mean
afterwards the proof will depend on your definitions
Is it true that a*10 = 5 mod 35 iff a*2 = 1 mod 35?
No, only the <= implication is true. If 2a = 1 mod 35 then multiplying by 5 gives 10a = 5 mod 35, but going the other direction requires you to divide by 5, which is not possible modulo 35
a = 4 is a counterexample to the => direction
Can anyone explain to me why the proof formula on ECDSA just works?!! It seems so un-intuitive to me! Even on curves with smaller order it just works!
Are there any geometric patterns than can be shown when doing scalar addition or doubling when looking at the integer points ?
Opinions of this Collatz proof? https://arxiv.org/pdf/2008.13643
for this problem. Do I read it as (9^9)^9 or 9^(9^9)?
I know I just need to do mod 100
The second one
😭
The first would be written $(9^9)^9$, not $9^{9^9}$.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
I would have said the same for the latter unless there is some unspoken rule if we have exponents to exponents we work our way top to bottom
im pulling my hair out over this question
if d|a and d|b then d is a factor of their gcd
in fact its a multiple of gcd
and i can't understand how I can get to a point where d=0
d can be any multiple of 10, but this contradicts gcd = 5
and im stuck after this point
rain
that means $5 = dk$
rain
d is an even integer so $\exists k \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $d=2k$.
onlinebelief
So, that is a contradiction
yes
so hmm
rain
meaning $d$ is a factor of $5$
rain
there are no even factors of 5
right?
...yeah the problem is weirdly stated but "this situation is a contradiction, therefore d = 0" is a valid inference
isnt it $0 \rightarrow q \Leftright arrow 1$
onlinebelief
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
i don't know number theory but why is $d=0$ eeven a valid solution lol
rain
it isn't
is it convention
we havent necessarily proven $q$
onlinebelief
im guessing its convention or something
but i would rather say there is no solution
no i think the person who wrote the problem was just wrong
isnt it $0 \rightarrow q \Leftrightarrow 1$
onlinebelief
lolprobably
but the problem as stated is still true
what does $0 \to q$ mean
rain
it's just weird
contradiction implies q
there are no solutions, and therefore all of the solutions satisfy d = 0
your notation is not standard, what does 1 mean
oh 1 is a tautology
it would also have been valid for the problem to end with "Prove d = 7"
i understand ur going for a vacuous solution but i dont agree
thats like saying $x^2+1=0$ for real $x$ satisfies $x=2$ because no solution
rain
@ember trellis what is your confusion?
do you agree that no positive integer can be d?
there is a contradiction with the hypothesis
how would we prove d=0 if we cant use the hypothesis
we can use the hypothesis, to get a contradiction, and then a contradiction implies everything
or an equivalent view: we can prove d=0 by assuming d != 0 and then deriving a contradiction, which in this case can be done by completely ignoring the hypothesis that d != 0
what about for mod n
(sorry didnt read anything prior)
Does zero count as a quadratic residue of n?
Just curious because I feel like it makes some case work some proofs annoying about whether I can assume gcd(a,n)=1
Depends on the author
It doesn't really matter because the zero case is always trivial
The hint for this problem suggest to me the author doesn't even consider a = 0 mod p
Something like this question is why I asked
Because a' won't exist if it isn't a is. Multiple of p
Yes
Then the author doesn't consider zero a QR
any hints as to how one would go about proving that the sum of coefficients of a trinomial expansion (a+b+c)^n is 3^n (for n>=3)?
Hint: ||think of it as a function of a,b, and c||
This one ruins it : ||evaluate this function at a certain nice point||
This holds true for n = 1 and 2 also, btw
and for n=0
Indeed
Each term is:
n!/(i! j! k!) * x^i * y^j * z^k
So the sum of all coefficients is summation(n!/(i! j! k!))
(i + j + k) = n
That is right, what i am saying is, think of it as a function depending on a,b, and c. Now what is the advantage of thinking about it as a function? You can do a certain very nice thing with these functions
you can evaluate the function for different values of the variables?
sorry if this sounds stupid but we'd get 3^n if x=y=z=1 but I'm not sure how that makes sense for a general case
When you expand $f(a,b,c)=(a+b+c)^n$, you will get a sum $f(a,b,c)=\sum_{\overset{i+j+k = n}{0 \leq i,j,k \leq n}}a_{i,j,k}a^{i}b^{j}c^{k}$ and we want to determine $\sum_{\overset{i+j+k = n}{0 \leq i,j,k \leq n}}a_{i,j,k}$ which is precisely $f(1,1,1)=3^n$
quicdoom
1 and 0 are great numbers. You can infact evaluate the coefficients of just the terms with powers of a and b but not of c, and other nice things
I've been thinking--would it be possible to find the number of terms for given n where i or j or k = 0?
That is a nice question that leads into a very nice concept. Lets say i=0, then we want to find the number of terms that only have indices of j and k. That is, we want to find the number of solutions to j+k=n, 0<=j,k<=n(why?). Now that we have reduced it to a problem about solutions to an equation, try to think of a way to solve this
This is possible and has nice generalisations
is the total number of terms 3(n+2) for n>0?
Now we can generalise to ask, what is the number natural of solutions to the equation x1+x2+...+xk = n, for k <= n?
This is a relavant wikipedia article, and theorem 1 is what i just asked you about above.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stars_and_bars_(combinatorics)
is there a way to find these 3(n+2) terms (or their sum maybe)
There are two methods to the solution. One is what is known as stars and bars and anothee very powerful technique of generating functions
Well you know the terms, since you know the trinomial coefficient. For their sum, think back to what we just did
but I... don't know the terms
You do,
Do you want their sum? Then read what i wrote for the sum part
Evaluate the function at nice points
I do
What would be a good point to evaluate the function at , for the sum of terms with only j and k indices and i=0
j=0? but that doesn't make sense
oh right
by the way, was the 3(n+2) expression correct?
for n=3 at least it isn't matching
Oh wait i miscounted, its 3(n+1)
i+j=3 has 4 solutions (0,3),(1,2),(2,1),(3,0). Similarly there are 4 for j+k=3 and 4 for k+i=3 so in total there are 12 = 3(4)=3(3+1) solutions
there are n+1 solutions to i + j = n (similarly for j + k = n and i + k = n) so total 3(n+1) solutions
but there's also 3 more cases where k or j or i = n (so i+j=0 and so on)
so shouldn't the total number of such terms be 3(n+1) + 3?
You are trying to solve i+j=n for 0<=i,j<=n
Where are 3 variables at a time coming in form
You are not simultaneous solving anything here
yes, it should be just 3(n+1)
didn't realize I was recounting 3 cases
but even then, it doesn't match
for (x+y+x)^3
the number of terms where i or j or k = 0 is 9
using the formula, it should be 12
I checked for n=3 and n=4, and it seems 3n gives the number of terms where i or j or k = 0
That formula wont work here. If you apply it here you are double counting the solutions that look like (2,1) (alternatively (1,2)). They appear once extra 3 times. So you have 12-3 =9
That formula just gave you the number of nonnegative solutions to i+j=n
I read up on stars and bars
Using that we get the ||number of terms which have at least one of i, j, k = 0 as (n+1)(n+2)/2 - (n-1)C3||
also noticed that there's a pattern which we can use to figure out ||the (n+1)(n+2)/2 term (i.e. total number of non-negative solutions):
for n=1, solns = 3
for n=2, solns = 4
for n=3, solns = 6
for n=4, solns = 10, and so on
the number of non-negative solutions are in an AP where the common difference is in AP as well (with common difference 1). If we find t_n we get the same term (n+1)(n+2)/2||
for the sum of terms ||this does work, yeah. We get 2^n as the sum for i=0, and similarly for j=0 and k=0, so sum of all required terms = 3 * 2^n - 3 (because we're counting (i, j), (j, k), (i, k) = (0, 0) each one extra time||
||Since the total number of terms is 3^n, we can just subtract the expression we obtained above to get the sum of terms where i, j, k > 0.||
So the final expression seems to be ||3^n - 3*2^n + 3|| which does give the expected results
Dinosavr
Then what
ooooooh Assume by contradiction that $m$ is a perfect number. We'll write $n=m \cdot r$ for some natural $r >1$. Then $$\sigma(n)=\sum_{d \mid n}d\neq \sum_{d \mid m} dr=r \sum_{d\mid m}d=r\sigma(m)=2qr=2n$$. Thus we got than $\sigma(n)\neq2n$
Dinosavr
Dinosavr
for r > 1, shouldn't it be m = nr since m | n?
m | n means m divides n
Assuming $m$ is a perfect number, sum of all proper divisors of $n$:
$$\sigma(n) - n = n = 2m + \sum_{d \mid n, d \nmid m} d $$
$$\sum_{d \mid n, d \nmid m} d = n-2m = k (say)$$. $k>0$ but $n-2m < 0$ (???)
where am I going wrong?
DumbledoreSaidCalmly
Suppose $m$ were perfect. Since $m | n$ and $m \neq n$, we can write $n = km$ for some $k>1$. We can write some divisors of $n$ explicitly by using the fact that $d | m \implies kd | n$, and the sum of divisors of this form can be simplified as $\sum_{d | m} kd = k \sum_{d | m} d = 2km$. This gives us that $\sum_{d | n} d \geq 2km$, and furthermore, since $1 | d$ but $1 \neq kd$, we have that $\sum_{d | n} d + 1 \geq 2km$. This, however, means that $\sum_{d | n} d > 2km$ and thus $\sum_{d | n} d \neq 2n$, therefore $n$ cannot be perfect.
FEIN FEIN FEIN FEIN FEIN FEIN FE
should work
And if you restate the question equivalently as like “show that if n is a multiple of a perfect number m such that n>m then n cannot itself be perfect” then it’s just like a direct proof
Fun problem
Yeah this is the strategy I took as well
you got the gist of it but need to justify the “sum of d =/= sum of dr” step
I just chose like the simplest thing that divides n but can’t be of the form dr which is 1 and that’s enough to give a strict inequality
Use the fact that a/b mod m will be an integer n satisfying bn \equiv a mod m whenever b and m are coprime (which in this case they are cause gcd(15,11) = 1)
I have a basic doubt in Cryptography specifically the SHA-512 topic. Can anyone help regarding that topic?
well probably if you ask an actual question someone can help with that question
Ok well, from what I know, in SHA 512, the padded message consists of the actual message + padding + 128 bits for length such that the length of this entire thing is a multiple of 1024.
In my book its also written that we pad a message so that its length remains congruent to 896 modulo 1024.
How can both these statements be true simulaneously?
Like suppose if we have a message of length say 1700 bits. If we want to make it congruent to 896, we will need to add (896*2 - 1700) i.e. 92 bits of padding. And 128 bits is fixed for length. This means that the length of the final message is (1792+128) = 1920 which is not equal to a multiple of 1024
Am I missing something somewhere?
if you add 92 bits of padding, then the length of the message is 1792, which is not congruent to 896 mod 1024
the correct amount of padding is 1024 + 896 - 1700 = 220 bits, and then 1700 + 220 + 128 = 2048 is a multiple of 1024
how would i undo the affine cipher
like if i have (u*x + v) % m and then i have u v and m
actually let me think harder lmao
i think i got it
Im working on decrypting a message that was encoded using El Gamal. I was given p, alpha, beta, r and t. The value of r is relatively small, so I think i should be solving the discrete log on r = alpha^k mod p. However, p has about 150 digits, so sage or alptertron can't do it in a reasonable amount of time. p is also 3 mod 4, so I am not really sure how to proceed with this.
i figured it out.
@everyone Let p be a prime prime with p ̸ ≡ 1 (mod 7). Prove that every integer is a seventh power
modulo p. In other words, prove that for every a ∈ Z, there exists x ∈ Z such that x7 ≡ a
(mod p).
Hint: In the case p ∤ a, use the extended Euclidean algorithm on GCD(p − 1, 7) and Fermat’s
Little Theorem.
l need help with this question
if you mind sending the proof that would be amazing
what have you tried so far
i tried starting off with the 7 does not divide p -1 and then use EEA
and l dont know how to write the a = qb + r
I don't think you really need to go through the algorithm, I think they just want you to see there's an m and n such that m(p-1)+n7=1 and use this
does that make sense how you could use that if you think of the exponents @tranquil nacelle?
i mean, an alternate soln would be
||show that x^7 = 1 mod p => x = 1 mod p||
||then think about why that's enough||
you can also ||take a primitive root||
since OP bailed I'll just finish it for everyone else here. This means n is an inverse to 7 mod p-1, so if you want to find x^7 = a mod p you just need to raise both sides to n and get x=a^n mod p.
in an artical im reading it gives an alternative form of the continued fraction of e
where the first 2 has been split into 1,0,1
ofc this means that the second convergent p1/q1 is not defined
the author asserts this is fine and it doesnt matter
why can we disregard the fact we cant truncate it at 1?
Suppose I have a sequence 0.1, 0.11, 0.111, 0.1111, etc.
I claim that this converges to some value.
But notice that I could throw away any number of initial values in the sequence
I could start at 0.111111111111111111111 and carry on from there and I'd still get the same value on convergence.
The same thing is happening here.
We are just ignoring some initial terms. They do not matter. Only the behaviour in the limit matters, and that is preserved.
(Paradoxically, you could throw away any finite number of the terms in any sequence, and the limit is still the same. So in some sense none of the terms matter)
i just find it weird to have it set up so that one of the convergents is undefined
but yh, the limit wont change
Hi
Hello. I would like to proove that if
A1 congruent to a2 mod m
And
B1 congruent to b2 mod m
Then
A1 +/- b1 and a2 +/- b2 mod n
And
A1 × b1 congruent to a2 × b2 mod n
Is my solution corrrct please?
I think correct
Great! Thanks you very much!
Could i reuse same method for addition and multiplication please?
It's not correct, you seem to write a1 - a2 = mx and b1 - b2 = my, then (a1 - a2) - (b1 - b2) = mxy, which is just wrong. Also it's very hard to read because of
- blurryness
- your handwriting
- you're using x both as a variable and as multiplication
- lack of any explanation between the equations. A proof should use natural language, it shouldn't be just symbols
let me rewrite in latex please then
let $a_1 \equiv a_2 \mod n$ and $b_1 \equiv b_2 \mod n \newline$
then $n \mid a_1 - a_2$ and $n \mid b_1 - b_2 \newline$
so:
$a_1 - a_2 = n \mul x \newline$
$b_1 - b_2 = n \mul y \newline$
so:
$a_1 - a_2 = n \mul x \newline$
$b_1 - b_2 = n \mul y \newline$
latex is not generated anymore!!!
let $a_1 \equiv a_2 \mod n$ and $b_1 \equiv b_2 \mod n \newline$
then $n \mid a_1 - a_2$ and $n \mid b_1 - b_2 \newline$
so:
$a_1 - a_2 = n \mul x \newline$
$b_1 - b_2 = n \mul y \newline$
so:
$a_1 - a_2 = n \mul x \newline$
$b_1 - b_2 = n \mul y \newline$
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untils there is there a mistake please?
Yes, it's true that there exist $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $a_1 - a_2 = nx$ and $b_1 - b_2 = ny$. Now what?
Cufflink
but not for any?
Not for any, yes. For some specific x and y.
Don't ask us. If you think it's true for "any" x, try out a few values as a sanity check. Is it true that if n | a-b then a-b = x*n for any integer x?
Ok, well, try a = 100 and b = 75. 5 divides 100 - 75. Is it true that 100 - 75 = x*5 for any integer x?
1 congruent 13 mod 12
1 = 13 - 12 and not 12 divides 1 - 12
then no there is a mistake
or 11 = 12 multiplicated by x
that could only be wrong
12 = 1 - 13
no it is right
Something like
100 - 75 = x*5for any integerx
should appear immediately incorrect. You have a specific number on the left-hand side and you have a variable on the right-hand side that you can make any value you choose. The right-hand side will be a different value for each x you care to choose.
12 = 1 - 13
12 = 1 - 13 x 1 = 12
12 doesn't equal 1 - 13
-12 sorry
Yes, it's true that 1 - 13 is divisible by 12. That doesn't mean 1 - 13 = x*12 for any integer x.
In fact, there's exactly one integer x for which it's true: x = -1
It's false for every other value of x.
12 = 1 - 13 + 12 mul 2
then yes it is ok
because 2 - 3 = - 1 and then 2 cong 3 mod 12 = 2 - 3 + 12 = 11
could rewrite so that n divides a1 + a2 mod n please?
1 - 13 =mod 12 = -1 + 12 = 11. is it correct
please?
I don't know what you're trying to express.
I would like to reexpress this formula
I mean that 6 + 9 = 3 because 6 cong 9 = 3 as 6 + 9 = 15 - 12 then 15 - 12 = 3
ahhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh ok!
a cong b mod n
means:
a is the remainder of b divided by n
then
ah no
ok!
I see my mistake
I litterally ignore what is a umodulo!!!!!
a cong b mod n means actually that if a divided by n, remains b


